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Anaphy > Lymphatic System > Flashcards

Lymphatic System Flashcards

1
Q

Three primary functions of lymphatic system

A
  • draining excess interstitial fluid and returns lost plasma proteins to the bloodstream
    -Transporting dietary products
    -Carrying out immune responses
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2
Q

More permeable than the blood capillaries

A

Lymphatic capillaries

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3
Q

What are the lipid-soluble vitamins from diet that are absorbed by the GI Tract that enter the lymphatic capillaries and become part of the lymph

A

Vitamins A,D,E,K

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4
Q

Immune responses that are carried out by the T cells and B cells (agranulocytes produced by lymphatic organs and tissues) with macrophages’ help

A

Cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses

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5
Q

Clear, pale-yellow fluid present in lymphatic tissues and transported by lymphatic vessels.

A

Lymph

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6
Q

The lymph draining from the small intestines, which means juice and is creamy white because it contains lipids

A

Chyle

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7
Q

Three types o lymphatic vessels

A

Lymphatic capillaries and larger lymphatic vessels, lymph trunks, and lymphatic ducts

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8
Q

Tiny vessels found in the interstitial spaces, slightly larger in diameter than blood capillaries

A

Lymphatic capillaries

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9
Q

Specialized lymphatic capillaries in the small intestines that carry dietary lipids into lymphatic vessels and eventually into the blood

A

Lacteals

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10
Q

When lymphatic capillaries merge, it forms ____ similar to veins, but with thinner walls and more valves

A

larger lymphatic vessels

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11
Q

Form as lymphatic vessels exit lymph nodes

A

Lymphatic trunks

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12
Q

Drain lymph from the lower limbs, the wall and viscera of pelvis, kidneys, and adrenal glands, and the abdominal walls

A

Lumbar trunks

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13
Q

Drain lymph from the stomach, intestines, pancreas, spleen, and part of liver

A

Intestinal trunks

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14
Q

Drain lymph from thoracic wall, lung and heart

A

Bronchomediastinal trunk

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15
Q

Drain lymph from upper limbs

A

Subclavian trunks

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16
Q

Drain lymph from the head and neck

A

Jugular trunk

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17
Q

Lymph from lymphatic trunks drains into two main channels collectively known as ___

A

Lymphatic ducts

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18
Q

Receives lymph from the left side of the head, neck, chest, left upper limb, and entire body inferior to ribs

A

Thoracic (left lymphatic) duct

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19
Q

A dilation from where thoracic duct arises

A

Cisterna chyli

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20
Q

Collects lymph from the right and left lumbar trunks and from the intestinal trunks

A

Cisterna chyli

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21
Q

Accepts lymph from the left jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal trunks and drains lymph into venous blood at the junction of the left internal jugular and left subclavian veins

A

Thoracic duct

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22
Q

Collects lymph from the upper right side of the body. Accepts lymph from the right jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal trunks and drains lymph into venous blood at the junction of the right internal jugular and right subclavian veins

A

Right lymphatic duct

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23
Q

True of false. More fluid filters out of blood capillaries than the amount that returns to them by reabsorption

A

true

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24
Q

The pump accomplished by the milking action of skeletal muscle contractions compressing the lymphatic vessels, and forcing lymph toward the junction of jugular and subclavian veins

A

Skeletal muscle pump

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25
Q

Pump that is associated with breathing. Lymph flows from an area of high pressure to low pressure

A

Respiratory pump

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26
Q

Lymph flows from the abdominal region towards thoracic region

A

inhalation (breathing in)

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27
Q

Lymph flows from the thoracic region towards the abdominal region

A

exhalation (breathing out)

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28
Q

Primary lymphatic organs

A

Red bone marrow and thymus gland

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29
Q

Secondary lymphatic organs

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphatic nodules (follicles)

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30
Q

Serves as the sites where stem cells divide and become immunocompetent capable of mounting an immune response

A

Primary lymphatic organs

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31
Q

Give rise tp mature, immunocompetent B cells and pre-T cells in RBM, which migrate to and become immunocompetent in thymus gland

A

Pluripotent stem cells

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32
Q

A bilobed organ found in the mediastinum between the sternum and aorta

A

Thymus gland

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33
Q

Extensions of the capsules that divides the two lobes of thymus glands, penetrate inward and divide each lobe into lobules

A

Trabeculae (little beans)

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34
Q

Comprised large numbers of T cells and dispersed dendritic cells. The immature T cells from RBM transferred into the cortex multiply and start to mature

A

Outer cortex of thymus gland

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35
Q

structurally similar to neurons’ dendrites with their long, branched projections, support the
pre-T-cells’ maturation process

A

dendritic cells

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36
Q

have several long processes that
surround and serve as a framework for about 50 T cells; they help “educate” the pre-T cells
in a positive selection process

A

Epithelial cells

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37
Q

True or false. Only about 3% of
developing T cells survive in the cortex and enter the inner medulla. The remaining T cells
die via apoptosis (programmed cell death).

A

False - 2%

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38
Q

Help remove cellular debris in thymus

A

Thymic macrophages

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39
Q

is consists of widely distributed, more
mature T cells, epithelial cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages.

A

Inner medulla of thymus gland

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40
Q

Some of the epithelial cells
become arranged into concentric layers of flat cells that degenerate and become filled with
keratohyalin granules and keratin. These clusters are called _______________

A

thymic (Hassall’s) corpuscles

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41
Q

thought to serve as T cell death sites in the medulla of thymus gland

A

thymic (Hassall’s) corpuscles

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42
Q

Serve as site for most immune responses

A

Secondary lymphatic organs and tissues

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43
Q

The capsule, trabeculae, reticular
fibers, and fibroblasts constitute the ____ (supporting connective tissue) of a lymph node

A

stroma

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44
Q

in the lymph nodes, it contains egg-shaped masses of B cells called lymphatic
nodules (follicles).

A

Outer cortex of superficial cortex

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45
Q

Lymph node’s _____ consists of outer and inner potion

A

Superficial cortex

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46
Q

Consists chiefly of B cells

A

primary lymphatic nodules

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47
Q

forms in response to an antigenic challenge and are sites of
plasma cell and memory B cell formation

A

secondary lymphatic nodule

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48
Q

part of lymph nodes, it does not contain lymphatic
nodules, but it consists mainly of T cells and dendritic cells that enter a lymph node from
other tissues

A

inner cortex of superficial cortex

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49
Q

bean-shaped found along lymphatic vessels. They are distributed
throughout the body, both superficially and deep, and usually occur in groups. The large group of them is present near the mammary glands and in the axillae and groin

A

lymph nodes

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50
Q

contains B cells, antibody producing plasma cells that have migrated out of the cortex into the medulla, and
macrophages

A

deep parenchymal medulla of lymph node

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51
Q

Penetrate the node’s convex surface at some points and contain valves that open toward the node’s center, directing the lymph inward

A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

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52
Q

Series of irregular channels that contain branching reticular fibers, lymphocytes, and macrophages

A

Sinus

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53
Q

Positioned under the capsule

A

Subcapsular sinus

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54
Q

Extend through the cortex parallel to trabeculae

A

Trabecular sinus

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55
Q

Extend through the medulla

A

Medullary sinus

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56
Q

Broader and fewer in number than the afferent vessels

A

Efferent lymphatic vessels

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57
Q

They contain valves that open away from the lymph node’s center to
convey lymph, antibodies secreted by plasma cells, and activated T cells out of the node

A

Efferent lymphatic vessels

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58
Q

The efferent lymphatic vessels arise from one side of the lymph node at a slight depression called _____ where blood vessels also enter and leave the lymph node

A

Hilum

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59
Q

Serves as a type of filter

A

Lymph node

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60
Q

is an oval-shaped, largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body, measuring about 12 cm (5 inches) in length. It is located in the left hypochondriac region between the stomach
and diaphragm

A

spleen

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61
Q

The organs surrounding the spleen make indentations in its visceral
surface–the ____ impression (stomach), the ____ impression (left kidney), and the ____ impression (left flexure of the colon)

A

Gastric - renal - colic

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62
Q

Contains mostly lymphocytes and macrophages arranged around branches of splenic artery called central arteries, whereas T and B cells carry out immune functions and spleen macrophages destroy blood-born pathogens by phagocytosis

A

Spleen’s white pump

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63
Q

consists of blood-filled venous sinuses and cords of splenic tissue called splenic cords. These functions include removing ruptured, worn-out, or defective blood
cells and platelets by macrophages; storing platelets, up to 1/3 of the body’s supply; and producing blood cells (hemopoiesis) during fetal life.

A

Spleen’s red pump

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64
Q

Egg-shaped masses of lymphatic tissue that are encolsed by a capsule and are also called mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT), and includes Peyer’s patches, appendix, and tonsils

A

Lymphatic nodules (follicles)

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65
Q

Situated in the ileum of small intestines

A

Peyer’s patches

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66
Q

Thin tube about four inches long found at the small and large intestines’ junction

A

appendix

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67
Q

from a ring at the oral cavity and oropharynx junction at the nasal cavity and nasopharynx junction

A

tonsils

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68
Q

positioned between nasopharynx posterior wall

A

single pharyngeal tonsil or adenoid

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69
Q

lie on the oral cavity posterior region

A

2 palatine tonsils

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70
Q

found at the base of the tongue

A

paired lingual tonsil

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71
Q

What are the first line fo defenses

A

skin and mucous membranes

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72
Q

it is in the blood and interstitial fluid prevent microbial growth. It includes interferons, complement, iron-binding proteins, and antimicrobial proteins

A

antimicrobial substances

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73
Q

produced by lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts
infected with viruses. IFNS released by virus-infected cells diffuse to uninfected neighboring
cells to induce the synthesis of antiviral proteins that interfere with viral replication

A

interferons

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74
Q

secreted by helper and cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells strongly stimulates phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages, activates NK cells and enhances both cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses

A

gamma interferon

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75
Q

produced by infected cells to prevent viral multiplication in uninfected cells. These are also produced by antigen-stimulated macrophages to stimulate T cell growth.
-activates natural killer cells, suppress cell growth, and inhibit some tumors’ formation

A

alpha and beta interferon

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76
Q

consists of group of ordinarily inactive proteins in blood plasma and plasma membranes. It causes microbes’ cytolysis (bursting), promote phagocytosis, and contribute tp inflammation

A

complement system

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77
Q

suppress the growth of certain bacteria by reducing the amount of available iron.

A

iron-binding proteins

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78
Q

Iron-binding proteins include ____ in the blood and tissues, _____ in milk saliva and mucus, ______ in liver, spleen and RBM, and _____ in re blood cells

A

transferrin - lactoferrin - ferritin - hemoglobin

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79
Q

Antimicrobial substances that are short peptides with a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity.

A

Antimicrobial proteins

80
Q

Antimicrobial proteins include ____ produced by sweat glands, ____ and ____ by neutrophils, macrophage, and epithelia, and _____ by platelets

A

dermicidin - defensins - cathelicidins - thrombocidins

81
Q

cells destroy infected target cells by releasing granules that contain perforin and granzymes that initiate cellular destruction by freeing the microorganisms

A

Natural killer cells

82
Q

Inserts into the target cell’s plasma membrane and creates channels in the membrane so extracellular fluid flows into target cell and the cell burst (cytolysis)

A

perforin

83
Q

protein-digesting enzymes, induce the target cell to undergo apoptosis

A

granzymes

84
Q

present in the spleen, lymph nodes and RBM. Lack the membrane molecules to identify B and T cells but they can kill different infected body cells and ecrtain tumor cells

A

NK cells

85
Q

Ingest foreign particulate matter. its 2 major types are neutrophils and macrophages

A

phagocytes

86
Q

Phase of phagocytosis that refers to chemically stimulated momevment of the phagocytes to the site of damage

A

chemotaxis

87
Q

Phase of phagocytosis which is the attchemnt of phagocyte to the microbe or other foreign material

A

adherence

88
Q

Phase of phagocytosis that occurs when the plasma membrane of the phagocyte extend projection (pseudopods) that engolfs the microbe which results to phagosome

A

ingestion

89
Q

Phase of phagocytosis that ensues when the phagosome enters tthe cytoplasm and unites with a lyysosome to form a larger structure (phagolysosome)

A

digestion

90
Q

Phagocyte form lethal oxidants and hydrogen peroxide in a process called ____

A

oxidative burst

91
Q

Phase of phagocytosis that results from lysozymes chemical attack, digestive enzymes, and oxidants within a phagolysosome

A

killing

92
Q

Confines and destroys microbes and initiates tissue repair

A

inflammation

93
Q

manifestations of inflammation

A

redness, pain, swelling, heat

94
Q

3 stages of inflammation

A

-vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels
-emigration of phagocytes from blood into interstitial fluid
-tissue repair

95
Q

released by mast cells and basophils and platelets. Neutrophils and macrophages also stimulate its release which produces vasodilation

A

histamine

96
Q

polypeptides formed in blood from inactive precursors (kininogens)

A

kinins

97
Q

lipids, especially pf the E series, are released by damaged cells that intensify the effcts of histamine and kinins. May also stimulate emigration of phagocytes through capillary walls

A

prostaglandins

98
Q

produced by basophils and mast cells and function in adherence of phagocytes and as chemotactic agents

A

leukotrienes

99
Q

Its components stimulate histamine release, attract neutrophils by chemotaxis and some components can destroy bacteria

A

complement system

100
Q

Body’s ability to defend itself against specific invading agents which is made compatible by T cells and B cells that are immunocompetent

A

specific resistance or immunity

101
Q

molecules capable of recognizing specific antigens

A

antigen receptors

102
Q

T cells exit the thymus as ____ or ____ cells

A

CD4 or CD8

103
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, ____ proliferate into cytotoxic T cells that directly attack the invading antigen

A

CD8 T cells

104
Q

Most ____ become helper T cells that aid both cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses

A

CD4 T cells

105
Q

foreogn susbtances that provoke immune responses

A

antigens

106
Q

antigens ability to provoke an immune response by stimulating the production of antibodies, proliferation of T cells, or both

A

Immunogenicity

107
Q

Antigens ability t react specifically with the antibodies or cells it provoke

A

reactivity

108
Q

antigens that have both immunogenicity and reactivity

A

complete antigens

109
Q

Large antigen has small parts that can trigger the immune responses. These are called

A

epitopes

110
Q

They only respond to antigens made up proteins

A

T cells

111
Q

Respond to antigens amde up pf proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids

A

B cells

112
Q

Has reactivity but lacks immunogenicity

A

hapten

113
Q

The diversity of antigen receptors in both B cells and T cells results from shuffling and rearranging a few hundred versions of several small gene segments

A

genetic recombination

114
Q

normal antigens

A

self-antigens

115
Q

self-antigens located in the plasma membranes of the body cells

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens

116
Q

transmembrane proteins are also called ___ because they are first identified on white blood cells

A

human leukocyte antigen (HCA)

117
Q

type of MHC antigen that are built into all body cells’ plasma membranes except RBC

A

Class I MHC

118
Q

type of MHC antigen that appear on the surface of the antigen-presenting cells (special class of cells: dendritic cells, macrophage, and B cells)

A

Class II MHC

119
Q

pathway of antigen processing whereas foreign antigens present in fluids outside the body cells such as bacteria

A

processing of exogenous antigen

120
Q

What process and present exogenous process

A

Antigen-presenting cells

121
Q

steps of processing of exogenous antigen

A

a) ingestion of antigen through phagocytosis or endocytosis
b) digestion of antigen into peptide fragments w/in phagosome or endosome that contains protein-digesting enzymes
c) synthesis of MHC-II by APC at endoplasmic reticulum
d) packaging of MHC-II into vesicle
e) fusion of vesicles (containing antigen peptide fragments and MHC-II)
f) binding of antigen peptide fragments into MHC-II
g) insertion of antigen-MHC-II into plasma membrane through exocytosis

122
Q

foreign antigens that are synthesized inside the body cells

A

processing of endogenous antigens

123
Q

steps of processing endogenous antigens

A

a) digestion of antigen into peptide fragments by protein-digesting enzymes within infected cell
b) synthesis of MHC-I molcules at endoplasmic reticulum
c) binding of antigen peptide fragments into MHC-I in the infected cell
d) packaging of antigen-MHC-I into vesicles
e) insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane via exocytosis

124
Q

Small protein hormones that stimulate or inhibit many normal cell function

A

cytokines

125
Q

cytokines produced by monocytes and macrophage that promotes the proliferation of helper T cells and acts i the hypothalamus to cause fever

A

interleukin-1

126
Q

secreted by helper T cells costimulates the proliferation of helper t cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and NK cells

A

interleukin-2

127
Q

produced by activated helper t cell is a costimulator for B cells, vauses the plsma cells to secrete Ig E antibodies

A

interleukin-4

128
Q

produced by specific activated CD4 T cells serves as costimulator for B cells and causes plasma cells to secrete IgA antibodies

A

interleukin-5

129
Q

cytokine produced mainly by macrophage that stimulates the accumulation of neutrophils and macrophages at the inflammation site and stimulates killing of microbes

A

tumor necrosis factor

130
Q

secreted by T-cells and macrophage that is necessary for turning off immune responses

A

transforming growth factor - beta

131
Q

effective against intracellular pathogens and foreign tissue transplant. T cells are the ones involved in this immunity

A

cell-mediated immunity

132
Q

true or false. activation, proliferation, and differentiation of T Cells must occur in cell-mediated immune response

A

true

133
Q

antigen receptors on the T-cell receptors’ surface called ____ should recognize and bind to specific foreign antigen fragments presented in the antigen – MHC complex.

A

T-cell receptors (TCRs)

134
Q

_____ by a TCR with CD4 or CD8 proteins
is the first signal in activating a T cell and, simultaneously, receives a second signal, a process known as _____

A

antigen recognition - costimulation

135
Q

Two signals causing T cell activation

A

antigen recognition and costimulation

136
Q

a population of identical cells, called a ____, which can recognize the same specific antigen.

A

clone

137
Q

Activation, proliferation, and differentiation of T cells occur in
______.

A

secondary lymphatic organs and tissues

138
Q

T cell differentation give rise to

A

helper t cells, cytotoxic t cells, and memory t cells

139
Q

type of t cell differentation that cooperate with b cells to intensify antibody production by plasma cells

A

Helper T cell

140
Q

Type of T cell differentiation that kill host target cells by releasing granzymes, perforin, granulysin, and lymphotoxin

A

Cytotoxic T cell

141
Q

destroys target cell DNA

A

lymphotoxin

142
Q

prevents macrophage migration from site of infection

A

macrophage migration inhibition reflex

143
Q

remain in lymphatic tissue and recognize original invading antigens, even years after

A

memory T cells

144
Q

Soldiers that march forth to do battle woth foreign invaders in cell-mediated immune responses. They deliver a lethal hit that kills the target cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells

145
Q

In recognizing infected target cells (have microbial antigens displayed on
their surface) using receptors on their surfaces and then binding them, the cytotoxic T cells release ____ (protein-digesting enzymes) that trigger apoptosis.

A

granzymes

146
Q

The second mechanism is cytotoxic T cells’ binding with infected body cells and releasing two proteins from their granules:

A

perforin and granulysin

147
Q

enters the channels created by perforin and destroys the microbes by creating holes in their plasma membrane

A

granulysin

148
Q

immune responses carried out by cytotoxic T cells, macrophages, and natural killer cells. When a normal cell transforms into a cancerous cell, it often displays different cell surface components called tumor antigens.

A

Immunological surveillance

149
Q

When a normal cell transforms into a cancerous cell, it often displays different cell surface components called

A

tumor antigens

150
Q

works mainly against antigens present in body fluids and extracellular pathogens (viruses, bacteria, and fungi outside the cells). This type of immunity primarily involves B cells.

A

Antibody-mediated immunity

151
Q

Although B cells can respond to an unprocessed antigen present in lymph and interstitial fluid, their response is much more intense when they process the antigen

A

true

152
Q

some of the activated B cells enlarge, divide, and differentiate into a clone of
antibody-secreting

A

plasma cells

153
Q

some activated B cells do not differentiate into plasma cells but
remain as ____. These are ready to respond more rapidly and forcefully should similar antigen reappear in the future.

A

memory cells

154
Q

Antibodies belong to a group of glycoproteins called ____; thus, they are also
known as immunoglobulins (Ig).

A

globulins

155
Q

How many polypeptide chains does antibodies contain

A

4; 2 heavy and 2 light chains

156
Q

How many amino acids does heavy chain consists

A

450

157
Q

How many amino acids does light chain consists

A

220

158
Q

How many disulfide bond is there for linking two heavy chains

A

2

159
Q

How many disulfide bond is there for holding each light chain to a heavy chain

A

1

160
Q

region of antibody that displays considerable flexibility which can make it assume a T shape or Y shape and can bind to two epitopes

A

hinge portion

161
Q

region of antibody that is formed beyonf the hinge by the parts of the 2 heavy chains

A

stem region

162
Q

region of antibody that are the tips of H and L chains that constitutes the antigen-binding site

A

variable regions

163
Q

region of antibody that is responsible for the type of antigen-antibody reaction that occurs

A

constant region

164
Q

class of antibody that is the most abundant. About 80% in the blood, lymph, and intestines and is a monomer

A

IgG

165
Q

The only class of antibodies that cross the placenta from mother to fetus, giving significant immune protection for fetus

A

IgG

166
Q

class of antibody found mainly in sweat, tears, saliva, and GIT secretions and smaller quantities are present in blood and lymph (10-15%) and occurs as monomers pr dimmers

A

IgA

167
Q

class of antibody which its levels decrease during stress, lowering resistance to infection and it provides localized protection on mucous membranes against bacteria and viruses

A

IgA

168
Q

class of antibody that is 5-10% found in lymph and occurs as pentamers. The first antibody class to be secreted by plasma cells. It activates complement and causes agglutination and lysis of microbes and act as monomer

A

IgM

169
Q

class of antibody that serve as antigen receptor and examples are anti-A and anti-B antibodies which bind to A and B antigens during incompatible transfusion

A

IgM

170
Q

class of antibody found on B cells surfaces as antigen receptors and occurs as monomers. 0.2%

A

IgD

171
Q

class of antibody that is only 0.1% and located on mast cells and basophils, involved in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions against parasitic worms

A

IgE

172
Q

actions of antibodies

A

neutralizing antigen, immobilizing bacteria, agglutinating and precipitating antigen, activating complement, and enhancing phagocytosis

173
Q

acts as a flag that attracts phagocytes once antigens bound to antibody’s variable region

A

stem region

174
Q

composed of over 30 proteins produced by the liver and
circulating in blood plasma and within tissues throughout the body.

A

complement system

175
Q

are designated by an uppercase letter C, numbered C1 through C9, based on their
order of discovery. The C1 to C9 complement proteins are inactive and only become
activated when split by enzymes into active fragments, which are indicated by lowercase
letters a and b (for example, C3 — C3a and C3b).

A

complement proteins

176
Q

Other complement proteins are
referred to as

A

factors B, D, and P (properdin)

177
Q

pathway of complement activation which starts when antibodies bind to antigens that activates C1

A

Classical pathway

178
Q

pathway of complement activation which does not involve antibodies and is initiated by an interaction between lipid-carbohydrate and complement protein factors B,D,P which activates C3

A

alternative pathway

179
Q

pathway of complement activation whereas the macrophages that digest microbes release chemicals that cause liver to produce proteins called lectins and activate C3

A

lectin pathway

180
Q

promotes attachment of phagocyte to a microbe

A

opsonization

181
Q

C3b also
initiates a series of reactions that bring about cytolysis. C3b splits C5. Next, the C5b
fragment binds to C6 and C7, which attach to an invading microbe’s plasma membrane.

A

true

182
Q

Then C8 and several C9 molecules join the other complement proteins and form a _____ that becomes inserted into the plasma membrane which creates channels in the plasma membrane that result in cytolysis, the microbial cell’s bursting due to the inflow of extracellular fluid through the channels.

A

cylinder-shaped membrane attack complex

183
Q

bind to mast cells and cause them to release histamine that
increases blood vessel permeability during inflammation. C5a also attracts phagocytes to
the site of inflammation (chemotaxis)

A

C3a and C5a

184
Q

This ability is due to the presence of long-lasting antibodies and
very long-lived lymphocytes that arise during proliferation and differentiation of antigen-stimulated B cells and T cells. Immune responses, whether cell-mediated or antibody-mediated, are much quicker and more intense after a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen than after the first exposure.

A

immunological memory

185
Q

Measure of immunological memory

A

antibody titer (the amount of antibody in serum)

186
Q

immunologic response that occurs after initial contact with antigen. No antibodies present for several days. Slow rise of IgM and IgG followed by decline of antibody titer

A

primary response

187
Q

immunologic response that occurs with a subsequent encounter with a similar antigen which invloves memory cells. Antibody titer is far greater than primary response

A

secondary response

188
Q

consists mainly of IgG antibodies. During a secondary response, the antibodies produced have an even higher affinity for the antigen than those produced during a primary response. Thus they are more successful in disposing of it

A

secondary response

189
Q

Trait of T cells that is its ability to recognize tgeir own major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins.

A

Self-recognition

190
Q

In the thymus, the pre-T cells develop the capability for self-recognition via

A

positive selection

191
Q

The T cells with this capability survive. However, the immature T cells that fail to
interact with thymic epithelial cells cannot recognize self-MHC proteins. These cells undergo apoptosis (self-destruction) and become permanently lost.

A

true

192
Q

Refers to the T cell’s lack of reactivity to peptide fragments from its own proteins. It occurs by weeding-out, a process called negative selection

A

Self-tolerance

193
Q

Self-reactive T cells undergo apoptosis and die

A

deletion

194
Q

Self-reactive T cells remain alive but are unresponsive to antigenic stimulation

A

anergy

195
Q

In self-tolerance, T cells with receptors that recognize self-peptide fragments or self-antigens are eliminated or inactivated. The T cells selected to survive do not respond to self-antigens.

A

true

Anaphy (5 decks)

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