Lumps and Bumps Flashcards

1
Q

Where do Bohn nodules occur?

A

junction of hard and soft palate of the newborn

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2
Q

Where do epstein pearls occur?

A

palatal midline of the newborn

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3
Q

What are Bohn nodules remnants of?

A

minor salivary glands

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4
Q

Where do dental lamina cysts occur?

A

alveolar mucosa of the newborn

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5
Q

Dental lamina cysts are also known as ______?

A

gingival cyst of the newborn

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6
Q

A major difference in the growth progression of a congenital vascular malformation and a hemangioma is _____?

A

vascular malformations tend to grow with the child while hemangiomas tend to regress with age

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7
Q

Complications of a lymphangioma include:

A

compromised airway, does not regress and may require surgery

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8
Q

Neonatal alveolar lymphangioma occurs most commonly in what demographic?

A

African American males

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9
Q

Where does a congenital epulis most commonly occur?

A

Maxillary lateral and canine area

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10
Q

In which gender is congenital epulis more common?

A

Female

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11
Q

Describe melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy.

A

smooth, expansile, occurs in the alveolus, may be pigmented, can cause displacement of teeth, anterior maxilla most common

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12
Q

In what age group does melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy typically occur?

A

infants younger than 6 months of age

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13
Q

Patients with hemifacial hypertrophy are also at risk for ____?

A

Embryonal tumors such as Wilm tumor or hepatoblastoma

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14
Q

What is a Wilms tumor

A

rare kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Also known as nephroblastoma, it’s the most common cancer of the kidneys in children. Wilms’ tumor most often affects children ages 3 to 4 and becomes much less common after age 5.

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15
Q

In what demographic is leukoedema most common?

A

African Americans

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16
Q

Describe the prominent features of leukoedema.

A

Bilateral, film white, adherent, wrinkled patched, stretching of mucosa causes them to disappear, due to increased thickness of mucosa and intracellular edema

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17
Q

What are the cause of fordyce granules?

A

ectopic sebaceous glands in the oral mucosa which become more prominent during puberty

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18
Q

Describe white sponge nevus.

A

autosomal dominant condition, persistent, presents as diffuse, white, thickened, adherent and wrinkled oral mucosa, becomes more prominent in adolescence

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19
Q

What demographic is most commonly affected by hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis?

A

mixed white, American Indian and black ancestry living in North Carolina

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20
Q

What is the major difference between white sponge nevus and hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis?

A

HBID can affect the eyes and cause visual impairment

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21
Q

Describe the defining characteristics of peripheral ossifying fibroma.

A

only occurs on the gingiva, appears as firm pink or red nodule at the interdental papilla, radiograph may indicate calcification, treatment is surgical excision down to periosteum, recurs

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22
Q

Describe the characteristics of giant cell fibroma.

A

fibrous hyperplasia, occurs on gingiva, hard palate, tongue, pink, smooth or stippled, non-tender, treatment is surgical excision

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23
Q

Describe peripheral giant cell granuloma.

A

caused by local irritation, gingival or alveolar mucosa only, red or purple, may bleed, may cause superficial bone resorption, treatment is surgical excision and removal of local irritation.

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24
Q

Linear gingival erythema typically occurs in individuals afflicted with _____?

A

HIV

25
Q

Why does plasma cell gingivitis occur?

A

As an allergic response

26
Q

Treatment of plasma cell gingivitis includes what?

A

removal of allergen, topical steroids

27
Q

Gingival fibromatosis is clinically identical to what other issue?

A

drug-induced gingival overgrowth

28
Q

Gingival fibromatosis is often associated with what other condition?

A

Can be associated with various syndromes but often associated with hypertrichosis

29
Q

Describe major features of oral melanoacanthoma.

A

Frequently occurs in African Americans, pigmented lesion, rapidly enlarging

30
Q

Smoker’s melanosis occurs in what part of the oral cavity?

A

anterior gingiva and labial mucosa

31
Q

Describe major features of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

A

melanin hyperpigmentation of the lips, benign polyposis of small intestine, autosomal dominant

32
Q

What medications can cause oral pigmentation?

A

chloroquine (antimalaria), minocycline, estrogen, chlorpromazine (tranquilizer)

33
Q

Ingestion of lead leads to what oral side effects?

A

salivary gland swelling and dysphagia, grey pigmentation of marginal gingiva

34
Q

Describe the features of a nasolabial cyst.

A

occurs in soft tissue near upper lip along junction of maxillary, lateral nasal, and globular process; occurs more often in females; treatment is surgical excision

35
Q

The most common site of a lymphangioma is ___________.

A

tongue

36
Q

Describe the difference between color of a lymphangioma and a hemangioma.

A

lymphangioma- pink; hemangioma- blue/red

37
Q

What type of material is found within a ranula?

A

Mucin

38
Q

Where are salivary gland stones most frequently found?

A

Wharton’s duct

39
Q

What is the most common type of benign salivary gland tumor?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

40
Q

Where is the most common site of salivary gland tumor?

A

parotid

41
Q

What is the most common type of malignant salivary gland tumor?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

42
Q

Squamous papilloma can be found where in the oral cavity?

A

tongue, labial mucosa, and soft palate

43
Q

Squamous papilloma is caused by what pathogens?

A

HPV 6 and 11

44
Q

Verruca vulgaris is caused by what forms of HPV?

A

2, 4, 6, 40

45
Q

What is the most common mass of the soft palate?

A

Squamous papilloma

46
Q

What is the treatment for a nasopalatine duct cyst?

A

excision or curettage

47
Q

Describe the features of necrotizing sialometaplasia.

A

Reactive lesion of minor salivary glands due to ischemia and infarction, usually unilateral, treatment includes incisional biopsy, resolves in about 6 weeks

48
Q

Major differences between OKCs and Ameloblastomas _______.

A

OKCs are typically painful, ameloblastomas are not; root resorption and tooth impaction are more common in ameloblastoma

49
Q

Name 4 jaw lesions with giant cell histology seen in children.

A

hyperparathyroidism, cherubism, giant cell tumor, aneurysmal bone cyst

50
Q

Describe the features of odontogenic myxoma.

A

slow progressive swelling, may cause facial deformity, most common in posterior, unilocular or multilocular, stepladder appearance, displacement of unerupted tooth

51
Q

Describe the features of an aneurysmal bone cyst.

A

usually occurs in individuals under 20 years old, tender, giant cell histology, soap bubble appearance

52
Q

Describe the features of disseminated Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

A

multiorgan involvement, may infiltrate any bone, red rash, gingival masses, premature exfoliation of teeth, diffuse periapical radiolucencies, floating tooth appearance

53
Q

Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis is also known as _______?

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

54
Q

What are the typical X-ray findings of osteosarcoma?

A

sometimes sunburst pattern, root resorption with widening periodontal ligament

55
Q

Where do osteosarcomas most commonly occur?

A

posterior mandible

56
Q

Describe the features of Ewing sarcoma.

A

sunburst pattern, moth-eaten appearance, rapid swelling and pain, can metastasize to lungs and bone (long bones especially)

57
Q

Describe the features of Burkitt lymphoma.

A

Starry sky appearance; aggressive malignancy of B-cells, association with EBV (HHV-4), rapid expansion of jaws with loosening teeth, floating teeth apperance

58
Q

Where is the most common location of idiopathic osteosclerosis?

A

mandibular molar-premolar region