Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Moore PD Study Material (Lt.) > Lt. Study Material 2015 > Flashcards

Lt. Study Material 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

Mission Statement:

To create a ____1 ____ by ____2 ____, ____3 ____, and ____4 ____.

A
  1. Safe Community
  2. Protecting Life
  3. Preserving Liberty
  4. Keeping the Peace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In pursuit of our mission, the members of the Moore Police Department adhere to these core values:
__1___ by striving for personal and professional excellence, always seeking to improve
__2___ for ourselves, our peers, and those we serve\
__3___ our character in action, we are morally and ethically aware, resolute and above reproach at all times
__4___ individually responsible for our beliefs, actions, and results
__5___ by providing exceptional __5___ in a courteous and dependable manner

A
  1. Professionalism
  2. Respect
  3. Integrity
  4. Accountability
  5. Service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max Accruable Leave:
Comp Time
Police ____
City _____

A

Police: 300 hrs.
City: 150 hrs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max Accruable Leave:
Vacation
Police ____
City _____

A

Police: 360 hrs.
City: 300 hrs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max Accruable Leave:
Holiday
Police _____
City _____

A

Police: 160 (320 w/ approval)
City: N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max Accruable Leave:
Sick
Police _____
City _____

A

Police: 816 hrs.
City: 1000 hrs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Excessive Absenteeism:

  1. __ work days in __ calendar days
  2. __ work days in __ calendar days
  3. __ work days in __ calendar days
  4. __ work days in __ calendar days
A
  1. 2 work days in 7 calendar days
  2. 5 work days in 30 calendar days
  3. 10 work days in 180 calendar days
  4. 15 work days in 360 calendar days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

__1___ is a process of imposing formal sanctions, which will help train or develop an employee, preferably through positive and constructive methods, rather punitive measures. __1___ in the Moore Police Department involves corrective measures (e.g. training and/or counseling) and as a last resort ____2____.

A
  1. Discipline

2. Punitive Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Objectives of the Disciplinary Process:
This disciplinary process has many objectives and is designed to assure a ____1 ____ for all department personnel, and to hold __2__ and __3__ to a high level of accountability.

A
  1. Strict Standard
  2. Officers
  3. Supervisors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Objectives of the Disciplinary Process:
The Disciplinary Process accomplishes it objectives by:
1.\_\_\_\_\_
2.\_\_\_\_\_
3.\_\_\_\_\_
A
  1. Meeting the needs and improving the confidence of the community
  2. Meeting the needs and improving the confidence of the employee
  3. Efficient management of the department
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

__1__: a meeting between the supervisor and employee to address an employee’s performance that can range from incidents of observed or reported exceptional police performance, to incidents in which an employee violates department policy, rules and/or orders. This meeting is meant to acknowledge exceptional performance by the employee, or correct violations of the policy, rules and/or orders through the guidance of the supervisor. The __1__ supervisor should, informally document this meeting.

A
  1. Counseling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

__1__: Many __2__ by an employee will fall within Category 3. Most __4__ will be handled at the shift level. Shift lieutenants and captains will have wide latitude and discretion in the use of __5__, __6__ and __7__ to deal with minor problems. No matter what action is taken, it ____8____. __9___ does not necessarily mean formal correspondence, however, any writing containing negative connotations must be discussed with the affected employee.

A
  1. Minor Infractions
  2. Infractions
  3. Category A
  4. Minor Infractions
  5. Counseling
  6. Education
  7. Training
  8. Must be Documented
  9. Documentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

__1__: each penalty range (of the disciplinary matrix) contains a __1__, which is defined as a period of time in which a previous infraction may be considered in determining a case category. The computation of the __1__ shall begin with the date of the occurrence of the incident.

A
  1. Reckoning Period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

__1__: a letter to the affected officer on department letterhead describing the serious nature of the offense and a firm warning of any repeated violation of the same or similar offense will result in a higher level of discipline.

A
  1. Letter of Reprimand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

__1__: corrective action that may be ordered in conjunction with disciplinary action in cases involving equipment that is lost or damaged as the result of an intentional and/or negligent act committed by the employee.

A
  1. Involuntary Restitution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____1____-____1____:The disciplinary process includes consideration of past incidents within the reckoning period. Also, occasionally there are single incidents that result in several incidents being sustained. Multiple infractions during a single incident will be address during the disciplinary process.

A
  1. Multiple Infractions-Single Incident
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

__1__/____2____: A supervisor must consider
mitigating or aggravating circumstances that may relate to individual, multiple or all incidents listed in the Disciplinary Matrix. Generally speaking, mitigating and aggravating circumstances serve to justify making a discipline recommendation within the parameters established by the Matrix; however, there may be isolated cases where the mitigating and aggravating circumstances are of such a magnitude that the supervisor feels compelled to support a recommendation to the Chief of Police, for a higher or lower category than the behavior itself would warrant.

A

1/2. Mitigating/Aggravating Circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Escalating factors may raise the original category to any level deemed necessary.
These factors include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Type and extent of injury, if any;
  2. Amount of damage, if any;
  3. Intent
  4. Seriousness of infraction; and
  5. Past employee record
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Recommendations for disciplinary action may include consideration of mitigating and/or aggravating factors to include but not limited to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
A
  1. Employee motive
  2. Degree of culpability
  3. Truthfulness
  4. Disciplinary history
  5. Severity of infraction
  6. Acknowledgement of error or mistake by employee
  7. Other pertinent factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Disciplinary measures shall include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
A
  1. Written reprimand
  2. Probation (not to exceed one (1) year)
  3. Loss of Leave
  4. Suspension without pay
  5. Demotion to a lower Rank or Pay Grade
  6. Termination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
The role of the supervisor is critical in the ____1____. Supervisors have the best opportunity to observe __2__, __3__ and __4__ incidents where disciplinary actions are appropriate.

A
  1. Disciplinary Process
  2. Conduct
  3. Behavior
  4. Detect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
The primary responsibility for __1__ and __2__ member conformance with the standards of conduct, of this department, shall be with the __3__ and __4__ line supervisors.

A
  1. Maintaining
  2. Reinforcing
  3. First
  4. Second
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
Supervisors shall __1__ themselves with the officers under their command, and closely observe their general __2__ and __3__ on a daily basis.

A
  1. Familiarize
  2. Conduct
  3. Appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
Supervisors should remain alert for indications of ____1____ or __2__ that may affect a member’s normal job performance. The supervisor should __3__ such information.

A
  1. Behavioral Problems
  2. Changes
  3. Document
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
When a supervisor perceives that a member may be __1__ or __2__ a problem, the supervisor should ____3____, and __4__ the most appropriate action.

A
  1. Having
  2. Causing
  3. Assess the Situation
  4. Determine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
Supervisors may handle minor infractions without ____1____, ____2____ and charges to support formal charges and __3__ to a superior officer that an employee be relieved of duty.

A
  1. Formal Charges
  2. Prepare Specifications
  3. Recommend
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
A second line supervisor, first line supervisor or a subordinate officer, working in the position of the first line supervisor, when the situation warrants, may relieve an employee from duty ___1____. When a supervisor relieves an employee from duty ____2____, he or she shall notify the Chief of Police through the appropriate ____3____. Written documentation on the disciplinary incident shall be forwarded to the Chief of Police through the appropriate division commander, by __4__ hours the next business day.

A
  1. With Pay
  2. With Pay
  3. Division Commander
  4. 1700
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
A ____1____ is authorized to review __2__ and __3__ that have been made against their subordinate officers and forward them with comments attached, to the ____4____. Further a division commander may suspend an employee from duty ____5____, pending a hearing by the ____6____.

A
  1. Division Commander
  2. Specifications
  3. Charges
  4. Chief of Police
  5. With Pay
  6. Chief of Police
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities

Final department disciplinary authority and responsibility rests with the ____1____.

A
  1. Chief of Police
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A ____1____ must be executed and returned to the magistrate by whom it is issued within 2 days. After the expiration of these times respectively, the warrant, unless executed, is __3__. Provided, if the search warrant authorizes a __4__, __5__ or __6__ analysis of items or samples already in the ____7_____, the search shall be commenced within a __8__ time and the return shall be made within __9__ days following the completion of said search.

A
  1. Search Warrant
  2. 10
  3. Void
  4. Forensic
  5. Scientific
  6. Digital
  7. Custody of Law Enforcement
  8. Reasonable
  9. 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A peace officer may break open an outer or inner door or window of a house, or any part of the house, or anything therein, to execute the warrant when:

  1. The officer has been ____1____ after having first given notice of his authority and purpose; or
  2. Pursuant to an instruction inserted in the search warrant by the magistrate that no warning or other notice of entry is necessary because there is reasonable cause to believe that exigent circumstances exist. Exigent circumstances include:
    a. such warning or other notice would ,
    b. such warning or other notice would ,
    c. such warning or other notice would ,
    d. such warning or other notice would , or
    e. such warning or other notice would .
A
  1. Refused admittance
    a. Pose a significant danger to human life
    b. Allow the possible destruction of evidence
    c. Give rise to the possibility of resistance or escape
    d. Otherwise inhibit the effective investigation of the crime
    e. Be futile or a useless gesture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Exceptions to the warrant requirement under the 4th Amendment (13)

A
  1. Exigent Circumstances
  2. Stop and Frisk
  3. Search Incident to Arrest
  4. Custodial
  5. Plain View
  6. Vehicle
  7. Border
  8. Open Field
  9. Abandoned Property
  10. Consent
  11. Administrative
  12. Probation Search
  13. Protective Sweep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

____- Police may conduct a warrantless search of a vehicle stopped on traffic if there is probable cause to believe that the vehicle contains contraband or evidence

A

U.S. Supreme Court Case

Carroll v. US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

____- The U.S. Supreme Court applied the “Exclusionary Rule” to the States. Thus, any evidence illegally obtained by the government cannot be used in the court against the accused.

A

U.S. Supreme Court Case

Mapp v. Ohio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A peace officer may, without a warrant, arrest a person: (8)

A
  1. For a public offense, committed or attempted in the officer’s presence;
  2. When the person arrested has committed a felony, although not in the officer’s presence;
  3. When a felony has in fact been committed, and the officer has reasonable cause to believe the person arrested to have committed it;
  4. On a charge, made upon reasonable cause, of the commission of a felony by the party arrested;
  5. When the officer has probable cause to believe that the party was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle involved in an accident within this state, whether upon public roads, highways, streets, turnpikes, other public places, or upon any private road, street, alley or lane which provides access to one or more single- or multi-family dwellings and was under the influence of alcohol or intoxicating liquor or who was under the influence of any substance included in the Uniform Controlled Dangerous Substances Act;
  6. Anywhere, including a place of residence of the person, if the peace officer has probable cause to believe the person within the preceding seventy-two (72) hours has committed an act of domestic abuse as defined by Section 60.1 of this title, although the assault did not take place in the presence of the peace officer. A peace officer may not arrest a person pursuant to this section without first observing a recent physical injury to, or an impairment of the physical condition of, the alleged victim;
  7. When a peace officer, in accordance with the provisions of Section 60.9 of this title, is acting on a violation of a protective order offense; or
  8. When the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has threatened another person as defined in subsection B of Section 1378 of Title 21 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

____1____: ____1____ is a flexible common standard merely requiring facts available to an officer, that would warrant a reasonable and prudent man to believe that a person is committing or has committed a crime or that some object is subject to search and/or seizure, more likely than not.

A
  1. Probable Cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

____1____: observation of circumstances based upon specific, articulable facts and reasonable inferences in light of his or her training and experience, the person to be detained has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a crime.

A
  1. Reasonable Suspicion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

_____: The United States Supreme Court established an irrefutable presumption that a statement is involuntary if made during a custodial interrogation without the “____ ____” given.

A

United States Supreme Court
Miranda v. Arizona
“Miranda Warnings”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

____- an officer can briefly detain a person, based upon reasonable suspicion of criminal activity, long enough to dispel the suspicion or to allow it to rise to the level of probable cause for an arrest. The officer is also permitted to do a “limited frisk” search of the person without a warrant. Before the officer can frisk search the subject, he must;
1.
2.
3.

A

U.S. Supreme Court Case
Terry v. Ohio
1. have articulable facts that the person could be armed with a weapon;
2. limit the search to pat searching the outer garments of the suspect to feel for objects that might be weapons;
3. only reach inside the clothing after feeling such objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

____- the use of deadly force to stop a fleeing felon is not justified unless it is necessary to prevent the escape and the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officer or others.

A

U.S. Supreme Court Case

Tennessee v. Garner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
Domestic Abuse 
OSS Title 21, Section 644, Subsection C
Any person who commits any assault and battery against;
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
as the defendant shall be guilty of domestic abuse.
A
  1. A current or former spouse,
  2. A present spouse of a former spouse,
  3. A former spouse of a present spouse,
  4. Parents,
  5. A foster parent,
  6. A child,
  7. A person otherwise related by blood or marriage,
  8. A person with whom the defendant is or was in a dating relationship as defined by Section 60.1 of Title 22 of the Oklahoma Statutes,
  9. An individual with whom the defendant has had a child,
  10. A person who formerly lived in the same household as the defendant, or
  11. A person living in the same household
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

__1__- is taking custody of a person for holding or detaining him/her to answer a criminal or civil demand. The physical seizure by the arresting officer or submission to the officer’s control. The taking, seizing, or detaining the person, touching or putting hands upon him/her in the execution of the process, or any act indicating an intention to __2__.

A
  1. Arrest

2. Arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

All personnel operating department vehicles shall exercise __1__ for the safety of al persons. There are no assignments or tasks of such importance that they justify the __2__ of the employee’s safety or the safety of other persons. Employees must be mindful of the balance between achieving the __3__ while maintaining the __4__.

A
  1. Due Regard
  2. Reckless Disregard
  3. Goals of Law Enforcement
  4. Public’s Safety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

__1__- A __2__ equipped with a siren capable of giving audible signals that can be heard from the front of the vehicle and displaying visible flashing red or blue lights or the combination of flashing red and blue lights.

A
  1. Authorized Emergency Police Vehicle

2. Police Vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

__1__- Any weapon meeting the department requirements and specifications and with which the police officer has qualified and received department and/or Council on Law Enforcement Education and Training (CLEET) certified training on proper and safe usage, and are formally approved by the Chief of Police for use by commissioned police personnel.

A
  1. Authorized weapon
46
Q

__1__- is an active attempt by one or more officers to stop a motor vehicle by the use of emergency lights and siren, during which time the operator of the motor vehicle is driving at a reasonable speed, but willfully refusing to pull over and stop.

A
  1. Refusal to Stop
47
Q

__1__- one or more law enforcement officers engaged in a __2__ to apprehend a suspect who is either an occupant of or operating a motor vehicle, during which time the operator of the motor vehicle is attempting to avoid capture by using high speed driving or other evasive tactics such as; driving off a highway, or making sudden or unexpected maneuvers.

A
  1. Eluding/Fleeing

2. Vehicular pursuit

48
Q

__1__- exists when the facts and circumstances within the arresting officer’s knowledge are sufficient to warrant a prudent person to believe that a suspect has committed, is committing, and is about to commit a crime. __2__ is more than a __3__ or __4__.

A
  1. Probable Cause
  2. Probable Cause
  3. Hunch
  4. Reasonable Suspicion
49
Q

__1__- is the degree of care that a reasonably careful person, performing similar duties, and acting under similar circumstances would show. There is no exception to the requirement that officers demonstrate __2__ for the safety of others. Failing to drive with __3__ may subject a police member to civil and/or criminal liability in addition to other administrative consequences.

A
  1. Due Regard
  2. Due Regard
  3. Due Regard
50
Q

__1__ for engaging in a vehicle pursuit must be based on the facts must be known by the police officer when the decision is made to engage in a pursuit. Information not established as __2__ at the time the pursuit was initiated cannot be considered later in determining whether the pursuit was justified. In all instances of vehicle pursuits, the initializing officer must be able to clearly articulate __3__ why a pursuit was necessary.

A
  1. Justification
  2. Fact
  3. The Reason(s)
51
Q

Eluding/Fleeing vehicle pursuits are justified only when the police member __1__ or has __2__ to believe:
a.
b.

A
  1. Knows
  2. Probable Cause
    a. The occupant(s) has committed, or is about to commit a felony (i.e. armed robbery, reckless endangering safety, and other felony crimes) ; or
    b. The occupant(s) present a clear and immediate threat to the safety of others and therefore the necessity
52
Q

A __1__ pursuit may be initiated and maintained for a lesser offence than described above. However, once the __2__ pursuit becomes an __3__ pursuit, justification for the pursuit must meet at least one of the above criteria (Eluding/Fleeing subsection a, b).

Note: __4__ pursuits are NOT authorized solely for traffic infractions, ordinance violations, misdemeanors, or based upon the fact that the __5__.

A
  1. “Refusal to Stop”
  2. “Refusal to Stop”
  3. “Eluding/Fleeing”
  4. “Eluding/Fleeing”
  5. Vehicle is Fleeing
53
Q

Both the police officer and the controlling supervisor shall consider the following risk assessment criteria for either a “refusal to stop” or “eluding/fleeing” pursuit: (10)

A

a. The danger created by the high-speed pursuit.
b. The nature of the violation.
c. The likelihood of successful apprehension.
d. The volume, type, speed and direction of the traffic.
e. The nature of the area, whether residential, commercial, school zone, open highway, etc.
f. The population density.
g. Familiarity with the roads.
h. The weather and road conditions; i.e., the width and curves of the roadway, stopping and sight distances.
i. The police officers driving skills and condition of the police vehicle
j. The identity of the fleeing individual(s) if known.

54
Q

A field supervisor or higher authority ____1____ that he/she is aware of and monitoring the pursuit as soon as practicable after the pursuit is initiated. It is the direct responsibility of the controlling supervisor to determine that the ____2____ justifies the pursuit and the pursuit is an acceptable risk in accordance with this policy. If these criteria are not met, the supervisor shall __3__ the pursuit. It is the responsibility of the supervisor to acknowledge and either __4__ or __5__ a pursuit.

A
  1. Must Acknowledge
  2. Nature of the Offense
  3. Terminate
  4. Allow
  5. Terminate
55
Q

If a supervisor ____1____ the pursuit within a __2__ period of time after initiation, the initiating officer shall terminate the pursuit.

A
  1. Fails to Acknowledge

2. Reasonable

56
Q

The controlling supervisor shall take __1___ of the pursuit and assume the __2__ to discontinue the pursuit based upon his or her __3__ or upon a __4__ from the primary pursuit police vehicle operator.

A
  1. Command
  2. Responsibility
  3. Knowledge
  4. Recommendation
57
Q

The controlling supervisor shall monitor all ____1____ to ensure only those police vehicles __2__ participate in the pursuit.

A
  1. Radio Communications

2. Authorized

58
Q

Considering the __1__ and __2__ of the offense for which the suspect is being pursued and assessing the potential, if any, for identification and arresting the fleeing offender at a later time, the controlling supervisor shall order a pursuit discontinued when: (3)

A
  1. Nature
  2. Seriousness
    a. The known circumstances justify discontinuing the pursuit;
    b. The actions of other police agencies or individuals increase the danger to officers or the public. This includes actions of officers from other police agencies who operate in a manner inconsistent with the Moore Police pursuit policies;
    c. Receiving a recommendation from the primary police pursuit vehicle operator or another supervisor who may be engaged in the pursuit.
59
Q

Units Authorized to Participate in a Pursuit:
a. Only ___1 ___, ___2___, and a ____3____ shall directly pursue a fleeing vehicle. All other officers shall remain clear of the pursuit unless directed otherwise by the controlling supervisor. The ____4____ may broadcast the pursuit if requested by the primary unit or controlling supervisor.
b. The controlling supervisor may monitor the pursuit or participate in the pursuit __5__ or __6__.
c. Police vehicles without roof mounted emergency lights will discontinue the pursuit when a ____7____ takes up the pursuit.
.

A
  1. One Primary Unit
  2. One Secondary Unit
  3. Controlling Supervisor
  4. Secondary Unit
  5. Directly
  6. Indirectly
  7. Police Unit with roof mounted emergency lights
60
Q

Police vehicles with __1__ other than ____2____ shall not engage in pursuits.

Police vehicles with __3__ shall not engage in pursuits.

4 units, __5__ units, __6__ vehicles, and officers in __7__ vehicles shall not engage in pursuits.

A
  1. Passengers
  2. Commissioned Police Personnel
  3. Prisoners
  4. K-9
  5. Motorcycle
  6. Unmarked
  7. Private
61
Q

Officers initiating a pursuit shall immediately notify communications and the supervisor of the following information: (5)

A

a. The police unit initiating the pursuit
b. The direction of travel
c. The reason for the pursuit
d. The vehicle and occupant descriptions
e. Any other pertinent information or circumstances regarding the incident

62
Q 
Prohibited Practices During a Pursuit
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
A
  1. Officers shall not attempt to force the pursued vehicle from the roadway by driving alongside or in front of the fleeing vehicle.
  2. Except in circumstances in which deadly force is justifiable, officers shall not bump or ram the fleeing vehicle in an attempt to force it from the roadway.
  3. Officers shall not discharge their weapons at a moving vehicle unless an occupant of the vehicle is using or attempting to use deadly force against an officer or other person.
  4. Officers shall not pursue fleeing vehicles the wrong way on a freeway. This is not intended to prohibit pursuit on an adjacent roadway where the officer is driving with the normal flow of traffic.
  5. There shall be no paralleling of the pursuit route, unless a unit is so assigned by the controlling supervisor. If paralleling is authorized the paralleling unit shall not be operated in Code 3.
  6. Officers involved in a pursuit shall not attempt to pass other units unless requested to do so by the primary unit.
63
Q

__1__ is an arrest warrant for a person who has been discharged on bail, personal recognizance, or otherwise has deposited money there of, and does not appear at the time and date when his/her personal appearance is required.

A
  1. Bench Warrant
64
Q

__1__ is a mandatory writ or process directed to and requiring one or more persons to appear at a date and time to come and testify under oath for the party named or to answer allegations against them.

A
  1. Subpoena
65
Q

__1__ is a mandate requiring the appearance of a defendant in a legal proceeding. The defendant is under the penalty of law for failure to obey the __2__.

A
  1. Summons

2. Summons

66
Q

A __1__ is an order in writing, in the name of the State, signed by a magistrate, directed to a police officer, commanding him to search for personal property and bring it before the magistrate.

A
  1. Search Warrant
67
Q

A __1__ shall not be issued except upon ___2___, supported by an affidavit, naming or describing the person, and particularly describing the property and the place to be searched.

A
  1. Search Warrant

2. Probable Cause

68
Q

A __1__ is a child or juvenile who commits an act which is unlawful only if committed by a juvenile such as truancy, child in need of supervision, runaways, curfew, or tobacco violations.

A
  1. Status Offender
69
Q

____1____- Certain persons who are fifteen (15), sixteen (16), or seventeen (17) years of age who are charged with certain felony criminal offenses as enumerated in the Oklahoma State Statues.

A
  1. Youthful Offender
70
Q

A juvenile fifteen (15) years of age, who is arrested for the following offenses, shall be interviewed only in the presence of a parent, guardian, attorney, adult relative, adult caretaker or legal custodian; (12)

A

a. Murder in the second degree;
b. Kidnapping for the purpose of extortion;
c. Manslaughter in the first degree;
d. Robbery with a dangerous weapon or attempt thereof;
e. Robbery with a firearm or attempt thereof;
f. Rape in the first degree or attempt thereof;
g. Rape by instrumentation or attempt thereof;
h. Forcible sodomy;
i. Lewd molestation;
j. Arson in the first degree or attempt thereof;
k. Shooting with intent to kill;
l. Discharging a firearm, crossbow or other weapon from a vehicle.

71
Q

A juvenile sixteen (16) or seventeen (17) years of age may be interviewed following the same procedures as those used with adults for the following offenses: (20)

A

a. Murder in the second degree;
b. Kidnapping for the purpose of extortion;
c. Manslaughter in the first degree;
d. Robbery with a dangerous weapon or attempt thereof;
e. Robbery with a firearm or attempt thereof;
f. Rape in the first degree or attempt thereof;
g. Rape by instrumentation or attempt thereof;
h. Forcible sodomy;
i. Lewd molestation;
j. Arson in the first degree or attempt thereof;
k. Shooting with intent to kill;
l. Discharging a firearm, crossbow or other weapon from a vehicle;
m. Burglary in the first degree or attempt thereof;
n. Aggravated assault and battery of a police officer;
o. Intimidating a witness;
p. Trafficking in, or manufacturing illegal drugs;
q. Assault or assault and battery with a deadly weapon;
r. Maiming;
s. Residential burglary in the second degree after two (2) or more adjudications as a delinquent for committing burglary in the first degree or residential burglary in the second degree; or
t. Rape in the second degree.

72
Q

The use of physical take-downs, compliance techniques, any form of restraint other than handcuffing, striking with a hand, foot, or any other object, the discharge of a firearm (w/ exceptions), the use of any impact weapon, chemical agent, oleoresin capsicum, electronic restraint device, or a canine that bites or knocks a subject to the ground is considered __1__.

A
  1. Force
73
Q

____1____: Physical force that exceeds the degree permitted by law or the policies and guidelines of the Moore Police Department. The use of ____2____ shall be presumed when a Moore Police Officer continues to apply ____3____ to a person who has been rendered incapable of resisting arrest.

A
  1. Excessive Force
  2. Excessive Force
  3. Physical Force
74
Q

____1____: Any force that may be reasonably expected to cause death or critical bodily injury to a person regardless of intent.

A
  1. Deadly Force
75
Q

____1____: Any use of force other than that which is considered deadly force. ____2____ includes less lethal force.

A
  1. Non-deadly Force

2. Non-deadly Force

76
Q

__1__: A __2__ is any offensive or defensive instrument. Examples of __3___ include but are not limited to firearms, impact weapons, knives, electronic restraint devices, chemical agents, compliance holds, physical strength and skill, vehicles, and canines, or anything else that may be used as a __4__.

A
  1. Weapon
  2. Weapon
  3. Weapons
  4. Weapon
77
Q

____1____: The use of force is ____2____ when all other reasonable means to accomplish the desired action have been exhausted or would clearly be ineffective under the circumstances.

A
  1. Reasonably Necessary

2. Reasonably Necessary

78
Q

____1____: Anxiety disorders that can result from exposure to short-term severe stress, or the long-term build-up of repetitive and prolonged milder stress

A
  1. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
79
Q 
Deadly Force
Police officers are authorized to use deadly force against a person under the following circumstances only:
1.
2.
3.
A
  1. When the officers have probable cause to believe they or others are in danger of death or serious bodily injury, and the use of deadly force is objectively reasonable to protect themselves or others, or
  2. When objectively reasonable to effect the arrest of or prevent the escape of a fleeing suspect whom the officer has probable cause to believe will pose a significant threat to human life should the escape occur, and
  3. When, if feasible, a verbal warning has been given.
80
Q 
Use of Non-Deadly Force
In circumstances where deadly force is not justified, non-deadly weapons or methods may be used to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. To protect himself or herself or another from physical harm;
  2. To de-escalate a situation and bring it under control in a safe and effective manner;
  3. To restrain or subdue a resistant individual;
  4. To affect the arrest of or prevent the escape of an offender.
81
Q

Using and Exhibiting Firearms

  1. General provisions for the discharge of a firearm
  2. (a)
  3. (b)
  4. (c)
  5. (d)
  6. (e)
  7. Except for __1__ or ____2 ____, police officers shall not draw or exhibit their firearm unless circumstances create reasonable cause to believe it may be necessary to use the weapon in conformance with this policy.
A

a. Firearms may be used when it is permissible as deadly force.
b. Firearms may be used to destroy an animal that represents a threat to public safety or as a humanitarian measure where the animal is seriously injured. Except for exigent circumstances, supervisor approval is required.
c. Firearms may be used for purposes of firearms training, practice, qualification, ballistics examinations, or a sporting event.
d. Firearms shall not be discharged when it appears likely that an innocent person may be injured.
e. Police officers shall not fire warning shots.
1. Maintenance
2. During Training

82
Q 
Reporting the Use of Force
1. Every officer, either on duty or off duty, while actively engaged in providing police service, who uses force or witnesses the use of force, upon a subject that results in a visible injury or a complaint of injury, shall immediately notify the \_\_ \_\_\_\_1\_\_\_\_. For the purpose of reporting, force is:
a. (10)
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
I.
k.
A
  1. On Duty Supervisor
    a. The discharge of firearms.
    b. The use of an impact weapon
    c. The use of a chemical agent or oleoresin capsicum
    d. The use of any electronic restraint device
    e. The use of a four-point restraint or maximum restraint.
    f. Canine bites
    g. Physical take-downs
    h. Compliance techniques
    I. The use of handcuffs in any manner other than placing them on a passive person.
    j. Striking with the hand, foot or any other object
    k. Damage to property.
83
Q

Supervisor Responsibilities For Use of Force (General)

The supervisor shall ____1____ to the location of the person upon whom force was used.

A
  1. Immediately Respond
84
Q

Supervisor Responsibilities For Use of Force (General)
The supervisor will inquire as to the __1__ surrounding the incident and determine if other __2__, such as the ____3____, __4__, or the ____5____ should be made.

A
  1. Circumstances
  2. Notifications
  3. Division Commander
  4. Detectives
  5. Chief of Police
85
Q

Supervisor Responsibilities For Use of Force (General)

If visible injuries or complaint of injury(s) exist, the supervisor will ensure ___1____ is provided if justified.

A
  1. Medical Treatment
86
Q

Supervisor Responsibilities For Use of Force (General)
__1__ will be taken of the person upon whom force was used, even if there are no visible signs of injury, or no complaint of injury. __2__ of the involved officer(s) will be taken to document any injuries the officer(s) received prior to or during the use of force. The __3__ will be submitted along with the officer’s report.

A
  1. Photographs
  2. Photographs
  3. Photographs
87
Q

Supervisor Responsibilities For Use of Force (General)
The supervisor will review the officers completed __1__ to ensure it is correct and all information about the ___ ____2____ is included.

A
  1. Report

2. Use of Force

88
Q

Supervisor Responsibilities For Use of Force (General)
The supervisor upon receiving notification of a use of force by an officer(s) shall initiate a ____1____ of facts into the use of force by the officer(s). The ____2____ process shall include ____3____, ____4____, and ____ ____5____. The fact gathering process shall be completed within 6 days following the date the supervisor was ____7____ that the use of force has occurred. If a supervisor is involved in the use of force the fact gathering shall be conducted by a ____8____ unless otherwise directed by the division commander. The preliminary facts gathered concerning the use of force shall be compiled and placed in a use of force ____9____. This report shall be forwarded to the ____10____ through the chain of command.

A
  1. Preliminary Gathering
  2. Fact Gathering
  3. Witness Information
  4. Victim/Witness Statements
  5. Documentation of the Evidence
  6. 3 Days
  7. Made Aware
  8. Supervisor of the Next Highest Rank
  9. Follow-up Report
  10. Chief of Police
89
Q 
Responsibility of the Supervisor at an Officer Involved Use of Force Incident in Which Serious
Bodily Injury or Death of a Person Results.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
  1. Ensure crime scene is protected, detain and segregate all witnesses and suspects.
  2. If a weapon was involved, have the officer leave his or her weapon holstered without reloading, unloading, or tampering with the weapon. Do not take the weapon. The weapon will be released to the investigator if necessary.
  3. Ensure notifications are made to the Chief of Police, the involved officer’s division commander, the detective division commander and the Professional Standards Captain.
  4. Have the officer give you a brief statement of what happened and ask public safety questions. (How many suspects were there, are there any suspects outstanding, what are their descriptions, etc.)
  5. Have the officer involved remain with you or another supervisor and not discuss the incident with anyone else except the detective(s) or the professional standards investigator.
  6. Make a detailed report and forward to the detective division, and professional standards unit, regarding what you saw, heard, and did at the scene.
  7. Assist investigative personnel.
  8. Advise the officer they may seek legal counsel.
90
Q

A __1__ is an oral or written dispute, complaint, controversy, difference or claim between the Employer and the F.O.P. or the Employer and any individual member of the bargaining unit which arises during the term of this Agreement. A __2__ may be filed by either an authorized representative of or a member in the bargaining unit.

A
  1. Grievance

2. Grievance

91
Q

A grievance shall be initiated within 1 business days after the occurrence or event giving rise to the grievance becomes known or should become known to the Grievant.

A
  1. 15
92
Q

A grievance should be brought forward as soon as it might reasonably become ____1____. In the event a grievance arises, the employee must submit in writing a grievance to the __2__ (Step A) and the ____3____ within ____4____ days after knowledge of the action, conduct or event giving rise to the grievance has become known or should have become known to the grievant.

A
  1. Known to Exist
  2. Supervisor
  3. Chief of Police
  4. Fifteen business (15)
93
Q

When a grievance is reduced to writing, it shall contain all of the following.
a. (3)
b.
c.

A

(a) A statement of the grievance and facts upon which it is based.
(b) The section or sections of this Agreement claimed to have been violated; and
(c) The remedy or correction requested.

94
Q

Step A. The grievant shall present, in writing the grievance to their supervisor and the Chief of Police prior to accrual of the time limitation (__1__) set forth in Section D of this Article. The grievant or the supervisor may request that a F.O.P. Steward or other representative be present. Discussions will be informal for the purpose of settling differences in the __2__ and __3__ manner. The supervisor shall reach a decision and communicate it in writing to the grievant within __4__ days from the date of the grievance was presented.

A
  1. 15 business days
  2. Simplest
  3. Most Direct
  4. Five (5)
95
Q

Step B. If the grievance is not settled at the first step, the grievant within ____1____ business days following receipt of the answer in the first step shall present it to the Chief of Police.
The Chief of Police or designee shall obtain the facts concerning the alleged grievance and shall within ____2____ business days of receipt of the written grievance conduct a meeting between himself, a representative, if needed, and the grievant. The grievant may be accompanied at this meeting by a F.O.P. Steward or other union representative. The Chief of Police or his designee shall notify the grievant in writing of the decision no later than ____3____ business days following the meeting date.

A
  1. Fifteen (15)
  2. Fifteen (15)
  3. Ten (10)
96
Q

Step C. If the grievance is not settled at step B, the grievant within ____1____ business days following receipt of the answer in the second step shall present the written grievance to the City Manager. The City Manager, or designee, shall obtain the facts concerning the alleged grievance and shall, within ____2____ business days following receipt of the written grievance, conduct a meeting between the Employer, its representatives, if needed, and the grievant. The grievant may be accompanied at this meeting by an F.O.P. Steward and/or union representative. The City Manager, or designee, shall notify the grievant in writing of the decision no later than ____3____ business days following the meeting date.

A
  1. Fifteen (15)
  2. Fifteen (15)
  3. Ten (10)
97
Q

The actions taken by the officer(s) during the use of force will be included in the report completed by the officers in the computer based reporting system and will be completed as soon as practicable. Unless circumstances dictate otherwise, the Use of Force Report will be completed by the end of the officer(s) __1__. The supervisor and any other Moore Police Officers present during the use of force will complete a
___2___ report stating their involvement in the use of force and/or their observations __3__, __4__ and __5__ the force was used.

A
  1. Shift
  2. Supplemental
  3. Prior To
  4. During
  5. After
98
Q

____1____: A written order issued and signed by a magistrate of a court of competent jurisdiction, directed to a peace officer, and commanding him/her to arrest the body of a person named on it, who is so accused of an offense.

A
  1. Arrest Warrant
99
Q 
Basis for Disciplinary Action
1. Employees shall be subject to disciplinary action by the agency when their actions constitute, but not limited to, one of the following:
a. (6)
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
A

a. A violation of state, local or federal law as codified by courts of competent jurisdiction;
b. Any violation of an applicable portion of the MPD Operations Manual;
c. Incompetence;
d. Conduct unbecoming an employee;
e. Any violation of any other applicable City of Moore Policy or Procedure; or
f. Any other violation constituting just cause where the employee was not acting in good faith.

100
Q

Disciplinary Action
1. Disciplinary action from least to most serious level is:
a. (6)
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
2. ____1____ may be imposed as a form of discipline if it is determined that an act or omission resulted from a deficiency in training, or from an unintentional failure to respond as expected to adequate instruction.
3. ____2____ of discipline may be imposed for a single incident.

A

a. Verbal reprimand
b. Letter of reprimand
c. Probation (not to exceed one (1) year)
d. Suspension without pay (not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days)
e. Demotion to a lower rank or pay grade
f. Termination
1. Remedial Training
2. Multiple levels

101
Q 
Major Crime Scenes
A. Initial Response
Initial responding officers shall initiate the preliminary investigation and perform tasks as designated below until otherwise directed by a supervisor, detective, or identification specialist (IDS).
1. (10)
2.
3.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
6.
A
  1. In route to crime scenes, officers shall be cognizant of possible suspects or vehicles fleeing the scene and any other suspicious activity possibly related to the crime.
  2. Upon arrival, arrest the perpetrator if at the scene. A decision to leave the crime scene to arrest or pursue the perpetrator should be made based on weighing the immediate needs of victims and others against the safety of the public if the perpetrator were allowed to escape.
  3. Administer first aid and summon EMS if required.
  4. Upon arrival, verify a crime has been committed and relay essential information to communications and other responding personnel such as:
    a. The type of crime or crimes committed;
    b. The description of the perpetrator, direction of flight, vehicle information, etc.;
    c. Use of any weapons and if the perpetrator is armed;
    d. Any other essential information deemed immediately necessary.
  5. Identify any witnesses, secure their identities, separate them, and request they remain until interviewed. Where reasonably possible, obtain the identities of other persons who were present prior to your arrival.
  6. Provide supervisors and investigative personnel arriving at the scene with complete information including measures taken thus far.
102
Q 
Major Crime Scenes
The ranking officer at the crime scene shall:
a. (7)
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
A

a. Ensure sufficient personnel are available to protect and preserve the crime scene and aid injured persons;
b. Ensure certain critical exits or apertures are cordoned off or otherwise secured;
c. Ensure spectator control sufficient to protect areas expected to have potential for physical evidence yield;
d. Ensure areas affected by smoke, rain, wind, direct sun, or other elements are protected to the degree reasonable;
e. Ensure a crime scene log is being properly maintained;
f. Ensure a public information officer or other spokesperson is coordinating with the media.
g. Notify division commander or Chief of Police on all high profile incidents.

103
Q 
With approval of their supervisor, patrol officers may conduct follow-up investigations on incidents except the following:
a. (9)
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
I.
A

a. Homicides
b. Suicides
c. Drownings
d. Unattended deaths
e. Rapes
f. Armed robberies
g. Barricaded persons
h. Bombings
i. Any other unusual situation as determined by the patrol supervisor

104
Q 
The patrol division responsibilities include but are not limited to: patrol functions such as; 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
A
  1. Responding to calls for service,
  2. Securing crime scenes,
  3. Properly investigating and taking appropriate action regarding traffic activity, criminal activity, and unusual circumstances;
  4. Apprehension of offenders;
  5. Recovery of stolen property or contraband;
  6. Preparation of reports and
  7. Presentation of court testimony.
105
Q 
The Operations Division embodies; 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Detectives,
  2. Records,
  3. Training,
  4. Personnel services, and
  5. Fiscal management.
106
Q 
The detective bureau responsibilities include but are not limited to; 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7. 
In addition to the basic investigation functions, the detective bureau is responsible for;
8.
9.
10.
11.
A
  1. Proper investigation of criminal activity,
  2. Collection and preservation of crime scene evidence, 3. Apprehension of offenders,
  3. Recovery of stolen property,
  4. Preparation of reports,
  5. Presentation of evidence to the prosecutor’s office,
  6. Presentation of court testimony.
  7. The maintenance and storage of lost, found, stolen, or confiscated property;
  8. Classification, maintenance and storage of fingerprint documents;
  9. Analyzing evidence;
  10. Compilation of crime statistics.
107
Q 
The records bureau responsibilities include but are not limited to: 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Coding, filing, retrieval, and general maintenance of certain agency reports and documents;
  2. Rendering assistance to the public; and
  3. Receiving cash payments for file searches,
  4. Impounded vehicle releases and
  5. Other administrative fees.
108
Q 
The training sergeants’ responsibilities include but are not limited to: 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Gathering, evaluating, and disseminating in-service and specialized training materials,
  2. Processing training requests,
  3. Maintenance of personnel training records;
  4. Preparation of training reports to include training received,
  5. Training deficiencies.
109
Q 
The fiscal management section responsibilities include but are not limited to: 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Internal auditing of budget cost centers,
  2. Preparation of purchase orders and payment authorization forms;
  3. Maintenance of petty cash funds;
  4. Preparation of budget reports and
  5. Receipt of accounts payable.
110
Q

The special operations section responsibilities include but are not limited to;
1.
2.

A
  1. Investigation of illegal drug and narcotic activities and 2.Agency covert operations.
111
Q

Regardless of the department entity in which he or she is assigned, the __1__ officer at the scene of any event is the officer in charge.

A
  1. Ranking
112
Q

If two (2) officers of equal rank are at a scene the officer in charge will be determined by the type of event as follows:

  1. Homicide – __1__ Division
  2. Suicide – __2__ Division
  3. Drowning – __3__ Division
  4. Fatality or other major traffic accident – __4__ Division
  5. Barricaded persons or hostage situation – __5__ Division
  6. Rape or other sexual assault – __6__ Division
  7. Robbery – __7__ Division
  8. Bombing – __8__ Division
  9. Other death – __9__ Division
  10. Other unusual emergency event - __10__ Division
A
  1. Operations
  2. Operations
  3. Operations
  4. Patrol
  5. Patrol
  6. Operations
  7. Operations
  8. Patrol
  9. Operations
  10. Patrol

Moore PD Study Material (Lt.) (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions