Lumbar Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

How much of the population will eventually experience low back pain?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are café-au-lait spots?

A

Pigmented birth marks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Lipomata?

A

Begnine tumor composed mostly of fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the cause of Neurofibromatosis?

A

Heradiatiry dominate disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does neurofibromatosis look like?

A

large (more than .5cm in size at first and can be as big as 1.5cm) bumbs and nodules along nerve sheaths

(pigmented spots, and pedunculated soft-tissue nodules clustered along nerve sheaths)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do neurofibromatosis begin to appear?

A

during childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Your patient has neurofibromatosis. What else do you expect to see?

A
  1. café-au-lait spots over the trunk, pelvis, and flexor patches of the elbows.
  2. skeletale deformities that may lead to scoliossis
  3. Vertebral body scalloping,
  4. Fibrous dysplasia
  5. Tibial Pseudoarthrosis,
  6. Sphenoid bone deformity,
  7. Mental impairment,
  8. seizures
  9. hearing loss,
  10. exopht halmosis,
  11. decreased visual acuity
  12. GI bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Your patient has low back pain, and standing with their weight shifted to one side. What do you want to look for?

A

Herniated disc (which may be causing scatic scoliosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False: scatic soliosis is a non-structural deformatity

A

True: it is caused by by lumbar disk herniation and uni- lateral spasm of the back muscle. The convexity is usually toward the symtomatic side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is gibbus deformity?

A

Hyperkyphosis of the lower throacic area. Will effect the lumbar kyphosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What interspinous space is associated with the top of the iliac crest?

A

L4 L5 interspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What palpable findings does a spondyloslisthesis produce?

A

One SP clearly more visible or palpable than its neighbors

A palpable or visible step-off from one process to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

spondyloslisthesis vs spondylolysis vs Spondylolytic Spondyloslisthesis

A

spondyloslisthesis: anterior or posterior displacement of a vertebrae on the adjacent lower vertebrae
spondylolysis: Defect of the PARS (Need an xray to ID)

Spondylolytic Spondyloslisthesis: The combination of the 2 = A unilateral or bilateral defect in the pars interarticularis with anterior or posterior displacement of a vertebrae on the adjacent lower vertebra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What scale is used to measure Spondylolisthesis?

A

Meyerding’s Scale

Ranges from 1-4 and measures how far L5 has moved passed the sacral base in 25% increments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many joints exist between the vertebrae of the lumbar spine?

A

3

1 between the bodies + the IVD
2 between the arcticular processes (one on each side) these are the z joints or apopheseal joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What verteral level does the umbilicus lie at?

A

L3 L4 Disc space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What anatomically important thing happens at the L3 L4 disc space?

A

The aorta divides into the common illiacs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What vertebrae can be palpated anteriorly?

A

L4, L5, S1 (now that the abdominal aorta is out of the way)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary function of the Zygapophyseal joints in the lumbar spine?

A

To protect the segment that is moving from

  1. sheering forces (anteriomedial part does this)
  2. excessive rotation (the C or J shape makes almost all rotation impossible)
  3. excessive flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 2 ligaments are here, and super important, and also everywhere else in the body?

A

ALL - narrows as it assends

PLL - connects to posterior bodies and discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What ligament connects 2 consecutive lamina?

A

Ligamentum flava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ligament connects 2 consecutive spinouses?

A

interspinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does the supraspinous ligament connect?

A

tip of SP to tip of SP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the iliolumbar ligament connect?

A

L5 to S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the function of the iliolumbar ligament?

A

to restrict motion at the iliolumbar juntion.

Specifically restricts flexion, extension, lateral flexion, and axial rotation (so everything)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do the psudoligaments do?

A

Nothing mechanical!

seperate paravertebral compartements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the psudoligaments in the lumbar spine?

A

intertransverse
transforaminal
mamillo-accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Quadratus Lumborum: OINAB

A

O: lateral lip of iliac crest and iliolumbar ligament
I: post/inf 12th rib and L1-L4 TP
N: Ventral Rami of L1-L4
A: stabilizes/depresses 12th rib. stabilizes with contralateral flexion
B: lumbar artery, subcostal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lumbar multifidus: OINAB

A
O: mamilary processes
I: SPs of segements 2-4 spaces above
N: dorsal rami of spinal nerves
A: contralateral rotation and lateral flexion (truns you to opposite side) 
B: muscular branch of abdominal aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What makes the QL important clinically in the lumbar region?

A

funtion as a lumbar spine stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What makes the multifidus important clinically in the lumbar region?

A

its ability to control lumbar segmental stability through its ability to provide segmental stiffness and control motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What muscles make up the erector group?

A

iliocostalis lumborum
longissimus
spinalis (not seen in the lumbars)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Iliocostalis: OINAB

A

O: common tendon of the sacrum, iliac crest, and lumbar SPs
I: lower borders of the 6-12th ribs
N: dorsal rami of spinal nerves
A: ipsilateral bending and rotation (move to the side being contracted)
B: muscular branches of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Thoracic Longissimus: OINAB

A

O: common errector spine tendon
I: TPs of upper lumbar and Thoraic vertbre. Ribs
N: dorsal rami of spinal nerves
A: ipsilateral bending and rotation (move to the side being contracted)
B: muscular branches of the aorta

35
Q

What is the function of the thracoclunmar fascia?

A

Helps with transmission of extension forces during lifting

stabilizes against anterior shear and lifting forces

36
Q

Iliopsoas: OINAB

A

O: Anterior lumbar spine (T12- L5 vertebral bodies and discs)
I: Lesser trochanter
N: Ventral Rami of L2-L4 - psoas part
and Femoral Nerve (L2-L4) - illiacus part
A: Main hip flexor. External Rotation
B: iliolumbar artery

37
Q

What will exacerbate pain if there is an abscess of the iliopsoas?

A

active hip flexion

38
Q

What is the largest nerve in the body?

A

Sciatic Nerve

39
Q

What are the terminal branches of the sciatic nerve?

A
Tibial Nerve
Peroneal Nerve (aka Fibular)
40
Q

What structures should you located if you want to palpate the sciatic nerve?

A

ischial tuberosity and the greater trochanter - nerve is 1/2 way between the 2

41
Q

In the lumbar spine, does a disc pathology effect the nerve root above or below?

A

Below

42
Q

In the lumbar spine, is the disc named for the segment above or the segment below?

A

Segment above

43
Q

What are the different types of disc pathologies?

A
  1. Protrusion
  2. Prolapse aka Bulge
  3. Extrusion aka Herniation
  4. Sequestration
44
Q

The nucleus has popped out of the annular fibers, but no fibers are torn. Name the disc pathology.

A

Prolapse aka Bulge

45
Q

The Anular fibers are weakened, and there are a few bits of the nuclus present in the fibers. Name the disc pathology.

A

Protrusion

46
Q

There are peices of the the nucleus in the spinal canal. Name the disc pathology

A

Sequestration

47
Q

The anular fibers have torn and the nucleus is pushing into the PLL. Name the disc pathology

A

Extrusion AKA herniation

48
Q

What type of disc pathology can be accompanies by a shredding sound?

A

Extrusion AKA Herniation

49
Q

L4 muscle test: action, muscle , nerve

A

Dorsiflextion and Inversion: Tibialius anterior - deep peronieal nerver

50
Q

L4 Reflex

A

Petellar reflex

51
Q

L5 muscle test: action, muscle, nerve

A

Foot Dorsiflex: Peronius tirtious, extensor halloucus longs, extensor digitorm longus and brevis - deep peroneal nerve

Big Toe Dorsiflex: extensor hallucis longus -deep
peroneal nerve

Toes 2,3,4 dorsiflex: extensor digitorum longus &
brevis - deep peroneal nerve

Hip and Pelvis abduction: gluteus medius & minimus - superior gluteal nerve

52
Q

L5 Refelx

A

There is no reflex for this nerve root

53
Q

S1 muscle test: action muscle nerve

A

Foot Plantar flexion and eversion: peronous longus and brevis - superficial peroneal nerve

Foot plantar flextion: Gastrocnemius and soleus (tibial nerve)

Hip extention: Gluteus Mazimus (inferior gluteal nerve)

54
Q

S1 reflex

A

Achilles

55
Q

What innervates the outter 1/2 of the IVD?

A

sinuvertebral nerve and the grey rami communicants
(this nerve is the SIgN that says U are entering the VERTEBRAL disc space) and their are gray pay phones (RAMI COMMUNICANTS) next to the sign

56
Q

Does the lateral IVD get ParaNS or SNS inervation

A

SNS

57
Q

What innervates the z joints?

A

Doral Rami

58
Q

How many degrees of freedom are available in the lumbar spine?

A

6

59
Q

What motion is coupled with side bending in the lumbars?

A

Rotation.

60
Q

Where dose most of the flexion/extenion occur in the lumbar spine?

A

lower segmental levels

61
Q

Where does most of the rotation occur in the lumbar spine?

A

lumbosacral junction

62
Q

Where does most of the lateral flexion occur in the lumbar spine?

A

mid-lumbar area

63
Q

What happens at the segmental level during lumbar flextion

A

Anterior roll and anterior glide of the vertebral body

64
Q

Does the lordois revers during flexion of the lumbar spine?

A

It depends on the segment level. At L4-L5 you might have minimal reversal. at L5-S1 it should straighten but not reverse

65
Q

What occurs at a segmental level during extension of the lumbar spine?

A

posterior roll and posterior glide of the vertebral body
posterior and inferior motion of the z-joints

no real change in the level of lordosis

66
Q

How much rotation is there in the lumbar spine as a whole?

A

about 13 degrees.

67
Q

What segment level has the most axial rotation? how much?

A

L5-S1 has about 5 degrees of rotation

68
Q

According to this class, what is the relationship between spinal alignment in the lumbars and pain?

A

none

69
Q

When palpating the lumbar spine, what other area should you palpate?

A

hip and pelvic

70
Q

What am I really assessing with active ROM

A

quality of movement

71
Q

How long should isometric contraction be held during muscle tests?

A

at least 5 seconds

if we suspect weakness repeat 2-3 times to test how easy it is to fatigue

72
Q

L1 L2 L3: Muscle Test

A

Hip flexion - Iliopsoas - L1-L3

73
Q

L1 L2 L3 disc level

A

T12-L2

74
Q

L1 L2 L3 refelx

A

there is no refelx

75
Q

L2 L3 L4 Muscle test:

A

Knee extension: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius (L2-L4 and Femoral nerve)

76
Q

L2 L3 L4 disc level

A

L1-L3

77
Q

L2 L3 L4 reflex

A

Petellar

78
Q

T2-T12 disc level

A

T2-T12

79
Q

T2-T12 muscle test

A

Rib elevation - interconstals - segmentally inervated (lots of overlap)
rectus abdominus

80
Q

T2-T12 refelx

A

None

Superfical abdominal refelx

81
Q

Where is the T4 sensation distribution?

A

nipple line

82
Q

Where is the T7 sensation distribution?

A

xyphoid process

83
Q

Where is the T10 sensory distribution?

A

level of umbilicus

84
Q

where is the T12 sensory distribution?

A

Groin