M1, S1, C2 - Flight Rules

Question 1

UK airspace is divided into…

Answer 1

…2 Flight Information Regions.

Question 2

Within each FIR the airspace…

Answer 2

…below FL245 is known as the Lower FIR and that at and above FL245 as the Upper FIR (UIR).

Question 3

The classification of the airspace within an FIR determines the flight rules which apply and the minimum services that are to be provided. These are summarised below:

Answer 3

Class A - IFR only - ATC Clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions - Separate all aircraft from each other

Class B - IFR/VFR - ATC Clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions - Separate all aircraft from each other

Class C - IFR/VFR - ATC Clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions - (A) Separate IFR from IFR and VFR (B) Separate VFR from IFR (C) Pass TI to VFR on VFR and give Traffic avoidance advice if requested

Class D - IFR/VFR - ATC Clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions - (A) Separate IFR from IFR (B) Pass TI to IFR and SVFR on VFR and give Traffic avoidance advice when requested (C) Pass TI to VFR on all other flights and provide Traffic avoidance advice when requested

Class E - IFR/VFR - IFR flights to obtain ATC Clearance before entry and comply with ATC instructions. VFR flights do not require clearance - (A) Separate IFR from IFR (B) to IFR flights: pass TI and if requested you the pilot or when deemed necessary by the controller, suggest traffic avoidance advice on participating and non-participating VFR flights (C) to VFR flights: provide TI in accordance with CAP 774 UK FIS

Class F - IFR/VFR - Participating IFR flights are expected to comply with ATC instructions - Separation provided as far as practicable between participating IFR flights

Class G - IFR/VFR - None - None

Question 4

Notwithstanding the minimum service requirements associated with each airspace classification, the primary objective of air traffic services is to prevent collisions between aircraft. In support of this objective, on any occasion a controller considers it necessary in the interests of safety…

Answer 4

…TI and, where appropriate, traffic avoidance advice shall be provided.

Pilots are responsible for collision avoidance and should be aware of the existence of factors that might adversely affect the ability of a controller to detect a collision hazard and provide timely and accurate TI, and when a surveillance-based ATS is being provided, traffic avoidance advice.

Question 5

Aircraft flying below FL100 are required to observe, with exceptions…

Answer 5

…a speed limit of 250kt IAS.

Such a limit is an essential component of the ‘see and avoid’ principle when separation is not established by ATC.

This is in addition to speed limits which may be notified for specific procedures.

Question 6

The 250kt speed limit does not apply to:

Answer 6

1) flights in Class A and B
2) IFR flights in Class C
3) for exempted VFR flights in Class C, when authorised by an ATC unit IAW MATS 2
4) for exempted flights in Class D, when authorised by an ATC unit IAW MATS 2
5) test flights IAW specified conditions
6) aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA
7) aircraft subject to a written permission granted by the CAA
8) State aircraft, such as military aircraft

Question 7

Controllers may only relax the 250kt speed limit when…

Answer 7

…they are satisfied that they are in contact with all aircraft in the relevant part of the airspace.

VFR flights in the vicinity are to be warned about aircraft flying at a higher speed.

Question 8

An airspace speed limit must not be relaxed by ATC for flights…

Answer 8

…which will be transiting from a known traffic environment, eg Class A, into airspace where the ‘see and avoid’ principle operates as the primary means of separation.

Question 9

In Class E/F/G airspace, conflicting traffic may not be known to ATC and so it is necessary for all flights to make use of the ‘see and avoid’ principle. In order for this to operate effectively…

Answer 9

…controllers shall not authorised a relaxation of the airspace speed limit.

Question 10

In certain cases, speed limits are published for specific ATC procedures for a number of reasons. For example:

Answer 10

1) a speed limit of 250kt is applied to published SID procedures to assist in the initial provision of separation between successive departures
2) a speed limit of 250kt is applied to some STAR procedures to assist ATC in the integration of traffic flows
3) some holding patterns have non-standard maximum holding speeds for containment within CAS or separation from adjacent routes or procedures.
4) some instrument approach procedures have non-standard maximum speeds for obstacle avoidance or CAS containment

Question 11

When an aircraft is in receipt of an ATS surveillance service, except for instrument approach procedures, controllers may…

Answer 11

…relax procedure speed limits.

However, extreme caution should be exercised as the controller then becomes responsible for the provision of separation, CAS containment and obstacle clearance, which would otherwise have been provided within the procedure design.

Question 12

Controllers should also be aware that, even if there is no tactical ATC requirement to sustain a speed limit, particularly for departing aircraft…

Answer 12

…the pilot remains responsible for operating his aircraft in such a manner as to adhere to other requirements eg noise preferential route tracking

Question 13

The pilot of an aircraft is responsible for determining…

Answer 13

…whether or not the met conditions permit flight IAW the Visual Flight Rules.

Question 14

VMC criteria by day:

At and above FL100

Answer 14

Class B, C, D, E, F, G

From cloud:

Horizontal 1500m
Vertical 1000ft (300m)

Flight visibility:

8km

Question 15

VMC criteria by day:

Below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL (900m)

or

Below FL100 and above 1000ft above terrain

(Whichever is higher)

Answer 15

Class B, C, D, E, F, G

From cloud:

Horizontal 1500m

Vertical 1000ft (300m)

Flight visibility:

5km

Question 16

VMC criteria by day:

At and below 3000ft AMSL

or

1000ft above terrain

(Whichever is higher)

Answer 16

Class B, C, D, E:

From Cloud - 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically

Flight visibility - 5km

Class F and G:

Clear of cloud, surface in sight

Flight visibility - 5km

Question 17

VMC criteria by day:

Alternatively, at or below 3000ft AMSL

For aircraft, including helicopters, flying at 140kt IAS or less

Answer 17

Class G:

Clear of cloud, surface in sight

Flight visibility - 1500m

Question 18

VMC criteria by night:

At and above FL100

Answer 18

Class B, C, D, E, F, G

From cloud:

Horizontal 1500m
Vertical 1000ft

Flight visibility:

8km

Question 19

VMC criteria by night:

Below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL

or

Below FL100 and above 1000ft above terrain

(Whichever is higher)

Answer 19

Class B, C, D, E, F, G

From cloud:

Horizontal 1500m

Vertical 1000ft

Flight visibility:

5km

Question 20

VMC criteria by night:

At and below 3000ft AMSL

or

1000ft above terrain

(Whichever is higher)

Answer 20

Class B, C, D, E:

From cloud:

Horizontal 1500m

Vertical 1000ft

Maintain continuous sight of the surface

Flight visibility:

5km

Class F and G:

Clear of cloud
and
Maintain continuous sight of the surface

Flight Vis: 5km

Question 21

VMC minima for Class A airspace is:

Answer 21

At or above FL100:

Flight visibility - 8km

From Cloud:

1500m horizontally

1000ft vertically

Below FL100:

Flight visibility - 5km

From Cloud:

1500m horizontally

1000ft vertically

Question 22

For the purposes of gliders crossing airways in VMC by day the minima will be:

Answer 22

At all levels:

Flight visibility - 8km

From cloud:

1500m horizontally

1000ft vertically

Question 23

A pilot must fly according to IFR:

Answer 23

1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A

2) If the met conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a CTR) SVFR flight

Question 24

The IFR require a pilot to observe the minimum height rule and additional rules according to the type of airspace.

These are summarised below:

Answer 24

1) Within CAS (Classes A, B, C, D, E)

A) File a flight plan and obtain a clearance before proceeding with the flight

B) Conduct the flight IAW clearances and instructions from ATC

C) Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequencies; Report the position of the aircraft according to published procedures

2) Outside CAS (Classes F and G)

Comply with the semi-circular rule when in level flight above 3000ft AMSL.

The altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa and the cruising level is selected according to the magnetic track unless the aircraft is holding according to published procedures or is otherwise instructed by ATC.

Question 25

Semi-circular rule:

When in level flight above 3000ft AMSL. The altimeter is set to 1013.2hpa and the cruising level is selected according to the magnetic track unless the aircraft is holding according to published procedures or as instructed by ATC:

Answer 25

Magnetic track:

Less than 180: FL30, FL50, FL70, FL90 up to FL190

At least 180 but less than 360: FL40, FL60, FL80, FL100 up to FL180

Question 26

ATZ adopt the classification of airspace within which they are situated.

Therefore, aircraft flying within the ATZ are subject to the RofA, the specific conditions of the airspace, and the level of ATS provided at the particular aerodrome as follows:

Answer 26

1) At aerodromes with an ATCU, all movements within the ATZ are subject to the permission of that unit.

Aircraft will comply with instructions given by RT and maintain a listening watch.

Non-radio aircraft, which have been given prior permission to fly within the ATZ, will comply with visual signals.

2) At aerodromes where an AFIS or AGCS is provided, pilots shall obtain information from the unit to enable the flight to be conducted safely within the zone and manta in a listening watch.

Non-radio aircraft must comply with any conditions prescribed by the unit prior to the commencement of flight.

Question 27

Controllers who need to ascertain whether a pilot will either route around or transit through an ATZ in Class G airspace should…

Answer 27

…advise the pilot of the ATZ status and confirm the pilots intentions.

Controllers may advise pilots to change to the published aerodrome RT frequency to either obtain ATZ crossing clearance from an ATCO, or to obtain information from an AFIS or AGCS unit.

Question 28

Change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall only be acceptable when…

Answer 28

…the pilot uses the expression cancelling my IFR flight.’

No invitation to change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall be made by ATC either directly or by inference.

Question 29

Cancelling an IFR flight in Class A airspace…

Answer 29

is not possible.

Question 30

Cancelling an IFR flight in Class E airspace…

Answer 30

…simultaneously cancels the provision of an Air Traffic Control service.

Question 31

Controllers are to acknowledge an IFR cancellation using the phrase…

Answer 31

…IFR plan cancelled at (time).

Question 32

Pilots cancelling IFR plans shall be given any information which indicates that…

Answer 32

…IMC May be encountered along the intended route.

Question 33

ATSUs receiving notification of an aircrafts intention to change from IFR to VFR flight shall, as necessary, by automated means or otherwise…

Answer 33

…inform subsequent ATSUs of the IFR flight plan cancellation.

Question 34

A SVFR clearance is issued when…

Answer 34

…requested by a pilot or when it is notified in the UK AIP for a particular type of operation.

Question 35

Before issuing a SVFR clearance a controller must consider…

Answer 35

…the prevailing traffic conditions, the extent of the proposed flight and the availability of air-ground comms.

SVFR flight are not to hinder normal IFR flights.

Question 36

SVFR weather minima:

Answer 36

When the reported met vis at aerodromes in a Class D airspace reduce below…

…a ground vis of 1500m
and/or
…a cloud ceiling of 600ft

…both by day or night, ATC shall advise pilots of aircraft intending to operate under SVFR to or from such aerodromes, and request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.

Question 37

Except for helicopters using the following callsigns, controllers shall not issue a SVFR clearance to aircraft wishing to operate under SVFR to or from an aerodrome within a CTR, or enter the ATZ or aerodrome traffic circuit, when the official met report at that aerodrome indicates:

Answer 37

Police, helimed, rescue, electricity, grid, powerline or pipeline, or a SAR training flight operating IAW MATS 2, or rail track inspection flights

1) By day or night:

A) Aircraft other than helicopters…

…ground vis less than 1500m
and/or
…cloud ceiling less than 600ft

B) helicopters…

…ground vis less than 800m
and/or
…cloud ceiling less than 600ft

Question 38

When the reported ground vis at the aerodrome is less than 1500m, ATC may issue a SVFR clearance for…

Answer 38

…a flight crossing the CTR and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR, or enter the ATZ or aerodrome traffic circuit when the vis reported by the pilot is not less than 1500m, or for helicopters, not less than 800m

Question 39

For the purposes of observing the met conditions at an uncontrolled and/or unlicensed aerodrome or operating site located within a CTR, and assessing whether those conditions satisfy the minima specified as appropriate, the CAA seems the following to be competent to act as accredited observers for their flight:

Answer 39

A) the holders of valid EASA flight crew licences, valid national flight crew licences and certificates issued by, or on behalf of, the UK CAA, and third country licences deemed valid IAW the ANO

B) a student pilot in command (SPIC) who has passed the theoretical knowledge exam in met toward the grant of an EASA flight crew licence or national flight crew licence or certificate issued by, or on behalf of, the UK CAA within the preceding 2 years.

Question 40

When the ground vis consists of 2 values…

Answer 40

…the lower of the 2 values shall be used when determining if a SVFR clearance can be issued.

Question 41

(SVFR) procedures for operating into subsidiary aerodromes will be found in…

Answer 41

…MATS 2

Question 42

Standard separation is to be applied between:

Answer 42

1) IFR flights and SVFR flights

2) Aircraft cleared for SVFR flights (except where a reduction is authorised by the CAA)

Question 43

No separation can be provided between SVFR flights which are flying…

Answer 43

…in notified areas or routes where an individual clearance is not required, or between flights using such areas or routes and other flights on SVFR clearances.

Question 44

Aircraft are not normally given a specified level to fly but…

Answer 44

…vertical separation from aircraft flying above can be achieved by requiring the SVFR flight to fly not above a specified level.

Question 45

The pilot of an aircraft on a SVFR flight:

Answer 45

1) must comply with ATC instructions
2) is responsible for ensuring his flight conditions enable him to remain clear of cloud, determine his flight path with reference to the surface and keep clear of obstructions
3) is responsible for ensuring that he flies at an indicated air speed of 140kt or less in order to provide adequate opportunity to observe any obstacles in time to avoid a collision
4) is responsible for ensuring that he flies within the limitations of his licence
5) is responsible for complying with the relevant RoA low flying restrictions (other than the 1000ft rule)
6) is responsible for avoiding ATZs unless prior permission for penetration has been obtained from the relevant ATCU.

Question 46

A full flight plan is not required for SVFR flight but…

Answer 46

…the pilot must give brief details of the callsign, aircraft type and his intentions.

A full flight plan is required if the pilot wishes his destination to be notified.

Question 47

Flight plans fall into 2 categories:

Answer 47

1) Full flight plans; the information required on form CA48/RAF2919
2) Abbreviated flight plans; the limited information required to obtain a clearance for a portion of flight, eg flying in a CTR, crossing an airway etc, filed either on the RT or by telephone prior to takeoff.

Question 48

The local ATSU may assist in compiling…

Answer 48

…flight plans and checking them. However, the ultimate responsibility for filing an accurate flight plan rests with the pilot or aircraft operator.

Question 49

The destination aerodrome will be advised of the flight…

Answer 49

…only if the flight plan information covers the whole route of the flight.

Question 50

An airborne flight plan may be filed provided that…

Answer 50

…the pilot leaves sufficient time for the clearance to be issued before the aircraft reaches the boundary of CAS (normally 10 minutes).

Question 51

A pilot may file a flight plan…

Answer 51

…for any flight.

Question 52

A pilot is required to file a flight plan for:

Answer 52

1. Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic control service
2. Any IFR flight within advisory airspace
3. Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
4. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with ATSUs in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by the states concerned
5. Any flight across international boundaries
6. Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome

Question 53

A pilot is advised to file a flight plan:

Answer 53

1. If his flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 miles from the UK coast or flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR ops would be difficult
2. If he intends to fly into an area in which SAR ops are in progress. The flight plan should include the expected times of entering and leaving the area and the details must also be passed to the parent ACC. The ACC is to notify the ARCC concerned.

Question 54

A pilot who has filed a flight plan to a destination without an ATSU and not connected to the AFTN shall comply with the following procedure:

Answer 54

1. Nominate a responsible person at his destination and inform him of the planned ETA.

If the aircraft fails to arrive within 30 mins of the ETA the responsible person will notify the parent ATSU.

That ATSU will then initiate Alerting action

OR

2. If no responsible person can be found, the pilot will contact the parent ATSU and request that they act in the same capacity.

The pilot is then required to inform the parent ATSU of his arrival within 30 mins of the notified ETA, otherwise alerting action will automatically be initiated.

Question 55

Any filed flight plan that specifies a non-standard route at aerodromes where SIDS are designated…

Answer 55

…should be referred back to the originator for correction.

Question 56

The repetitive flight plan scheme is a more convenient method of filing flight plans for…

Answer 56

…flights that operate regularly.

Only one plan is filed and the details are brought forward for each flight.

Question 57

Where the operator or departure handling agency of an aircraft at the aerodrome from which it departs closes before ETA at destination plus one hour, they will…

Answer 57

…advise the ATSU at the departure aerodrome of the number of persons on board.

If there is no ATSU, the aerodrome operators or departure handling agency will file with the parent ACC the name and address of a person who has access to flight departure records.

Question 58

If the ATSU at the departure aerodrome closes before ETA at destination plus one hour, the senior controller shall…

Answer 58

…forward the details contained in field 19 of the flight plan form to the parent ACC ensuring that any change to the endurance or number of persons on board is included.

Question 59

Pilots who do not file a flight plan, either full or abbreviated, are required to…

Answer 59

…inform the ATSU at the aerodrome of their departure.

This is referred to as booking out.

The ATSU is to record the departure. No further action is required.

Question 60

All requests from operators for exemptions from the legislation for particular flights shall be…

Answer 60

…Referred to the CAA for authorisation.

Question 61

Requests for non-standard flights, eg photo surveys above 1500ft AGL…

Answer 61

… should be referred to the appropriate addressee (UK AIP ENR section)

Question 62

An airprox is a situation in which…

Answer 62

…in the opinion of a pilot or a controller, the distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speeds have been such that the safety of the aircraft involved was or may have been compromised.

Question 63

If the pilot wishes to file an airprox report by RT the controller should…

Answer 63

…whenever possible, accept the relevant details, particularly when the flight is bound for a foreign destination.

If, due to the controllers high workload, this cannot be done the pilot is to be requested to file the details after landing.

The senior controller is responsible for taking follow-up action.

Question 64

The pilots report by RT should commence with the term Airprox Report.

If the pilot omits the prefix the controller shall ask him if it is his intention to file an airprox report.

The complete message will comprise:

Answer 64

1. The words AIRPROX REPORT
2. Position at time of incident
3. Time of incident
4. Altitude/Flight Level (climbing/descending/level flight)
5. Heading
6. Brief details of incident including first sighting and miss distance
7. Weather conditions

Question 65

If the pilot states that he intends to file an airprox report after landing he is to be reminded that…

Answer 65

…to avoid any delay in its progression, the details are required as soon as possible after he has landed.

Question 66

Controllers must not offer…

Answer 66

…opinions as to cause or responsibility, either to pilots at the time or to operators or pilots subsequently.

Pilots may be told that the incident will be investigated

Question 67

The identity of the reported aircraft is to be established…

Answer 67

…as soon as possible by any practical means.

If the identity is not immediately apparent the senior controller is to be advised so that he can commence search action.

Question 68

The senior controller is to institute search action if…

Answer 68

…the identity of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident or has apparently infringed legislation, is not known.

Question 69

Search action includes:

Answer 69

Data is to be examined, other units consulted and every means used consistent with safety in an attempt to identify the aircraft.

ATS surveillance systems should be used to track the aircraft until it has landed and the track and time correlated with movement at the appropriate aerodrome.

If necessary, the aircraft’s position indication may be transferred to another unit to enable tracking to be continued.

Question 70

The ANO requires that an aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of…

Answer 70

…any light which the ANO requires to be displayed and the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced.

Question 71

Failure of nav lights…

If the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight.

Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:

Answer 71

1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK CAS class A-D.

Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority.

2) if the pilots intention is to fly outside CAS or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision.

Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

Question 72

Notwithstanding the paragraph ref failure of nav lights, decisions regarding the serviceability of an aircraft for flight are the sole responsibility of…

Answer 72

…the pilot in command.

Question 73

When an ATSU receives information that a captive balloon has broken free…

Answer 73

… the appropriate ACC shall be telephoned without delay stating:

1) the type of balloon and whether carrying any person
2) position of the balloon site
3) direction and speed of drift
4) last observed height
5) length of cable attached to balloon
6) balloon operators name and tel number

Question 74

An RMZ is…

Answer 74

Radio mandatory zone

…airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of suitable/appropriate radio equipment is mandatory.

Question 75

RMZ airspace is to be operated in accordance with…

Answer 75

…the regulations pertaining to the background airspace classification.

Question 76

Flights operating in airspace designated as an RMZ by the CAA shall…

Answer 76

…establish 2-way comms before entering the dimensions of the RMZ and maintain continuous air-ground voice communication watch, as necessary, on the appropriate communication channel, unless in compliance with alternative provisions prescribed for that particular airspace by the controlling authority.

Question 77

If unable to establish 2-way comms with the designated RMZ controlling authority…

Answer 77

…the pilot is to remain clear of the RMZ

Question 78

2-way comms is considered to have been achieved once the pilot has provided at least the following information on the appropriate comm channel:

Answer 78

1) callsign
2) type of aircraft
3) position
4) level
5) intentions of the flight

Question 79

When taking off from a site within the RMZ where comms prior to getting airborne are not possible, the pilot shall…

Answer 79

…whilst maintaining compliance to published local LOAs or MOUs, establish 2-way comms with the RMZ controlling authority at the earliest opportunity once airborne.

Question 80

The pilot of an aircraft that wishes to operate in an RMZ without the necessary radio equipment is to…

Answer 80

…operate IAW conditions promulgated for the specific RMZ or IAW agreed tactical arrangements with the RMZ controlling authority and if a pilot is unable to make such tactical arrangements he is to remain clear of the RMZ, unless in an emergency.