LSAT PREP TEST QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #1 Certain companies require their managers to rank
workers in the groups they supervise from best to
worst, giving each worker a unique ranking based on
job performance. The top 10 percent of the workers
in each group are rewarded and the bottom 10
percent are penalized or fired. But this system is
unfair to workers. Good workers could receive low
rankings merely because they belong to groups of
exceptionally good workers. Furthermore, managers
often give the highest rankings to workers who share
the manager’s interests outside of work.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion drawn in the argument?
(A) Some companies require their managers to give
unique rankings to the workers they supervise.
(B) Under the ranking system, the top 10 percent of
the workers in each group are rewarded and the
bottom 10 percent are penalized or fired.
(C) The ranking system is not a fair way to determine
penalties or rewards for workers.
(D) Workers in exceptionally strong work groups are
unfairly penalized under the ranking system.
(E) Managers often give the highest rankings to
workers who share the manager’s outside
interests.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Main Point

This argument disagrees with the compensation system companies use requiring managers to first rank their workers from best to worst, and then reward the top 10 percent in each group and penalize or fire the workers in the bottom 10 percent. The argument concludes that this system is unfair to workers. The premises are that the rankings depend too much on the quality of the workers with whom each worker is grouped. Also, managers often rank workers for the wrong reasons, such as affinity.

A. No. This is a premise.

B. No. This is a premise.

C. Yes. This is a good restatement of the disagreement.

D. No. This is a premise.

E. No. This is a premise.

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2
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #2 Psychologist: A study of 436 university students
found that those who took short naps
throughout the day suffered from insomnia
more frequently than those who did not.
Moreover, people who work on commercial
fishing vessels often have irregular sleep
patterns that include frequent napping, and
they also suffer from insomnia. So it is very
likely that napping tends to cause insomnia.
The reasoning in the psychologist’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
university students suffer from insomnia
more frequently than do members of the
general population
(B) presumes that all instances of insomnia have
the same cause
(C) fails to provide a scientifically respectable
definition for the term “napping”
(D) fails to consider the possibility that frequent
daytime napping is an effect rather than a
cause of insomnia
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
there is such a thing as a regular sleep pattern
for someone working on a commercial fishing
vessel

A

Correct Answer: D

D Flaw

The argument presents a causal interpretation of evidence. The psychologist concludes that napping is likely to cause insomnia because two groups of people who nap more suffer more from insomnia.

A. No. The argument does not compare university students to the general population, but rather university students who nap to those who do not.

B. No. The argument does not assume that napping is the only cause of insomnia, just that it tends to cause insomnia.

C. No. The argument uses the term “napping” consistently and does not need to define it.

D. Yes. The argument fails to rule out the possibility that the causal direction might be reversed.

E. No. This is not essential to the argument.

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3
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #3 Whenever Joe’s car is vacuumed, the employees of
K & L Auto vacuum it; they are the only people who
ever vacuum Joe’s car. If the employees of K & L Auto
vacuumed Joe’s car, then Joe took his car to K & L
Auto to be fixed. Joe’s car was recently vacuumed.
Therefore, Joe took his car to K & L Auto to be fixed.
The pattern of reasoning exhibited by the argument
above is most similar to that exhibited by which one
of the following?
(A) Emily’s water glass is wet and it would be wet
only if she drank water from it this morning.
Since the only time she drinks water in the
morning is when she takes her medication,
Emily took her medication this morning.
(B) Lisa went to the hair salon today since either
she went to the hair salon today or she went
to the bank this morning, but Lisa did not go
to the bank this morning.
(C) There are no bills on John’s kitchen table. Since
John gets at least one bill per day and he
always puts his bills on his kitchen table,
someone else must have checked John’s mail
today.
(D) Linda is grumpy only if she does not have her
coffee in the morning, and Linda does not
have her coffee in the morning only if she
runs out of coffee. Therefore, Linda runs out
of coffee only on days that she is grumpy.
(E) Jeff had to choose either a grapefruit or cereal
for breakfast this morning. Given that Jeff is
allergic to grapefruit, Jeff must have had
cereal for breakfast this morning.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Parallel

Diagram the argument. Joe’s car is vacuumed → K & L vacuumed it. K & L vacuumed it → Joe took it to K & L to be fixed. The argument demonstrates that the sufficient factor (Joe’s car is vacuumed) is valid. Therefore, the result (Joe took his car to K & L to be fixed) must also be true.

A. Yes. Emily’s glass is wet → she drank water from it this morning → she took her medication. Emily’s glass is wet, so she must have taken her medication.

B. No. There is no either/or option in the original argument.

C. No. This answer choice does not match the structure of the original argument.

D. No. This answer choice demonstrates flawed reasoning and the original argument does not.

E. No. There is no either/or option in the original argument.

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4
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #4 Editorialist: In a large corporation, one of the
functions of the corporation’s president is to
promote the key interests of the shareholders.
Therefore, the president has a duty to keep the
corporation’s profits high.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
strengthen the editorialist’s argument?
(A) Shareholders sometimes will be satisfied even
if dividends paid to them from company
profits are not high.
(B) The president and the board of directors of a
corporation are jointly responsible for
advancing the key interests of the
shareholders.
(C) Keeping a corporation’s profits high is likely to
advance the important interests of the
corporation’s shareholders.
(D) In considering where to invest, most potential
shareholders are interested in more than just
the profitability of a corporation.
(E) The president of a corporation has many
functions besides advancing the important
interests of the corporation’s shareholders.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Strengthen

The editorialist concludes that the president has a duty to keep the corporation’s profits high. The premise is that one of the functions of the president is to promote the key interests of the stockholders. The argument would benefit from a connection between the key interests of the stockholders and high profits.

A. No. This answer choice would, if anything, weaken the argument.

B. No. The argument is concerned with the president and what he/she should do, not the board of directors.

C. Yes. This answer choice provides a strong connection between the key interests of the shareholders and keeping the profits high.

D. No. The argument does not imply that profitability is the only interest of the shareholders.

E. No. Like (D), the argument does not imply that advancing the important interests of shareholders is the president’s only responsibility.

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5
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #5 Everyone in Biba’s neighborhood is permitted to
swim at Barton Pool at some time during each day
that it is open. No children under the age of 6 are
permitted to swim at Barton Pool between noon and
5 P.M. From 5 P.M. until closing, Barton Pool is
reserved for adults only.
If all the sentences above are true, then which one of
the following must be true?
(A) Few children under the age of 6 live in Biba’s
neighborhood.
(B) If Biba’s next-door neighbor has a child under
the age of 6, then Barton Pool is open before
noon.
(C) If most children who swim in Barton Pool
swim in the afternoon, then the pool is
generally less crowded after 5 P.M.
(D) On days when Barton Pool is open, at least
some children swim there in the afternoon.
(E) Any child swimming in Barton Pool before
5 P.M. must be breaking Barton Pool rules.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

This is a connect-the-facts inference with conditionals. Live in Biba’s neighborhood → permitted to swim at some time each day. Under 6 → can’t swim between noon and 5 P.M. Child → can’t swim from 5 P.M. until closing.

A. No. You can’t prove how many, if any, children live in Biba’s neighborhood.

B. Yes. Children under 6 can’t swim in the pool from noon until closing. Yet, as the passage says, everyone that lives in the neighborhood must be able to swim at some time during the day. This child would have to be able to swim before noon.

C. No. The argument does not provide any information to determine how crowded the pool will be.

D. No. The argument does not explain who lives in Biba’s neighborhood. It could be a neighborhood with no children.

E. No. The pool could be open before noon. Also, it’s only children under 6 that are not allowed to swim between noon and 5 P.M.

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6
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #6 Beck: Our computer program estimates municipal
automotive use based on weekly data. Some
staff question the accuracy of the program’s
estimates. But because the figures it provides
are remarkably consistent from week to week,
we can be confident of its accuracy.
The reasoning in Beck’s argument is flawed in that it
(A) fails to establish that consistency is a more
important consideration than accuracy
(B) fails to consider the program’s accuracy in
other tasks that it may perform
(C) takes for granted that the program’s output
would be consistent even if its estimates were
inaccurate
(D) regards accuracy as the sole criterion for
judging the program’s value
(E) fails to consider that the program could
produce consistent but inaccurate output

A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The purpose of this argument is to disagree with a claim. Beck concludes that, despite what some of the staff says, they can be confident of their computer program’s accuracy because the figures that the program provides are consistent from week to week. Beck equates consistency with accuracy.

A. No. The argument doesn’t claim that consistency is more important than accuracy. It equates the two.

B. No. The argument is concerned with only one task: estimating the municipal automotive use.

C. No. The argument takes for granted that, because the output is consistent, the program must be accurate.

D. No. The argument is concerned with only the accuracy of the program. It doesn’t make any claims about the program’s value in general.

E. Yes. The argument assumes that, because the output is consistent, the program must be accurate.

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7
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #7 Inertia affects the flow of water pumped through a
closed system of pipes. When the pump is first
switched on, the water, which has mass, takes time to
reach full speed. When the pump is switched off,
inertia causes the decrease in the water flow to be
gradual. The effects of inductance in electrical
circuits are similar to the effects of inertia in water
pipes.
The information above provides the most support
for which one of the following?
(A) The rate at which electrical current flows is
affected by inductance.
(B) The flow of electrical current in a circuit
requires inertia.
(C) Inertia in the flow of water pumped by an
electrically powered pump is caused by
inductance in the pump’s circuits.
(D) Electrical engineers try to minimize the effects
of inductance in electrical circuits.
(E) When a water pump is switched off it
continues to pump water for a second or two

A

Correct Answer: A

A Inference

The argument describes how inertia affects the flow of water pumped through a closed system of pipes. It then equates the effects of inductance in electrical circuits with the effects of inertia in water pipes.

A. Yes. If the effects of inductance are similar to the effects of inertia, and inertia affects the flow of water, then inductance will affect the flow of electrical current.

B. No. Inertia refers to water and pipes, not the flow of electrical current.

C. No. You cannot prove how inductance affects inertia from the information provided.

D. No. You cannot prove anything about electrical engineers from the information provided.

E. No. This choice is too strong. All you can prove is that the inertia causes the decrease in the water flow to be gradual. You cannot prove how long this takes.

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8
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #8 Journalist: To reconcile the need for profits sufficient
to support new drug research with the moral
imperative to provide medicines to those who
most need them but cannot afford them, some
pharmaceutical companies feel justified in
selling a drug in rich nations at one price and
in poor nations at a much lower price. But this
practice is unjustified. A nation with a low
average income may still have a substantial
middle class better able to pay for new drugs
than are many of the poorer citizens of an
overall wealthier nation.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the journalist’s reasoning?
(A) People who are ill deserve more consideration
than do healthy people, regardless of their
relative socioeconomic positions.
(B) Wealthy institutions have an obligation to
expend at least some of their resources to
assist those incapable of assisting themselves.
(C) Whether one deserves special consideration
depends on one’s needs rather than on
characteristics of the society to which one
belongs.
(D) The people in wealthy nations should not have
better access to health care than do the people
in poorer nations.
(E) Unequal access to health care is more unfair
than an unequal distribution of wealth.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Strengthen

The purpose of this argument is to disagree with a claim. The journalist thinks that the pharmaceutical companies are not justified in selling a drug in rich nations at one price and in poor nations at another price. The journalist’s premise is that many individuals in poorer nations might be better able to pay for new drugs than poorer individuals in nations with higher overall wealth.

A. No. The argument doesn’t compare ill people to healthy people.

B. No. This answer choice supports the position that the argument is designed to disagree with.

C. Yes. This answer choice points out that special consideration should be provided to individuals when individuals within a society might not have the same amount of resources as the society does, on average.

D. No. This answer choice is not relevant to the argument.

E. No. The argument does not discuss the fairness of unequal distribution of wealth.

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9
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #9 9. Robert: The school board is considering adopting a
year-round academic schedule that eliminates
the traditional three-month summer vacation.
This schedule should be adopted, since
teachers need to cover more new material
during the school year than they do now.
Samantha: The proposed schedule will not permit
teachers to cover more new material. Even
though the schedule eliminates summer
vacation, it adds six new two-week breaks, so
the total number of school days will be about
the same as before.
Which one of the following, if true, is a response
Robert could make that would counter Samantha’s
argument?
(A) Teachers would be willing to accept
elimination of the traditional three-month
summer vacation as long as the total vacation
time they are entitled to each year is not
reduced.
(B) Most parents who work outside the home find
it difficult to arrange adequate supervision
for their school-age children over the
traditional three-month summer vacation.
(C) In school districts that have adopted a yearround schedule that increases the number of
school days per year, students show a deeper
understanding and better retention of new
material.
(D) Teachers spend no more than a day of class
time reviewing old material when students
have been away from school for only a few
weeks, but have to spend up to a month of
class time reviewing after a three-month
summer vacation.
(E) Students prefer taking a long vacation from
school during the summer to taking more
frequent but shorter vacations spread
throughout the year.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Weaken

Robert is trying to solve a problem and Samantha claims that he hasn’t solved it. Robert concludes that the school board should adopt a year-round academic schedule because teachers need to cover more new material during the school year than they do now. Samantha claims that the new school schedule won’t permit the teachers to cover any more new material because the amount of vacation will be the same as before, just in a different configuration. The students will have six two-week breaks, instead of one three-month break.

A. No. This doesn’t address the problem of needing to cover more new material.

B. No. This answer choice does not address the problem of needing to cover more new material.

C. No. It’s nice that students show a deeper understanding of the material in year-round schools, but the answer choice does not address the issue at hand: needing to cover more new material.

D. Yes. If the teachers have to spend significantly less class time reviewing material after the short breaks in the year-round schedule than after the long break in the traditional schedule, then teachers will have more class days to cover new material.

E. No. Student preference is not relevant. The disagreement is about the amount of new material that could be covered.

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10
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #10 In order to reduce traffic congestion and raise
revenue for the city, the mayor plans to implement a
charge of $10 per day for driving in the downtown
area. Payment of this charge will be enforced using a
highly sophisticated system that employs digital
cameras and computerized automobile registration.
This system will not be ready until the end of next
year. Without this system, however, mass evasion of
the charge will result. Therefore, when the mayor’s
plan is first implemented, payment of the charge will
not be effectively enforced.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends for its conclusion to be
properly drawn?
(A) The mayor’s plan to charge for driving
downtown will be implemented before the
end of next year.
(B) The city will incur a budget deficit if it does
not receive the revenue it expects to raise
from the charge for driving downtown.
(C) The plan to charge for driving downtown
should be implemented as soon as payment of
the charge can be effectively enforced.
(D) Raising revenue is a more important
consideration for the city than is reducing
traffic congestion.
(E) A daily charge for driving downtown is the
most effective way to reduce traffic
congestion.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that the mayor’s plan to reduce congestion and raise revenue by charging $10 per day for driving in the downtown area will not be effectively enforced when it is first implemented. The premises are that payment will be enforced by a highly sophisticated system that will not be ready until the end of next year, and that many people will avoid paying the charge without this system in place.

A. Yes. It is essential to the argument that the plan be in place before the system is ready at the end of next year.

B. No. The argument does not discuss the possibility of a budget deficit.

C. No. The argument is concerned with whether the plan will be effectively enforced when it is first implemented, not when it should be implemented.

D. No. The argument does not compare the importance of raising revenue versus reducing traffic congestion.

E. No. Too strong. The argument doesn’t need to say that a daily charge is the most effective way to reduce traffic congestion.

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11
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #11 A recent study revealed that the percentage of people
treated at large, urban hospitals who recover from
their illnesses is lower than the percentage for people
treated at smaller, rural hospitals.
Each of the following, if true, contributes to an
explanation of the difference in recovery rates
EXCEPT:
(A) Because there are fewer patients to feed,
nutritionists at small hospitals are better able
to tailor meals to the dietary needs of each
patient.
(B) The less friendly, more impersonal atmosphere
of large hospitals can be a source of stress for
patients at those hospitals.
(C) Although large hospitals tend to draw doctors
trained at the more prestigious schools, no
correlation has been found between the
prestige of a doctor’s school and patients’
recovery rate.
(D) Because space is relatively scarce in large
hospitals, doctors are encouraged to minimize
the length of time that patients are held for
observation following a medical procedure.
(E) Doctors at large hospitals tend to have a
greater number of patients and consequently
less time to explain to staff and to patients
how medications are to be administered.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Resolve/Explain

There is a discrepancy in recovery rates between people treated at large, urban hospitals and people treated at smaller, rural hospitals. People treated at smaller, rural hospitals have a higher rate of recovery. Eliminate any answer choices that help resolve the discrepancy.

A. No. If the patients at smaller hospitals are more likely to get fed according to their dietary needs, they might be more likely to recover from their illnesses.

B. No. If patients at larger hospitals are more stressed than patients at smaller hospitals, that might adversely affect their recovery rate.

C. Yes. This answer choice states that there has been no correlation found between the prestige of a doctor’s school and patients’ recovery rates. In no way is this relevant to explaining the differing recovery rates of patients treated at larger or smaller hospitals.

D. No. If patients are not observed for as long, there is a greater chance that an unobserved complication might occur, thus adversely affecting the recovery rate for patients treated at larger hospitals.

E. No. If the staff and patients do not get explanations about the administration of their medications, improper administration of these medications is more likely to occur. This would adversely affect the recovery rates of patients treated at larger hospitals.

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12
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #12 12. Perry: Worker-owned businesses require workers to
spend time on management decision-making
and investment strategy, tasks that are not
directly productive. Also, such businesses have
less extensive divisions of labor than do
investor-owned businesses. Such inefficiencies
can lead to low profitability, and thus increase
the risk for lenders. Therefore, lenders seeking
to reduce their risk should not make loans to
worker-owned businesses.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens Perry’s argument?
(A) Businesses with the most extensive divisions of
labor sometimes fail to make the fullest use of
their most versatile employees’ potential.
(B) Lenders who specialize in high-risk loans are
the largest source of loans for worker-owned
businesses.
(C) Investor-owned businesses are more likely
than worker-owned businesses are to receive
start-up loans.
(D) Worker-owned businesses have traditionally
obtained loans from cooperative lending
institutions established by coalitions of
worker-owned businesses.
(E) In most worker-owned businesses, workers
compensate for inefficiencies by working
longer hours than do workers in investorowned businesses.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Weaken

Perry concludes that lenders who are seeking to reduce their risk should not make loans to worker-owned businesses. This is because worker-owned businesses require workers to spend time on management and investment, which are not directly productive. Worker-owned businesses also have less extensive divisions of labor than do investor-owned businesses. These inefficiencies can lead to low profitability, which would increase risk for lenders. An issue with Perry’s argument is that, just because inefficiencies can lead to low profitability, it doesn’t mean that they will. Maybe there is something unique about worker-owned businesses that will overcome this problem.

A. No. Businesses with the most extensive divisions of labor can sometimes fail to make the fullest use of their most versatile employees’ potential and still be more efficient, on average, than the worker-owned businesses and still be, on average, the safer investment.

B. No. This answer choice is a description of the lenders who do make loans to worker-owned businesses. It does not address the warning against lending to worker-owned businesses.

C. No. The argument is not concerned with start-up loans, nor is it concerned with who actually gets loans.

D. No. This answer choice does not give a reason as to why worker-owned businesses might be a less risky investment than the argument claims.

E. Yes. If the workers work longer hours, the inefficiencies might be compensated for, which means that the inefficiencies won’t necessarily lead to low profitability. If they don’t lead to low profitability, then the risk will not necessarily increase for lenders.

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13
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #13 13. Some paleontologists believe that certain species of
dinosaurs guarded their young in protective nests
long after the young hatched. As evidence, they cite
the discovery of fossilized hadrosaur babies and
adolescents in carefully designed nests. But similar
nests for hatchlings and adolescents are constructed
by modern crocodiles, even though crocodiles guard
their young only for a very brief time after they
hatch. Hence, .
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) paleontologists who believe that hadrosaurs
guarded their young long after the young
hatched have no evidence to support this
belief
(B) we will never be able to know the extent to
which hadrosaurs guarded their young
(C) hadrosaurs guarded their young for at most
very brief periods after hatching
(D) it is unclear whether what we learn about
hadrosaurs from their fossilized remains tells
us anything about other dinosaurs
(E) the construction of nests for hatchlings and
adolescents is not strong evidence for the
paleontologists’ belief

A

Correct Answer: E

E Main Point

This argument is designed to disagree with a claim. The argument disagrees with some paleontologists, who believe that certain dinosaurs guarded their young in protective nests long after the young hatched. The evidence cited for the paleontologists’ claim is the discovery of fossilized hadrosaur babies and adolescents in carefully designed nests. In disagreeing with these paleontologists, the argument notes that modern crocodiles construct similar nests, even though these crocodiles don’t guard their young for long. The argument seems to be leading to the conclusion that the evidence of fossilized nests is not enough to claim that the dinosaurs guarded their young long after the young hatched.

A. No. This answer choice is too strong. The paleontologists do have some evidence, just not enough to fully support their conclusion.

B. No. This answer choice is too strong. The evidence cited is not strong enough for the paleontologists’ conclusion. That’s not to say that we will never know the extent to which hadrosaurs guarded their young.

C. No. This answer choice is too strong. There is not enough evidence to know that they guarded their young for large periods of time. That’s not to say that hadrosaurs couldn’t have actually guarded their young for large periods of time.

D. No. This is not the disagreement. The paleontologists are making a claim about a certain species of dinosaurs, not all dinosaurs.

E. Yes. The argument disagrees with the paleontologists as to the strength of the evidence that supports their belief.

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14
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #14 14. For one academic year all the students at a high
school were observed. The aim was to test the
hypothesis that studying more increased a student’s
chances of earning a higher grade. It turned out that
the students who spent the most time studying did
not earn grades as high as did many students who
studied less. Nonetheless, the researchers concluded
that the results of the observation supported the
initial hypothesis.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain why the researchers drew the conclusion
described above?
(A) The students who spent the most time
studying earned higher grades than did some
students who studied for less time than the
average.
(B) The students tended to get slightly lower
grades as the academic year progressed.
(C) In each course, the more a student studied, the
better his or her grade was in that course.
(D) The students who spent the least time studying
tended to be students with no more than
average involvement in extracurricular
activities.
(E) Students who spent more time studying
understood the course material better than
other students did.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Resolve/Explain

The apparent paradox is that when researchers tested the hypothesis that studying more increased a student’s chances of earning a higher grade, the students who spent the most time studying did not earn grades as high as did many students who studied less. Yet, the researchers concluded that the results supported their hypothesis.

A. No. This doesn’t resolve the apparent paradox. The passage says that many students who studied less earned higher grades. This still leaves room for some students who studied less to get lower grades, while still maintaining the seeming paradox.

B. No. If all the students tended to get slightly lower grades as the year progressed, the problem still remains that many students who studied less will have higher grades than the students who spent the most time studying.

C. Yes. This resolves the apparent paradox. If each individual student does better in a given class if he or she studies, then it looks like studying more will increase a student’s change of getting a higher grade, even if the students who study the most get lower grades than many who don’t study as much. The hypothesis was about an individual’s grades, while the statistics were about the students considered in groups.

D. No. This does not resolve the apparent paradox.

E. No. This does not resolve the apparent paradox as well as (C) because it doesn’t directly connect studying with an individual’s chances of getting a better grade in a given class.

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15
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #15 15. Researchers had three groups of professional cyclists
cycle for one hour at different levels of intensity.
Members of groups A, B, and C cycled at rates that
sustained, for an hour, pulses of about 60 percent, 70
percent, and 85 percent, respectively, of the
recommended maximum pulse rate for recreational
cyclists. Most members of Group A reported being
less depressed and angry afterward. Most members of
Group B did not report these benefits. Most
members of Group C reported feeling worse in these
respects than before the exercise.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) The higher the pulse rate attained in sustained
exercise, the less psychological benefit the
exercise tends to produce.
(B) The effect that a period of cycling has on the
mood of professional cyclists tends to depend
at least in part on how intense the cycling is.
(C) For professional cyclists, the best exercise from
the point of view of improving mood is
cycling that pushes the pulse no higher than
60 percent of the maximum pulse rate.
(D) Physical factors, including pulse rate,
contribute as much to depression as do
psychological factors.
(E) Moderate cycling tends to benefit professional
cyclists physically as much or more than
intense cycling

A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

Find the answer choice supported by the passage.

A. No. This answer choice is too strong. The argument talks only about cycling, not about exercise in general. In addition, you can’t prove that in every instance the higher the pulse rate, the less psychological benefit produced. What if having a pulse rate of 60 percent of the recommended maximum pulse rate leads to greater benefits than having a pulse rate of 40 percent of the maximum?

B. Yes. The argument demonstrates a correlation between the mood of professional cyclists and how intense the cycling is. When the cycling is at 60 percent of the recommended maximum pulse rate for recreational bikers, the professional cyclists reported being less depressed and angry. Those cycling at 85 percent, on the other hand, reported feeling more depressed and angry.

C. No. This answer choice is too strong. You can’t prove anything about pulse rates higher than 85 percent so it is possible that something higher could also improve mood.

D. No. This answer choice is too strong. You can’t prove that physical factors contribute as much as psychological factors contribute. The passage does not include information about any psychological factors that may have been at play so you can’t make that comparison.

E. No. You can’t prove whether moderate cycling benefits professional cyclists physically as much or more than intense cycling.

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16
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #16 16. Anyone who believes in extraterrestrials believes in
UFOs. But the existence of UFOs has been
conclusively refuted. Therefore a belief in
extraterrestrials is false as well.
Which one of the following arguments contains
flawed reasoning most similar to that in the
argument above?
(A) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But it has been demonstrated that
there are no centaurs, so there are no
unicorns either.
(B) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But you do not believe in centaurs,
so you do not believe in unicorns either.
(C) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But you do not believe in unicorns,
so you do not believe in centaurs either.
(D) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But there is no good reason to
believe in centaurs, so a belief in unicorns is
unjustified as well.
(E) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But it has been conclusively proven
that there is no such thing as a unicorn, so a
belief in centaurs is mistaken as well.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Parallel Flaw

This argument is diagrammable: Believe in existence of ETs → believe in existence of UFOs. UFOs don’t exist → ETs don’t exist. The argument does not support the assumption that the existence of ETs depends on the existence of UFOs.

A. Yes. Believe in existence of unicorns → believe in existence of centaurs. Centaurs don’t exist → unicorns can’t exist. This is the same argument structure and the same flaw.

B. No. This argument is not flawed. Believe in unicorns → believe in centaurs. Don’t believe in centaurs → don’t believe in unicorns. The second conditional is the contrapositive of the first.

C. No. This answer choice does not make the switch from belief to actual existence.

D. No. This answer choice does not make the switch from belief to actual existence.

E. No. This answer choice does make the switch from belief to actual existence but its second premise starts with the non-existence of unicorns, which were, in fact, the sufficient condition in the first premise. This does not match the structure of the original argument.

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17
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #17 17. People want to be instantly and intuitively liked.
Those persons who are perceived as forming
opinions of others only after cautiously gathering
and weighing the evidence are generally resented.
Thus, it is imprudent to appear prudent.
Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
argument’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
(A) People who act spontaneously are well liked.
(B) Imprudent people act instantly and intuitively.
(C) People resent those less prudent than
themselves.
(D) People who are intuitive know instantly when
they like someone.
(E) It is imprudent to cause people to resent you.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Suffiicient Assumption

The conclusion of the argument is that it is imprudent to appear prudent. The first premise is that people want to be instantly and intuitively liked. The second premise is that people who are perceived to form opinions about others non-spontaneously are generally resented. The argument shifts language from the premise, which discusses behavior that causes resentment, to the conclusion, which discusses prudence. You need an answer that proves the conclusion by tying it to resentment.

A. No. The conclusion isn’t about how people need to act in order to be well liked. It is a judgment about appearing prudent, not about spontaneity.

B. No. You need to know why it is imprudent to appear prudent, not how imprudent people generally act.

C. No. If anything, this argument seems to claim that people resent those more prudent than themselves.

D. No. The conclusion is concerned with prudence and imprudence, not about intuitive people.

E. Yes. This gives the argument the connection it needs between imprudence and resentment.

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18
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #18 18. Journalist: Recent studies have demonstrated that a
regular smoker who has just smoked a
cigarette will typically display significantly
better short-term memory skills than a
nonsmoker, whether or not the nonsmoker has
also just smoked a cigarette for the purposes of
the study. Moreover, the majority of those
smokers who exhibit this superiority in shortterm memory skills will do so for at least eight
hours after having last smoked.
If the journalist’s statements are true, then each of
the following could be true EXCEPT:
(A) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
nonsmoker who has just smoked a cigarette
are usually substantially worse than the shortterm memory skills exhibited by a nonsmoker
who has not recently smoked a cigarette.
(B) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
nonsmoker who has just smoked a cigarette
are typically superior to those exhibited by a
regular smoker who has just smoked a
cigarette.
(C) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
nonsmoker who has just smoked a cigarette
are typically superior to those exhibited by a
regular smoker who has not smoked for more
than eight hours.
(D) A regular smoker who, immediately after
smoking a cigarette, exhibits short-term
memory skills no better than those typically
exhibited by a nonsmoker is nevertheless
likely to exhibit superior short-term memory
skills in the hours following a period of heavy
smoking.
(E) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
regular smoker who last smoked a cigarette
five hours ago are typically superior to those
exhibited by a regular smoker who has just
smoked a cigarette.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

Find the answer choice that contradicts evidence in the argument.

A. No. This answer choice could be true. The argument doesn’t compare the difference in memory between nonsmokers who have just smoked a cigarette and nonsmokers who haven’t recently smoked a cigarette.

B. Yes. The argument states that the short-term memory skills of a nonsmoker who has just smoked are typically significantly worse than those of a smoker who has just smoked. So, this answer choice directly contradicts the argument.

C. No. The argument doesn’t compare the memory skills of nonsmokers who have just smoked and smokers who haven’t smoked in over eight hours. This answer choice could be true.

D. No. This answer choice could be true. The argument doesn’t say anything about periods of heavy smoking. The answer choice is also comparing two individuals, not the typical results.

E. No. The argument doesn’t compare the memory skills of smokers who last smoked five hours ago and smokers who have just smoked. This answer choice could be true.

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19
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #19 19. Educator: It has been argued that our professional
organization should make decisions about
important issues—such as raising dues and
taking political stands—by a direct vote of all
members rather than by having members vote
for officers who in turn make the decisions.
This would not, however, be the right way to
decide these matters, for the vote of any given
individual is much more likely to determine
organizational policy by influencing the
election of an officer than by influencing the
result of a direct vote on a single issue.
Which one of the following principles would, if valid,
most help to justify the educator’s reasoning?
(A) No procedure for making organizational
decisions should allow one individual’s vote
to weigh more than that of another.
(B) Outcomes of organizational elections should
be evaluated according to their benefit to the
organization as a whole, not according to the
fairness of the methods by which they are
produced.
(C) Important issues facing organizations should
be decided by people who can devote their
full time to mastering the information
relevant to the issues.
(D) An officer of an organization should not make
a particular decision on an issue unless a
majority of the organization’s members
would approve of that decision.
(E) An organization’s procedures for making
organizational decisions should maximize the
power of each member of the org

A

Correct Answer: E

E Principle Strengthen

This argument is designed to disagree with a claim. The educator is against deciding matters in his professional organization by a direct vote instead of having matter decided by officers who are elected by direct vote. The premise is that organizational policy will be more influenced by individuals voting for officers rather than individuals directly voting on issues. A principle that would strengthen it would connect procedures for making organizational decisions with the amount of influence each member has on these decisions.

A. No. This principle would weaken the argument, if anything.

B. No. This principle does not connect the procedures for making decisions with the amount of influence of each member on these decisions.

C. No. This answer choice does not tell us that it would be the officers that would have this time, so it doesn’t help the argument.

D. No. This might be true but it does not strengthen the educator’s claim that voting to elect officers will give each individual more influence in organizational policy.

E. Yes. This principle strengthens the argument by relating procedures for making decisions and the maximization of the power of each individual to influence the decisions.

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20
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #20 20. Neural connections carrying signals from the cortex
(the brain region responsible for thought) down to
the amygdala (a brain region crucial for emotions)
are less well developed than connections carrying
signals from the amygdala up to the cortex. Thus, the
amygdala exerts a greater influence on the cortex
than vice versa.
The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) The influence that the amygdala exerts on the
rest of the brain is dependent on the influence
that the cortex exerts on the rest of the brain.
(B) No other brain region exerts more influence
on the cortex than does the amygdala.
(C) The region of the brain that has the most
influence on the cortex is the one that has the
most highly developed neural connections to
the cortex.
(D) The amygdala is not itself controlled by one or
more other regions of the brain.
(E) The degree of development of a set of neural
connections is directly proportional to the
influence transmitted across those
connections.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Sufficient Assumption

The conclusion of the argument is that the amygdala exerts a greater influence on the cortex than vice versa. The premise for this conclusion is that the neural connections that carry signals from the cortex to the amygdala are less well developed than the connections carrying signals the other way around. The argument equates how developed the connections carrying signals from one part of the brain to the other are to the amount of influence one part of the brain has on the other.

A. No. The argument is concerned only with the influence the amygdala exerts on the cortex, not the rest of the brain.

B. No. Other brain regions are not relevant and the assumption needs to equate how developed the connections are to the amount of influence.

C. No. This answer choice is too general. The region of the brain that has the most highly developed neural connections to the cortex might be something other than the amygdala.

D. No. The argument is concerned with the influence that the amygdala has on the cortex. It doesn’t matter whether some other region controls it.

E. Yes. This connects the degree of development of neural connections with the degree of influence one part of the brain has on another.

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21
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #21 21. The Iliad and the Odyssey were both attributed to
Homer in ancient times. But these two poems differ
greatly in tone and vocabulary and in certain details
of the fictional world they depict. So they are almost
certainly not the work of the same poet.
Which one of the following statements, if true, most
weakens the reasoning above?
(A) Several hymns that were also attributed to
Homer in ancient times differ more from the
Iliad in the respects mentioned than does the
Odyssey.
(B) Both the Iliad and the Odyssey have come
down to us in manuscripts that have suffered
from minor copying errors and other textual
corruptions.
(C) Works known to have been written by the
same modern writer are as different from
each other in the respects mentioned as are
the Iliad and the Odyssey.
(D) Neither the Iliad nor the Odyssey taken by
itself is completely consistent in all of the
respects mentioned.
(E) Both the Iliad and the Odyssey were the result
of an extended process of oral composition in
which many poets were involved.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Weaken

This argument disagrees with the claim that the difference in vocabulary, tone, and details of the fictional world depicted in the Iliad and the Odyssey imply that they could almost certainly not be the work of the same poet. A good answer choice will demonstrate how even if two works are different in many ways, the same person may have written both of them.

A. No. Homer might not have actually written the hymns either.

B. No. This doesn’t go far enough. If the manuscripts have suffered only minor copying errors and other textual corruptions, the corruptions won’t explain away all of the stylistic differences between the two.

C. Yes. You know that the modern writer actually wrote the works described. This counterexample lends plausibility to the possibility that Homer wrote both the Iliad and the Odyssey despite their many differences.

D. No. The argument rests on comparing the Iliad with the Odyssey, not looking at each by itself.

E. No. This would support the claim that Homer didn’t write both.

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22
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #22 22. Moralist: A statement is wholly truthful only if it is
true and made without intended deception. A
statement is a lie if it is intended to deceive or
if its speaker, upon learning that the statement
was misinterpreted, refrains from clarifying it.
Which one of the following judgments most closely
conforms to the principles stated by the moralist?
(A) Ted’s statement to the investigator that he had
been abducted by extraterrestrial beings was
wholly truthful even though no one has ever
been abducted by extraterrestrial beings.
After all, Ted was not trying to deceive the
investigator.
(B) Tony was not lying when he told his
granddaughter that he did not wear dentures,
for even though Tony meant to deceive his
granddaughter, she made it clear to Tony that
she did not believe him.
(C) Siobhan did not tell a lie when she told her
supervisor that she was ill and hence would
not be able to come to work for an important
presentation. However, even though her
statement was true, it was not wholly truthful.
(D) Walter’s claim to a potential employer that he
had done volunteer work was a lie. Even
though Walter had worked without pay in his
father’s factory, he used the phrase “volunteer
work” in an attempt to deceive the interviewer
into thinking he had worked for a socially
beneficial cause.
(E) The tour guide intended to deceive the tourists
when he told them that the cabin they were
looking at was centuries old. Still, his
statement about the cabin’s age was not a lie,
for if he thought that this statement had been
misinterpreted, he would have tried to
clarify it.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

Diagram the moralist’s two principles. 1. Statement wholly truthful → it’s true and made without intended deception. Contrapositive: ~true or made with intended deception → ~not wholly truthful. 2. Intended to deceive or doesn’t clarify misinterpretation → lie. Contrapositive: ~lie → ~intended to deceive and clarifies misinterpretation. The best answer choice will provide an example in which at least one of the two principles is fulfilled.

A. No. Neither principle gives criteria to determine that a statement is wholly truthful.

B. No. Neither principle gives criteria to determine that a statement is not a lie, only when it is a lie.

C. No. You don’t know whether Siobhan intended to deceive, nor do you know whether she is actually sick. This doesn’t fit either principle.

D. Yes. If a statement is intended to deceive, it is a lie. Walter intended to deceive, so he lied.

E. No. If the statement is intended to deceive OR the person doesn’t clarify a misinterpretation, the statement is a lie. So the tour guide DID lie, according to the second principle.

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23
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #23 23. Principle: It is healthy for children to engage in an
activity that promotes their intellectual
development only if engaging in that activity
does not detract from their social
development.
Application: Although Megan’s frequent reading
stimulates her intellectually, it reduces the
amount of time she spends interacting with
other people. Therefore, it is not healthy for
her to read as much as she does.
The application of the principle is most vulnerable to
criticism on which one of the following grounds?
(A) It misinterprets the principle as a universal
claim intended to hold in all cases without
exception, rather than as a mere
generalization.
(B) It overlooks the possibility that the benefits of
a given activity may sometimes be important
enough to outweigh the adverse health effects.
(C) It misinterprets the principle to be, at least in
part, a claim about what is unhealthy, rather
than solely a claim about what is healthy.
(D) It takes for granted that any decrease in the
amount of time a child spends interacting
with others detracts from that child’s social
development.
(E) It takes a necessary condition for an activity’s
being healthy as a sufficient condition for its
being so.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

This argument contains a principle that states the following: healthy to engage in intellectual development → engaging in that activity does not detract from social development. The argument then presents an application in the evidence about Megan. It draws the conclusion that Megan’s amount of reading is not healthy because it reduces the amount of time she spends interacting with other people. The flaw is that the argument equates interacting with others with social development.

A. No. The principle is a universal claim.

B. No. The argument does not discuss health effects.

C. No. As the principle is a conditional statement, it has a contrapositive. The contrapositive does make a claim about what is unhealthy.

D. Yes. The argument equates interacting with other people and social development. It might well be that the plot lines in the books that she reads help with her social development.

E. No. This argument does not contain a necessary/sufficient flaw.

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24
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #24 In response to several bacterial infections traced to
its apple juice, McElligott now flash pasteurizes its
apple juice by quickly heating and immediately
rechilling it. Intensive pasteurization, in which juice
is heated for an hour, eliminates bacteria more
effectively than does any other method, but is likely
to destroy the original flavor. However, because
McElligott’s citrus juices have not been linked to any
bacterial infections, they remain unpasteurized.
The statements above, if true, provide the most
support for which one of the following claims?
(A) McElligott’s citrus juices contain fewer
infectious bacteria than do citrus juices
produced by other companies.
(B) McElligott’s apple juice is less likely to contain
infectious bacteria than are McElligott’s citrus
juices.
(C) McElligott’s citrus juices retain more of the
juices’ original flavor than do any pasteurized
citrus juices.
(D) The most effective method for eliminating
bacteria from juice is also the method most
likely to destroy flavor.
(E) Apple juice that undergoes intensive
pasteurization is less likely than McElligott’s
apple juice is to contain bacteria.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

Find the answer choice supported by the passage.

A. No. The passage does not provide information about the amount of bacteria in other companies’ juices.

B. No. The passage doesn’t have any comparison between the amounts of bacteria in the apple juice versus the citrus juices. You can’t prove which juice is less likely to contain infectious bacteria.

C. No. Intensive pasteurization is likely to destroy the original flavor, but whether other types of pasteurization do this is not discussed in the passage. So there is not enough information to determine whether McElligott’s unpasteurized citrus juices retain more of the original flavor than do any pasteurized citrus juices.

D. No. This answer choice sounds good but is too strong. Intensive pasteurization is the most effective method for eliminating bacteria from juice. Intensive pasteurization is also likely to destroy the original flavor of the juice. The passage does not support, however, that intensive pasteurization is the method most likely to destroy flavor. Another method of eliminating bacteria might be even more likely to destroy the flavor.

E. Yes. McElligott’s juice did not undergo intensive pasteurization because it was flash pasteurized. It is also stated that intensive pasteurization is the most effective way to eliminate bacteria from the juice, so a juice that undergoes intensive pasteurization is less likely to contain bacteria than McElligott’s apple juice.

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25
Q

LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #25 25. Sociologist: Widespread acceptance of the idea that
individuals are incapable of looking after their
own welfare is injurious to a democracy. So
legislators who value democracy should not
propose any law prohibiting behavior that is
not harmful to anyone besides the person
engaging in it. After all, the assumptions that
appear to guide legislators will often become
widely accepted.
The sociologist’s argument requires the assumption
that
(A) democratically elected legislators invariably
have favorable attitudes toward the
preservation of democracy
(B) people tend to believe what is believed by
those who are prominent and powerful
(C) legislators often seem to be guided by the
assumption that individuals are incapable of
looking after their own welfare, even though
these legislators also seem to value democracy
(D) in most cases, behavior that is harmful to the
person who engages in it is harmful to no one
else
(E) a legislator proposing a law prohibiting an act
that can harm only the person performing the
act will seem to be assuming that individuals
are incapable of looking after their own
welfare

A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The sociologist is solving a problem. The problem is that widespread acceptance of the idea that individuals are incapable of looking after their own welfare is injurious to a democracy. The sociologist concludes that legislators who value democracy should not propose any law that prohibits behavior harmful only to the person engaging in that behavior. The premise is that the assumptions that appear to guide legislators will often become widely accepted. There is a gap between discouraging the proposal of laws prohibiting actions harmful only to the person engaging in them and the assumptions that appear to guide these legislators. For the argument to work, the assumptions that appear to guide the legislators must involve the idea that individuals are incapable of looking after themselves.

A. No. The argument explicitly discusses legislators who value democracy, not all democratically elected legislators.

B. No. The sociologist doesn’t care about what the legislators actually believe about whether people are capable of looking after themselves. He/she is concerned with what the legislators appear to believe about this subject.

C. No. This is a description of how legislators often seem to be guided. The argument is a prescription for how legislators who value democracy often seem to be guided.

D. No. This might be true. However, it doesn’t give you the connection you need between what laws legislators should propose and what their underlying assumptions appear to be.

E. Yes. This connects the sociologist’s prescription for proposing laws and the perceived assumptions of the legislators.

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26
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #1. Any museum that owns the rare stamp that features
an airplane printed upside down should not display
it. Ultraviolet light causes red ink to fade, and a
substantial portion of the stamp is red. If the stamp
is displayed, it will be damaged. It should be kept
safely locked away, even though this will deny the
public the chance to see it.
The reasoning above most closely conforms to which
one of the following principles?
(A) The public should judge the quality of a
museum by the rarity of the objects in its
collection.
(B) Museum display cases should protect their
contents from damage caused by ultraviolet
light.
(C) Red ink should not be used on items that will
not be exposed to ultraviolet light.
(D) A museum piece that would be damaged by
display should not be displayed.
(E) The primary purpose of a museum is to
educate the public.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

The passage claims that any museum that owns the rare stamp that features an airplane printed upside down should not display it. This is because a substantial portion of the stamp is red, and ultraviolet light causes red ink to fade. The most important criterion for the conclusion seems to be that if the stamp is displayed, it will be damaged. The author acknowledges that the public will be denied the chance to see the stamp but maintains that the stamp ought to be kept safely locked away.

A. No. The passage does not mention whether the rare objects that a museum possesses should be displayed or not.

B. No. The passage states that if the stamp is displayed, it will be damaged. So, the stamp shouldn’t be displayed. It doesn’t address what features the museum display cases should have.

C. No. Red ink WAS used on this stamp and the stamp WILL be exposed to ultraviolet light if displayed. This principle doesn’t apply.

D. Yes. According to the passage, the stamp would be damaged by display and, therefore, should not be displayed.

E. No. If the primary purpose of a museum is to educate the public, it might be thought that the stamp should be displayed. Yet the passage states that it shouldn’t be, as it would be damaged.

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27
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #2 Dietitian: Many diet-conscious consumers are excited
about new “fake fat” products designed to give
food the flavor and consistency of fatty foods,
yet without fat’s harmful effects. Consumers
who expect the new fat substitute to help them
lose weight are likely to be disappointed,
however. Research has shown that when people
knowingly or unknowingly eat foods
containing “fake fat,” they tend to take in at
least as many additional calories as are saved
by eating “fake fat.”
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion of the dietitian’s argument?
(A) People tend to take in a certain number of
daily calories, no matter what types of food
they eat
(B) Most consumers who think that foods with
“fake fat” are more nutritious than fatty foods
are destined to be disappointed.
(C) “Fake fat” products are likely to contribute to
obesity more than do other foods.
(D) “Fake fat” in foods is probably not going to
help consumers meet weight loss goals.
(E) “Fake fat” in foods is indistinguishable from
genuine fat by most consumers on the basis of
taste alone.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Main Point

The dietician warns that consumers who see a solution to their weight-loss problems in “fake fat” products are likely to be disappointed. This is because the people who either knowingly or unknowingly eat foods containing “fake fat” tend to take in at least as many additional calories as are saved by eating “fake fat” by eating more of the food.

A. No. This is too general. The dietician does not talk about the number of calories people consume, no matter what type of food they eat. The dietician is concerned primarily with fatty foods and their “fake fat” alternatives.

B. No. The dietician addresses only the number of calories consumed, not overall nutrition.

C. No. This is too strong. The dietician claims only that “fake fat” products are unlikely to help in weight loss, not that they will be more likely to contribute to obesity.

D. Yes. Since consumers of “fake fat” products tend to take in at least as many additional calories as are saved when eating these foods, it is unlikely that these foods will help them lose weight.

E. No. The dietician explains that “fake fat” products are designed to give food the flavor and consistency of fatty foods, but the dietician doesn’t explain whether or not they are successful in doing so.

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28
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #3 Banking analyst: Banks often offer various services to
new customers at no charge. But this is not an
ideal business practice, since regular, long-term
customers, who make up the bulk of the
business for most banks, are excluded from
these special offers.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the banking analyst’s argument’?
(A) Most banks have similar charges for most
services and pay similar interest rates on
deposits.
(B) Banks do best when offering special privileges
only to their most loyal customers.
(C) Offering services at no charge to all of its
current customers would be prohibitively
expensive for a bank.
(D) Once they have chosen a bank, people tend to
remain loyal to that bank.
(E) Some banks that offer services at no charge to
new customers are very successful.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Strengthen

The banking analyst concludes that offering no-charge services to new customers is not an ideal business practice. The premise is that regular, long-term customers are excluded from these special offers and it is these customers who make up the bulk of business for most banks.

A. No. This argument is claiming that a no-fee service for new customers is not an ideal business practice. It does not discuss how much the banks charge for the services, normally.

B. Yes. If this is true, banks would do better to give their best offers and services to their long-term customers instead of focusing on new customers.

C. No. The banking analyst discourages offering no-fee services to new customers but does not discuss what banks should do instead.

D. No. If this were true, it would weaken the conclusion.

E. No. If this were true, it would weaken the conclusion.

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29
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #4 Panelist: Medical research articles cited in popular
newspapers or magazines are more likely than
other medical research articles to be cited in
subsequent medical research. Thus, it appears
that medical researchers’ judgments of the
importance of prior research are strongly
influenced by the publicity received by that
research and do not strongly correspond to the
research’s true importance.
The panelist’s argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it
(A) presents counterarguments to a view that is
not actually held by any medical researcher
(B) fails to consider the possibility that popular
newspapers and magazines do a good job of
identifying the most important medical
research articles
(C) takes for granted that coverage of medical
research in the popular press is more
concerned with the eminence of the scientists
involved than with the content of their
research
(D) fails to consider the possibility that popular
newspapers and magazines are able to review
only a minuscule percentage of medical
research articles
(E) draws a conclusion that is logically equivalent
to its premise

A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The panelist concludes that medical researchers’ judgments of the importance of prior research are strongly influenced by the research appearing in popular magazines and newspapers, and, therefore, the judgments do not strongly correspond to the research’s true importance. The premise is that medical research that is cited in popular magazines or newspapers is more likely to be cited in later medical research. The panelist fails to consider that there might be a good reason, common to both the citations in popular media and to later medical research, that these medical research articles are cited. Maybe it’s the most cutting edge and important medical research that gets cited in popular media, for example.

A. No. There is no view cited in the premises.

B. Yes. This would demonstrate that both the later medical research and the popular media have a good reason to cite this research.

C. No. The argument doesn’t talk about how esteemed or well-known the scientists are who completed the medical research that was cited in popular media.

D. No. The problem isn’t the percentage of medical research articles that the popular media are able to review; it is that the panelist doesn’t see that there might be a good reason that both the popular media and the later medical research are likely to cite the same research.

E. No. This is not a circular argument.

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30
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #5 Lahar: We must now settle on a procedure for
deciding on meeting agendas. Our club’s
constitution allows three options: unanimous
consent, majority vote, or assigning the task to
a committee. Unanimous consent is unlikely.
Forming a committee has usually led to
factionalism and secret deals. Clearly, we
should subject meeting agendas to majority
vote.
Lahar’s argument does which one of the following?
(A) rejects suggested procedures on constitutional
grounds
(B) claims that one procedure is the appropriate
method for reaching every decision in the
club
(C) suggests a change to a constitution on the basis
of practical considerations
(D) recommends a choice based on the elimination
of alternative options
(E) supports one preference by arguing against
those who have advocated alternatives

A

Correct Answer: D

D Reasoning

Lahar concludes that his club should subject meeting agendas to majority vote. He does this through process of elimination. The club’s constitution allows three ways to decide on meeting agendas. Lahar claims that unanimous consent is unlikely and that forming a committee to decide this has usually led to groups of people pitted against each other and secret deals. The best option, then, is the one that remains: majority vote.

A. No. Lahar considers only the options that are allowed under the club’s constitution.

B. No. This is almost right. However, it’s not the credited response because the answer choice is too strong. He claims that one procedure is the appropriate method for reaching decisions on meeting agendas, not for reaching every decision.

C. No. Lahar does acknowledge practical considerations. However, he does not suggest a change to the constitution.

D. Yes. Lahar eliminates the other two options, leaving only the one that he recommends.

E. No. Lahar argues against alternatives but he does not argue against the people who have advocated alternatives.

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31
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #6 Mayor: Local antitobacco activists are calling for
expanded antismoking education programs
paid for by revenue from heavily increased
taxes on cigarettes sold in the city. Although
the effectiveness of such education programs is
debatable, there is strong evidence that the
taxes themselves would produce the soughtafter reduction in smoking. Surveys show that
cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that
impose stiff tax increases on cigarettes.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines
the reasoning in the argument above?
(A) A city-imposed tax on cigarettes will
substantially reduce the amount of smoking
in the city if the tax is burdensome to the
average cigarette consumer.
(B) Consumers are more likely to continue buying
a product if its price increases due to higher
taxes than if its price increases for some other
reason.
(C) Usually, cigarette sales will increase
substantially in the areas surrounding a city
after that city imposes stiff taxes on cigarettes.
(D) People who are well informed about the effects
of long-term tobacco use are significantly less
likely to smoke than are people who are not
informed.
(E) Antismoking education programs that are
funded by taxes on cigarettes will tend to lose
their funding if they are successful.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Weaken

This argument is designed to disagree with a position. The mayor disagrees with local activists calling for expanded antismoking educations programs, which would be paid for by revenue from greatly increased taxes on cigarettes sold in the city. The mayor thinks that these programs are unnecessary, as there is strong evidence that the taxes by themselves would produce the reduction in smoking that the antitobacco activists are seeking. He bases his conclusion on surveys showing that cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that impose these high tax increases on cigarettes.

A. No. This strengthens the argument because it makes a link between high taxes and substantially reduced smoking.

B. No. Consumers might be more likely to continue buying cigarettes if the price increase is due to higher taxes, but as long as less people actually buy and smoke the cigarettes, the mayor’s argument might still be valid.

C. Yes. If people are buying a lot more cigarettes outside of the city, the rate of smoking in that city might not decrease substantially. This answer choice exploits the language shift from cigarette sales to smoking rates.

D. No. This does not address the tax increase issue that is the crux of the mayor’s argument.

E. No. This does not address the mayor’s argument.

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32
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #8 Caldwell: The government recently demolished a
former naval base. Among the complex’s
facilities were a gymnasium, a swimming pool,
office buildings, gardens, and housing for
hundreds of people. Of course the government
was legally permitted to use these facilities as it
wished. But clearly, using them for the good of
the community would have benefited
everyone, and thus the government’s actions
were not only inefficient but immoral.
Caldwell’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism
on the grounds that it
(A) fails to consider that an action may be morally
permissible even if an alternative course of
action is to everyone’s advantage
(B) presumes, without providing justification, that
the actual consequences of an action are
irrelevant to the action’s moral permissibility
(C) presumes, without providing justification, that
the government never acts in the most
efficient manner
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that
any action that is efficient is also moral
(E) inappropriately treats two possible courses of
action as if they were the only options

A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

Caldwell concludes that the government’s actions in tearing down a former naval base were not only inefficient but also immoral. Caldwell concludes this because the former naval base had a large number of facilities, such as a swimming pool, housing, etc., that might have been used for the good of the community, benefitting everyone. Thus, Caldwell equates what is moral with benefiting everyone.

A. Yes. Caldwell doesn’t allow for the possibility that the action of tearing down the base might still be morally permissible even if it doesn’t benefit everyone.

B. No. In fact, Caldwell thinks that the actual consequences are incredibly important to the action’s moral permissibility.

C. No. This is too strong. Caldwell is talking about the demolition of a single base, not the actions of the government in general.

D. No. This one is close. However, Caldwell says that the action was not only inefficient but also immoral. Caldwell isn’t equating being inefficient with being immoral. So Caldwell is also not presuming that any efficient action is also moral.

E. No. This one is tempting, as well. However, Caldwell doesn’t ever claim that tearing down the base or using it for the community are the only options. Other courses of action don’t happen to be relevant to Caldwell’s point.

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33
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #7 Gotera: Infants lack the motor ability required to
voluntarily produce particular sounds, but
produce various babbling sounds randomly.
Most children are several years old before they
can voluntarily produce most of the vowel and
consonant sounds of their language. We can
conclude that speech acquisition is entirely a
motor control process rather than a process
that is abstract or mental.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by Gotera’s argument?
(A) Speech acquisition is a function only of one’s
ability to produce the sounds of spoken
language.
(B) During the entire initial babbling stage, infants
cannot intentionally move their tongues while
they are babbling.
(C) The initial babbling stage is completed during
infancy.
(D) The initial babbling stage is the first stage of
the speech acquisition process.
(E) Control of tongue and mouth movements
requires a sophisticated level of mental
development.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Necessary Assumption

Gotera concludes that speech acquisition is entirely a motor control process, not one that is abstract or mental. Gotera bases this conclusion on two facts about infants and children. Infants don’t have the motor control required to voluntarily produce particular sounds. Instead, they produce random babbling sounds. Most children cannot voluntarily produce most of the vowel and consonant sounds of their language until they are several years old. Therefore, if children can’t voluntarily produce the sounds of their language, they can’t really talk. However, that doesn’t mean that motor control is the only process involved in speech acquisition. The conclusion is too strong for the evidence that supports it, so it requires an assumption to fill in the gap.

A. Yes. This eliminates the possibility that there might be some additional process that affects speech acquisition that does not involve motor control. This closes the gap.

B. No. It wouldn’t matter if infants could intentionally move their tongues, as long as they lack the motor ability to intentionally produce particular sounds. The evidence states that they do lack this ability.

C. No. It wouldn’t matter if children babbled until they were 7, as long as they also developed the motor abilities discussed in the argument.

D. No. This might be true. However, it doesn’t address the gap between the evidence and the claim that speech acquisition is entirely a motor control process.

E. No. This would weaken the argument. If this were true, then mental development would factor in to speech acquisition, against Gotera’s argument.

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34
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #9 Reducing stress lessens a person’s sensitivity to pain.
This is the conclusion reached by researchers who
played extended audiotapes to patients before they
underwent surgery and afterward while they were
recovering. One tape consisted of conversation; the
other consisted of music. Those who listened only to
the latter tape required less anesthesia during surgery
and fewer painkillers afterward than those who
listened only to the former tape.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the researchers’ reasoning depends?
(A) All of the patients in the study listened to the
same tape before surgery as they listened to
after surgery.
(B) Anticipating surgery is no less stressful than
recovering from surgery.
(C) Listening to music reduces stress.
(D) The psychological effects of music are not
changed by anesthesia or painkillers.
(E) Both anesthesia and painkillers tend to reduce
stress.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Necessary Assumption

The researchers concluded that reducing stress lessens a person’s sensitivity to pain, based on an experiment where they played audiotapes to patients before and after surgery. The patients who listened only to music required less anesthesia and fewer painkillers as compared to the patients who listened only to conversation. The gap is between reducing stress and music. The music might have caused the patients to require less anesthesia and fewer painkillers for some other reason than because the music reduced stress.

A. No. It is not essential that the patients listened to the same tape before and after surgery, as long as one group listened to conversation and the other group listened to music.

B. No. This is not essential to the argument.

C. Yes. This makes the connection between music and stress reduction. It eliminates other possible reasons as to why the patients listening to music might have required less anesthesia and fewer painkillers.

D. No. This is not essential to the argument.

E. No. This might be true, but it doesn’t give us the connection between music and reducing stress that the argument requires.

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35
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #10 Samuel: Because communication via computer is
usually conducted privately and anonymously
between people who would otherwise interact in
person, it contributes to the dissolution, not the
creation, of lasting communal bonds.
Tova: You assume that communication via computer
replaces more intimate forms of communication
and interaction, when more often it replaces
asocial or even antisocial behavior.
On the basis of their statements, Samuel and Tova
are committed to disagreeing about which one of the
following?
(A) A general trend of modern life is to dissolve
the social bonds that formerly connected
people.
(B) All purely private behavior contributes to the
dissolution of social bonds.
(C) Face-to-face communication is more likely to
contribute to the creation of social bonds
than is anonymous communication.
(D) It is desirable that new social bonds be created
to replace the ones that have dissolved.
(E) If people were not communicating via
computer, they would most likely be engaged
in activities that create stronger social bonds.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Point at Issue

Samuel concludes that communication via computer contributes to the dissolution of lasting communal bonds. His premise is that communication via computer is usually conducted privately and anonymously between people who would otherwise have conducted the communication in person. Tova disagrees with Samuel’s conclusion because she disagrees with his claim that communication via computer replaces other forms of interaction and communication. She claims, instead, that it replaces asocial or antisocial behavior.

A. No. Neither discusses the dissolution of social bonds as a general trend of modern life.

B. No. This is too strong. Neither talks about all purely private behavior. They are talking about a specific private behavior: communication via computer.

C. No. Tova doesn’t discuss whether face-to-face communication is more likely to contribute to the creation of social bonds.

D. No. Tova doesn’t discuss whether it is desirable to replace social bonds that have dissolved with new ones.

E. Yes. Samuel thinks that communicating via computer replaces social behavior, whereas Tova thinks that communicating via computer doesn’t because it replaces asocial/antisocial behavior.

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36
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #11 Spreading iron particles over the surface of the
earth’s oceans would lead to an increase in
phytoplankton, decreasing the amount of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere and thereby counteracting
the greenhouse effect. But while counteracting the
greenhouse effect is important, the side effects of an
iron-seeding strategy have yet to be studied. Since the
oceans represent such an important resource, this
response to the greenhouse effect should not be
implemented immediately.
The reasoning above most closely conforms to which
one of the following principles?
(A) A problem-solving strategy should be
implemented if the side effects of the strategy
are known.
(B) Implementing a problem-solving strategy that
alters an important resource is impermissible
if the consequences are not adequately
understood.
(C) We should not implement a problem-solving
strategy if the consequences of doing so are
more serious than the problem itself.
(D) We should not implement a problem-solving
strategy if that strategy requires altering an
important resource.
(E) As long as there is a possibility that a strategy
for solving a problem may instead exacerbate
that problem, such a solution should not be
adopted.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Principle Match

The passage concludes that we should not immediately spread iron particles over the surface of the ocean in response to the greenhouse effect. Spreading the iron particles would counteract the greenhouse effect by increasing the number of phytoplankton, which would, in turn, decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. However, the side effects of this strategy haven’t been studied yet, so the author of the argument thinks we should hold off on messing with such an important resource as the ocean.

A. No. The passage doesn’t address strategies with known side effects.

B. Yes. According to the passage, the iron-seeding strategy should not be used yet because the consequences to the ocean, an important resource, are unknown.

C. No. The passage states that the consequences of the iron-seeding strategy are not known, so there is no way to know if those consequences are more serious than the problem of the greenhouse effect.

D. No. This is close, but it states that we should not implement a strategy if it requires altering an important resource. The passage doesn’t go that far. It just says that research into the side effects should be done before implementing the strategy.

E. No. The passage doesn’t concern itself with whether the iron-seeding strategy has a possibility of exacerbating the greenhouse effect. The worry is in how this strategy might alter the oceans.

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37
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #12 No matter how conscientious they are, historians
always have biases that affect their work. Hence,
rather than trying to interpret historical events,
historians should instead interpret what the people
who participated in historical events thought about
those events.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument fails to
consider the possibility that
(A) historians who have different biases often
agree about many aspects of some historical
events
(B) scholars in disciplines other than history also
risk having their biases affect their work
(C) many of the ways in which historians’ biases
affect their work have been identified
(D) not all historians are aware of the effect that
their particular biases have on their work
(E) the proposed shift in focus is unlikely to
eliminate the effect that historians’ biases
have on their work

A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The problem that this argument tries to solve is that historians always have biases that affect their work, which is the interpretation of historical events. The solution that is proposed is that historians should instead interpret what the people who participated in historical events thought about those events. The flaw is that the solution still requires an interpretation that is susceptible to bias.

A. No. This might be true. However, the important point is that historians have biases that affect their work, which is what the proposal claims to avoid.

B. No. Scholars in other disciplines are not relevant to the flaw of this argument.

C. No. The argument is trying to eliminate the biases. It doesn’t matter whether or not these biases have been identified.

D. No. It doesn’t matter, for the purposes of this argument, whether the historians are aware of the effect of their biases. The argument proposes a solution to eliminate the biases whether the historians are aware of them or not.

E. Yes. If historians still have to interpret what the participants thought about the events, there is still the possibility of biased interpretations.

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38
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #13 Humanitarian considerations aside, sheer economics
dictates that country X should institute, as country Y
has done, a nationwide system of air and ground
transportation for conveying seriously injured
persons to specialized trauma centers. Timely access
to the kind of medical care that only specialized
centers can provide could save the lives of many
people. The earnings of these people would result in
a substantial increase in country X’s gross national
product, and the taxes paid on those earnings would
substantially augment government revenues.
The argument depends on the assumption that
(A) lifetime per-capita income is roughly the same
in country X as it is in country Y
(B) there are no specialized trauma centers in
country X at present
(C) the treatment of seriously injured persons in
trauma centers is not more costly than
treatment elsewhere
(D) there would be a net increase in employment
in country X if more persons survived serious
injury
(E) most people seriously injured in automobile
accidents in country X do not now receive
treatment in specialized trauma centers

A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that economic considerations dictate that country X should institute a nationwide system of air and ground transportation for conveying the seriously injured to specialized trauma centers. The evidence presented for this conclusion is that timely access to the medical care that can be provided only at trauma centers will save many people’s lives. These people, who are alive as a result of timely access to trauma centers, would be earning money. That these people are earning money is a twofold benefit to country X: The earnings would result in a large increase in X’s GNP, and taxes paid on the earnings would greatly augment government revenues. The argument shifts language from people’s lives being saved to the total increase in X’s GNP and tax revenues. An increase in X’s GNP and tax revenues would require that, as a result of saving these people’s lives, there would be more people working in country X than there are right now. If not, the added cost of instituting the nationwide system might not be economically beneficial.

A. No. Country Y is irrelevant. The argument concentrates on country X.

B. No. The argument is concerned with making sure that people have timely access to specialized trauma centers, wherever they may be located.

C. No. It could be more costly, and yet the people would be alive and working, which would increase country X’s GNP.

D. Yes. The argument assumes that if more people survived serious injury, they would be adding to the workforce, thereby boosting country X’s GNP. If the survivors weren’t able to work, or if they replaced other people when they went back to work, the GNP wouldn’t increase and neither would tax revenue.

E. No. The issue is whether country X should enable people to get timely treatment in specialized trauma centers, not whether more people should go to specialized trauma centers.

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39
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #14 Early urban societies could not have been
maintained without large-scale farming nearby. This
is because other methods of food acquisition, such as
foraging, cannot support populations as dense as
urban ones. Large-scale farming requires irrigation,
which remained unfeasible in areas far from rivers or
lakes until more recent times.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) Most peoples who lived in early times lived in
areas near rivers or lakes.
(B) Only if farming is possible in the absence of
irrigation can societies be maintained in areas
far from rivers or lakes.
(C) In early times it was not possible to maintain
urban societies in areas far from rivers or
lakes.
(D) Urban societies with farms near rivers or lakes
do not have to rely upon irrigation to meet
their farming needs.
(E) Early rural societies relied more on foraging
than on agriculture for food.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Inference

Early urban societies → large-scale farming nearby → irrigation → rivers or lakes. The contrapositive is as follows: ~rivers and ~lakes → ~irrigation → ~large-scale farming → ~early urban society.

A. No. The passage talks about early urban societies, but does not say how many peoples lived in them.

B. No. This answer choice can be diagrammed as follows: societies far from rivers or lakes → farming possible in the absence of irrigation. The passage talks only about early urban societies. Also, it doesn’t talk about the possibility of farming without irrigation.

C. Yes. See the contrapositive in the explanation above.

D. No. Even though the passage does not say that urban societies with farms near rivers or lakes necessarily rely upon irrigation, it doesn’t say that they don’t.

E. No. The passage doesn’t mention early rural societies.

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40
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #15 Economist: A country’s rapid emergence from an
economic recession requires substantial new
investment in that country’s economy. Since
people’s confidence in the economic policies of
their country is a precondition for any new
investment, countries that put collective goals
before individuals’ goals cannot emerge
quickly from an economic recession.
Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
economist’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
(A) No new investment occurs in any country that
does not emerge quickly from an economic
recession.
(B) Recessions in countries that put collective
goals before individuals’ goals tend not to
affect the country’s people’s support for their
government’s policies.
(C) If the people in a country that puts
individuals’ goals first are willing to make
new investments in their country’s economy,
their country will emerge quickly from an
economic recession.
(D) People in countries that put collective goals
before individuals’ goals lack confidence in
the economic policies of their countries.
(E) A country’s economic policies are the most
significant factor determining whether that
country’s economy will experience a
recession.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Sufficient Assumption

The economist concludes that countries that put collective goals before individual goals cannot emerge quickly from an economic recession because people’s confidence in the economic policies of their country is a precondition for any new investment. This new investment is important because substantial new investment in that country’s economy is required for a country’s rapid emergence from an economic recession. The gap in the argument is between people’s confidence in a country’s economic policies and whether the country puts collective goals before individuals’ goals.

A. No. This is too strong. There might be some new investment, yet a country might still not emerge quickly from a recession. Emerging quickly from an economic recession requires substantial new investment.

B. No. The economist doesn’t discuss whether the recessions themselves affect people’s support for their government’s policies. Also, this answer choice is talking about the government’s policies in general, while the argument focuses on economic policies.

C. No. The economist never claims what would be sufficient for a country to emerge quickly from an economic recession. The economist, instead, tells us that substantial new investments are necessary for a country to emerge from an economic recession and that countries that put collective goals first will fail this necessary condition.

D. Yes. This connects people’s confidence, or lack thereof, in their country’s economic policies and whether the country puts collective goals before individuals’ goals.

E. No. The economist is concerned only with countries that have experienced a recession, not whether they are more likely to experience a recession.

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41
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #16 The average length of stay for patients at Edgewater
Hospital is four days, compared to six days at
University Hospital. Since studies show that recovery
rates at the two hospitals are similar for patients with
similar illnesses, University Hospital could decrease
its average length of stay without affecting quality of
care.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) equates the quality of care at a hospital with
patients’ average length of stay
(B) treats a condition that will ensure the
preservation of quality of care as a condition
that is required to preserve quality of care
(C) fails to take into account the possibility that
patients at Edgewater Hospital tend to be
treated for different illnesses than patients at
University Hospital
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that
the length of time patients stay in the hospital
is never relevant to the recovery rates of these
patients
(E) fails to take into account the possibility that
patients at University Hospital generally
prefer longer hospital stays

A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The argument concludes that University Hospital could decrease its average length of stay without affecting quality of care. This conclusion is based on a comparison between the average length of stay for patients at Edgewater Hospital and at University Hospital. Studies show that recovery rates for both are similar for patients with similar illnesses. The argument is problematic because similar recovery rates for patients with similar illnesses at these hospitals does not mean that most patients at both hospitals have similar illnesses. University Hospital might specialize in heart attack patients, while Edgewater might specialize in minor injuries and ailments, for example.

A. No. The argument does not say that quality of care and length of stay are the same thing. Based on the evidence concerning recovery rates at both hospitals, it claims that length of stay can be reduced without affecting the quality of care.

B. No. Wrong flaw. This argument does not confuse something sufficient with something necessary.

C. Yes. If the patients at Edgewater tend to be treated for different illnesses, then the recovery rate information does not support the claim that the average length of stay could be reduced.

D. No. The argument allows for the idea that length of stay might be relevant to recovery rates.

E. No. The connection is between average length of stay, recovery rates, and quality of care. Patients’ preferences are irrelevant.

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42
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #17 Philosopher: Graham argues that since a person is
truly happy only when doing something, the
best life is a life that is full of activity. But we
should not be persuaded by Graham’s
argument. People sleep, and at least sometimes
when sleeping, they are truly happy, even
though they are not doing anything.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
the role played in the philosopher’s argument by the
claim that at least sometimes when sleeping, people
are truly happy, even though they are not doing
anything?
(A) It is a premise of Graham’s argument.
(B) It is an example intended to show that a
premise of Graham’s argument is false.
(C) It is an analogy appealed to by Graham but
that the philosopher rejects.
(D) It is an example intended to disprove the
conclusion of Graham’s argument.
(E) It is the main conclusion of the philosopher’s
argument.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

The philosopher disagrees with Graham’s position that the best life is a life that is full of activity because a person is truly happy only when doing something. The philosopher gives the example of people sleeping, during which they are not doing anything but are sometimes truly happy. The role of the example is to speak against Graham’s reason for his conclusion by undermining the claim that a person is truly happy only when doing something.

A. No. It is a premise of the philosopher’s argument.

B. Yes. If the statement is true, Graham cannot claim, as support for his conclusion, that a person is truly happy only when doing something.

C. No. It is not part of Graham’s argument.

D. No. This is close, but the claim is an example intended to disprove a premise of Graham’s argument, not its conclusion. The best life might still be a life that is full of activity; the philosopher just wants to show that Graham’s premise doesn’t actually support his conclusion.

E. No. It is a premise of the philosopher’s argument, not the conclusion.

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43
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #18 Historian: In rebuttal of my claim that West
influenced Stuart, some people point out that
West’s work is mentioned only once in Stuart’s
diaries. But Stuart’s diaries mention several
meetings with West, and Stuart’s close friend,
Abella, studied under West. Furthermore,
Stuart’s work often uses West’s terminology
which, though now commonplace, none of
Stuart’s contemporaries used.
Which one of the following propositions is most
supported by the historian’s statements, if those
statements are true?
(A) Stuart’s discussions with Abella were one of
the means by which West influenced Stuart.
(B) It is more likely that Stuart influenced West
than that West influenced Stuart.
(C) Stuart’s contemporaries were not influenced
by West.
(D) Stuart’s work was not entirely free from West’s
influence
(E) Because of Stuart’s influence on other people,
West’s terminology is now commonplace.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

Find the answer choice supported by the passage.

A. No. The passage does not provide proof whether Stuart had discussions with Abella about West, only that he was friends with Abella, who studied under West.

B. No. The historian is concerned with defending his claim that West influenced Stuart, not the other way around.

C. No. Stuart’s contemporaries didn’t use West’s terminology but there is no proof in the passage that West did or did not otherwise influence them.

D. Yes. Stuart used West’s terminology, which he couldn’t have gotten from his own contemporaries since they did not use the same terminology.

E. No. The passage does not provide any information on why West’s terminology is now commonplace, just that it is.

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44
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #19 One theory to explain the sudden extinction of all
dinosaurs points to “drug overdoses” as the cause.
Angiosperms, a certain class of plants, first appeared
at the time that dinosaurs became extinct. These
plants produce amino-acid-based alkaloids that are
psychoactive agents. Most plant-eating mammals
avoid these potentially lethal poisons because they
taste bitter. Moreover, mammals have livers that help
detoxify such drugs. However, dinosaurs could
neither taste the bitterness nor detoxify the substance
once it was ingested. This theory receives its strongest
support from the fact that it helps explain why so
many dinosaur fossils are found in unusual and
contorted positions.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
undermine the theory presented above?
(A) Many fossils of large mammals are found in
contorted positions.
(B) Angiosperms provide a great deal of nutrition.
(C) Carnivorous dinosaurs mostly ate other,
vegetarian, dinosaurs that fed on
angiosperms.
(D) Some poisonous plants do not produce aminoacid-based alkaloids.
(E) Mammals sometimes die of drug overdoses
from eating angiosperms.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Weaken

The theory claims that “drug overdoses” were the cause of the sudden extinction of the dinosaurs. This helps explain why so many dinosaur fossils are found in unusual and contorted positions. The evidence is that angiosperms, which contain psychoactive agents, first appeared at the same time that the dinosaurs became extinct. Most plant-eating mammals avoid eating these agents, which are potentially lethal, because they taste bitter. Also, mammals have livers that help detoxify these agents. Dinosaurs couldn’t taste the bitterness, nor could they detoxify the substance. The argument claims that the theory’s strongest support comes from the fact that it helps explain the positions of dinosaur fossils. How does it explain the positions of dinosaur fossils? Might there be other reasons as to why the dinosaur fossils were in these positions?

A. Yes. This widens the gap. If fossils of large mammals are also found in these positions, and mammals were less likely to be poisoned by the psychoactive agents, then a key premise is compromised.

B. No. The argument is about whether dinosaurs were poisoned by angiosperms, not how nutritious angiosperms are.

C. No. This would strengthen the argument. If vegetarian dinosaurs fed on angiosperms and then other dinosaurs ate their angiosperm-polluted bodies, then a lot of dinosaurs would have been in contact with the potentially lethal psychoactive agents in the angiosperms.

D. No. The argument is about whether angiosperms poisoned the dinosaurs, not about other poisonous plants.

E. No. The argument allowed for this possibility. It just implied that it was less likely for them to die from eating angiosperms.

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45
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #20 There are two ways to manage an existing
transportation infrastructure: continuous
maintenance at adequate levels, and periodic radical
reconstruction. Continuous maintenance dispenses
with the need for radical reconstruction, and radical
reconstruction is necessitated by failing to perform
continuous maintenance. Over the long run,
continuous maintenance is far less expensive;
nevertheless, it almost never happens.
Which one of the following, if true, most contributes
to an explanation of why the first alternative
mentioned is almost never adopted?
(A) Since different parts of the transportation
infrastructure are the responsibility of
different levels of government, radical
reconstruction projects are very difficult to
coordinate efficiently.
(B) When funds for transportation infrastructure
maintenance are scarce, they are typically
distributed in proportion to the amount of
traffic that is borne by different elements of
the infrastructure.
(C) If continuous maintenance is performed at
less-than-adequate levels, the need for radical
reconstruction will often arise later than if
maintenance had been restricted to
responding to emergencies.
(D) Radical reconstruction projects are, in general,
too costly to be paid for from current
revenue.
(E) For long periods, the task of regular
maintenance lacks urgency, since the
consequences of neglecting it are very slow to
manifest themselves.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Resolve/Explain

The discrepancy is that continuous maintenance, which dispenses with the need for radical reconstruction, is far less expensive a way to manage an existing transportation infrastructure in the long run. However, continuous maintenance almost never happens; rather, radical reconstruction, which is necessitated by failing to perform continuous maintenance, is usually the way that an existing transportation infrastructure is managed.

A. No. This would make it more, not less, likely that continuous maintenance would be performed.

B. No. This doesn’t address why continuous maintenance isn’t usually performed, even though it is less expensive in the long run.

C. No. This doesn’t address why continuous adequate maintenance isn’t usually performed.

D. No. This would make it more, not less, likely that continuous maintenance would be performed.

E. Yes. People feel that they can skip maintenance because the problems don’t show up immediately. When they do show up, they are more serious and necessitate radical reconstruction.

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46
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #21 A good way to get over one’s fear of an activity one
finds terrifying is to do it repeatedly. For instance,
over half of people who have parachuted only once
report being extremely frightened by the experience,
while less than 1 percent of those who have
parachuted ten times or more report being
frightened by it.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) takes for granted that the greater the number
of dangerous activities one engages in the less
one is frightened by any one of them
(B) neglects to consider those people who have
parachuted more than once but fewer than
ten times
(C) takes for granted that people do not know how
frightening something is unless they have
tried it
(D) fails to take into account the possibility that
people would be better off if they did not do
things that terrify them
(E) overlooks the possibility that most people who
have parachuted many times did not find it
frightening initially

A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

This argument is designed to solve a problem. The solution proposed for getting over one’s fear of an activity is to do it repeatedly. This is supported by the fact that over 50 percent of the people who have parachuted only once reported being extremely frightened by the experience, while less than 1 percent of people who have parachuted 10 times or more reported being frightened by it. This argument has a sampling problem. Who willingly throws themselves out of an airplane 10 times or more? It could be a higher percentage of people who never found it frightening in the first place.

A. No. The argument addresses overcoming the fear of some particular activity by repeating that same activity, not overcoming the fear of many activities by engaging in lots of frightening activities.

B. No. It’s true that the argument does not address this sample but this is not a flaw of the argument.

C. No. The argument addresses how to get over fears that people already have, no matter how they have acquired this fear.

D. No. What does it mean to be better off? If it means to be less frightened, then the argument does take this into account by saying that, in fact, repeating the activity will make them less frightened of it.

E. Yes. The sample might not be representative because it might include a higher percentage of people who never found it frightening to jump out of a plane in the first place.

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47
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #22 Most economists believe that reducing the price of
any product generally stimulates demand for it.
However, most wine merchants have found that
reducing the price of domestic wines to make them
more competitive with imported wines with which
they were previously comparably priced is frequently
followed by an increase in sales of those imported
wines.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
reconcile the belief of most economists with the
consequences observed by most wine merchants?
(A) Economists’ studies of the prices of grocery
items and their rates of sales rarely cover
alcoholic beverages.
(B) Few merchants of any kind have detailed
knowledge of economic theories about the
relationship between item prices and sales
rates.
(C) Consumers are generally willing to forgo
purchasing other items they desire in order to
purchase a superior wine.
(D) Imported wines in all price ranges are
comparable in quality to domestic wines that
cost less.
(E) An increase in the demand for a consumer
product is compatible with an increase in
demand for a competing product.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Resolve/Explain

The seeming paradox is that although most economists believe that reducing the price of any product generally stimulates demand for it, when most wine merchants reduce the price of domestic wines to make them more competitive with imported wines with which they were previously comparably priced, the sales of the imported wines will increase.

A. No. This still doesn’t explain why, when the general rule is that reducing price stimulates demand, the competing wines sales increased when the prices on the domestic wine were reduced.

B. No. The merchants aren’t the ones making the economic predictions. They are the observers of what actually happened.

C. No. There is no information about which wine is superior. It doesn’t explain why the sales of imported wines increased when domestic wine prices were reduced.

D. No. This does not explain why, if the domestic wines’ prices were reduced, the sales of the imported wines increased.

E. Yes. The argument didn’t say whether the domestic wines’ sales also increased. This allows for the sales of both types of wines to increase, which reconciles the observations with the economists’ beliefs.

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48
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #23 Certain bacteria that produce hydrogen sulfide as a
waste product would die if directly exposed to
oxygen. The hydrogen sulfide reacts with oxygen,
removing it and so preventing it from harming the
bacteria. Furthermore, the hydrogen sulfide tends to
kill other organisms in the area, thereby providing
the bacteria with a source of food. As a result, a dense
colony of these bacteria produces for itself an
environment in which it can continue to thrive
indefinitely.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) A dense colony of the bacteria can indefinitely
continue to produce enough hydrogen sulfide
to kill other organisms in the area and to
prevent oxygen from harming the bacteria.
(B) The hydrogen sulfide produced by the bacteria
kills other organisms in the area by reacting
with and removing oxygen.
(C) Most organisms, if killed by the hydrogen
sulfide produced by the bacteria, can provide
a source of food for the bacteria.
(D) The bacteria can continue to thrive indefinitely
only in an environment in which the
hydrogen sulfide they produce has removed
all oxygen and killed other organisms in the
area.
(E) If any colony of bacteria produces hydrogen
sulfide as a waste product, it thereby ensures
that it is both provided with a source of food
and protected from harm by oxygen.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Inference

Find the answer choice supported by the passage.

A. Yes. From the last sentence, a dense colony of these bacteria produces for itself an environment in which it can continue to thrive indefinitely. From the second and third sentence, the hydrogen sulfide produced by these bacteria reacts with oxygen, preventing it from harming the bacteria. It provides the bacteria with a source of food because it tends to kill other organisms in the area.

B. No. The passage states that the hydrogen sulfide reacts with and removes oxygen and that it tends to kill other organisms in the area. There is no proof that these two facts are related.

C. No. There is no proof in the passage that most organisms, if killed, can provide a source of food for the bacteria. All you know is that, with a dense colony, enough will be killed to sustain the colony. They could be light eaters.

D. No. There is no proof that, if they have this environment, the bacteria can thrive indefinitely or that it’s the only way that they can thrive indefinitely.

E. No. There is no information provided about all colonies of bacteria that might produce hydrogen sulfide as a waste product, just about these particular bacteria.

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49
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #24 Books that present a utopian future in which the
inequities and sufferings of the present are replaced
by more harmonious and rational social
arrangements will always find enthusiastic buyers.
Since gloomy books predicting that even more
terrifying times await us are clearly not of this genre,
they are unlikely to be very popular.
The questionable pattern of reasoning in which one
of the following arguments is most similar to that in
the argument above?
(A) Art that portrays people as happy and
contented has a tranquilizing effect on the
viewer, an effect that is appealing to those
who are tense or anxious. Thus, people who
dislike such art are neither tense nor anxious.
(B) People who enjoy participating in activities
such as fishing or hiking may nevertheless
enjoy watching such spectator sports as
boxing or football. Thus, one cannot infer
from someone’s participating in vigorous
contact sports that he or she is not also fond
of less violent forms of recreation.
(C) Action movies that involve complicated and
dangerous special-effects scenes are
enormously expensive to produce. Hence,
since traditional dramatic or comedic films
contain no such scenes, it is probable that
they are relatively inexpensive to produce.
(D) Adults usually feel a pleasant nostalgia when
hearing the music they listened to as
adolescents, but since adolescents often like
music specifically because they think it
annoys their parents, adults rarely appreciate
the music that their children will later listen
to with nostalgia.
(E) All self-employed businesspeople have salaries
that fluctuate with the fortunes of the general
economy, but government bureaucrats are not
self-employed. Therefore, not everyone with
an income that fluctuates with the fortunes of
the general economy is a government
bureaucrat.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Parallel

The argument concludes that gloomy books are unlikely to be very popular. This is because they are not a genre that presents a utopian future, and books of the utopian future genre will always find enthusiastic buyers. Utopian future → popular; contrapositive: ~popular → ~Utopian future. Conclusion: ~Utopian future → ~(likely) popular. This argument has a necessary/sufficient problem. Being of the utopian future genre is sufficient for being popular but we don’t know that it is necessary. There might well be a group of angst-filled people that like nothing better than to curl up with a gloomy book.

A. No. This argument does not contain the necessary/sufficient switch.

B. No. This argument shifts from people who participate in less violent forms of recreation and enjoy watching more violent sports to people who participate in more violent sports. This is not the same as a necessary/sufficient flaw.

C. Yes. Complicated and dangerous special effects → enormously expensive; ~enormously expensive → ~complicated and dangerous special effects. Conclusion: ~complicated and dangerous special effects → (probably) ~enormously expensive.

D. No. This argument is not flawed.

E. No. This argument is not flawed.

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50
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #25 Some people mistakenly believe that since we do not
have direct access to the distant past we cannot learn
much about it. Contemporary historians and
archaeologists find current geography, geology, and
climate to be rich in clues about a given region’s
distant history. However, the more distant the period
we are studying is, the less useful the study of the
present becomes.
Of the following, which one most closely conforms to
the principle that the passage illustrates?
(A) Astronomers often draw inferences about the
earlier years of our solar system on the basis
of recently collected data. Unfortunately, they
have been able to infer comparatively little
about the origin of our solar system.
(B) Much can be learned about the perpetrator of
a crime by applying scientific methods of
investigation to the crime scene. But the more
the crime scene has been studied the less
likely anything will be learned from further
study.
(C) To understand a literary text one needs to
understand the author’s world view. However,
the farther that world view gets from one’s
own the less one will be able to appreciate the
text.
(D) We often extrapolate from ordinary sensory
experience to things beyond such experience
and form a rash judgment, such as the claim
that the earth is the center of the universe
because it appears that way to us.
(E) One crucial clue to the extent of the ancient
Egyptians’ mathematical knowledge came
from studying the pyramids. The more we
studied such structures, the more impressed
we were by how much the Egyptians knew.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Parallel

The passage claims that we can learn about the past, even though we do not have direct access to it. We can do this by looking at current geology, geography, etc., to find clues about a region’s distant history. However, the study of the present becomes less useful the more distant the period we are studying is.

A. Yes. The astronomers are able to use present data about the solar system to find out about the earlier years of the solar system. However, because the origin of the solar system is much more distant, the present data is not very useful in learning about this origin.

B. No. The passage tells us that less will be learned from the present the more distant the period is that we are studying. The oft-studied crime scene is not from a much more distant period.

C. No. This doesn’t talk about time relations.

D. No. This doesn’t talk about time relations.

E. No. This doesn’t relate the pyramids to a much more distant time than the ancient Egyptians.

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51
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #1 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.

  1. Which one of the following most accurately states the
    main point of the passage?
    (A) Sembène’s originality as a filmmaker lies in his
    adaptation of traditional archetypal
    predicaments and open-ended plots, both of
    which are derived from West African oral
    tales.
    (B) Many of the characters in Sembène’s films are
    variations on character types common to
    traditional West African storytelling.
    (C) Sembène’s films derive their distinctive
    characteristics from oral narrative traditions
    that had not previously been considered
    suitable subject matter for films.
    (D) Sembène’s films give vivid expression to the
    social and political beliefs held by most of the
    Senegalese people.
    (E) Sembène’s films are notable in that they use
    elements derived from traditional West
    African storytelling to comment critically on
    contemporary social and political issues.
A

Correct Answer: E

Passage Analysis

E Big Picture

A. No. This choice starts well but it claims that Sembène’s originality lies in his adaptation of traditional archetypal predicaments and open-ended plots, which were discussed only in the last two paragraphs.

B. No. This choice talks about Sembène’s characters being variations on types common to traditional West African storytelling, which is discussed only in the second paragraph.

C. No. We are never told whether oral narrative traditions were previously considered suitable.

D. No. We don’t know what social and political beliefs are held by most of the Senegalese people.

E. Yes. This choice mentions why Sembène’s films are notable, that they derive elements from traditional West African storytelling, and that these films use these elements to comment critically on contemporary social and political issues.

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52
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #2 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.

  1. The author says that Sembène does which one of the
    following in at least some of his films?
    (A) uses animals as symbols
    (B) uses slow motion for artistic effect
    (C) provides oral narration of the film’s story
    (D) juxtaposes West African images and Marxist
    symbols
    (E) leaves part of the story to be filled in by
    audiences
A

Correct Answer: E

Passage Analysis

E Extract Fact

A. No. The author does not say that Sembène uses animals as symbols in any of his films.

B. No. This is close but the author claims that Sembène uses freeze-frames, which suggest continued action. The author does not claim that Sembène uses slow motion.

C. No. The author does not say that Sembène provides oral narration in any of his films.

D. No. The author does not claim that Sembène places West African images and Marxist symbols side by side in any of his films.

E. Yes. This answer choice is supported by the third paragraph.

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53
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #3 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.

Which one of the following would, if true, most
strengthen the claim made by the author in the last
sentence of the passage (lines 54–58)?
(A) Several African novelists who draw upon the
oral traditions of West Africa use binary
oppositions as fundamental structures in
their narratives, even though they have not
read Marxist theory.
(B) Folklorists who have analyzed oral storytelling
traditions from across the world have found
that the use of binary oppositions to
structure narratives is common to many of
these traditions.
(C) When he trained in Moscow, Sembène read
extensively in Marxist political theory and
worked to devise ways of synthesizing
Marxist theory and the collective ideas
expressed in West African storytelling.
(D) Very few filmmakers in Europe or North
America make use of binary oppositions to
structure their narratives.
(E) Binary oppositions do not play an essential
structuring role in the narratives of some
films produced by other filmmakers who
subscribe to Marxist principles.

A

Correct Answer: A

Passage Analysis

A RC Reasoning

The answer choice should support the author’s reading of the dialectical elements as being related to African oral storytelling rather than to the Marxist components of Sembène’s ideology.

A. Yes. This choice demonstrates that other people who draw upon the oral traditions of West Africa do use these dialectical elements, and these people haven’t read Marxist theory. It lends credence to the author’s claim.

B. No. This is too general. The author claims that the binary oppositions are more likely to have come from African oral storytelling, not just some tradition from around the world.

C. No. This weakens the argument. If this were true, then the binary elements would be likely to come equally from his Marxist ideology.

D. No. This is not strong enough. There are other continents besides Europe, North America, and Africa. Also, he still could have gotten the binary oppositions from his Marxist ideology, even if few North American and European filmmakers use binary opposition.

E. No. This is not strong enough. It just says that some films produced by Marxist-principled filmmakers don’t essentially use binary opposition. They could still produce a lot of films that do.

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53
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #4 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.

Which one of the following inferences about
Sembène is most strongly supported by the passage?
(A) His films have become popular both in parts of
Africa and elsewhere.
(B) He has not received support from government
agencies for his film production.
(C) His films are widely misunderstood by critics
in Senegal.
(D) His characters are drawn from a broad range
of social strata.
(E) His work has been subjected to government
censorship

A

Correct Answer: D

Passage Analysis

D Extract Infer

A. No. The passage doesn’t mention how popular Sembène’s films are.

B. No. The passage doesn’t mention the support of government agencies.

C. No. The passage doesn’t mention how the critics in Senegal interpret Sembène’s films.

D. Yes. This is discussed in the second paragraph.

E. No. The passage doesn’t mention government censorship.

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54
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #5 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.

Which one of the following most closely expresses
the author’s intended meaning in using the word
“initiatory” (line 45)?
(A) beginning a series
(B) experimental
(C) transformative
(D) unprecedented
(E) prefatory

A

Correct Answer: C

Passage Analysis

C Structure

The author uses the phrase “initiatory journeys” to mean journeys that start or bring a basic change, which supports (C).

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55
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #6 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.

The passage does NOT provide evidence that
Sembène exhibits which one of the following
attitudes in one or more of his films?
(A) disenchantment with attempts to reform
Senegalese government
(B) confidence in the aptness of using traditional
motifs to comment on contemporary issues
(C) concern with social justice
(D) interest in the vicissitudes of ordinary people’s
lives
(E) desire to educate his audience

A

Correct Answer: A

Passage Analysis

A Extract Fact

A. Yes. The passage never says that one of his films exhibits disenchantment with attempts to reform Senegalese government.

B. No. Paragraph two says that he does this a lot, which provides evidence that Sembène exhibits confidence in the aptness of it.

C. No. Paragraph four discusses this.

D. No. The example of the street merchant in the second paragraph shows this.

E. No. The first paragraph talks about his desire to raise awareness.

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56
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #7 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.

  1. Which one of the following does each of the passages
    display?
    (A) a concern with the question of what teaching
    methods are most effective in developing
    writing skills
    (B) a concern with how a particular discipline
    tends to represent points of view it does not
    typically deal with
    (C) a conviction that writing in specialized
    professional disciplines cannot be creatively
    crafted
    (D) a belief that the writing in a particular
    profession could benefit from more attention
    to storytelling
    (E) a desire to see writing in a particular field
    purged of elements from other disciplines
A

Correct Answer: D

Passage Analysis

D Extract Fact

A. No. Passage A does not discuss teaching methods to develop writing skills.

B. No. Passage A does not concern itself with points of view; rather, it is concerned with changing the way history is presented.

C. No. Passage A claims that historic writing can and should be creatively crafted; passage B at least raises the possibility that legal writing might be creatively crafted.

D. Yes. Both passages think that more attention to storytelling would benefit the writing in the respective professions that they discuss.

E. No. Both are entertaining the idea that elements from other disciplines would benefit writing in historical and legal writing, respectively.

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57
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #8 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.

  1. The passages most strongly support which one of the
    following inferences regarding the authors’
    relationships to the professions they discuss?
    (A) Neither author is an active member of the
    profession that he or she discusses.
    (B) Each author is an active member of the
    profession he or she discusses.
    (C) The author of passage A is a member of the
    profession discussed in that passage, but the
    author of passage B is not a member of either
    of the professions discussed in the passages.
    (D) Both authors are active members of the
    profession discussed in passage B.
    (E) The author of passage B, but not the author of
    passage A, is an active member of both of the
    professions discussed in the passages.
A

Correct Answer: B

Passage Analysis

B Extract Infer

A. No. The author of passage A is an active member of the history profession (line 5). The author of passage B is an active member of the legal profession (line 30).

B. Yes. See the explanation for (A).

C. No. The author of passage B is a member of the legal profession.

D. No. We don’t know whether or not the author of passage A is also a lawyer.

E. No. We don’t know whether or not the author of passage B is also a historian.

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58
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #9
Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.

  1. Which one of the following does each passage
    indicate is typical of writing in the respective
    professions discussed in the passages?
    (A) abstraction
    (B) hyperbole
    (C) subversion
    (D) narrative
    (E) imagination
A

Correct Answer: A

Passage Analysis

A Extract Fact

A. Yes. Passage A mentions this in line 10 and passage B mentions this in line 49.

B. No. Both passages seem to indicate that writing in the respective professions is the opposite of hyperbolic.

C. No. Neither passage mentions that the writing in the respective professions is subversive.

D. No. This is the opposite of what both passages claim is typical for the writing in their respective professions.

E. No. This is the opposite of what both passages claim is typical for the writing in their respective professions.

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59
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #10 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.

In which one of the following ways are the passages
NOT parallel?
(A) Passage A presents and rejects arguments for
an opposing position, whereas passage B does
not.
(B) Passage A makes evaluative claims, whereas
passage B does not.
(C) Passage A describes specific examples of a
phenomenon it criticizes, whereas passage B
does not.
(D) Passage B offers criticism, whereas passage A
does not.
(E) Passage B outlines a theory, whereas passage A
does not.

A

Correct Answer: C

Passage Analysis

C Structure

A. No. Passage A does not present arguments for an opposing position.

B. No. This is close. However, passage B does make some evaluative claims, albeit weaker than the ones in passage A. It claims, for example, that mere awareness of the value of narrative could perhaps serve as an important corrective.

C. Yes. Passage A notes the titles of papers from the American Historical Association, which are all historiographs. Passage B does not give specific arguments.

D. No. Both offer criticism.

E. No. Passage B does not outline a theory.

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60
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #11 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.

The phrase “scholarly monographs that sap the
vitality of history” in passage A (lines 6–7) plays a
role in that passage’s overall argument that is most
analogous to the role played in passage B by which
one of the following phrases?
(A) “Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft”
(line 29)
(B) “Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect,
humor forbidden, and voice mute” (lines
37–38)
(C) “Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write”
(line 39)
(D) “every case has at its heart a story” (line 46)
(E) “Still, even mere awareness of the value of
narrative could perhaps serve as an important
corrective” (lines 57–59)

A

Correct Answer: B

Passage Analysis

B Structure

The phrase “scholarly monographs that sap the vitality of history” is being used to describe the typical writing that the author sees as making history books not stimulating for the students who read them, discouraging the students from connecting emotionally. In passage B, the phrases “conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor forbidden, and voice mute” plays the most similar role, as it shows that the writing style of lawyers makes legal writing abstract and disconnected from the human narrative content. This supports (B).

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61
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #12 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.

Suppose that a lawyer is writing a legal document
describing the facts that are at issue in a case. The
author of passage B would be most likely to expect
which one of the following to be true of the
document?
(A) It will be poorly written because the lawyer
who is writing it was not given explicit advice
by law professors on how lawyers should
write.
(B) It will be crafted to function like a piece of
fiction in its description of the characters and
motivations of the people involved in the
case.
(C) It will be a concise, well-crafted piece of
writing that summarizes most, if not all, of
the facts that are important in the case.
(D) It will not genuinely convey the human
dimension of the case, regardless of how
accurate the document may be in its details.
(E) It will neglect to make appropriate connections
between the details of the case and relevant
legal doctrines.

A

Correct Answer: D

Passage Analysis

D Extract Infer

A. No. This is too strong. The author says that lawyers too often write badly (lines 41–42). This doesn’t mean that legal documents are always written poorly.

B. No. The author claims that legal analysis strips the human narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal form of the case (lines 48–50).

C. No. The author claims that lawyers too often write poorly (lines 41–42).

D. Yes. The author claims that legal analysis strips the human narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal form of the case (lines 48–50).

E. No. The author doesn’t discuss whether legal writing makes the right connections between the details and relevant legal doctrines.

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62
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #13 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

Which one of the following best states the main idea
of the passage?
(A) Evolutionary game theory and classical game
theory can be used to analyze the process of
decision-making used by humans and
animals in settling disputes.
(B) A. aperta in grassland habitats and riparian
habitats exhibit an unusually wide variety of
fighting behaviors in territorial disputes.
(C) Evolutionary game theory may be useful in
explaining the behavior of certain spiders
during territorial disputes.
(D) The traditional theory of animal behavior in
conflict situations cannot be used to explain
the fighting behavior of most species.
(E) Evolutionary game theory, adapted from
classical game theory, is currently used by
scientists to predict the behavior of spiders in
site selection.

A

Correct Answer: C

Passage Analysis

C Big Picture

A. No. This is too general. The passage discusses only evolutionary game theory in terms of its success in analyzing the process of decision making, and only in regards to Agelenopsis apertas.

B. No. This was discussed only in the third paragraph. Also, we don’t know that they exhibit an unusually wide variety of behaviors.

C. Yes. This mentions evolutionary game theory and how it might be used to explain the behavior of Agelenopsis apertas in intra-species disputes.

D. No. This is too strong. The author suggests that the traditional theory might not be as good as evolutionary game theory to explain the fighting behavior of Agelenopsis apertas, but doesn’t address most species.

E. No. This is too general. We don’t know that scientists in general use evolutionary game theory to predict the behavior of spiders in site selection.

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63
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #14 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

The author of the passage mentions Galápagos
tortoises in the first paragraph most likely in order to
(A) describe a kind of fighting behavior that is
used by only a few species
(B) suggest that repetitive use of the same visual
and vocal displays is a kind of fighting
behavior used by some but not all species
(C) provide evidence to support the claim that
fighting behavior does not vary greatly from
contest to contest for most species
(D) provide an example of a fighting behavior that
is unique to a particular species
(E) provide an example of a ritualized fighting
behavior of the kind that traditional theorists
assume is the norm for most species

A

Correct Answer: E

Passage Analysis

E Structure

The author mentions Galapagos tortoises as an example of the traditional theory, which claims that intra-species conflict is highly ritualized. This supports (E).

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64
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #15 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

A

N/A

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65
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #16 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

Which one of the following, if true, is LEAST
consistent with Riechert’s theory about fighting
behavior in spiders?
(A) Spiders in the grassland habitat engage in
escalated fighting when a disputed site is
highly desirable.
(B) Spiders in the riparian habitat are not willing
to engage in escalated fighting for less-thansuitable sites.
(C) Spiders in the riparian habitat confine their
fighting to displays more regularly than do
spiders in the grassland habitat.
(D) Spiders in the riparian habitat are as willing to
engage in escalated fighting as are spiders in
the grassland habitat.
(E) Spiders in the riparian habitat are more likely
to withdraw when faced with a larger
opponent in territorial disputes than are
spiders in the grassland habitat.

A

Correct Answer: D

Passage Analysis

D Extract Infer

A. No. This is consistent with the predictions concerning the grassland in paragraph three.

B. No. This is consistent with the predictions concerning the riparian habitat in paragraph three, as the riparian habitat is 90 percent habitable.

C. No. The third paragraph predicts that spiders in the riparian habitat, which is 90 percent habitable, will be less likely to escalate fighting than spiders in the grassland habitat, which is 12 percent habitable.

D. Yes. The third paragraph predicts that spiders in the riparian habitat will be less willing to engage in escalated fighting, not as willing.

E. No. This is consistent with the predictions in the third paragraph.

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66
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #17 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

  1. Which one of the following best states the function
    of the third paragraph of the passage?
    (A) It develops a comparison of the two theories
    that were introduced in the preceding
    paragraph.
    (B) It continues a discussion of a controversial
    theory described in the first two paragraphs
    of the passage.
    (C) It describes an experiment that provides
    support for the theory described in the
    preceding paragraph.
    (D) It describes a rare phenomenon that cannot be
    accounted for by the theory described in the
    first paragraph.
    (E) It describes predictions that can be used to test
    the validity of a theory described in a
    preceding paragraph.
A

Correct Answer: E

Passage Analysis

E Structure

The third paragraph gives predictions concerning the behavior of spiders in different habitats, based on Riechert’s claim that Agelenopsis apertas’ territorial disputes are better described using evolutionary game theory.

A. No. The passage does not compare evolutionary game theory and classical game theory.

B. No. We don’t know that evolutionary game theory is controversial, and it isn’t discussed in the first paragraph.

C. No. This is close. However, it makes predictions. The experiment hasn’t been done yet.

D. No. It makes predictions. It does not describe rare phenomena.

E. Yes. It describes predictions that are based on evolutionary game theory.

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67
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #18 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

The passage suggests which one of the following
about the behavior of A. aperta in conflict situations?
(A) They exhibit variations in fighting behavior
from contest to contest primarily because of
the different levels of competition for suitable
sites in different habitats.
(B) They may confine their fighting behavior to
displays if the value of a disputed resource is
too low and the risk of physical injury is too
great.
(C) They exhibit variations in fighting behavior
that are similar to those exhibited by
members of most other species of animals.
(D) They are more likely to engage in escalated
fighting during disputes than to limit their
fighting behavior to visual and vocal displays.
(E) They are more willing to engage in escalated
fighting during conflict situations than are
members of most other species of animals

A

Correct Answer: B

Passage Analysis

B Extract Infer

A. No. The second paragraph says that variations in conflict behavior may result from a variety of things, not primarily because of the different levels of competition in different habitats.

B. Yes. The passage states that a spider may engage in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the risk of physical injury (lines 30–33).

C. No. Agelenopsis apertas’ variations in fighting behavior are not compared to those of most other species.

D. No. The passage never says that Agelenopsis apertas are more likely to engage in escalated fighting, just that they may engage in escalated fighting.

E. No. Agelenopsis apertas’ proclivities concerning escalated fighting are not compared to those of most other species

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68
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #19 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.

The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present an alternative to a traditional
approach
(B) describe a phenomenon and provide specific
examples
(C) evaluate evidence used to support an
argument
(D) present data that refutes a controversial theory
(E) suggest that a new theory may be based on
inadequate research

A

Correct Answer: A

Passage Analysis

A Big Picture

A. Yes. The author presents evolutionary game theory as an alternative to the traditional theories of animal behavior.

B. No. This doesn’t address the first paragraph and its discussion of traditional theories.

C. No. The passage doesn’t evaluate the evidence either for the traditional theories or for evolutionary game theory.

D. No. This is too strong. The data on Agelenopsis apertas doesn’t refute the traditional theory. And, the only theory that might be considered controversial would be evolutionary game theory.

E. No. The passage seems to support the new theory.

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69
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #20 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main point of the passage?
(A) Some views that certain commentators
consider to be implications of philosophical
anarchism are highly counterintuitive.
(B) Contrary to what philosophical anarchists
claim, some governments are morally
superior to others, and citizens under
legitimate governments have moral
obligations to one another.
(C) It does not follow logically from philosophical
anarchism that no government is morally
better than any other or that people have no
moral duties toward one another.
(D) Even if, as certain philosophical anarchists
claim, governmental laws lack moral force,
people still have a moral obligation to refrain
from harming one another.
(E) Contrary to what some of its opponents have
claimed, philosophical anarchism does not
conflict with the ordinary view that one
should obey the law because it is the law.

A

Correct Answer: C

Passage Analysis

C Big Picture

A. No. This is discussed only in the first paragraph.

B. No. The author argues in the second paragraph that it is consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that some governments may be morally better than others.

C. Yes. The author presents some supposed implications of philosophical anarchism and then shows that these claims do not logically follow from philosophical anarchism.

D. No. The author speaks about philosophical anarchism in general, not about certain philosophical anarchists.

E. No. Philosophical anarchism does not hold that one should obey the law because it is the law.

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70
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #21 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

The author identifies which one of the following as a
commonly held belief?
(A) In most cases we are morally obligated to obey
the law simply because it is the law.
(B) All governments are in essence morally equal.
(C) We are morally bound to obey only those laws
we participate in establishing.
(D) Most crimes are morally neutral, even though
they are illegal.
(E) The majority of existing laws are intended to
protect others from harm.

A

Correct Answer: A

Passage Analysis

A Extract Fact

A. Yes. The author states this in the first paragraph.

B. No. The first paragraph says that most people acknowledge that not all governments have a moral right to govern.

C. No. The first paragraph doesn’t discuss the connection between being morally bound to obey the law and participating in establishing the law.

D. No. The first paragraph says that most people believe that we generally have a moral duty to obey the law. This would make most crimes morally bad.

E. No. This was discussed in the third paragraph in reference to what philosophical anarchists believe. Also, there is no discussion about whether the majority of existing laws are to protect others.

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71
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #22 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

  1. The author’s stance regarding the theory of
    philosophical anarchism can most accurately be
    described as one of
    (A) ardent approval of most aspects of the theory
    (B) apparent acceptance of some of the basic
    positions of the theory
    (C) concerned pessimism about the theory’s ability
    to avoid certain extreme views
    (D) hesitant rejection of some of the central
    features of the theory
    (E) resolute antipathy toward both the theory and
    certain of its logical consequences
A

Correct Answer: B

Passage Analysis

B Extract Infer

The author defends philosophical anarchists against their critics but does not explicitly endorse this position. This supports (B). Choice (A) is the next best answer but is too strong.

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72
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #24 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

  1. Which one of the following scenarios most
    completely conforms to the views attributed to
    philosophical anarchists in lines 37–44?
    (A) A member of a political party that is illegal in
    a particular country divulges the names of
    other members because he fears legal
    penalties.
    (B) A corporate executive chooses to discontinue
    her company’s practice of dumping chemicals
    illegally when she learns that the chemicals
    are contaminating the water supply.
    (C) A person who knows that a coworker has
    stolen funds from their employer decides to
    do nothing because the coworker is widely
    admired.
    (D) A person neglects to pay her taxes, even
    though it is likely that she will suffer severe
    legal penalties as a consequence, because she
    wants to use the money to finance a new
    business.
    (E) A driver determines that it is safe to exceed the
    posted speed limit, in spite of poor visibility,
    because there are apparently no other vehicles
    on the road
A

Correct Answer: B

Passage Analysis

B Extract Infer

A. No. The last part of the analogy discusses legal penalties, which the anarchists don’t recognize as being pertinent to morality.

B. Yes. The corporate executive refrains from a practice because she finds out it might be hurting others.

C. No. The coworker has hurt someone else but the person does nothing.

D. No. This doesn’t discuss the possibility of hurting others.

E. No. This action does not discuss the reasons for refraining from an action.

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73
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #23 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

  1. By attributing to commentators the view that
    philosophical anarchism has implications that are
    “counterintuitive” (line 17), the author most likely
    means that the commentators believe that
    (A) the implications conflict with some commonly
    held beliefs
    (B) there is little empirical evidence that the
    implications are actually true
    (C) common sense indicates that philosophical
    anarchism does not have such implications
    (D) the implications appear to be incompatible
    with each other
    (E) each of the implications contains an internal
    logical inconsistency
A

Correct Answer: A

Passage Analysis

A Structure

The author uses the word “counterintuitive” to point out that some commentators think that the implications of philosophical anarchism are “against our intuitions,” which supports (A).

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74
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #25 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

  1. It can be inferred that the author would be most
    likely to agree that
    (A) people are subject to more moral obligations
    than is generally held to be the case
    (B) governments that are morally superior
    recognize that their citizens are not morally
    bound to obey their laws
    (C) one may have good reason to support the
    efforts of one’s government even if one has no
    moral duty to obey its laws
    (D) there are some sound arguments for claiming
    that most governments have a moral right to
    require obedience to their laws
    (E) the theory of philosophical anarchism entails
    certain fundamental principles regarding how
    laws should be enacted and enforced
A

Correct Answer: C

Passage Analysis

C Extract Infer

A. No. The author never claims that philosophical anarchism attributes more moral obligations to people than is commonly held.

B. No. The author doesn’t discuss what morally superior governments recognize.

C. Yes. The author discusses this in the third paragraph.

D. No. The author defends philosophical anarchism, which states that there is no moral obligation to obey laws, simply because they are the laws.

E. No. Philosophical anarchism doesn’t recognize laws as such.

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75
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #26 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

  1. The author’s discussion of people’s positive moral
    duty to care for one another (lines 44–49) functions
    primarily to
    (A) demonstrate that governmental efforts to help
    those in need are superfluous
    (B) suggest that philosophical anarchists maintain
    that laws that foster the common good are
    extremely rare
    (C) imply that the theoretical underpinnings of
    philosophical anarchism are inconsistent with
    certain widely held moral truths
    (D) indicate that philosophical anarchists
    recognize that people are subject to
    substantial moral obligations
    (E) illustrate that people are morally obligated to
    refrain from those actions that arc crimes in
    most legal systems
A

Correct Answer: D

Passage Analysis

D Structure

The author discusses people’s positive moral duty to care for one another to demonstrate that philosophical anarchists think that people have a lot of moral obligations, which supports (D).

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76
Q

LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #27 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.

  1. In the passage, the author seeks primarily to
    (A) describe the development and theoretical
    underpinnings of a particular theory
    (B) establish that a particular theory conforms to
    the dictates of common sense
    (C) argue that two necessary implications of a
    particular theory are morally acceptable
    (D) defend a particular theory against its critics by
    showing that their arguments are mistaken
    (E) demonstrate that proponents of a particular
    theory are aware of the theory’s defects
A

Correct Answer: D

Passage Analysis

D Big Picture

A. No. The author doesn’t describe the development of philosophical anarchism.

B. No. This is close. However, this doesn’t talk about the claims of the critics of philosophical anarchism.

C. No. The author tries to show that these supposed implications are not necessary implications of philosophical anarchism.

D. Yes. The author tries to show that the critics are wrong in thinking that philosophical anarchism has, as its implications, two counterintuitive claims.

E. No. The author argues that the supposedly counterintuitive implications are not actual implications of philosophical anarchism and, therefore, are not defects of philosophical anarchism.

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77
Q
  1. Consumer advocate: Businesses are typically
    motivated primarily by the desire to make as
    great a profit as possible, and advertising helps
    businesses to achieve this goal. But it is clear
    that the motive of maximizing profits does not
    impel businesses to present accurate
    information in their advertisements. It follows
    that consumers should be skeptical of the
    claims made in advertisements.
    Each of the following, if true, would strengthen the
    consumer advocate’s argument EXCEPT:
    (A) Businesses know that they can usually
    maximize their profits by using inaccurate
    information in their advertisements.
    (B) Businesses have often included inaccurate
    information in their advertisements.
    (C) Many consumers have a cynical attitude
    toward advertising.
    (D) Those who create advertisements are less
    concerned with the accuracy than with the
    creativity of advertisements.
    (E) The laws regulating truth in advertising are
    not applicable to many of the most common
    forms of inaccurate advertising
A

Correct Answer: C

C Strengthen

The consumer advocate concludes that consumers ought to be skeptical of the claims made in advertisements. The evidence is that, typically, businesses are chiefly motivated by profits, and this motive does not make businesses think that they should present accurate information in their advertisements. The consumer advocate is neglecting to consider other reasons that businesses might not make misleading claims in advertisements, despite their interests in making a profit.

A. No. This strengthens the connection between maximizing profits and using inaccurate information.

B. No. This indicates a past history of businesses making inaccurate statements, thus strengthening the conclusion.

C. Yes. The conclusion claims that consumers OUGHT to be skeptical. It doesn’t address whether they actually ARE skeptical or not.

D. No. This strengthens the claim that advertisements are likely to contain inaccurate information.

E. No. This eliminates another reason as to why businesses might give accurate information, even though they want to increase profits.

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78
Q

Elaine: The purpose of art museums is to preserve
artworks and make them available to the
public. Museums, therefore, should seek to
acquire and display the best examples of
artworks from each artistic period and genre,
even if some of these works are not recognized
by experts as masterpieces.
Frederick: Art museums ought to devote their limited
resources to acquiring the works of recognized
masters in order to ensure the preservation of
the greatest artworks.
Elaine’s and Frederick’s statements provide the most
support for the claim that they would disagree about
whether
(A) many artistic masterpieces are not recognized
as such by art experts
(B) museums should seek to represent all genres of
art in their collections
(C) art museums should seek to preserve works of art
(D) an art museum ought to acquire an unusual
example of a period or genre if more
characteristic examples are prohibitively
expensive
(E) all of the artworks that experts identify as
masterpieces are actually masterpieces

A

Correct Answer: B

B Point at Issue

Elaine concludes that museums ought to seek to acquire the best examples of artworks from each period and genre, even if some of the works are not recognized as masterpieces. Her premise is that the purpose of museums is to preserve artworks and make them available to all. Frederick disagrees, claiming that art museums ought to acquire the works of recognized masters, as museums have limited resources and a museum’s purpose is to ensure the preservation of the greatest artworks.

A. No. Frederick does not make any connection between greatest artworks and who deems them as such.

B. Yes. Elaine claims that they should, while Frederick thinks that museums have a different purpose.

C. No. Both Elaine and Frederick agree on this.

D. No. Neither is concerned with the expense of a single piece of art.

E. No. Neither questions the status of artwork identified as masterpieces.

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79
Q
  1. Science columnist: It is clear why humans have so
    many diseases in common with cats. Many
    human diseases are genetically based, and cats
    are genetically closer to humans than are any
    other mammals except nonhuman primates.
    Each of the genes identified so far in cats has
    an exact counterpart in humans.
    Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
    science columnist’s explanation for the claim that
    humans have so many diseases in common with cats?
    (A) Cats have built up resistance to many of the
    diseases they have in common with humans.
    (B) Most diseases that humans have in common
    with cats have no genetic basis.
    (C) Cats have more diseases in common with
    nonhuman primates than with humans.
    (D) Many of the diseases humans have in common
    with cats are mild and are rarely diagnosed.
    (E) Humans have more genes in common with
    nonhuman primates than with cats.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Weaken

The science columnist presents the following evidence: Many human diseases are genetically based, and cats are genetically closer to humans than are any other mammals save nonhuman primates. The columnist claims that this evidence makes is clear why humans and cats have so many diseases in common.

A. No. The argument doesn’t make claims about how many cats (as opposed to humans) actually get the diseases.

B. Yes. The argument claims only that many human diseases are genetically based, not all. And it doesn’t tell us whether the diseases we share with cats are among those. If they are not, the fact that cats are genetically close to humans still doesn’t explain why cats and humans share a lot of diseases.

C. No. The argument doesn’t address the diseases cats and nonhuman primates have in common.

D. No. The argument doesn’t address the severity of the diseases shared by humans and cats.

E. No. The argument already states this.

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80
Q

This region must find new ways to help business
grow. After all, shoe manufacturing used to be a
major local industry, but recently has experienced
severe setbacks due to overseas competition, so there
is a need for expansion into new manufacturing
areas. Moreover, our outdated public policy generally
inhibits business growth.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion drawn in the argument?
(A) The region needs to find new ways to enhance
business growth.
(B) Shoe manufacturing is no longer a major
source of income in the region.
(C) Shoe manufacturing in the region has
dramatically declined due to overseas
competition.
(D) Business in the region must expand into new
areas of manufacturing.
(E) Outdated public policy inhibits business
growth in the region.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Main Point

Because shoe manufacturing, which used to be a major local industry, has experienced severe setbacks and because outdated public policy generally prevents business growth, the argument concludes that this region must find new ways to help business grow.

A. Yes. This is a restatement of the conclusion.

B. No. We don’t know whether it is still a major source of income or not.

C. No. This is a premise.

D. No. This is a premise.

E. No. This is a premise.

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81
Q

As a result of modern medicine, more people have
been able to enjoy long and pain-free lives. But the
resulting increase in life expectancy has contributed
to a steady increase in the proportion of the
population that is of advanced age. This population
shift is creating potentially devastating financial
problems for some social welfare programs.
Which one of the following propositions is most
precisely exemplified by the situation presented above?
(A) Technical or scientific innovation cannot be
the solution to all problems.
(B) Implementing technological innovations
should be delayed until the resulting social
changes can be managed.
(C) Every enhancement of the quality of life has
unavoidable negative consequences.
(D) All social institutions are affected by a
preoccupation with prolonging life.
(E) Solving one set of problems can create a
different set of problems.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Principle Match

Modern medicine has enabled more people to live longer and pain-free lives. However, the benefits created by modern medicine have resulted in more and more of the population being older, which gives rise to financial problems for some social welfare programs.

A. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t discuss all problems.

B. No. The passage does not make a recommendation as to what should be done. It describes a situation.

C. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t discuss every enhancement of the quality of life.

D. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t discuss all social institutions, just some.

E. Yes. Modern medicine solved the short and painful life-span problem, but in the process it created a financial problem.

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82
Q

Since Jackie is such a big fan of Moral Vacuum’s
music, she will probably like The Cruel Herd’s new
album. Like Moral Vacuum, The Cruel Herd on this
album plays complex rock music that employs the
acoustic instrumentation and harmonic
sophistication of early sixties jazz. The Cruel Herd
also has very witty lyrics, full of puns and sardonic
humor, like some of Moral Vacuum’s best lyrics.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?
(A) Jackie has not previously cared for The Cruel
Herd, but on the new album The Cruel Herd’s
previous musical arranger has been replaced
by Moral Vacuum’s musical arranger.
(B) Though The Cruel Herd’s previous albums’
production quality was not great, the new
album is produced by one of the most widely
employed producers in the music industry.
(C) Like Moral Vacuum, The Cruel Herd regularly
performs in clubs popular with many
students at the university that Jackie attends.
(D) All of the music that Jackie prefers to listen to
on a regular basis is rock music.
(E) Jackie’s favorite Moral Vacuum songs have
lyrics that are somber and marked by a strong
political awareness.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The argument concludes that Jackie will probably like The Cruel Herd’s new album. Jackie is a fan of Moral Vacuum’s music and, on this album, The Cruel Herd plays a type of music similar to Moral Vacuum’s. Also, the witty lyrics are similar to those of some of Moral Vacuum’s best. This is an analogy and the answer choice should make the two bands’ music even more similar.

A. Yes. If The Cruel Herd’s new musical arranger is Moral Vacuum’s musical arranger, the two bands’ music should be even more similar.

B. No. This doesn’t make The Cruel Herd sound more like Moral Vacuum.

C. No. This is too general. We don’t know that these clubs are popular with Jackie.

D. No. This doesn’t make The Cruel Herd sound more like Moral Vacuum.

E. No. This weakens the argument. If Jackie likes the somber and political Moral Vacuum lyrics, then she might not like the witty lyrics of The Cruel Herd

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83
Q

Doctor: In three separate studies, researchers
compared children who had slept with nightlights in their rooms as infants to children who
had not. In the first study, the children who
had slept with night-lights proved more likely
to be nearsighted, but the later studies found
no correlation between night-lights and
nearsightedness. However, the children in the
first study were younger than those in the later
studies. This suggests that if night-lights cause
nearsightedness, the effect disappears with age.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
weaken the doctor’s argument?
(A) A fourth study comparing infants who were
currently sleeping with night-lights to infants
who were not did not find any correlation
between night-lights and nearsightedness.
(B) On average, young children who are already
very nearsighted are no more likely to sleep
with night-lights than young children who are
not already nearsighted.
(C) In a study involving children who had not
slept with night-lights as infants but had slept
with night-lights when they were older, most
of the children studied were not nearsighted.
(D) The two studies in which no correlation was
found did not examine enough children to
provide significant support for any
conclusion regarding a causal relationship
between night-lights and nearsightedness.
(E) In a fourth study involving 100 children who
were older than those in any of the first three
studies, several of the children who had slept
with night-lights as infants were nearsighted.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Weaken

The doctor concludes that the evidence suggests that, if it’s true that night-lights cause nearsightedness, the effect disappears with age. He cites as evidence the results of three separate studies concerning children who had or had not slept with night-lights as infants. The first study involved children who were younger than those in the other studies, and it was only in the first study that a correlation between sleeping with a night-light and nearsightedness was observed. The doctor’s language is very tentative, even in his conclusion, so the weakness of the argument must lie in the studies themselves.

A. No. The doctor doesn’t claim that sleeping with a night-light definitely causes nearsightedness.

B. No. The doctor doesn’t claim that sleeping with a night-light definitely causes nearsightedness, so this is irrelevant.

C. No. The evidence and conclusion concern the possible correlation between infants sleeping with night-lights and nearsightedness, not older children.

D. Yes. This answer choice attacks the studies themselves. If the sample size is not large enough, the studies can’t give enough support to the doctor’s claim that, if there is a causal relationship, the effect disappears with time.

E. No. There needs to be more than a few children who are still nearsighted to show anything definitively. These few might be nearsighted for other reasons.

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84
Q
  1. Superconductors are substances that conduct electricity
    without resistance at low temperatures.Their use,
    however,will never be economically feasible, unless there
    is a substance that superconducts at a temperature above
    minus 148 degrees Celsius.If there is such a substance,
    that substance must be an alloy of niobium and
    germanium. Unfortunately,such alloys superconduct at
    temperatures no higher than minus 160 degrees Celsius.
    If the statements above are true, which one of the
    following must also be true?
    (A) The use of superconductors will never be
    economically feasible.
    (B) If the alloys of niobium and germanium do
    not superconduct at temperatures above
    minus 148 degrees Celsius, then there are
    other substances that will do so.
    (C) The use of superconductors could be
    economically feasible if there is a substance
    that superconducts at temperatures below
    minus 148 degrees Celsius.
    (D) Alloys of niobium and germanium do not
    superconduct at temperatures below minus
    160 degrees Celsius.
    (E) No use of alloys of niobium and germanium
    will ever be economically feasible.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Inference

Connect the facts. Economically feasible → superconducts above –148°C; ~superconduct above –148°C → ~economically feasible. Superconducts above –148°C → alloy of niobium and germanium; ~ alloy of niobium and germanium → ~superconduct above –148°C. Alloys of niobium and germanium superconduct at –160°C or lower. Therefore, ~superconduct above –148°C → ~economically feasible.

A. Yes. Given the information above, this must be true.

B. No. According to the passage, if anything will superconduct above –148°C, it would have to be an alloy of niobium and germanium.

C. No. We know that, if they are going to be economically feasible at all, they must superconduct above –148°C.

D. No. We don’t know this.

E. No. This is too strong. Their use might be economically feasible in other areas besides superconducting.

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85
Q

Public health experts have waged a long-standing
educational campaign to get people to eat more
vegetables, which are known to help prevent cancer.
Unfortunately, the campaign has had little impact on
people’s diets. The reason is probably that many
people simply dislike the taste of most vegetables.
Thus, the campaign would probably be more
effective if it included information on ways to make
vegetables more appetizing.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?
(A) The campaign to get people to eat more
vegetables has had little impact on the diets of
most people who love the taste of vegetables.
(B) Some ways of making vegetables more
appetizing diminish vegetables’ ability to help
prevent cancer.
(C) People who find a few vegetables appetizing
typically do not eat substantially more
vegetables than do people who dislike the
taste of most vegetables.
(D) People who dislike the taste of most vegetables
would eat many more vegetables if they knew
how to make them more appetizing.
(E) The only way to make the campaign to get
people to eat more vegetables more effective
would be to ensure that anyone who at
present dislikes the taste of certain vegetables
learns to find those vegetables appetizing

A

Correct Answer: D

D Strengthen

There has been a long-standing campaign to get people to eat more vegetables. However, this campaign has had little impact on what people eat. The offered solution to make the campaign more effective is to include information on ways to make vegetables more appetizing, as the argument claims that the probable reason for the campaign’s ineffectiveness is that many people dislike the taste of most vegetables. The answer will strengthen the connection between the campaign’s ineffectiveness and people’s dislike of most vegetables as they now prepare them.

A. No. This weakens the argument. If it doesn’t make people who love vegetables eat more of them, then giving people information about how to make veggies tastier won’t make people eat more of them.

B. No. This weakens the argument. The campaign urges people to eat more vegetables in order to help prevent cancer. If eating the vegetables once they have been made more appetizing is less likely to prevent cancer, then the campaign will fail in its ultimate goal.

C. No. This weakens the argument.

D. Yes. If knowing how to make the vegetables more appetizing will cause people to eat more vegetables, then the campaign would likely be more effective if it gave out that information.

E. No. The campaign wants people to eat vegetables in general, not specific kinds of vegetables. If the people who disliked broccoli started to eat more Brussels sprouts and green beans, the campaign would still be more effective than it is now, even if these people never learned to like broccoli.

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86
Q

. Global surveys estimate the earth’s population of
nesting female leatherback turtles has fallen by more
than two-thirds in the past 15 years. Any species
whose population declines by more than two-thirds
in 15 years is in grave danger of extinction, so the
leatherback turtle is clearly in danger of extinction.
Which one of the following is an assumption that the
argument requires?
(A) The decline in the population of nesting
female leatherback turtles is proportional to
the decline in the leatherback turtle
population as a whole.
(B) If the global population of leatherback turtles
falls by more than two-thirds over the next 15
years, the species will eventually become
extinct.
(C) The global population of leatherback turtles
consists in roughly equal numbers of females
and males.
(D) Very few leatherback turtles exist in captivity.
(E) The only way to ensure the continued survival
of leatherback turtles in the wild is to breed
them in captivity

A

Correct Answer: A

A Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that the leatherback turtle is in danger of extinction, based on evidence about nesting female leatherback turtles. This population of turtles has fallen by more than two-thirds in the past 15 years. Any species whose population declines by that amount in that amount of time is in grave danger of extinction. There needs to be a connection between the statistics for nesting female leatherback turtles and the leatherback turtle population as a whole.

A. Yes. This connects the decline of nesting female leatherback turtles to a similar decline in the leatherback turtle population as a whole.

B. No. This is too strong. The argument never claims that the turtles will actually become extinct.

C. No. This is too general. The argument needs a connection between the numbers of nesting female leatherbacks and the leatherback population as a whole. This compares the numbers of females in general with the number of males.

D. No. The argument doesn’t address turtles in captivity.

E. No. The argument doesn’t attempt to solve the problem; it just points out the problem.

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87
Q

Pure science—research with no immediate
commercial or technological application—is a public
good. Such research requires a great amount of
financial support and does not yield profits in the
short term. Since private corporations will not
undertake to support activities that do not yield
short-term profits, a society that wants to reap the
benefits of pure science ought to use public funds to
support such research.
The claim about private corporations serves which
one of the following functions in the argument?
(A) It expresses the conclusion of the argument.
(B) It explains what is meant by the expression
“pure research” in the context of the
argument.
(C) It distracts attention from the point at issue by
introducing a different but related goal.
(D) It supports the conclusion by ruling out an
alternative way of achieving the benefits
mentioned.
(E) It illustrates a case where unfortunate
consequences result from a failure to accept
the recommendation offered.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Reasoning

The argument concludes that a society that wants to reap the benefits of pure science ought to use public funds to support such research. The argument defines pure science as research with no immediate commercial or technological application and claims that it is a public good. Because of its nature, pure science needs a lot of monetary support and doesn’t make profits in the short term. The argument then eliminates another possible funding avenue for pure science by claiming that private corporations will not fund activities that do not yield short-term profits.

A. No. The claim about private corporations is not the conclusion.

B. No. The claim about private corporations does not help define “pure research.”

C. No. The claim about private corporations does not address a different goal.

D. Yes. This claim eliminates another possible funding source for pure science, which benefits the public.

E. No. This claim is not an example, so it doesn’t illustrate a case.

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87
Q
  1. Some doctors believe that a certain drug reduces the
    duration of episodes of vertigo, claiming that the
    average duration of vertigo for people who suffer
    from it has decreased since the drug was introduced.
    However, during a recent three-month shortage of
    the drug, there was no significant change in the
    average duration of vertigo. Thus, we can conclude
    that the drug has no effect on the duration of vertigo.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the argument?
    (A) If a drug made a difference in the duration of
    vertigo, a three-month shortage of that drug
    would have caused a significant change in the
    average duration of vertigo.
    (B) If there were any change in the average
    duration of vertigo since the introduction of
    the drug, it would have demonstrated that the
    drug has an effect on the duration of vertigo.
    (C) A period of time greater than three months
    would not have been better to use in judging
    whether the drug has an effect on the
    duration of vertigo.
    (D) Changes in diet and smoking habits are not
    responsible for any change in the average
    duration of vertigo since the introduction of
    the drug.
    (E) There are various significant factors other than
    drugs that decrease the duration of vertigo
    for many people who suffer from it.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Necessary Assumption

The author disagrees with the doctors who believe that a specific drug reduces the duration of episodes of vertigo, concluding that the drug has no effect on the duration of vertigo. The author cites the three-month shortage of the drug, during which there was no significant change in the average duration of vertigo, as evidence. The answer choice will indicate the drug’s effects would have worn off within three months.

A. Yes. This states that the reduction of duration of vertigo supposedly brought about by the drug would have been at least somewhat reversed in three month’s time.

B. No. Some doctors claim that there has been a reduction in the duration of vertigo. This weakens the argument.

C. No. This is close but it doesn’t go far enough. If no amount of time would have been good to use in judging whether the drug has an effect on the duration of vertigo, then three months would have been just as ineffective as five years to use in judging this.

D. No. This doesn’t address the time period wherein some people had to stop taking the drug.

E. No. This weakens the argument, if anything. If there were other significant factors that decrease the duration of vertigo, then stopping the drug for three months wouldn’t necessarily cause an increase in the duration of one’s vertigo.

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88
Q

Melinda: Hazard insurance decreases an individual’s
risk by judiciously spreading the risk among
many policyholders.
Jack: I disagree. It makes sense for me to buy fire
insurance for my house, but I don’t see how
doing so lessens the chances that my house will
burn down.
Jack’s response most clearly trades on an ambiguity
in which one of the following expressions used by
Melinda?
(A) judiciously spreading
(B) many policyholders
(C) risk
(D) decreases
(E) hazard insurance

A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

Melinda concludes that hazard insurance decreases an individual’s risk. Her evidence is that the risk is judiciously spread among many policyholders. Jack disagrees with Melinda’s conclusion. Jack concludes that hazard insurance makes sense but that having, say, fire insurance doesn’t seem to decrease the risk of his house burning down. Melinda and Jack are talking about different kinds of risk. Melinda is referring to monetary risk and Jack is referring to the risk of some specific event occurring.

A. No. Jack doesn’t address this part of Melinda’s argument.

B. No. Jack doesn’t address other policyholders. He’s just interested in one policyholder: himself.

C. Yes. Jack claims that the risk of his own house burning down won’t decrease if he has insurance, while Melinda speaks of the monetary risk that such events tend to bring about.

D. No. Both use this term in the same way.

E. No. Both use this expression in the same way.

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89
Q
  1. It has been suggested that a television set should be
    thought of as nothing more than “a toaster with
    pictures” and that since we let market forces
    determine the design of kitchen appliances we can let
    them determine what is seen on television. But that
    approach is too simple. Some governmental control
    is needed, since television is so important politically
    and culturally. It is a major source of commercial
    entertainment. It plays an important political role
    because it is the primary medium through which
    many voters obtain information about current
    affairs. It is a significant cultural force in that in the
    average home it is on for more than five hours a day.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the role played in the argument by the claim that
    television is so important politically and culturally?
    (A) It states a view that the argument as a whole is
    designed to discredit.
    (B) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
    in support of the claim that a television set
    should be thought of as nothing more than “a
    toaster with pictures” and for which the claim
    that we can let market forces determine what
    is seen on television is offered as support.
    (C) It is a premise that is offered in support of the
    claim that we let market forces determine the
    design of kitchen appliances.
    (D) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
    in support of the claim that some
    governmental control of television is needed
    and for which the claim that the television is
    on for more than five hours a day in the
    average home is offered as partial support.
    (E) It is a premise that is offered in support of the
    claim that television is the primary medium
    through which many voters obtain
    information about current affairs.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Reasoning

Some people make an analogy between a television and other kitchen appliances. These people suggest that, since we let market forces determine the design of kitchen appliances, we can let market forces determine what appears on television. The argument disagrees with this conclusion, claiming that this view is too simple, and that some government control is needed. It is too simple because television is a major source of political information and it is also a significant cultural force, as it is on for more than five hours a day in most households.

A. No. This claim supports the argument’s conclusion.

B. No. This claim is meant to discredit the claim that a television should be thought of as a “toaster with pictures.”

C. No. It does not support the claim about kitchen appliances.

D. Yes. This claim helps support the argument’s conclusion against those who think there shouldn’t be any governmental control. The claim that the television is on for more than five hours a day in the average home is meant to show that the television is so culturally important.

E. No. The claim that television is the primary medium through which many voters obtain information about current affairs partially supports the claim that television is so politically and culturally important, not the other way around.

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90
Q

. Earthworms, vital to the health of soil, prefer soil that
is approximately neutral on the acid-to-alkaline scale.
Since decomposition of dead plants makes the top layer
of soil highly acidic, application of crushed limestone,
which is highly alkaline, to the soil’s surface should
make the soil more attractive to earthworms.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) As far as soil health is concerned, aiding the
decomposition of dead plants is the most
important function performed by earthworms.
(B) After its application to the soil’s surface,
crushed limestone stays in the soil’s top layer
long enough to neutralize some of the top
layer’s acidity.
(C) Crushed limestone contains available calcium
and magnesium, both of which are just as
vital as earthworms to healthy soil.
(D) By itself, acidity of soil does nothing to hasten
decomposition of dead plants.
(E) Alkaline soil is significantly more likely to
benefit from an increased earthworm
population than is highly acidic soil.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that application of highly alkaline crushed limestone to the soil’s surface should make the soil more attractive to earthworms. Decomposition of dead plants makes the top layer of soil highly acidic and earthworms, which are vital to soil’s heath, prefer soil that is approximately neutral on the acid-to-alkaline scale.

A. No. This is too strong. Aiding the decomposition of dead plants doesn’t have to be the most important function performed by earthworms in order for the conclusion to follow.

B. Yes. If the limestone immediately washed off, it wouldn’t have a chance to neutralize the top layer’s acidity and so limestone application wouldn’t make the soil’s surface more attractive to earthworms.

C. No. The argument is focused on the interaction between earthworms and the soil.

D. No. The argument is focused on the interaction between earthworms and the soil.

E. No. The argument is focused on a method to make the soil more neutral, in order to make it more attractive to earthworms. It doesn’t discuss which type of non-neutral soil is more likely to benefit from earthworms.

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91
Q

Salesperson: When a salesperson is successful, it is
certain that that person has been in sales for at
least three years. This is because to succeed as
a salesperson, one must first establish a strong
client base, and studies have shown that
anyone who spends at least three years
developing a client base can eventually make a
comfortable living in sales.
The reasoning in the salesperson’s argument is
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it fails to
consider the possibility that
(A) salespeople who have spent three years
developing a client base might not yet be
successful in sales
(B) some salespeople require fewer than three
years in which to develop a strong client base
(C) a salesperson who has not spent three years
developing a client base may not succeed in
sales
(D) it takes longer than three years for a
salesperson to develop a strong client base
(E) few salespeople can afford to spend three years
building a client base

A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

This is diagrammable. Conclusion: successful salesperson → been in sales for at least three years. Evidence: successful salesperson → establish a strong client base; at least three years developing a client base → eventually make a comfortable living in sales. The argument is confusing something that is sufficient for being a successful salesperson with something that is necessary for being a successful salesperson.

A. No. The evidence states that they will eventually be successful in sales.

B. Yes. The argument claims that successful salespeople must have spent at least three years in sales, while the evidence states that, if salespeople spend at least three years in sales, they will eventually make a comfortable living in sales. It is confusing something that is sufficient for being successful in sales with something that is necessary for being successful in sales.

C. No. This is the contrapositive of the conclusion.

D. No. The argument claims that salespeople need to spend at least three years in sales, so it allows for the fact that it might take longer than three years to develop a strong client base.

E. No. The argument doesn’t make any claims as to how many salespeople are able to do this.

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91
Q

Jurist: A nation’s laws must be viewed as expressions
of a moral code that transcends those laws and
serves as a measure of their adequacy.
Otherwise, a society can have no sound basis
for preferring any given set of laws to all
others. Thus, any moral prohibition against
the violation of statutes must leave room for
exceptions.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred
from the jurist’s statements?
(A) Those who formulate statutes are not primarily
concerned with morality when they do so.
(B) Sometimes criteria other than the criteria
derived from a moral code should be used in
choosing one set of laws over another.
(C) Unless it is legally forbidden ever to violate
some moral rules, moral behavior and
compliance with laws are indistinguishable.
(D) There is no statute that a nation’s citizens have
a moral obligation to obey.
(E) A nation’s laws can sometimes come into
conflict with the moral code they express.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. The passage doesn’t mention the motivations of the statute-makers.

B. No. The passage claims that, in order to have a sound basis for preferring a given set of laws to any others, laws must be viewed as expressions of a transcendental moral code.

C. No. The passage suggests that the moral rules have the preferred status, not the laws. Also, the last sentence suggests that moral behavior and compliance with laws are at least sometimes distinguishable.

D. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t say that there is no stature that the citizens have a moral obligation to obey.

E. Yes. If the laws are to be seen as expression of a moral code that has precedence over these laws, and that measures the adequacy of these laws, then there shouldn’t be an absolute moral prohibition against the violation of statutes. What if, for example, there was a statute that wasn’t in accord with the moral code?

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92
Q
  1. An association between two types of conditions does
    not establish that conditions of one type cause
    conditions of the other type. Even persistent and
    inviolable association is inconclusive; such
    association is often due to conditions of both types
    being effects of the same kind of cause.
    Which one of the following judgments most closely
    conforms to the principle stated above?
    (A) Some people claim that rapid growth of the
    money supply is what causes inflation. But
    this is a naive view. What these people do
    not realize is that growth in the money supply
    and inflation are actually one and the same
    phenomenon.
    (B) People who have high blood pressure tend to
    be overweight. But before we draw any
    inferences, we should consider that an
    unhealthy lifestyle can cause high blood
    pressure, and weight gain can result from
    living unhealthily.
    (C) In some areas, there is a high correlation
    between ice cream consumption and the
    crime rate. Some researchers have proposed
    related third factors, but we cannot rule out
    that the correlation is purely coincidental.
    (D) People’s moods seem to vary with the color of
    the clothes they wear. Dark colors are
    associated with gloomy moods, and bright
    colors are associated with cheerful moods.
    This correlation resolves nothing, however.
    We cannot say whether it is the colors that
    cause the moods or the converse.
    (E) Linguists propose that the similarities between
    Greek and Latin are due to their common
    descent from an earlier language. But how are
    we to know that the similarities are not
    actually due to the two languages having
    borrowed structures from one another, as
    with the languages Marathi and Telegu?
A

Correct Answer: B

B Principle Match

The principle concerns correlation versus causation: that is, that persistent correlation does not conclusively prove a causal relationship because this correlation is often due to a common cause. The answer choice will be an example of this.

A. No. Supply and inflation are the same phenomenon, which is different from them having a common cause.

B. Yes. The unhealthy lifestyle is likely the common cause for both high blood pressure and being overweight, so we shouldn’t necessarily think that being overweight causes high blood pressure. This is an example of the principle in the passage.

C. No. This doesn’t propose a common cause for ice cream consumption and high crime rates.

D. No. This doesn’t propose a common cause for mood and colors worn.

E. No. This questions a proposed common cause, claiming that the two languages borrowed from each other instead.

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93
Q
  1. People who have habitually slept less than six hours a
    night and then begin sleeping eight or more hours a
    night typically begin to feel much less anxious.
    Therefore, most people who sleep less than six hours
    a night can probably cause their anxiety levels to fall
    by beginning to sleep at least eight hours a night.
    The reasoning in which one of the following arguments
    is most similar to that in the argument above?
    (A) When a small company first begins to
    advertise on the Internet, its financial
    situation generally improves. This shows that
    most small companies that have never
    advertised on the Internet can probably
    improve their financial situation by doing so.
    (B) Certain small companies that had never
    previously advertised on the Internet have
    found that their financial situations began to
    improve after they started to do so. So most
    small companies can probably improve their
    financial situations by starting to advertise on
    the Internet.
    (C) It must be true that any small company that
    increases its Internet advertising will improve
    its financial situation, since most small
    companies that advertise on the Internet
    improved their financial situations soon after
    they first began to do so.
    (D) Usually, the financial situation of a small
    company that has never advertised on the
    Internet will improve only if that company
    starts to advertise on the Internet. Therefore,
    a typical small company that has never
    advertised on the Internet can probably
    improve its financial situation by doing so.
    (E) A small company’s financial situation usually
    improves soon after that company first
    begins to advertise on the Internet. Thus,
    most small companies that have never
    advertised on the Internet could probably
    become financially strong.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Parallel

The argument concludes that most people who sleep less than six hours a night can probably cause their anxiety levels to fall by beginning to sleep at least eight hours a night. The evidence is a correlation between a drop in anxiety levels of people who have habitually slept less than six hours a night but who start sleeping eight or more hours a night.

A. Yes. This concludes that most small companies that have never advertised on the Internet can probably improve their financial situation by advertising on it. The evidence is a correlation between an improvement in finances and small companies who haven’t previously advertised on the Internet starting to do so.

B. No. This is too strong. This concludes that most small companies can probably improve their financial situations by advertising on the Internet, on the basis of evidence that certain small companies improved their financial situations by doing so.

C. No. This is too strong. This concludes that it must be true that any small company that increases Internet advertising will improve its financial situation. The above argument doesn’t claim that all people will decrease their anxiety.

D. No. This claims that it is necessary for a small company to start to advertise on the Internet in order to improve their financial situation. The above argument claims that starting to sleep more than eight hours a night is sufficient for a reduction in anxiety.

E. No. This is too strong. This concludes that most small companies that have never advertised on the Internet but start doing so could probably become financially strong. The above argument claims that people’s anxiety levels might drop, not that they will become anxiety-free.

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94
Q

Biologist: Lions and tigers are so similar to each
other anatomically that their skeletons are
virtually indistinguishable. But their behaviors
are known to be quite different: tigers hunt
only as solitary individuals, whereas lions hunt
in packs. Thus, paleontologists cannot
reasonably infer solely on the basis of skeletal
anatomy that extinct predatory animals, such
as certain dinosaurs, hunted in packs.
The conclusion is properly drawn if which one of the
following is assumed?
(A) The skeletons of lions and tigers are at least
somewhat similar in structure in certain key
respects to the skeletons of at least some
extinct predatory animals.
(B) There have existed at least two species of
extinct predatory dinosaurs that were so
similar to each other that their skeletal
anatomy is virtually indistinguishable.
(C) If skeletal anatomy alone is ever an inadequate
basis for inferring a particular species’
hunting behavior, then it is never reasonable
to infer, based on skeletal anatomy alone, that
a species of animals hunted in packs.
(D) If any two animal species with virtually
indistinguishable skeletal anatomy exhibit
quite different hunting behaviors, then it is
never reasonable to infer, based solely on the
hunting behavior of those species, that the
two species have the same skeletal anatomy.
(E) If it is unreasonable to infer, solely on the basis
of differences in skeletal anatomy, that extinct
animals of two distinct species differed in
their hunting behavior, then the skeletal
remains of those two species are virtually
indistinguishable.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Assumption Sufficient

The biologist concludes that paleontologists cannot reasonably infer that extinct predatory animals hunted in packs, solely on the basis of skeletal anatomy. The biologist cites the differences between the hunting patterns of lions and tigers, whose skeletons are virtually indistinguishable. Tigers hunt alone, while lions hunt in packs. The credited response will strengthen the analogy between tigers and lions, on the one hand, and the skeletons of extinct predatory animals, on the other.

A. No. The skeletons themselves don’t need to be similar. The important part of the analogy is the similarity in the skeletons of creatures and their difference in hunting habits.

B. No. This doesn’t address the difference in hunting habits.

C. Yes. The biologist claims that skeletal anatomy alone is an inadequate basis for inferring the hunting behavior of tigers and lions. So, given this answer choice, it is not reasonable to infer that extinct predatory animals hunted in packs, based on skeletal anatomy alone.

D. No. According to the argument, lions and tigers have virtually indistinguishable anatomy. Plus, the argument makes a claim about hunting behaviors based on skeletal anatomy, not the other way around.

E. No. Lions and tigers are not extinct. Also, the argument makes a claim about hunting behaviors based on skeletal anatomy, not the other way around.

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95
Q
  1. Doctor: Being overweight has long been linked with a
    variety of health problems, such as high blood
    pressure and heart disease. But recent research
    conclusively shows that people who are slightly
    overweight are healthier than those who are
    considerably underweight. Therefore, to be
    healthy, it suffices to be slightly overweight.
    The argument’s reasoning is flawed because the
    argument
    (A) ignores medical opinions that tend to lead to a
    conclusion contrary to the one drawn
    (B) never adequately defines what is meant by
    “healthy”
    (C) does not take into account the fact that
    appropriate weight varies greatly from person
    to person
    (D) holds that if a person lacks a property that
    would suffice to make the person unhealthy,
    then that person must be healthy
    (E) mistakes a merely relative property for one
    that is absolute
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The doctor concludes that being slightly overweight is sufficient to be healthy. The doctor cites recent research that conclusively shows that people who are slightly overweight are healthier than those who are considerably underweight. He bases an absolute—being healthy—on a comparison: which of two groups of people is healthier.

A. No. The doctor acknowledges the previous medical opinions to the contrary but thinks that the new evidence supports his own conclusion.

B. No. This is never the credited response.

C. No. The doctor never discusses absolute numbers in terms of people’s weights.

D. No. The doctor never discusses a property that would be sufficient to make people unhealthy.

E. Yes. Being healthier is a merely relative property, while being healthy is an absolute property.

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96
Q

The trees always blossom in May if April rainfall
exceeds 5 centimeters. If April rainfall exceeds 5
centimeters, then the reservoirs are always full on
May 1. The reservoirs were not full this May 1 and
thus the trees will not blossom this May.
Which one of the following exhibits a flawed pattern
of reasoning most similar to the flawed pattern of
reasoning in the argument above?
(A) If the garlic is in the pantry, then it is still
fresh. And the potatoes are on the basement
stairs if the garlic is in the pantry. The
potatoes are not on the basement stairs, so
the garlic is not still fresh.
(B) The jar reaches optimal temperature if it is
held over the burner for 2 minutes. The
contents of the jar liquefy immediately if the
jar is at optimal temperature. The jar was held
over the burner for 2 minutes, so the contents
of the jar must have liquefied immediately.
(C) A book is classified “special” if it is more than
200 years old. If a book was set with wooden
type, then it is more than 200 years old. This
book is not classified “special,” so it is not
printed with wooden type.
(D) The mower will operate only if the engine is
not flooded. The engine is flooded if the foot
pedal is depressed. The foot pedal is not
depressed, so the mower will operate.
(E) If the kiln is too hot, then the plates will crack.
If the plates crack, then the artisan must redo
the order. The artisan need not redo the
order. Thus, the kiln was not too hot.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Parallel Flaw

This argument is diagrammable. April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters → trees blossom in May; ~trees blossom in May → ~April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters. April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters → reservoirs full on May 1; ~reservoirs full on May 1 → ~April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters. Conclusion: ~reservoirs full on May 1 → ~trees blossom in May. The conclusion claims that the reservoirs not being full on May 1 is sufficient to know that the trees will not blossom in May, while the evidence does not support this claim. The argument doesn’t flip the terms in the contrapositive of the first premise.

A. Yes. Garlic in pantry → still fresh; → ~still fresh ~garlic in pantry. Garlic in pantry → potatoes on basement stairs; ~potatoes on stairs → ~garlic in pantry. Conclusion: ~potatoes on stairs → ~garlic still fresh.

B. No. Held over burner for two minutes → optimal temperature; ~optimal temperature → ~held over burner for two minutes. Optimal temperature contents liquefy immediately; ~liquefy immediately → ~optimal temperature. Conclusion: held over burner for two minutes → liquefied immediately. This argument is not flawed.

C. No. More than 200 years old → classified “special”; ~classified “special” → ~more than 200 years old. Set with wooden type → more than 200 years old; ~more than 200 years old → ~set with wooden type. Conclusion: ~classified “special” → ~printed with wooden type. This argument is not flawed.

D. No. Mower operates → ~engine flooded; engine flooded → ~mower operates. Foot pedal depressed → engine flooded; → ~engine flooded ~foot pedal depressed. Conclusion: ~foot pedal depressed mower operates. This argument is flawed, but not in the same manner as the original argument.

E. No. Kiln too hot → plates crack; ~plates crack → ~kiln too hot. Plates crack → redo; → ~redo ~plates crack. Conclusion: ~redo → ~kiln too hot. This argument is not flawed.

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97
Q

Robust crops not only withstand insect attacks more
successfully than other crops, they are also less likely
to be attacked in the first place, since insects tend to
feed on weaker plants. Killing insects with pesticides
does not address the underlying problem of inherent
vulnerability to damage caused by insect attacks.
Thus, a better way to reduce the vulnerability of
agricultural crops to insect pest damage is to grow
those crops in good soil—soil with adequate
nutrients, organic matter, and microbial activity.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) The application of nutrients and organic
matter to farmland improves the soil’s
microbial activity.
(B) Insects never attack crops grown in soil
containing adequate nutrients, organic
matter, and microbial activity.
(C) The application of pesticides to weak crops
fails to reduce the extent to which they are
damaged by insect pests.
(D) Crops that are grown in good soil tend to be
more robust than other crops.
(E) Growing crops without the use of pesticides
generally produces less robust plants than
when pesticides are used.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The argument solves a problem with killing insects with pesticides. Using pesticides does not address the underlying problem of weaker plants being more vulnerable to damage caused by insect attacks. This is because insects tend to feed on weaker plants, while more robust plants are less likely to be attacked in the first place. More robust plants are also more likely to withstand insects’ attacks more successfully. Instead of using pesticides, the argument concludes that a better way to reduce the vulnerability of crops to insect damage is to grow the crops in good soil. The credited response will close the gap between robust plants and growing plants in good soil.

A. No. This doesn’t address the robustness of the plants.

B. No. This is too strong. The argument claims that growing crops in good soil will reduce the damage, not eliminate it.

C. No. This is too strong. The argument claims that growing crops in good soil is a better way to reduce the damage. The pesticides just need to be less effective than growing crops in good soil.

D. Yes. This connects growing crops in good soil to their increased robustness.

E. No. This would weaken the argument, as the argument advocates growing crops in good soil as opposed to using pesticides.

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98
Q

People perceive color by means of certain
photopigments in the retina that are sensitive to
certain wavelengths of light. People who are colorblind are unable to distinguish between red and
green, for example, due to an absence of certain
photopigments. What is difficult to explain, however,
is that in a study of people who easily distinguish red
from green, 10 to 20 percent failed to report
distinctions between many shades of red that the
majority of the subjects were able to distinguish.
Each of the following, if true, helps to explain the
result of the study cited above EXCEPT:
(A) People with abnormally low concentrations of
the photopigments for perceiving red can
perceive fewer shades of red than people with
normal concentrations.
(B) Questions that ask subjects to distinguish
between different shades of the same color are
difficult to phrase with complete clarity.
(C) Some people are uninterested in fine
gradations of color and fail to notice or
report differences they do not care about.
(D) Some people are unable to distinguish red
from green due to an absence in the retina of
the photopigment sensitive to green.
(E) Some people fail to report distinctions
between certain shades of red because they
lack the names for those shades.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: People perceive color by means of certain photopigments in the retina that are sensitive to certain wavelengths of light. Fact 2: Of people who easily distinguish between red and green, 10 to 20 percent in a certain study failed to report distinctions between many shades of red that most subjects were able to distinguish.

A. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent could distinguish between red and green, but didn’t report distinctions between many shades of red.

B. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent failed to report distinctions. They might not have understood the questions.

C. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent failed to report distinctions. They could potentially see them but they just failed to notice them because they don’t care.

D. Yes. The people in the study were easily able to distinguish red from green, so this evidence doesn’t help explain the result of the study.

E. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent failed to report distinctions. They might not have had the vocabulary to report such distinctions.

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99
Q

Occultist: The issue of whether astrology is a science
is easily settled: it is both an art and a science.
The scientific components are the complicated
mathematics and the astronomical knowledge
needed to create an astrological chart. The art
is in the synthesis of a multitude of factors and
symbols into a coherent statement of their
relevance to an individual.
The reasoning in the occultist’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
any science must involve complicated
mathematics
(B) incorrectly infers that a practice is a science
merely from the fact that the practice has
some scientific components
(C) denies the possibility that astrology involves
components that are neither artistic nor
scientific
(D) incorrectly infers that astronomical knowledge
is scientific merely from the fact that such
knowledge is needed to create an astrological
chart
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
any art must involve the synthesis of a
multitude of factors and symbols

A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The occultist concludes that astrology is both an art and a science. To create an astrological chart, complicated mathematics and astronomical knowledge are needed, which are scientific components. The synthesis of a multitude of factors and symbols into a coherent statement is the art component. The occultist is making a part-whole mistake. That the parts have certain qualities does not mean that the whole has these qualities.

A. No. The occultist doesn’t address all sciences.

B. Yes. The occultist claims that astrology is a science because it has scientific components.

C. No. The occultist doesn’t claim that the components cited are the only components of astrology.

D. No. The occultist doesn’t claim that astronomical knowledge is scientific just because it is used to create an astrological chart. The occultist states from the onset that astronomical knowledge is scientific.

E. No. The occultist doesn’t address all arts.

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100
Q

At many electronics retail stores, the consumer has
the option of purchasing product warranties that
extend beyond the manufacturer’s warranty.
However, consumers are generally better off not
buying extended warranties. Most problems with
electronic goods occur within the period covered by
the manufacturer’s warranty.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?
(A) Problems with electronic goods that occur
after the manufacturer’s warranty expires are
generally inexpensive to fix in comparison
with the cost of an extended warranty.
(B) Because problems are so infrequent after the
manufacturer’s warranty expires, extended
warranties on electronic goods are generally
inexpensive.
(C) Most of those who buy extended warranties on
electronic goods do so because special
circumstances make their item more likely to
break than is usually the case.
(D) Some extended warranties on electronic goods
cover the product for the period covered by
the manufacturer’s warranty as well as
subsequent years.
(E) Retail stores sell extended warranties in part
because consumers who purchase them are
likely to purchase other products from the
same store.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The argument concludes that consumers are generally better off not buying the extended warranties that are offered for sale at many electronics stores. While these warranties extend beyond the manufacturer’s warranty, most problems with electronic goods occur within the span of time covered by the manufacturer’s warranty. The credited response will eliminate any other reasons—such as cost—that would make the warranties worthwhile for customers.

A. Yes. If the extended warranty is more expensive than the cost to fix the problems the electronic goods are likely to have, then there seems to be no good reason to buy the warranty.

B. No. This weakens the argument, if anything. If the warranties are generally inexpensive, they might be worthwhile to buy, just in case your electronics do have a problem after the manufacturer’s warranty expires.

C. No. This is irrelevant.

D. No. This is irrelevant.

E. No. The reason that retail stores sell the warranties doesn’t matter.

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101
Q
  1. Since the 1970s, environmentalists have largely
    succeeded in convincing legislators to enact extensive
    environmental regulations. Yet, as environmentalists
    themselves not only admit but insist, the condition of
    the environment is worsening, not improving.
    Clearly, more environmental regulations are not the
    solution to the environment’s problems.
    The argument’s reasoning is flawed because the
    argument
    (A) attacks the environmentalists themselves
    instead of their positions
    (B) presumes, without providing warrant, that
    only an absence of environmental regulations
    could prevent environmental degradation
    (C) fails to consider the possibility that the
    condition of the environment would have
    worsened even more without environmental
    regulations
    (D) fails to justify its presumption that reducing
    excessive regulations is more important than
    preserving the environment
    (E) fails to consider the views of the
    environmentalists’ opponents
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The argument concludes that more environmental regulations are not the solution to the environment’s problems. This is because, as environmentalists insist, the condition of the environment is worsening, even though environmentalists have been successful in convincing legislators to enact extensive environmental regulations. However, there is no evidence to suggest that these regulations have had no effect; perhaps the condition of the environment is not as bad as it would have been had there been no environmental regulations.

A. No. There is no personal attack.

B. No. This is too strong. The argument maintains that the environmental regulations are not the solution to the problem, but it never claims that the prevention of environmental degradation requires the absence of environmental regulations.

C. Yes. It is certainly possible that the environment would have worsened even more than it did without environmental regulations.

D. No. The importance of reducing regulations versus the importance of the environment is not discussed.

E. No. The argument’s author is an opponent of the environmentalists.

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102
Q

Although it is unwise to take a developmental view of
an art like music—as if Beethoven were an advance
over Josquin, or Miles Davis an advance over Louis
Armstrong—there are ways in which it makes sense
to talk about musical knowledge growing over time.
We certainly know more about certain sounds than
was known five centuries ago; that is, we understand
how sounds that earlier composers avoided can be
used effectively in musical compositions. For
example, we now know how the interval of the third,
which is considered dissonant, can be used in
compositions to create consonant musical phrases.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the argument?
(A) Sounds that were never used in past musical
compositions are used today.
(B) Sounds that were once considered dissonant
are more pleasing to modern listeners.
(C) It is inappropriate to take a developmental
view of music.
(D) It is unwise to say that one composer is better
than another.
(E) Our understanding of music can improve over
the course of time.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Main Point

The argument concludes that there are ways in which it makes sense to talk about musical knowledge growing over time. While it is not advocating a developmental view of music, the argument claims that we certainly know more about how to effectively use certain sounds that earlier composers avoided in musical compositions. An example is the interval of the third.

A. No. There were sounds that were avoided, but the argument doesn’t discuss sounds that were never used.

B. No. The argument doesn’t claim anything about what is more pleasing to modern listeners.

C. No. This is a qualifier to the conclusion but not the conclusion itself.

D. No. The argument doesn’t discuss all value judgments in music.

E. Yes. This is a restatement of the main point.

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103
Q

A recent test of an electric insect control device
discovered that, of the more than 300 insects killed
during one 24-hour period, only 12 were mosquitoes.
Thus this type of device may kill many insects, but
will not significantly aid in controlling the
potentially dangerous mosquito population.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) A careful search discovered no live mosquitoes
in the vicinity of the device after the test.
(B) A very large proportion of the insects that
were attracted to the device were not
mosquitoes.
(C) The device is more likely to kill beneficial
insects than it is to kill harmful insects.
(D) Many of the insects that were killed by the
device are mosquito-eating insects.
(E) The device does not succeed in killing all of the
insects that it attracts.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Weaken

The argument interprets the evidence concerning the electric insect control device to indicate that this type of electric insect control device may kill many insects but will not significantly aid in controlling the potentially dangerous mosquito population. The evidence is that, during a 24-hour period, the device killed more than 300 insects but killed only 12 mosquitoes. The argument is overlooking the fact that the actual number of mosquitoes killed might not indicate effectiveness against mosquitoes as well as the percentage of mosquitoes killed. The credited response will widen this gap.

A. Yes. If the device killed all of the mosquitoes present in the area, then it is highly effective at killing mosquitoes. The small number killed just means that there weren’t many mosquitoes in the area during that 24-hour period.

B. No. The proportion of insects attracted to the device is not relevant.

C. No. This strengthens the argument, if anything. If it is less likely to kill harmful insects, then it will be less likely to kill the potentially harmful mosquitoes.

D. No. This strengthens the argument. If the device kills a lot of mosquito-eating insects, then there will be less of them to help control the mosquitoes.

E. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned specifically with the mosquitoes.

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104
Q
  1. Brain-scanning technology provides information about
    processes occurring in the brain. For this information
    to help researchers understand how the brain enables
    us to think, however, researchers must be able to rely
    on the accuracy of the verbal reports given by subjects
    while their brains are being scanned. Otherwise brainscan data gathered at a given moment might not
    contain information about what the subject reports
    thinking about at that moment, but instead about
    some different set of thoughts.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the main conclusion of the argument?
    (A) It is unlikely that brain-scanning technology
    will ever enable researchers to understand
    how the brain enables us to think.
    (B) There is no way that researchers can know for
    certain that subjects whose brains are being
    scanned are accurately reporting what they
    are thinking.
    (C) Because subjects whose brains are being
    scanned may not accurately report what they
    are thinking, the results of brain-scanning
    research should be regarded with great
    skepticism.
    (D) Brain scans can provide information about the
    accuracy of the verbal reports of subjects
    whose brains are being scanned.
    (E) Information from brain scans can help
    researchers understand how the brain enables
    us to think only if the verbal reports of those
    whose brains are being scanned are accurate.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Main Point

Connecting the first two sentences of the argument results in the main point. Brain-scanning technology provides information about brain processes but only if researchers can rely on the accuracy of the verbal reports given by the subjects while the scan is going on. If the reports are inaccurate, the data might not contain information about the thoughts reported.

A. No. The argument does not make claims about the likelihood of the technology enabling researchers to understand how the brain enables us to think.

B. No. This raises a potential problem concerning the accuracy of the reports, but it is not the conclusion of the argument.

C. No. The argument does not make claims about how skeptically we should regard the results of brain-scanning research.

D. No. The argument never states this.

E. Yes. This is a restatement of the first two sentences of the argument, where the point of the argument is located.

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104
Q
  1. Ornithologist: This bird species is widely thought to
    subsist primarily on vegetation, but my research
    shows that this belief is erroneous. While
    concealed in a well-camouflaged blind, I have
    observed hundreds of these birds every morning
    over a period of months, and I estimate that
    over half of what they ate consisted of insects
    and other animal food sources.
    The reasoning in the ornithologist’s argument is
    most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
    argument
    (A) assumes, without providing justification, that
    the feeding behavior of the birds observed
    was not affected by the ornithologist’s act of
    observation
    (B) fails to specify the nature of the animal food
    sources, other than insects, that were
    consumed by the birds
    (C) adopts a widespread belief about the birds’
    feeding habits without considering the
    evidence that led to the belief
    (D) neglects the possibility that the birds have
    different patterns of food consumption
    during different parts of the day and night
    (E) fails to consider the possibility that the birds’
    diet has changed since the earlier belief about
    their diet was formed
A

Correct Answer: D

D Flaw

The ornithologist disagrees with those who think that a certain bird species subsists primarily on vegetation. The ornithologist estimates that over half of what these birds eat consists of insects and other animal food sources. The ornithologist bases this claim on the observation of hundreds of these birds every morning while concealed in a well-camouflaged blind. The ornithologist has observed the birds at the same time every day. If someone did that to humans, isn’t it likely that they would conclude that humans primarily subsist on breakfast cereal and orange juice?

A. No. The ornithologist mentions that he/she was concealed in a well-camouflaged blind.

B. No. This doesn’t matter. As long as they were animal food sources, they support the ornithologist’s conclusion.

C. No. The ornithologist does not adopt a widespread belief; he actually looks to counter one with his own research.

D. Yes. The ornithologist observed the birds only in the morning. The birds might eat a lot of animals in the morning and then eat exclusively vegetation throughout the rest of the day.

E. No. The belief cited is about what the birds do eat, not what they have eaten in the past.

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105
Q
  1. Educator: Only those students who are genuinely
    curious about a topic can successfully learn
    about that topic. They find the satisfaction of
    their curiosity intrinsically gratifying, and
    appreciate the inherent rewards of the learning
    process itself. However, almost no child enters
    the classroom with sufficient curiosity to learn
    successfully all that the teacher must instill. A
    teacher’s job, therefore, _______.
    Which one of the following most logically completes
    the educator’s argument?
    (A) requires for the fulfillment of its goals the
    stimulation as well as the satisfaction of
    curiosity
    (B) necessitates the creative use of rewards that are
    not inherent in the learning process itself
    (C) is to focus primarily on those topics that do
    not initially interest the students
    (D) is facilitated by students’ taking responsibility
    for their own learning
    (E) becomes easier if students realize that some
    learning is not necessarily enjoyable
A

Correct Answer: A

A Main Point

The first statement is diagrammable. Students can successfully learn a topic genuinely → curious about the topic; ~genuinely curious → ~successfully learn. Almost no child starts out curious enough about all the topics that a teacher must instill. The argument is structured to conclude something about teachers needing to make students genuinely curious about all of the topics that the students need to successfully learn.

A. Yes. In order to ensure that students will successfully learn all of the topics that they need to learn, a teacher must make students genuinely curious about those topics for which they hadn’t previously developed a sufficient level of curiosity.

B. No. The evidence does not discuss how rewards relate to curiosity.

C. No. The argument is making a connection between the teacher’s job and the students’ curiosity. Focusing on these topics won’t ensure that they’ll become curious enough to successfully learn these topics.

D. No. The evidence does not discuss what the students’ responsibilities are.

E. No. The argument connects genuine curiosity and enjoyment of learning.

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105
Q
  1. Environmentalist: When bacteria degrade household
    cleaning products, vapors that are toxic to
    humans are produced. Unfortunately,
    household cleaning products are often found
    in landfills. Thus, the common practice of
    converting landfills into public parks is
    damaging human health.
    Which one of the following is an assumption the
    environmentalist’s argument requires?
    (A) In at least some landfills that have been
    converted into public parks there are bacteria
    that degrade household cleaning products.
    (B) Converting a landfill into a public park will
    cause no damage to human health unless
    toxic vapors are produced in that landfill and
    humans are exposed to them.
    (C) If a practice involves the exposure of humans
    to vapors from household cleaning products,
    then it causes at least some damage to human
    health.
    (D) When landfills are converted to public parks,
    measures could be taken that would prevent
    people using the parks from being exposed to
    toxic vapors.
    (E) If vapors toxic to humans are produced by the
    degradation of household cleaning products
    by bacteria in any landfill, then the health of
    at least some humans will suffer.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Necessary Assumption

The environmentalist argues that the common practice of converting landfills into public parks is damaging human health. The environmentalist cites the fact that household cleaning products are often found in landfills; when bacteria degrade these cleaning products, toxic vapors are produced. There is a gap between damaging human health by converting landfills to public parks and whether, in these landfills, bacteria are actually degrading the cleaning products.

A. Yes. This makes a connection between the converted landfills and the bacteria that degrade the products, thereby causing toxic vapors to be emitted.

B. No. This doesn’t state that there are bacteria in these converted landfills that will degrade the cleaning products.

C. No. This doesn’t state that there are bacteria in these converted landfills that will degrade the cleaning products.

D. No. This would weaken the argument. If people weren’t exposed to these vapors, the converted landfills wouldn’t necessarily be damaging to human health.

E. No. This is too general. The environmentalist is arguing specifically about the practice of converting landfills into public parks, not about landfills in general.

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106
Q
  1. Tea made from camellia leaves is a popular beverage.
    However, studies show that regular drinkers of
    camellia tea usually suffer withdrawal symptoms if
    they discontinue drinking the tea. Furthermore,
    regular drinkers of camellia tea are more likely than
    people in general to develop kidney damage. Regular
    consumption of this tea, therefore, can result in a
    heightened risk of kidney damage.
    Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
    weakens the argument?
    (A) Several other popular beverages contain the
    same addictive chemical that is found in
    camellia tea.
    (B) Addictive chemicals are unlikely to cause
    kidney damage solely by virtue of their
    addictive qualities.
    (C) Some people claim that regular consumption
    of camellia tea helps alleviate their stress.
    (D) Most people who regularly drink camellia tea
    do not develop kidney damage.
    (E) Many people who regularly consume camellia
    tea also regularly consume other beverages
    suspected of causing kidney damage.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Weaken

The argument concludes that regular consumption of camellia tea can result in a heightened risk of kidney damage. This is because studies show that regular drinkers of camellia tea are more likely than people in general to develop kidney damage. The argument is treating a correlation as if one event causes the other. It is overlooking another possible cause for the increased risk of kidney damage.

A. No. The argument is concerned with camellia tea and the risk of kidney damage associated with drinking it, not other popular beverages.

B. No. This is too general. The argument is concerned with the chemicals in camellia tea, not addictive chemicals in general.

C. No. The argument doesn’t mention stress levels.

D. No. This doesn’t go far enough. As long as more people who regularly drink camellia tea develop kidney damage than those who do not, the conclusion may still hold.

E. Yes. This presents another possible cause for the kidney damage, which makes it less probable that it is the tea that is causing the greater incidence of kidney damage.

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107
Q

Artist: Avant-garde artists intend their work to
challenge a society’s mainstream beliefs and
initiate change. And some art collectors claim
that an avant-garde work that becomes
popular in its own time is successful. However,
a society’s mainstream beliefs do not generally
show any significant changes over a short
period of time. Therefore, when an avantgarde work becomes popular it is a sign that
the work is not successful, since it does not
fulfil the intentions of its creator.
The reference to the claim of certain art collectors
plays which one of the following roles in the artist’s
argument?
(A) It serves to bolster the argument’s main
conclusion.
(B) It identifies a view that is ultimately disputed
by the argument.
(C) It identifies a position supported by the initial
premise in the argument.
(D) It provides support for the initial premise in
the argument.
(E) It provides support for a counterargument to
the initial premise.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

The artist disagrees with those art collectors who claim that an avant-garde work that becomes popular in its own time is successful. Instead, the artist argues that when an avant-garde work becomes popular, it is a sign that the work is not successful. This is because avant-garde artists intend their work to challenge a society’s mainstream beliefs and initiate change, and a society’s mainstream beliefs do not generally show any significant change over a short period of time.

A. No. The artist argues against these art collectors.

B. Yes. The artist brings up the claims of these art collectors in order to dispute them.

C. No. The premise about the avant-garde artists’ intentions does not support the claims of these art collectors.

D. No. The claims of these art collectors do not provide support for the premise about the avant-garde artists’ intentions.

E. No. The claims of the art collectors are not part of a counterargument.

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108
Q

A recent epidemiological study found that
businesspeople who travel internationally on
business are much more likely to suffer from chronic
insomnia than are businesspeople who do not travel
on business. International travelers experience the
stresses of dramatic changes in climate, frequent
disruption of daily routines, and immersion in
cultures other than their own, stresses not commonly
felt by those who do not travel. Thus, it is likely that
these stresses cause the insomnia.
Which one of the following would, if true, most
strengthen the reasoning above?
(A) Most international travel for the sake of
business occurs between countries with
contiguous borders.
(B) Some businesspeople who travel
internationally greatly enjoy the changes in
climate and immersion in another culture.
(C) Businesspeople who already suffer from
chronic insomnia are no more likely than
businesspeople who do not to accept
assignments from their employers that
require international travel.
(D) Experiencing dramatic changes in climate and
disruption of daily routines through
international travel can be beneficial to some
people who suffer from chronic insomnia.
(E) Some businesspeople who once traveled
internationally but no longer do so complain
of various sleep-related ailments.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Strengthen

The argument concludes that it is likely that the stresses felt more commonly while traveling cause the insomnia of businesspeople who travel internationally on business. These businesspeople are much more likely to suffer from chronic insomnia than are the businesspeople who don’t travel for business. The businesspeople who travel internationally on business frequently experience stresses that are not commonly felt by those who do not travel.

A. No. The argument discusses international travel in general. It doesn’t matter whether the borders of the countries visited are contiguous or not.

B. No. This would weaken the argument, if anything. If some businesspeople who travel greatly enjoy the changes in climate and immersion in another culture, then these are not stresses for them.

C. Yes. This eliminates the possibility that there is another reason for the increased insomnia in businesspeople who must travel internationally.

D. No. This would weaken the argument, as it suggests that the changes and disruptions may ameliorate insomnia instead of cause it.

E. No. The argument is concerned with businesspeople who are currently traveling internationally, not those who once did.

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109
Q

Each of the smallest particles in the universe has an
elegantly simple structure. Since these particles
compose the universe, we can conclude that the
universe itself has an elegantly simple structure.
Each of the following arguments exhibits flawed
reasoning similar to that in the argument above
EXCEPT:
(A) Each part of this car is nearly perfectly
engineered. Therefore this car is nearly
perfect, from an engineering point of view.
(B) Each part of this desk is made of metal.
Therefore this desk is made of metal.
(C) Each brick in this wall is rectangular. Therefore
this wall is rectangular.
(D) Each piece of wood in this chair is sturdy.
Therefore this chair is sturdy.
(E) Each sentence in this novel is well constructed.
Therefore this is a well-constructed novel.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Parallel Flaw

The argument concludes that the universe has an elegantly simple structure, on the basis of evidence that each of the smallest particles in the universe has an elegantly simple structure and that these particles compose the universe. The argument exhibits a part-whole flaw.

A. No. This argument claims that the car is nearly perfectly engineered, on the basis of a characteristic of its parts. This does exhibit the same flaw.

B. Yes. While this argument makes a claim about the desk as a whole on the basis of its parts, it is warranted to do so. If all the parts of the desk are made of metal, then the desk must be made of metal.

C. No. This argument claims that the wall is rectangular because its parts are. However, bricks can make walls of all shapes. So, this exhibits the same flaw.

D. No. This argument claims that the chair is sturdy because all of its parts are. Yet, the chair could be poorly glued or poorly constructed in some other way. So, this exhibits the same flaw.

E. No. The novel might consist of well-constructed sentences but the sentences might not form good prose. So, this exhibits the same flaw.

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109
Q

Many mountain climbers regard climbing Mount
Everest as the ultimate achievement. But climbers
should not attempt this climb since the risk of death
or serious injury in an Everest expedition is very
high. Moreover, the romantic notion of gaining
“spiritual discovery” atop Everest is dispelled by
climbers’ reports that the only profound experiences
they had at the top were of exhaustion and fear.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning above?
(A) Projects undertaken primarily for spiritual
reasons ought to be abandoned if the risks are
great.
(B) Dangerous activities that are unlikely to result
in significant spiritual benefits for those
undertaking them should be avoided.
(C) Activities that are extremely dangerous ought
to be legally prohibited unless they are
necessary to produce spiritual enlightenment.
(D) Profound spiritual experiences can be achieved
without undergoing the serious danger
involved in mountain climbing.
(E) Mountain climbers and other athletes should
carefully examine the underlying reasons they
have for participating in their sports.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Principle Strengthen

The argument advocates against climbers trying to climb Mount Everest because the risk of death or injury is very high, and the climb does not seem to actually enable one to gain “spiritual discovery.”

A. No. The argument doesn’t state that climbing Mount Everest is undertaken primarily for spiritual reasons.

B. Yes. The argument highlights the fact that climbing Mount Everest is dangerous and that climbing Mount Everest is unlikely to result in significant spiritual benefits. This principle would thereby help justify the conclusion that climbers should not attempt the climb.

C. No. The argument doesn’t claim that climbing Mount Everest should be legally prohibited.

D. No. The argument doesn’t claim that there are other ways to achieve profound spiritual experiences.

E. No. This isn’t strong enough. The principle needs to justify the conclusion that mountain climbers should not try to climb Mount Everest.

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110
Q

Criminologist: A judicial system that tries and
punishes criminals without delay is an
effective deterrent to violent crime. Long,
drawn-out trials and successful legal
maneuvering may add to criminals’ feelings of
invulnerability. But if potential violent
criminals know that being caught means
prompt punishment, they will hesitate to break
the law.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the criminologist’s argument?
(A) It is in the nature of violent crime that it is not
premeditated.
(B) About one-fourth of all suspects first arrested
for a crime are actually innocent.
(C) Many violent crimes are committed by firsttime offenders.
(D) Everyone accused of a crime has the right to a
trial.
(E) Countries that promptly punish suspected
lawbreakers have lower crime rates than
countries that allow long trials.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Weaken

The criminologist concludes that a judicial system that tries and punishes criminals without delay is an effective deterrent to violent crime. If potential violent criminals know that being caught means quick punishment, they will hesitate to break the law, whereas long, drawn-out trials may add to criminals’ feelings of invulnerability.

A. Yes. If potential violent criminals don’t think about their crimes, then they won’t be deterred by the prompt punishment.

B. No. This doesn’t claim that innocent people actually get convicted, just that some innocent people get arrested for a crime.

C. No. The number of offenses committed by violent criminals doesn’t matter.

D. No. This is too general. The argument is allowing for trials.

E. No. This strengthens the argument, as it shows a correlation between prompt punishment and a relatively lower crime rate.

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111
Q

. Editorial: Contrary to popular belief, teaching
preschoolers is not especially difficult, for they
develop strict systems (e.g., for sorting toys by
shape), which help them to learn, and they are
always intensely curious about something new
in their world.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the editorial’s argument?
(A) Preschoolers have a tendency to imitate adults,
and most adults follow strict routines.
(B) Children intensely curious about new things
have very short attention spans.
(C) Some older children also develop strict systems
that help them learn.
(D) Preschoolers ask as many creative questions as
do older children.
(E) Preschool teachers generally report lower
levels of stress than do other teachers.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Weaken

The editorial concludes that teaching preschoolers is not especially difficult. The evidence is that preschoolers develop strict systems that help them to learn and that preschoolers are always intensely curious about new things. The credited response will give another reason to think that, as a result of their tendencies, preschoolers are difficult to teach.

A. No. This strengthens the argument. If preschoolers follow strict routines, they might well be easier to teach.

B. Yes. Since preschoolers are intensely curious about new things, they will have short attention spans. This is a reason to think that teaching preschoolers is difficult.

C. No. The editorial addresses preschoolers, not older children.

D. No. This isn’t strong enough. If they ask as many creative questions as do older children, and this doesn’t make older children particularly difficult to teach, then the argument’s conclusion would still hold.

E. No. This answer choice strengthens the argument. If preschool teachers are reporting lower stress levels, that gives us a reason to think that teaching preschoolers isn’t especially difficult.

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111
Q

Journalist: Many people object to mandatory
retirement at age 65 as being arbitrary, arguing
that people over 65 make useful contributions.
However, if those who reach 65 are permitted to
continue working indefinitely, we will face
unacceptable outcomes. First, young people
entering the job market will not be able to
obtain decent jobs in the professions for which
they were trained, resulting in widespread
dissatisfaction among the young. Second, it is
not fair for those who have worked 40 or more
years to deprive others of opportunities.
Therefore, mandatory retirement should be
retained.
The journalist’s argument depends on assuming
which one of the following?
(A) Anyone who has worked 40 years is at least 65
years old.
(B) All young people entering the job market are
highly trained professionals.
(C) It is unfair for a person not to get a job in the
profession for which that person was trained.
(D) If people are forced to retire at age 65, there
will be much dissatisfaction among at least
some older people.
(E) If retirement ceases to be mandatory at age 65,
at least some people will choose to work past
age 65.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The journalist argues against those people who object to mandatory retirement at age 65. The journalist gives two reasons for this. First, the young will become dissatisfied because they won’t be able to get decent jobs in the professions for which they were trained. Second, the people over 65 will be depriving others of opportunities and this is not fair.

A. No. The second claim concerns people who have worked 40 or more years.

B. No. The journalist never claims that all young people are highly trained.

C. No. The unfairness that the journalist points out is found in the second reason, while the training was referenced in the first reason.

D. No. The journalist isn’t concerned with the feelings of older people.

E. Yes. People might want to retire at 65 anyway. The reasons that the journalist cites for retaining mandatory retirement apply only if at least some people over 65 would still want to work.

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112
Q

Lawyer: A body of circumstantial evidence is like a
rope, and each item of evidence is like a strand
of that rope. Just as additional pieces of
circumstantial evidence strengthen the body of
evidence, adding strands to the rope
strengthens the rope. And if one strand breaks,
the rope is not broken nor is its strength much
diminished. Thus, even if a few items of a body
of circumstantial evidence are discredited, the
overall body of evidence retains its basic
strength.
The reasoning in the lawyer’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) takes for granted that no items in a body of
circumstantial evidence are significantly more
critical to the strength of the evidence than
other items in that body
(B) presumes, without providing justification, that
the strength of a body of evidence is less than
the sum of the strengths of the parts of that
body
(C) fails to consider the possibility that if many
items in a body of circumstantial evidence
were discredited, the overall body of evidence
would be discredited
(D) offers an analogy in support of a conclusion
without indicating whether the two types of
things compared share any similarities
(E) draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim
presented in support of that conclusion

A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

The lawyer concludes that, even if a few items of a body of circumstantial evidence are discredited, the overall body of evidence retains its basic strength. This conclusion is based on the analogy the lawyer makes between a body of circumstantial evidence and a rope. This is a bad analogy because while every strand of the rope is similar, different pieces of a body of circumstantial evidence might be more or less essential to its strength, depending.

A. Yes. This points out the problem with the lawyer’s analogy.

B. No. This is the wrong common flaw. The problem in the argument is not a part-whole problem.

C. No. The argument never claims that many items could be discredited and the overall body of evidence would remain strong.

D. No. This is close but the lawyer does indicate similarities between a body of circumstantial evidence and a rope.

E. No. The argument isn’t circular.

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113
Q

People who object to the proposed hazardous waste
storage site by appealing to extremely implausible
scenarios in which the site fails to contain the waste
safely are overlooking the significant risks associated
with delays in moving the waste from its present
unsafe location. If we wait to remove the waste until
we find a site certain to contain it safely, the waste
will remain in its current location for many years,
since it is currently impossible to guarantee that any
site can meet that criterion. Yet keeping the waste at
the current location for that long clearly poses
unacceptable risks.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support
which one of the following?
(A) The waste should never have been stored in its
current location.
(B) The waste should be placed in the most secure
location that can ever be found.
(C) Moving the waste to the proposed site would
reduce the threat posed by the waste.
(D) Whenever waste must be moved, one should
limit the amount of time allotted to locating
alternative waste storage sites.
(E) Any site to which the waste could be moved
will be safer than its present site.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Inference

Choose the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. The passage does not make any claims about whether the waste should have been initially stored in its current location.

B. No. The passage claims that the waste should be placed somewhere more secure. It doesn’t claim that it should be placed in the most secure location ever.

C. Yes. The passage claims that keeping the waste at the current location for as long as it takes to find a site certain to contain it safely would pose an unacceptable risk. So, moving the waste would reduce the threat posed.

D. No. This is too general. The passage discusses a specific instance of moving waste, not all waste moving.

E. No. This is too strong. The passage does not claim that any site would be safer.

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114
Q

Ethicist: Many environmentalists hold that the
natural environment is morally valuable for its
own sake, regardless of any benefits it provides
us. However, even if nature has no moral
value, nature can be regarded as worth
preserving simply on the grounds that people
find it beautiful. Moreover, because it is
philosophically disputable whether nature is
morally valuable but undeniable that it is
beautiful, an argument for preserving nature
that emphasizes nature’s beauty will be less
vulnerable to logical objections than one that
emphasizes its moral value.
The ethicist’s reasoning most closely conforms to
which one of the following principles?
(A) An argument in favor of preserving nature will
be less open to logical objections if it avoids
the issue of what makes nature worth
preserving.
(B) If an argument for preserving nature
emphasizes a specific characteristic of nature
and is vulnerable to logical objections, then
that characteristic does not provide a
sufficient reason for preserving nature.
(C) If it is philosophically disputable whether
nature has a certain characteristic, then
nature would be more clearly worth
preserving if it did not have that
characteristic.
(D) Anything that has moral value is worth
preserving regardless of whether people
consider it to be beautiful.
(E) An argument for preserving nature will be less
open to logical objections if it appeals to a
characteristic that can be regarded as a basis
for preserving nature and that philosophically
indisputably belongs to nature.

A

Correct Answer: E

E Principle Match

The ethicist concludes that an argument for preserving nature emphasizing nature’s beauty will be less vulnerable to logical objections than one that emphasizes its moral value. This is because it is philosophically disputable whether nature is morally valuable but not disputable that it is beautiful.

A. No. The ethicist wants to change focus as to what makes nature worth preserving. She doesn’t want to avoid the issue of what makes nature worth preserving.

B. No. The ethicist does not judge whether the argument that emphasizes the moral value of nature provides a sufficient reason for preserving it.

C. No. The ethicist makes no judgment as to whether nature would be more clearly worth preserving if it didn’t have the characteristic of moral worth.

D. No. The ethicist’s argument concentrates on the beauty of nature, so this would weaken the thrust of the ethicist’s argument.

E. Yes. The ethicist argues that the argument based on natural beauty will be less open to logical objections because everyone agrees that beauty is a characteristic of nature and nature’s beauty can be regarded as a basis for preserving nature.

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115
Q

An editor is compiling a textbook containing essays
by several different authors. The book will contain
essays by Lind, Knight, or Jones, but it will not
contain essays by all three. If the textbook contains
an essay by Knight, then it will also contain an essay
by Jones.
If the statements above are true, which one of the
following must be true?
(A) If the textbook contains an essay by Lind, then
it will not contain an essay by Knight.
(B) The textbook will contain an essay by only one
of Lind, Knight, and Jones.
(C) The textbook will not contain an essay by
Knight.
(D) If the textbook contains an essay by Lind, then
it will also contain an essay by Jones.
(E) The textbook will contain an essay by Lind.

A

Correct Answer: A

A Inference

This is diagrammable. The book will contain essays by Lind, Knight, or Jones but not all three. Contains essay by Knight → contains an essay by Jones. Connecting this with the previous information, contains essay by Knight → contains an essay by Jones and ~contains an essay by Lind. The contrapositive is as follows: contains an essay by Lind or ~contains an essay by Jones → ~contains an essay by Knight.

A. Yes. This is the contrapositive of the information given in the passage.

B. No. We know that if it contains one by Knight, it will contain an essay by Jones.

C. No. We don’t know this.

D. No. We don’t know about essays by Jones if the book contains an essay by Lind. The only thing that we know if the book contains an essay by Lind is that it won’t contain an essay by Knight.

E. No. We don’t know for sure which essays will be in the book.

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116
Q

The ability of mammals to control their internal
body temperatures is a factor in the development of
their brains and intelligence. This can be seen from
the following facts: the brain is a chemical machine,
all chemical reactions are temperature dependent,
and any organism that can control its body
temperature can assure that these reactions occur at
the proper temperatures.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) Organisms unable to control their body
temperatures do not have the capacity to
generate internal body heat without relying
on external factors.
(B) Mammals are the only animals that have the
ability to control their internal body
temperatures.
(C) The brain cannot support intelligence if the
chemical reactions within it are subject to
uncontrolled temperatures.
(D) The development of intelligence in mammals
is not independent of the chemical reactions
in their brains taking place at the proper
temperatures.
(E) Organisms incapable of controlling their
internal body temperatures are subject to
unpredictable chemical processes.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that the ability of mammals to control their internal body temperatures is a factor in the development of their brains and intelligence. This conclusion is derived from the facts that the brain is a chemical machine, all chemical reactions are temperature dependent, and any organism that can control this can assure that the reactions occur at the proper temperatures. There is a gap between the evidence, which discusses elements and processes of the brain, and the conclusion, which talks about brains and intelligence.

A. No. The argument is about organisms that are able to control their body temperatures.

B. No. This is too strong. Mammals don’t have to be the only animals that have the ability to control their internal body temperatures for the conclusion to follow.

C. No. This is too strong. The argument claims that the ability to control internal body temperatures is a factor; it doesn’t need to be the only factor.

D. Yes. This closes the gap between the proper temperatures of brain processes and intelligence.

E. No. The argument is about organisms that can control their body temperatures.

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117
Q

. A recent survey indicates that the average number of
books read annually per capita has declined in each
of the last three years. However, it also found that
most bookstores reported increased profits during
the same period.
Each of the following, if true, helps to resolve the
survey’s apparently paradoxical results EXCEPT:
(A) Recent cutbacks in government spending have
forced public libraries to purchase fewer
popular contemporary novels.
(B) Due to the installation of sophisticated new
antitheft equipment, the recent increase in
shoplifting that has hit most retail businesses
has left bookstores largely unaffected.
(C) Over the past few years many bookstores have
capitalized on the lucrative coffee industry by
installing coffee bars.
(D) Bookstore owners reported a general shift
away from the sale of inexpensive paperback
novels and toward the sale of lucrative
hardback books.
(E) Citing a lack of free time, many survey
respondents indicated that they had canceled
magazine subscriptions in favor of
purchasing individual issues at bookstores
when time permits.

A

Correct Answer: B

B Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: The average number of books read annually per capita has declined in each of the last three years. Fact 2: Most bookstores reported increased profits during this period.

A. No. This would explain why bookstores reported increased profits while the amount read has declined; more people may now buy popular contemporary novels since they can no longer borrow them for free from public libraries.

B. Yes. This does not explain why bookstores reported increased profits during the three-year period. The profits are higher than their own previous profits, not the profits of other stores.

C. No. This would explain where the increase in revenue came from, given that the average amount read has declined.

D. No. If bookstores were making more money per purchase, they could have an increase in profits even though they weren’t selling as many books.

E. No. The additional sales from magazines would help explain the bookstores’ increased profits, even though the average number of books read by each individual has declined.

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118
Q

Naturalist: A species can survive a change in
environment, as long as the change is not too
rapid. Therefore, the threats we are creating to
woodland species arise not from the fact that
we are cutting down trees, but rather from the
rate at which we are doing so.
The reasoning in which one of the following is most
similar to that in the naturalist’s argument?
(A) The problem with burning fossil fuels is that
the supply is limited; so, the faster we expend
these resources, the sooner we will be left
without an energy source.
(B) Many people gain more satisfaction from
performing a job well—regardless of whether
they like the job—than from doing merely
adequately a job they like; thus, people who
want to be happy should choose jobs they can
do well.
(C) Some students who study thoroughly do well
in school. Thus, what is most important for
success in school is not how much time a
student puts into studying, but rather how
thoroughly the student studies.
(D) People do not fear change if they know what
the change will bring; so, our employees’ fear
stems not from our company’s undergoing
change, but from our failing to inform them
of what the changes entail.
(E) Until ten years ago, we had good soil and our
agriculture flourished. Therefore, the recent
decline of our agriculture is a result of our
soil rapidly eroding and there being nothing
that can replace the good soil we lost.

A

Correct Answer: D

D Parallel

The naturalist concludes that the threats we are creating to woodland species arise from the rate at which we are cutting down trees. Species can survive a change in environment as long as the change is slow enough. So, the change in environment caused by cutting down trees is not by itself causing the threats to woodland species.

A. No. This does not amend the cause of the problem.

B. No. The threat in the first still involved the cutting down of the trees. This argument discards one possibility for another, unrelated one.

C. No. This argument makes a claim about some students. The argument above makes a claim about all species.

D. Yes. This argument claims that the problem isn’t from the company’s undergoing change, per se, but from the failure to inform employees of what the changes entail.

E. No. This doesn’t present an alternative but related reason for the problem.

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119
Q

Professor: A person who can select a beverage from
among 50 varieties of cola is less free than one
who has only these 5 choices: wine, coffee,
apple juice, milk, and water. It is clear, then,
that meaningful freedom cannot be measured
simply by the number of alternatives available;
the extent of the differences among the
alternatives is also a relevant factor.
The professor’s argument proceeds by
(A) supporting a general principle by means of an
example
(B) drawing a conclusion about a particular case
on the basis of a general principle
(C) supporting its conclusion by means of an
analogy
(D) claiming that whatever holds for each member
of a group must hold for the whole group
(E) inferring one general principle from another,
more general, principle

A

Correct Answer: A

A Reasoning

The professor argues that meaningful freedom cannot be measured simply by the number of alternatives available; rather, the extent of the differences among the alternatives is also a relevant factor. He supports his conclusion by the use of an example, in which he compares choosing one of 50 types of cola to choosing from among 5 different types of beverage—wine, coffee, apple juice, milk, and water.

A. Yes. The professor’s conclusion is a general principle and the cola versus milk, etc, example supports this principle.

B. No. The conclusion is the general principle.

C. No. There is no analogy. There is an example.

D. No. The professor’s argument does not use part-whole reasoning.

E. No. There is only one general principle.

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120
Q

Principle: Meetings should be kept short, addressing
only those issues relevant to a majority of
those attending. A person should not be
required to attend a meeting if none of the
issues to be addressed at the meeting are
relevant to that person.
Application: Terry should not be required to attend
today’s two o’clock meeting.
Which one of the following, if true, most justifies the
stated application of the principle?
(A) The only issues on which Terry could make a
presentation at the meeting are issues
irrelevant to at least a majority of those who
could attend.
(B) If Terry makes a presentation at the meeting,
the meeting will not be kept short.
(C) No issue relevant to Terry could be relevant to
a majority of those attending the meeting.
(D) If Terry attends the meeting a different set of
issues will be relevant to a majority of those
attending than if Terry does not attend.
(E) The majority of the issues to be addressed at
the meeting are not relevant to Terry.

A

Correct Answer: C

C Strengthen

The principle claims that meetings should be kept short and should address only the issues that are relevant to the majority of the people attending. Moreover, people to whom none of the issues to be addressed are relevant should not have to attend the meeting. The application is that Terry should not be required to attend today’s meeting. The credited response will make it clear that none of the issues to be addressed are relevant to Terry, or that the issues that are relevant to Terry won’t be relevant to the majority of the attendees.

A. No. The principle doesn’t claim that people should come only if they are also presenting.

B. No. This doesn’t go far enough. The meetings should be kept short, in the sense that topics not relevant to the majority should not be discussed. But Terry wouldn’t necessarily have to make a presentation if he/she attended the meeting.

C. Yes. This supports the application of the principle because, if none of the issues relevant to Terry could be relevant to a majority of those attending the meeting, then the issues relevant to Terry will not be addressed at the meeting. So, Terry should not be required to attend.

D. No. This doesn’t make it clear that Terry shouldn’t have to go to the meeting. If any of the issues to be addressed are relevant to Terry, he/she might still have to go to the meeting.

E. No. The principle claims that if none of the issues to be addressed are relevant, then a person should not have to attend. If at least one of the issues to be addressed is relevant to Terry, even if the majority of them are not, Terry might still be required to attend.

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121
Q
  1. This region’s swimmers generally swim during the
    day because they are too afraid of sharks to swim
    after dark but feel safe swimming during daylight
    hours. Yet all recent shark attacks on swimmers in
    the area have occurred during the day, indicating
    that, contrary to popular opinion, it is not more
    dangerous to swim here at night than during the day.
    The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
    criticism on the grounds that it
    (A) overlooks the possibility that some sharks are
    primarily nocturnal hunters
    (B) bases its conclusion on evidence from an
    unreliable source
    (C) overlooks the possibility that swimmers might
    feel anxiety caused by not being able to see
    one’s surroundings in the dark
    (D) presumes, without providing justification, that
    swimmers cannot be the most knowledgeable
    about which times of day are safest for
    swimming
    (E) fails to take into account the possibility that
    the number of shark attacks at night would
    increase dramatically if more people swam at
    night
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The argument concludes that it is not more dangerous to swim in the area at night than during the day based on the fact that all recent shark attacks on swimmers have occurred during the day. However, the argument doesn’t consider that there could be another explanation for why the recent shark attacks occur during the day—if swimmers are generally too afraid to swim after dark, there may not be any swimmers in the water for sharks to attack at night.

A. No. This information isn’t really relevant. If some sharks are primarily nocturnal hunters, there could still be others that aren’t, such as those responsible for the daytime shark attacks.

B. No. There is no reference to any type of source in the argument.

C. No. Anxiety is irrelevant to whether swimmers are actually attacked, so while the argument doesn’t take this into consideration, it’s not a flaw in its logic.

D. No. The argument makes no assumptions as to whether swimmers are the most knowledgeable about the safest times of day for swimming; it merely contradicts popular opinion.

E. Yes. The reason for the dearth of shark attacks at night could be the absence of night swimmers, which means it could be more dangerous to swim at night than during the day.

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122
Q
  1. Denise: Crime will be reduced only when
    punishment is certain and is sufficiently severe
    to give anyone considering committing a crime
    reason to decide against doing so.
    Reshmi: No, crime will be most effectively reduced if
    educational opportunities are made readily
    available to everyone, so that those who once
    viewed criminal activity as the only means of
    securing a comfortable lifestyle will choose a
    different path.
    Their dialogue provides the most support for the
    claim that Denise and Reshmi agree that
    (A) people are capable of choosing whether or not
    to commit crimes
    (B) crime is the most important issue facing
    modern society
    (C) reducing crime requires fair and consistent
    responses to criminal behavior
    (D) crimes are committed in response to economic
    need
    (E) reducing crime requires focusing on assured
    punishments
A

Correct Answer: A

A Point at Issue

Denise believes that reducing crime depends on the certainty of a punishment that is sufficiently severe to act as a deterrent to anyone considering committing a crime. Reshmi believes that ensuring that educational opportunities are readily available to all will most effectively reduce crime by presenting alternatives to those who see criminal activity as the sole means to a comfortable lifestyle.

A. Yes. Both Denise and Reshmi suggest ways to reduce crime that imply that a person has a choice as to whether to commit a crime. Denise offers a deterrent while Reshmi offers an incentive, yet both rely on the idea that someone can choose not to commit a crime.

B. No. Neither of them discusses how important an issue crime is in modern society.

C. No. Denise does mention the idea that punishment should be certain, but Reshmi never addresses any of this, so you don’t know whether they would indeed agree.

D. No. Reshmi would likely agree with this statement, but Denise does not address economic factors, so you don’t know whether they would indeed agree.

E. No. Denise states that punishment should be certain, but Reshmi never addresses this, so you don’t know whether they would indeed agree.

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123
Q
  1. Acme Corporation offers unskilled workers excellent
    opportunities for advancement. As evidence, consider
    the fact that the president of the company, Ms.
    Garon, worked as an assembly line worker, an entrylevel position requiring no special skills, when she
    first started at Acme.
    Which one of the following statements, if true, most
    weakens the reasoning above?
    (A) Acme’s vice president of operations also
    worked as an assembly line worker when he
    first started at Acme.
    (B) Acme regularly hires top graduates of business
    schools and employs them briefly in each of a
    succession of entry-level positions before
    promoting them to management.
    (C) Acme promotes its own employees to senior
    management positions much more frequently
    than it hires senior managers from other
    companies.
    (D) Ms. Garon worked at Acme for more than 20
    years before she was promoted to president.
    (E) Acme pays entry-level employees slightly
    higher wages than most other businesses in
    the same industry.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Weaken

The argument concludes that Acme Corporation offers unskilled workers excellent opportunities for advancement based on the example of Ms. Garon, who started as an assembly line worker, a position that requires no special skills, and is now the president of the company. However, you don’t actually know that Ms. Garon had no special skills when she started. You need to find an answer choice that offers another explanation for how she attained her position as president even though she began as an assembly line worker.

A. No. If anything, this strengthens the argument by implying that Ms. Garon’s career is representative of the path Acme employees take.

B. Yes. This suggests that she advanced to her position by virtue of her business degree; therefore, this casts doubt on the argument that unskilled workers have excelled opportunities for advancement at Acme.

C. No. This doesn’t tell you whether unskilled workers are among those getting promoted, so it doesn’t really impact the argument.

D. No. This is irrelevant. How long she worked at Acme is not important; the reason behind her promotion is, but this choice doesn’t address that.

E. No. This is out of scope; there’s no link between wages and skills here.

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124
Q
  1. The song of the yellow warbler signals to other
    yellow warblers that a particular area has been
    appropriated by the singer as its own feeding
    territory. Although the singing deters other yellow
    warblers from taking over the feeding territory of the
    singer, other yellow warblers may range for food
    within a portion of the singer’s territory. However, a
    warbler sings a special song when it molts (sheds its
    feathers). Other yellow warblers will not enter the
    smaller core territory of a yellow warbler singing its
    molting song. Therefore yellow warblers, which can
    only fly short distances during molting, have no
    competition for the food supply within the range of
    their restricted flying.
    The argument makes which one of the following
    assumptions?
    (A) The core areas contain just enough food to
    sustain one yellow warbler while it molts.
    (B) Warblers are the only molting birds that lay
    claim to core areas of feeding territories by
    singing.
    (C) There are no birds other than yellow warblers
    that compete with yellow warblers for food.
    (D) Warblers often share their feeding areas with
    other kinds of birds, which often do not eat
    the same insects or seeds as warblers do.
    (E) The core areas of each feeding territory are the
    same size for each molting warbler.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that during molting, yellow warblers have no competition for the food supply located within the range of their restricted flying. The evidence for this conclusion is that when a warbler molts, which limits its flying distance, its song changes; this in turn affects the behavior of other yellow warblers, who will not enter the smaller core territory of a molting warbler, although they might at other times. The argument assumes that the only competition for the food supply within a warbler’s range comes from other yellow warblers and not from anything else.

A. No. Even if the core areas contain enough food to sustain more than one molting warbler, this choice doesn’t address the issue of competition for that food.

B. No. This is irrelevant; it doesn’t matter whether other birds act in the same fashion when molting.

C. Yes. If you negate this choice, then it invalidates the argument’s conclusion by suggesting that yellow warblers do indeed have competition even when molting.

D. No. This weakens the argument somewhat by suggesting that competition would be minimal but not absent entirely.

E. No. This is irrelevant; negating this choice would have no impact on the argument’s conclusion.

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125
Q
  1. Chinh: Television producers should not pay attention
    to the preferences of the viewing public when
    making creative decisions. Great painters do
    not consider what the museum-going public
    wants to see.
    Lana: But television is expressly for the viewing
    public. So a producer is more like a CEO than
    like an artist. Just as a company would be
    foolhardy not to consider consumers’ tastes
    when developing products, the TV producer
    must consider viewers’ preferences.
    According to Lana, Chinh’s argument is flawed in
    that it
    (A) is circular
    (B) relies on a sample of consumers that is
    unrepresentative of consumers in general
    (C) infers from the effect produced by an action
    that the action is intended to produce that
    effect
    (D) fails to consider the possibility that painters
    may in fact try to please the museum-going
    public
    (E) offers a faulty analogy
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

Chinh concludes that television producers should not pay attention to what the viewing public prefers when making creative decisions; he reasons that great painters do not consider what the museum-going public prefers to see. Lana points out that because television is expressly for the viewing public, Chinh’s analogy misses the mark; a television producer is more comparable to a CEO than to an artist.

A. No. Chinh’s conclusion is not a restatement of his premise.

B. No. Chinh does not discuss any sample of consumers.

C. No. Chinh does not reverse cause and effect in his argument.

D. No. This isn’t the flaw in Chinh’s argument. Furthermore, Chinh’s premise specifically refers to great painters, not painters in general.

E. Yes. Lana believes the analogy Chinh relies on is problematic, as noted above.

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126
Q
  1. Dietitian: High consumption of sodium increases
    some people’s chances of developing heart
    disease. To maintain cardiac health without
    lowering sodium consumption, therefore, these
    people should eat fresh, rather than canned or
    frozen, fruit and vegetables, since the
    potassium in plant foods helps to prevent
    sodium’s malign effects.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the dietitian’s argument?
    (A) Fresh fruits and vegetables contain more
    potassium than sodium.
    (B) Food processing businesses often add sodium
    to foods being canned or frozen.
    (C) Potassium is the only mineral that helps to
    prevent sodium’s malign effects.
    (D) Potassium in fruits and vegetables has few
    negative side effects.
    (E) Fresh fruits and vegetables contain more
    potassium than do canned or frozen ones
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The dietitian concludes that people looking to maintain cardiac health without lowering sodium consumption should eat fresh, as opposed to canned or frozen, fruit and vegetables. Why? High sodium intake increases the risk of heart disease in some people, and the potassium in plant foods helps to prevent the negative effects of sodium. The dietitian assumes that fresh fruit and vegetables are a better source of potassium than are canned or frozen forms.

A. No. The amounts of sodium and potassium relative to each other in a given type of fruit or vegetable aren’t essential to the argument.

B. No. This is out of scope; the conclusion is directed at those who do not wish to lower sodium consumption.

C. No. This isn’t necessary to the argument. Even if potassium weren’t the only mineral that helps to prevent sodium’s malign effects, the conclusion would still be valid.

D. No. The side effects of potassium are out of scope so long as it has the desired effect of countering sodium’s negative effects.

E. Yes. If you negate this choice, the conclusion would no longer hold true; there would be no reason to recommend fresh over canned or frozen fruit and vegetables.

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127
Q
  1. Dana intentionally watered the plant every other day.
    But since the plant was a succulent, and needed dry
    soil, the frequent watering killed the plant. Therefore
    Dana intentionally killed the plant.
    Which one of the following arguments exhibits a
    flawed pattern of reasoning most similar to the
    flawed pattern of reasoning exhibited in the
    argument above?
    (A) Jack stole $10 from Kelly and bet it on a race.
    The bet returned $100 to Jack. Therefore Jack
    really stole $100 from Kelly.
    (B) Celeste knows that coffee is grown in the
    mountains in Peru and that Peru is in South
    America. Therefore Celeste should know that
    coffee is grown in South America.
    (C) The restaurant owner decided to take an item
    off her restaurant’s menu. This decision
    disappointed Jerry because that item was his
    favorite dish. Therefore the restaurant owner
    decided to disappoint Jerry.
    (D) The heavy rain caused the dam to break, and
    the breaking of the dam caused the fields
    downstream to be flooded. Therefore the
    heavy rain caused the flooding of the fields.
    (E) The power plant raised the water temperature,
    and whatever raised the water temperature is
    responsible for the decrease in fish. Therefore
    the power plant is responsible for the decrease
    in fish.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Parallel Flaw

The argument concludes that Dana intentionally killed the plant because she intentionally watered it every other day. As the plant needed dry soil, the frequent watering killed it. However, the argument misapplies the word “intentionally”—there is nothing to suggest that Dana knew frequent watering would kill the plant.

A. No. There is no issue of intent in this argument.

B. No. The conclusion focuses on what Celeste should know, not on what she intended, so this doesn’t match the original argument.

C. Yes. This contains the same flaw as the original argument. There is no evidence that the restaurant owner knew that removing that item would disappoint Jerry.

D. No. This argument is not flawed.

E. No. This argument is also not flawed.

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128
Q
  1. This boulder is volcanic in origin and yet the rest of
    the rock in this area is sedimentary. Since this area
    was covered by southward-moving glaciers during
    the last ice age, this boulder was probably deposited
    here, hundreds of miles from its geological
    birthplace, by a glacier.
    Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
    undermines the conclusion drawn in the argument
    above?
    (A) Most boulders that have been moved by
    glaciers have not been moved more than 100
    miles.
    (B) The closest geological source of volcanic rock
    is 50 miles south of this boulder.
    (C) The closest geological source of volcanic rock
    is 50 miles north of this boulder.
    (D) There are no geological sources of volcanic
    rock north of this boulder.
    (E) No other boulders of volcanic origin exist
    within 50 miles of this boulder.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Weaken

The argument concludes that a boulder in a given area was probably deposited hundreds of miles away from its geological birthplace by a glacier. Why? The boulder is volcanic in origin, unlike the rest of the rock in the area, and the area in question was covered by southward-moving glaciers during the last Ice Age. To weaken this argument, you need to show either that a glacier couldn’t have been responsible for transporting the boulder or that some other explanation can account for the boulder’s differing makeup.

A. No. This isn’t strong enough to weaken the argument. The fact that most boulders haven’t been moved that far still allows for the possibility that at least one was moved farther than 100 miles.

B. No. Since the glaciers that supposedly moved the boulder were moving from north to south, knowing that the closest source of volcanic rock is south of the boulder doesn’t do anything to weaken the argument.

C. No. This would strengthen the argument by implying that a southward-moving glacier would have passed through a source of volcanic rock, from which the boulder could have originated.

D. Yes. This weakens the argument. If there is no source of volcanic rock north of the boulder, then it doesn’t make sense to claim that the boulder was deposited there in the manner described by the argument.

E. No. This is irrelevant. You are concerned only with this particular boulder, and the boulder could certainly have traveled more than 50 miles according to the argument itself.

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129
Q
  1. Rifka: We do not need to stop and ask for directions.
    We would not need to do that unless, of
    course, we were lost.
    Craig: The fact that we are lost is precisely why we
    need to stop.
    In the exchange above, the function of Craig’s
    comment is to
    (A) contradict the conclusion of Rifka’s argument
    without offering any reason to reject any of
    Rifka’s implicit premises
    (B) deny one of Rifka’s implicit premises and
    thereby arrive at a different conclusion
    (C) imply that Rifka’s argument is invalid by
    accepting the truth of its premises while
    rejecting its conclusion
    (D) provide a counterexample to Rifka’s
    generalization
    (E) affirm the truth of the stated premise of Rifka’s
    argument while remaining noncommittal
    about its conclusion
A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

Rifka concludes that they do not need to stop and ask for directions because they would only need to stop if they were lost. Craig, however, disagrees, saying that because they are lost, they need to stop. Craig contradicts one of Rifka’s unstated premises—that they are not lost—and draws the opposite conclusion—that they need to stop.

A. No. Craig does reject Rifka’s implicit premise that they are not lost.

B. Yes. Craig denies Rifka’s implicit premise that they are not lost and arrives at the conclusion that they should stop, contrary to Rifka’s conclusion.

C. No. Craig does not accept the truth of Rifka’s premises because unlike her, he believes that they are lost.

D. No. Craig doesn’t provide a counterexample; he simply disagrees with one of Rifka’s premises and conclusion.

E. No. Craig clearly draws a conclusion that contradicts Rifka’s conclusion, so he does not remain noncommittal.

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130
Q
  1. Critic: The idealized world portrayed in romance
    literature is diametrically opposed to the
    debased world portrayed in satirical literature.
    Nevertheless, the major characters in both
    types of works have moral qualities that reflect
    the worlds in which they are presented.
    Comedy and tragedy, meanwhile, require that
    the moral qualities of major characters change
    during the course of the action. Therefore,
    neither tragedy nor comedy can be classified as
    satirical literature or romance literature.
    The critic’s conclusion follows logically if which one
    of the following is assumed?
    (A) Some characters in comedies and tragedies are
    neither debased nor idealized.
    (B) The visions of the world portrayed in works of
    tragedy and works of comedy change during
    the course of the action.
    (C) If a character in a tragedy is idealized at the
    beginning of the action depicted in the
    tragedy, he or she must be debased at the end.
    (D) In romance literature and satirical literature,
    characters’ moral qualities do not change
    during the course of the action.
    (E) Both comedy and tragedy require that the
    moral qualities of minor characters change
    during the course of the action.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Sufficient Assumption

The critic concludes that neither tragedy nor comedy can be classified as either satirical or romance literature. Why? Major characters in both romance and satirical literature have moral qualities that reflect the worlds in which they are portrayed. But comedy and tragedy require that the moral qualities of major characters change during the course of the action. The critic assumes that characters in both romance and satirical literature do not undergo changes in moral qualities akin to those of characters in tragedies or comedies.

A. No. The nature of the characters is not relevant to the argument; you need to know whether their moral qualities change.

B. No. This is out of scope. The critic is specifically concerned with changes to characters’ moral qualities, not changes in the vision of the world depicted in a given work.

C. No. While the critic says that tragedy requires the moral qualities of a character to change throughout the course of the action, you are never told how or to what extent these qualities must change, so this goes too far.

D. Yes. If in romance and satirical literature characters’ moral qualities do not change during the course of the action, the critic’s conclusion regarding the classification of comedy and tragedy would be valid.

E. No. The critic’s premises focus specifically on major characters, so this is out of scope.

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131
Q
  1. Lance: If experience teaches us nothing else, it
    teaches us that every general rule has at least
    one exception.
    Frank: What you conclude is itself a general rule. If
    we assume that it is true, then there is at least
    one general rule that has no exceptions.
    Therefore, you must withdraw your
    conclusion.
    Frank’s argument is an attempt to counter Lance’s
    conclusion by
    (A) demonstrating that Lance assumes the very
    thing he sets out to prove
    (B) showing that Lance’s conclusion involves him
    in a contradiction
    (C) showing that no general rule can have
    exceptions
    (D) establishing that experience teaches us the
    opposite of what Lance concludes
    (E) showing that it has no implications for any
    real cases
A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

Lance claims that every general rule has at least one exception. Frank concludes that Lance must withdraw that conclusion, because if Lance’s claim, itself a general rule, is taken as true, then there would exist at least one general rule that has no exceptions, which contradicts Lance’s conclusion.

A. No. This choice describes circular reasoning, which Lance’s conclusion does not rely on.

B. Yes. Frank demonstrates that by accepting Lance’s conclusion as true, a situation then arises that yields a contradiction.

C. No. Frank does not show anything this absolute; this is too extreme.

D. No. Frank’s argument does not address the issue of what experience teaches us.

E. No. Frank does not give any examples of real cases; he counters Lance’s argument in a theoretical fashion.

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132
Q
  1. Throughout a certain nation, electricity has actually
    become increasingly available to people in urban
    areas while energy production has been subsidized to
    help residents of rural areas gain access to electricity.
    However, even with the subsidy, many of the most
    isolated rural populations still have no access to
    electricity. Thus, the energy subsidy has failed to
    achieve its intended purpose.
    The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
    criticism on the grounds that the argument
    (A) takes for granted that the subsidy’s intended
    purpose could have been achieved if the
    subsidy had not existed
    (B) takes for granted that if a subsidy has any
    benefit for those whom it was not intended to
    benefit, then that subsidy has failed to achieve
    its intended purpose
    (C) presumes, without providing justification, that
    the intended purpose of the subsidy was to
    benefit not only rural populations in the
    nation who have no electricity, but other
    people in the nation as well
    (D) overlooks the possibility that even many of the
    people in the nation who live in urban areas
    would have difficulty gaining access to
    electricity without the subsidy
    (E) fails to take into account that the subsidy
    could have helped many of the rural residents
    in the nation gain access to electricity even if
    many other rural residents in the nation were
    not helped in this way
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The argument concludes that the energy subsidy has failed to achieve its intended purpose. Why? Even with subsidized energy production, which was intended to help residents of rural areas gain access to electricity, many of the most isolated rural populations still have no access to electricity. Yet the argument doesn’t seem to take into account the fact that the subsidy’s intended purpose might still be achieved even if only some, not all, rural populations now have access to electricity.

A. No. The argument never claims the subsidy’s intended purpose could have been arrived at by other means, only that it has not been fulfilled thus far.

B. No. There is no discussion in the argument of the subsidy benefiting those for whom it was not intended.

C. No. The argument never claims that the subsidy was meant to help other people aside from those in rural areas.

D. No. While the argument doesn’t address the possibility raised by this choice, it’s not a logical flaw in its reasoning.

E. Yes. The argument incorrectly assumes that for the subsidy to achieve its intended purpose, it would have had to help everyone to whom it was applicable, not just some populations.

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133
Q
  1. Heart attacks are most likely to occur on Mondays.
    The accepted explanation is that because Monday is
    the first day of the workweek, people feel more stress
    on Mondays than on other days. However, research
    shows that even unemployed retired people are more
    likely to have heart attacks on Mondays than on
    other days.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    explain the increased likelihood that an unemployed
    retiree will have a heart attack on a Monday?
    (A) Because they associate Monday with work,
    retired people are more likely to begin large
    projects on Mondays.
    (B) Many retired people take up part-time jobs
    after they retire from their careers.
    (C) People seldom change their dietary and other
    health habits after retirement.
    (D) Stress is the major factor influencing the risk
    of heart attack.
    (E) Unemployed retired people are even more
    likely to have heart attacks than are people
    who have jobs
A

Correct Answer: A

A Resolve/Explain

It is commonly accepted that heart attacks are most likely to occur on Mondays because, as Monday is the start of the workweek, people feel more stress that day than on other days of the week. However, even unemployed retired people are more likely to have heart attacks on Mondays than on other days. Why is this the case if someone is retired and not tied to a traditional workweek schedule?

A. Yes. This would explain why retirees are just as likely as employed individuals to have a heart attack on a Monday; they keep to the same sort of work schedule even though they are no longer employed.

B. No. This doesn’t tell you about either their stress levels or their schedules, so this doesn’t help explain the situation.

C. No. This doesn’t explain why they would still be most likely to have a heart attack on a Monday.

D. No. This explains why heart attacks are more likely to occur on Mondays for people who are employed; however, it doesn’t explain the second part of the argument concerning retirees.

E. No. This makes the paradox worse.

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134
Q
  1. Psychologist: We asked 100 entrepreneurs and
    100 business managers to answer various
    questions and rate how confident they were
    that their responses were correct. While
    members of each group were overconfident, in
    general the entrepreneurs were much more so
    than the business managers. This indicates that
    people who are especially overconfident are
    more likely to attempt to start a business in
    spite of the enormous odds against success
    than people who are less confident.
    Which one of the following, if true, lends the most
    support to the psychologist’s conclusion?
    (A) The questions asked of the entrepreneurs and
    business managers included personal,
    political, and business questions.
    (B) At least some of the entrepreneurs surveyed
    had accurately determined before attempting
    to start their businesses what the odds were
    against their attempts being successful.
    (C) Another survey showed that degree of
    confidence was highly correlated with success
    in business.
    (D) The business managers who were most
    overconfident were found to have attempted
    to start businesses in the past.
    (E) How confident each person surveyed was that
    his or her answers to the questions asked were
    correct corresponded closely to that person’s
    confidence in his or her business acumen.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Strengthen

The psychologist concludes that people who are especially overconfident are more likely to attempt to start a business in spite of the odds against success than are people who are less confident. The evidence the psychologist cites comes from a survey in which an equal number of entrepreneurs and business managers were asked to answer a bunch of questions and rate how confident they were that their answers were correct. In general, the entrepreneurs were more overconfident than the business managers. You want to find an answer that strengthens the link between being overconfident and trying to start a business.

A. No. This is irrelevant. The subject matter of the questions doesn’t tell you anything about the relationship between overconfidence and starting a business.

B. No. You don’t know whether these entrepreneurs were the ones that were overconfident; if they weren’t, then this information isn’t applicable to the psychologist’s argument.

C. No. This doesn’t strengthen the psychologist’s argument, which deals with the relationship between overconfidence and starting a business, not having success in business.

D. Yes. If what is true of the entrepreneurs in terms of their overconfidence is also found in some of the business managers, it makes it more likely that the psychologist’s conclusion about the link between overconfidence and starting a business is valid.

E. No. Confidence in one’s own business acumen is out of scope, since that doesn’t tell you whether a person is overconfident or more likely to start a business.

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135
Q
  1. If Agnes’s research proposal is approved, the fourthfloor lab must be cleaned out for her use. Immanuel’s
    proposal, on the other hand, requires less space. So if
    his proposal is approved, he will continue to work in
    the second-floor lab. Only those proposals the
    director supports will be approved. So since the
    director will support both proposals, the fourth-floor
    lab must be cleaned out.
    The argument’s reasoning is flawed because the
    argument
    (A) presumes, without providing justification, that
    the fourth-floor lab is bigger than the secondfloor lab
    (B) fails to consider the possibility that a proposal
    will be rejected even with the director’s
    support
    (C) presumes, without providing justification, that
    the director will support both proposals with
    equal enthusiasm
    (D) fails to consider the possibility that Immanuel
    will want to move to a bigger lab once his
    proposal is approved
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    no lab other than the fourth-floor lab would
    be adequate for Agnes’s research
A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

If Agnes’s proposal is approved, the fourth-floor lab must be cleaned out. If Immanuel’s proposal is approved, he will continue to work in the second-floor lab because he requires less space. Only if the director supports a proposal will it be approved, which you can diagram as proposal approved director supports proposal, and the director supports both proposals. The argument therefore concludes that the fourth-floor lab must be cleaned out. However, having the director support a proposal doesn’t guarantee that it will be approved; that would entail reading in the opposite direction of the arrow, so there’s the flaw.

A. No. There is no discussion of the relative size of the two labs.

B. Yes. Having the director’s support is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for any proposal that is approved.

C. No. The amount of enthusiasm the director expresses for each proposal is not relevant, since the premises require only the director’s support and nothing more.

D. No. This is irrelevant. Even if Immanuel does want to move, Agnes’s proposal is the one that requires the fourth-floor lab. The argument doesn’t address the possibility raised in this choice, but this isn’t the flaw in the argument’s logic.

E. No. The premises state that if Agnes’s proposal is approved, the fourth-floor lab must be cleaned out for her use. You have to take that information as a given. Whether there are other labs that are also suitable is out of scope.

136
Q
  1. In order to expand its mailing lists for e-mail
    advertising, the Outdoor Sports Company has been
    offering its customers financial incentives if they
    provide the e-mail addresses of their friends.
    However, offering such incentives is an unethical
    business practice, because it encourages people to
    exploit their personal relationships for profit, which
    risks damaging the integrity of those relationships.
    Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
    helps to justify the reasoning in the argument?
    (A) It is unethical for people to exploit their
    personal relationships for profit if in doing so
    they risk damaging the integrity of those
    relationships.
    (B) If it would be unethical to use information
    that was gathered in a particular way, then it
    is unethical to gather that information in the
    first place.
    (C) It is an unethical business practice for a
    company to deliberately damage the integrity
    of its customers’ personal relationships in any
    way.
    (D) It is unethical to encourage people to engage in
    behavior that could damage the integrity of
    their personal relationships.
    (E) Providing a friend’s personal information to a
    company in exchange for a financial reward
    will almost certainly damage the integrity of
    one’s personal relationship with that friend.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Strengthen

The argument concludes that the Outdoor Sports Company’s policy of offering its customers financial incentives to provide the E-mail addresses of their friends is an unethical business practice. Why? It encourages people to exploit their personal relationships for profit, which risks damaging the integrity of those relationships. You need an answer choice that supports this line of reasoning.

A. No. This choice focuses on what is unethical for people to do, but the argument specifically discusses an unethical business practice, so this is out of scope.

B. No. This is too broad. The argument never says that it is unethical to use the information, only that it is an unethical business practice to offer such incentives to gain it.

C. No. This is too strong. The argument says that people risk damaging their relationships, not that a company seeks to deliberately damage those relationships. Also, it is an individual’s choice whether to provide E-mail addresses of friends, so a choice that ascribes blame to a company for an individual’s willful actions doesn’t match the argument.

D. Yes. This matches the language of the argument, which is not extreme. Plus, this choice clearly states that what is unethical is that the company is encouraging behavior that could have damaging effects.

E. No. This doesn’t uphold the notion that the company’s business practice is unethical; it only addresses the effect an individual’s action might have.

137
Q
  1. Glen: An emphasis on law’s purely procedural side
    produces a concern with personal rights that
    leads to the individual’s indifference to
    society’s welfare. Law’s primary role should be
    to create virtuous citizens.
    Sara: But such a role would encourage government to
    decide which modes of life are truly virtuous;
    that would be more dangerous than
    government’s being overprotective of
    individuals’ rights.
    The dialogue provides the most support for the claim
    that Glen and Sara disagree about whether
    (A) citizens can be assumed to be capable of
    making good choices without governmental
    interference
    (B) virtuousness on the part of citizens is more
    important than the protection of citizens’
    rights
    (C) there is an inherent danger in allowing
    government to decide what constitutes
    virtuous behavior among citizens
    (D) an emphasis on law’s purely procedural side
    results in government’s being overprotective
    of citizens’ rights
    (E) the cultivation of virtue among citizens should
    be the primary role of law
A

Correct Answer: E

E Point at Issue

Glen concludes that law’s primary role should be to create virtuous citizens because an emphasis on law’s purely procedural side produces a concern with personal rights that leads to the individual’s indifference to society’s welfare. Sara, on the other hand, disagrees with Glen’s conclusion, arguing that his outlook would encourage government to decide which modes of life are truly virtuous, which would be more dangerous than the government’s being overprotective of individuals’ rights.

A. No. The issue of whether citizens are capable of making good choices is never raised in Sara’s argument.

B. No. While Glen might agree with this statement, you don’t know for certain that Sara would disagree, as she disagrees only with Glen’s conclusion, not his premise.

C. No. While Sara might agree with this statement, you don’t have enough information to know how Glen would react to it.

D. No. Sara never addresses law’s purely procedural side, so you don’t know whether she would agree with this statement. She only claims that if law’s primary role were to be the creation of virtuous citizens, the result would be a government that is overprotective of individuals’ rights.

E. Yes. Glen would agree with this, while Sara would disagree.

138
Q
  1. Some credit card companies allow cardholders to
    skip payments for up to six months under certain
    circumstances, but it is almost never in a cardholder’s
    interest to do so. Finance charges accumulate during
    the skipped-payment period, and the cost to the
    cardholder is much greater in the long run.
    Which one of the following arguments illustrates a
    principle most similar to the principle underlying the
    argument above?
    (A) Although insecticides are effective in ridding
    the environment of insect pests, they often
    kill beneficial insects at the same time. Since
    these beneficial insects are so important, we
    must find other ways to combat insect pests.
    (B) Increasing the base salary of new employees is
    good for a company. Although the company’s
    payroll will increase, it will be easier for the
    company to recruit new employees.
    (C) It is unwise to use highway maintenance funds
    for construction of new roads. There is some
    immediate benefit from new roads, but if
    these funds are not used for maintenance, the
    total maintenance cost will be greater in the
    long run.
    (D) It is better to invest in a used piece of
    equipment than to purchase a new one.
    Although used equipment requires more
    repairs and is sometimes more costly in the
    long run, buying a new machine requires a far
    greater initial outlay of capital.
    (E) Sports cars are impractical for most drivers.
    While there is undoubtedly a certain thrill
    associated with driving these cars, their small
    size makes them incapable of transporting
    any but the smallest amounts of cargo
A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Match

The argument concludes that it is almost never in a cardholder’s interest to skip payments on a credit card because the cost of doing so is much greater to the cardholder in the long run. You need to find an answer choice that similarly shows that the long-term cost of an action is much greater than its short-term benefit.

A. No. This discusses finding other ways to combat pests, which doesn’t match the original argument.

B. No. This suggests the costs are balanced out or overridden by the benefit, which doesn’t match the original argument.

C. Yes. Constructing new roads, while beneficial in the short term, will result in greater maintenance costs in the long run.

D. No. Here the costs are only sometimes greater in the long run, which doesn’t match the original argument.

E. No. There is no discussion of short- versus long-term costs or benefits in this choice.

139
Q
  1. None of the students taking literature are taking
    physics, but several of the students taking physics are
    taking art. In addition, none of the students taking
    rhetoric are taking physics.
    Which one of the following statements follows
    logically from the statements above?
    (A) There are students who are taking art but not
    literature.
    (B) None of the students taking literature are
    taking art.
    (C) There are students who are taking rhetoric but
    not literature.
    (D) None of the students taking rhetoric are taking
    literature.
    (E) There are students who are taking both art and
    literature.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Inference

Diagram the two pieces of information that start with “none.” Taking literature not taking physics; taking physics not taking literature. Taking rhetoric not taking physics; taking physics not taking rhetoric. You also know that some students taking physics are also taking art.

A. Yes. Several of the students taking physics are also taking art. Since taking physics not taking literature, this choice follows from the information given.

B. No. There is no direct connection made between taking literature and taking art. This is possible, but you’re looking for something that the information in the passage directly supports.

C. No. There is no direct connection made between taking literature and taking rhetoric. This is possible, but you’re looking for something that the information in the passage directly supports.

D. No. This choice has the same problem as (C).

E. No. There is no direct connection made between taking literature and taking art. This is possible, but you’re looking for something that the information in the passage directly supports.

140
Q
  1. Psychologist: Psychotherapists who attempt to
    provide psychotherapy on radio or television
    talk shows are expected to do so in ways that
    entertain a broad audience. However,
    satisfying this demand is nearly always
    incompatible with providing high-quality
    psychological help. For this reason,
    psychotherapists should never provide
    psychotherapy on talk shows.
    Which one of the following principles must be
    assumed in order for the psychologist’s conclusion to
    be properly drawn?
    (A) It is never appropriate for psychotherapists to
    attempt to entertain a broad audience.
    (B) The context in which psychological help is
    presented has a greater impact on its quality
    than the nature of the advice that is given.
    (C) Psychotherapy should never be provided in a
    context in which there is any chance that the
    therapy might be of less than high quality.
    (D) Most members of radio and television talk
    show audiences are seeking entertainment
    rather than high-quality psychological help.
    (E) Psychotherapists should never attempt to
    provide psychological help in a manner that
    makes it unlikely to be of high quality
A

Correct Answer: E

E Principle Strengthen

The psychologist concludes that psychotherapists should never provide psychotherapy on talk shows. Why? It is expected that psychotherapists who provide psychotherapy on radio or television talks show do so in a manner that is entertaining; however, satisfying this demand is almost always incompatible with providing psychological help that is of high quality.

A. No. This is out of scope. A psychotherapist could potentially be entertaining as long as he or she isn’t providing psychotherapy, and there’s no discussion of what is “appropriate” in the argument.

B. No. The psychologist doesn’t address what is responsible for the quality of the advice; she only states that something is usually incompatible with providing high-quality help.

C. No. The psychologist states that the demand for entertainment in this case is “nearly always incompatible” with providing high-quality care, but this choice creates a lower threshold by stating that psychotherapy should not be provided if there is “any chance” that it is less than high quality.

D. No. This is out of scope; what audiences are seeking isn’t relevant to the psychologist’s argument, which is concerned with what psychotherapists shouldn’t do.

E. Yes. This would support the psychologist’s decision, and it matches the strength of the language in the argument.

141
Q
  1. Tania: A good art critic is not fair in the ordinary
    sense; it is only about things that do not
    interest one that one can give a truly unbiased
    opinion. Since art is a passion, good criticism
    of art cannot be separated from emotion.
    Monique: Art is not simply a passion. The best art
    critics passionately engage with the artwork,
    but render their criticism only after shedding
    all of their biases and consulting general
    principles of aesthetics.
    The dialogue most strongly supports the claim that
    Tania and Monique disagree about whether
    (A) art is not simply a passion
    (B) good art criticism is sometimes unbiased
    (C) art critics should not feel emotion toward
    artworks
    (D) fairness generally requires minimizing the
    influence of bias
    (E) the passionate engagement of the art critic
    with the artwork is the most important aspect
    of art criticism
A

Correct Answer: B

B Point at Issue

Tania claims that good art criticism cannot be separated from emotion because art is a passion and a person can be unbiased only about things that are of no interest to him or her. Although Monique’s conclusion is implied and not directly stated in the argument, she disagrees with Tania, noting that art is not just a passion and that the best art critics engage with artwork only after shedding all their biases and consulting general principles of aesthetics.

A. No. You don’t know whether Tania would agree with this; she only states that art is a passion, but her statement leaves open the possibility that she too thinks it is more than just that.

B. Yes. Tania would disagree with this statement, while Monique would agree with it.

C. No. Neither person makes claims about what art critics should or should not feel toward artworks.

D. No. Monique never addresses the issue of fairness, so you don’t know whether she would agree with this choice.

E. No. Neither individual makes any claims about what the most important aspect of art criticism is.

142
Q
  1. The writing styles in works of high literary quality
    are not well suited to the avoidance of
    misinterpretation. For this reason, the writing in
    judicial decisions, which are primarily intended as
    determinations of law, is rarely of high literary
    quality. However, it is not uncommon to find writing
    of high literary quality in dissenting opinions, which
    are sometimes included in written decisions in cases
    heard by a panel of judges.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    resolve the apparent discrepancy in the statements
    above?
    (A) It is not uncommon for more than one judge
    to have an influence on the way a dissenting
    opinion is written.
    (B) Unlike literary works, legal opinions rely
    heavily on the use of technical terminology.
    (C) The law is not to any great extent determined
    by dissenting opinions.
    (D) Judges spend much more time reading judicial
    decisions than reading works of high literary
    quality.
    (E) Judicial decisions issued by panels of judges
    are likely to be more widely read than are
    judicial decisions issued by a single judge who
    hears a case alone.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Resolve/Explain

Judicial writing is rarely of high literary quality, since the writing styles of works of such quality are more subject to misinterpretation, which would defeat the purpose of judicial decisions. Yet some dissenting opinions have writing of high literary quality even though they are sometimes included in written decisions.

A. No. This doesn’t explain why dissenting opinions would have a higher literary quality.

B. No. This doesn’t help explain anything because this would seemingly apply to both decisions and dissenting opinions.

C. Yes. If dissenting opinions aren’t used to determine laws, then it wouldn’t be a problem for them to be written in a style that might allow them to be subject to misinterpretation.

D. No. This is irrelevant. You’re not concerned with what judges read, and this doesn’t explain why dissenting opinions would have a higher literary quality.

E. No. This wouldn’t explain why, if these judicial decisions are more widely read, it would be acceptable for the dissenting opinions contained therein to be written in a style that leaves them more open to misinterpretation.

143
Q
  1. Ecologist: Without the intervention of
    conservationists, squirrel monkeys will become
    extinct. But they will survive if large tracts of
    second-growth forest habitat are preserved for
    them. Squirrel monkeys flourish in second growth forest because of the plentiful supply
    of their favorite insects and fruit.
    Which one of the following can be properly inferred
    from the ecologist’s statements?
    (A) No habitat other than second-growth forest
    contains plentiful supplies of squirrel
    monkeys’ favorite insects and fruit.
    (B) At least some of the conservationists who
    intervene to help the squirrel monkeys
    survive will do so by preserving secondgrowth forest habitat for the monkeys.
    (C) Without plentiful supplies of their favorite
    insects and fruit, squirrel monkeys will
    become extinct.
    (D) If conservationists intervene to help squirrel
    monkeys survive, then the squirrel monkeys
    will not become extinct.
    (E) Without the intervention of conservationists,
    large tracts of second-growth forest habitat
    will not be preserved for squirrel monkeys.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

Diagram the first two statements in the argument. No intervention → squirrel monkeys become extinct; squirrel monkeys do not become extinct → intervention. Tracts of forest preserved → monkeys survive; monkeys do not survive → tracts of forest not preserved.

A. No. This is irrelevant; the argument doesn’t discuss habitats other than second-growth forest.

B. No. You don’t know what form an intervention by conservationists would take, so this choice goes too far.

C. No. You are told that second-growth forest furnishes squirrel monkeys’ favorite insects and fruit; however, it is possible that they could survive on other sources of food that aren’t their favorites. The argument never states that their favorite insects and fruit are the only kinds squirrel monkeys eat.

D. No. Intervention by conservationists is a necessary but not sufficient condition for squirrel monkeys to survive. Even if an intervention takes place, they could still become extinct for other reasons.

E. Yes. Combine the first and last diagrammed statements. No intervention → squirrel monkeys become extinct/do not survive → tracts of forest not preserved.

144
Q
  1. Over 40,000 lead seals from the early Byzantine
    Empire remain today. Apart from the rare cases
    where the seal authenticated a document of special
    importance, most seals had served their purpose
    when the document was opened. Lead was not
    expensive, but it was not free: most lead seals would
    have been recast once they had served their purpose.
    Thus the number of early Byzantine documents
    sealed in such a fashion must have been many times
    the number of remaining lead seals.
    Which one of the following statements, if true, most
    strengthens the argument?
    (A) Most of the lead seals produced during the
    early Byzantine Empire were affixed to
    documents that were then opened during that
    period.
    (B) Most of the lead seals produced during the
    early Byzantine Empire were affixed to
    documents that have since been destroyed.
    (C) The amount of lead available for seals in the
    early Byzantine Empire was much greater
    than the amount of lead that remains in the
    seals today.
    (D) During the time of the early Byzantine Empire
    there were at most 40,000 documents of
    enough importance to prevent the removing
    and recycling of the seal.
    (E) During the time of the early Byzantine Empire
    there were fewer than 40,000 seals affixed to
    documents at any given time.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The argument concludes that the number of early Byzantine documents sealed with lead seals must have been many times the number of remaining lead seals. Why? Most documents of the era that were sealed with lead remained that way only until the seal was broken, at which point the lead would have been recast and used again. The only way this conclusion could be true would be if most documents of the period that were sealed with lead were actually opened during that time and not kept sealed until much later.

A. Yes. If this is true, then it makes sense to say that there would have been far more documents with lead seals during the early Byzantine era than the number of lead seals that remain today.

B. No. The fact that the documents have been destroyed is irrelevant, but since this choice doesn’t tell you whether the documents were opened and when, it doesn’t strengthen the argument.

C. No. The amount of lead available is not relevant, since the argument says lead seals tended to be recast.

D. No. This focuses on the documents whose seals would not have been broken; it doesn’t matter whether there were at most or more than 40,000 such documents.

E. No. This focuses on how many seals there might have been at any given point during the early Byzantine Empire, but the conclusion focuses on how many documents would have used such seals, so this choice has no bearing on the argument.

145
Q
  1. Farmer: In the long run, it is counterproductive for
    farmers to use insecticides. Because insects’
    resistance to insecticides increases with
    insecticide use, farmers have to use greater and
    greater amounts of costly insecticides to
    control insect pests.
    Which one of the following most accurately describes
    the role played in the farmer’s argument by the
    proposition that farmers have to use greater and
    greater amounts of costly insecticides to control
    insect pests?
    (A) It is the argument’s main conclusion, but not
    its only conclusion.
    (B) It is a claim for which a causal explanation is
    provided and which itself is used as direct
    support for the argument’s only conclusion.
    (C) It is the argument’s only conclusion.
    (D) It is a claim that is used as direct support for
    an intermediary conclusion, which in turn is
    used as direct support for the argument’s
    main conclusion.
    (E) It identifies a phenomenon for which the
    argument’s main conclusion offers a causal
    explanation.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

The farmer concludes that it is counterproductive in the long run for farmers to use insecticides. He bases his conclusion on the premise that since insects’ resistance to insecticides increases with insecticide use, farmers have to use increasingly greater amounts of costly insecticides to control pests. The proposition asked about in the question stem functions as part of the support for the farmer’s conclusion.

A. No. The statement is not the argument’s conclusion.

B. Yes. The statement supports the farmer’s conclusion and is itself supported by the part of the argument that talks about insects’ resistance to insecticides increasing with insecticide use.

C. No. The statement is not the argument’s conclusion.

D. No. There is no intermediary conclusion in the argument.

E. No. The argument’s conclusion does not offer an explanation for the phenomenon described in the statement.

146
Q
  1. Anna: Did you know that rainbows always occur
    opposite the sun, appearing high in the sky
    when the sun is low, and low in the sky when
    the sun is high? The Roman scholar Pliny the
    Elder claimed that this was so, in the first
    century A.D.
    William: His claim cannot be correct. After all, Pliny
    the Elder wrote that there are tribes of dog headed people and beings with no heads or
    necks but with eyes on their shoulders, and
    said that smearing snails on your forehead
    cures headaches!
    William’s argument against Anna’s claims about
    rainbows is most vulnerable to criticism because it
    (A) inappropriately distorts Anna’s conclusion,
    making it appear more extreme than it really
    is
    (B) takes for granted that Pliny the Elder was in
    bad faith when he reported about unheard-of
    creatures
    (C) illicitly infers that, because Pliny the Elder
    made some incorrect assertions, Pliny the
    Elder’s assertions about rainbows are also
    incorrect
    (D) accepts the assertions of an ancient scholar
    without presenting contemporary verification
    of that scholar’s views
    (E) implies that Pliny the Elder’s writings are too
    outdated to be of any value
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

William concludes that Pliny the Elder could not have been correct in claiming that rainbows always occur opposite the sun. He bases this conclusion on the fact that Pliny made some fairly ridiculous and untrue claims in his writings. William fails to consider that Pliny could still be right about rainbows even if a lot of the other stuff he claimed was incorrect.

A. No. William doesn’t distort anything that Anna says.

B. No. If anything, William appears to assume that Pliny was sincere in his claims, not that he was in bad faith.

C. Yes. Pliny could have had a few correct assertions, but William discounts this possibility based on the fact that other things Pliny claimed were false.

D. No. William does not accept Pliny’s assertions.

E. No. William states that Pliny’s writings are incorrect, not that they are outdated.

147
Q
  1. Shareholder: The company’s current operations are
    time-proven successes. The move into food
    services may siphon off funds needed by these
    other operations. Also, the food service
    industry is volatile, with a higher inherent risk
    than with, for instance, pharmaceuticals,
    another area into which the company has
    considered expanding.
    If the shareholder’s statements are true, which one of
    the following is most strongly supported by them?
    (A) The company’s present operations require
    increased funding.
    (B) Investment into pharmaceuticals would not
    siphon off money from other operations.
    (C) The company will lose money as it expands
    into the food service industry.
    (D) Only if the company expands its operations
    into pharmaceuticals are increased profits
    possible.
    (E) The company has a greater chance of losing
    money in food services than in
    pharmaceuticals.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. No mention is made of a need for increased funding.

B. No. There is no discussion of whether investment in pharmaceuticals would siphon off money from other operations.

C. No. The food service industry carries greater risk and might siphon off funds from other operations, but there is no indication that the company will lose money if it chooses to move into this area.

D. No. There is no mention of increasing profits in the argument.

E. Yes. The last sentence of the argument supports this; the food service industry has a higher inherent risk than the pharmaceuticals industry.

148
Q
  1. Mariah: Joanna has argued that Adam should not
    judge the essay contest because several of his
    classmates have entered the contest. However,
    the essays are not identified by author to the
    judge and, moreover, none of Adam’s friends
    are classmates of his. Still, Adam has no
    experience in critiquing essays. Therefore, I
    agree with Joanna that Adam should not judge
    the contest.
    Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
    helps to justify Mariah’s argument?
    (A) A suspicion of bias is insufficient grounds on
    which to disqualify someone from judging a
    contest.
    (B) Expertise should be the primary prerequisite
    for serving as a contest judge.
    (C) The ability of a judge to make objective
    decisions is more important than that judge’s
    content expertise.
    (D) In selecting a contest judge, fairness concerns
    should override concern for the appropriate
    expertise.
    (E) A contest judge, no matter how well qualified,
    cannot judge properly if the possibility of bias
    exists.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Principle Strengthen

Mariah concludes that Adam should not judge the essay contest. Her reasons for this, however, are different from those of Joanna, who thinks Adam would be biased because several of his classmates have entered the contest. Mariah believes that Adam should not judge the contest because he has no experience in critiquing essays.

A. No. Mariah discounts Joanna’s suspicion of bias, so this choice is not relevant.

B. Yes. Mariah’s conclusion that Adam should not be a judge is based on his lack of expertise.

C. No. Mariah is concerned about expertise, and since she seems to believe that Adam would not have a bias, you don’t know whether she would consider objectivity more important than expertise.

D. No. Again, Mariah favors expertise, and since she seems to believe that Adam would not have a bias, you don’t know whether she would weigh fairness over expertise.

E. No. Since Mariah dismisses the idea that Adam would be biased, this isn’t relevant to her conclusion.

149
Q
  1. The manufacturers of NoSmoke claim that their
    product reduces smokers’ cravings for cigarettes.
    However, in a recent study, smokers given the main
    ingredient in NoSmoke reported no decrease in
    cravings for cigarettes. Thus, since NoSmoke has only
    two ingredients, if similar results are found for the
    second ingredient, we can conclude that NoSmoke
    does not reduce smokers’ cravings.
    The argument above is flawed in that it
    (A) illicitly presumes that a whole must lack a
    certain quality if all of its parts lack that
    quality
    (B) confuses a mere correlation with a cause
    (C) relies on a sample that is likely to be
    unrepresentative
    (D) overlooks the possibility that NoSmoke helps
    people to quit smoking in ways other than by
    reducing smokers’ cravings for cigarettes
    (E) illicitly presumes that a claim must be false
    because the people making the claim are
    biased
A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

In a recent study, the main ingredient in NoSmoke was shown not to decrease smokers’ cravings for cigarettes. NoSmoke has only two ingredients. The argument concludes that if similar results are found for the other ingredient, NoSmoke does not reduce smokers’ cravings. However, the argument doesn’t consider the fact that it could be the combination of the two ingredients that reduces smokers’ cravings.

A. Yes. The argument assumes that if both ingredients individually are unable to reduce smokers’ cravings, then NoSmoke as a whole must also be unable to do so.

B. No. The argument does not confuse correlation and cause.

C. No. The sample consists of smokers, so this isn’t the flaw in the argument.

D. No. This is out of scope. The manufacturers specifically claim that NoSmoke reduces smokers’ cravings for cigarettes.

E. No. The argument makes no allegations of bias.

150
Q
  1. Gardener: Researchers encourage us to allow certain
    kinds of weeds to grow among garden
    vegetables because they can repel caterpillars
    from the garden. While it is wise to avoid
    unnecessary use of insecticides, the
    researchers’ advice is premature. For all we
    know, those kinds of weeds can deplete the soil
    of nutrients and moisture that garden crops
    depend on, and might even attract other kinds
    of damaging pests.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the main conclusion of the gardener’s argument?
    (A) To the extent that it is possible to do so, we
    should eliminate the use of insecticides in
    gardening.
    (B) Allowing certain kinds of weeds to grow in
    vegetable gardens may contribute to a net
    increase in unwanted garden pests.
    (C) Allowing the right kinds of weeds to grow in
    vegetable gardens can help toward controlling
    caterpillars without the use of insecticides.
    (D) We should be cautious about the practice of
    allowing certain kinds of weeds to grow
    among garden vegetables.
    (E) We should be skeptical about the extent to
    which certain kinds of weeds can reduce the
    presence of caterpillars in gardens.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Main Point

The gardener concludes that the researchers’ advice—allow certain kinds of weeds to grow among garden vegetables so as to repel caterpillars—is premature. Why? Those kinds of weeds could deplete the soil of nutrients and moisture that garden crops depend on and might attract other kinds of damaging pests.

A. No. This is not the issue; the gardener doesn’t say that the use of insecticides should be eliminated.

B. No. This is a premise.

C. No. This is part of the researchers’ advice, with which the gardener disagrees.

D. Yes. This matches the tone of the gardener’s conclusion, which is that the researchers’ advice is premature.

E. No. The gardener doesn’t dispute the fact that certain weeds could have the effect of reducing the presence of caterpillars; he is more concerned about what other unforeseen effects these weeds might have.

151
Q
  1. Executive: We recently ran a set of advertisements in
    the print version of a travel magazine and on
    that magazine’s website. We were unable to get
    any direct information about consumer
    response to the print ads. However, we found
    that consumer response to the ads on the
    website was much more limited than is typical
    for website ads. We concluded that consumer
    response to the print ads was probably below
    par as well.
    The executive’s reasoning does which one of the
    following?
    (A) bases a prediction of the intensity of a
    phenomenon on information about the
    intensity of that phenomenon’s cause
    (B) uses information about the typical frequency
    of events of a general kind to draw a
    conclusion about the probability of a
    particular event of that kind
    (C) infers a statistical generalization from claims
    about a large number of specific instances
    (D) uses a case in which direct evidence is available
    to draw a conclusion about an analogous case
    in which direct evidence is unavailable
    (E) bases a prediction about future events on facts
    about recent comparable events
A

Correct Answer: D

D Reasoning

The executive concludes that consumer response to the set of advertisements run in the print version of a travel magazine was probably below par. He bases this conclusion on the fact that consumer response to the same set of ads run on the magazine’s website was more limited than is typical for website ads.

A. No. The executive bases his prediction of consumer response to the print ads on the response garnered from the website ads, so this choice, especially the part about the cause of the phenomenon, doesn’t match the argument.

B. No. The executive uses information about consumer response to ads run on a website to draw a conclusion about the probable consumer response to ads run in print, an event of a different kind.

C. No. The executive does not make a statistical generalization; he is referring only to a specific set of ads.

D. Yes. He uses the evidence from the website ads to draw a conclusion about the results of the print ads, for which no direct information is available.

E. No. Future events are never referred to in the argument.

152
Q
  1. Conservation officers justified their decision to
    remove a pack of ten coyotes from a small island by
    claiming that the coyotes, which preyed on wild cats
    and plover, were decimating the plover population
    and would soon wipe it out. After the coyotes were
    removed, however, the plover population plummeted
    dramatically, and within two years plover could no
    longer be found on the island.
    Which one of the following would, if true, most help
    explain the phenomenon described above?
    (A) Plover are ground-nesting birds, which makes
    them easy prey for coyotes.
    (B) Wild cat and plover populations tend to
    fluctuate together.
    (C) Coyotes are not susceptible to any of the
    diseases that commonly infect plover or wild
    cats.
    (D) The wild cat population on the island was once
    significantly larger than it is currently.
    (E) The coyotes preyed mainly on wild cats, and
    wild cats prey on plover.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Resolve/Explain

A pack of ten coyotes, which are known to prey on wild cats and plover, was removed from a small island because the coyotes were supposedly decimating the plover population. However, once they were removed, the plover population decreased significantly, and within two years no plover could be found on the island. Why did the plover population shrink after the coyotes were removed?

A. No. This suggests that the plover population should have recovered after the coyotes were removed.

B. No. This is irrelevant; it doesn’t explain why the plover population plummeted.

C. No. By itself, this choice isn’t enough to explain why the plover disappeared; you don’t know that a disease that commonly infects plover would result in its decimation.

D. No. This is irrelevant and doesn’t tell you why the plover population decreased.

E. Yes. If the coyotes were removed, then the number of wild cats would no longer be held in check; a greater number of wild cats preying on plover would result in the elimination of the plover population.

153
Q
  1. Economist: During a recession, a company can cut
    personnel costs either by laying off some
    employees without reducing the wages of
    remaining employees or by reducing the wages
    of all employees without laying off anyone.
    Both damage morale, but layoffs damage it
    less, since the aggrieved have, after all, left.
    Thus, when companies must reduce personnel
    costs during recessions, they are likely to lay
    off employees.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
    the economist’s reasoning?
    (A) Employee morale is usually the primary
    concern driving companies’ decisions about
    whether to lay off employees or to reduce
    their wages.
    (B) In general, companies increase wages only
    when they are unable to find enough qualified
    employees.
    (C) Some companies will be unable to make a
    profit during recessions no matter how much
    they reduce personnel costs.
    (D) When companies cut personnel costs during
    recessions by reducing wages, some
    employees usually resign.
    (E) Some companies that have laid off employees
    during recessions have had difficulty finding
    enough qualified employees once economic
    growth resumed.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The economist states that companies have two means by which they can cut personnel costs during a recession—laying off some employees without reducing the wages of remaining employees or reducing the wages of all employees without laying anyone off. While both damage morale, layoffs damage it less since those who are aggrieved have left. From all this the economist concludes that when companies must reduce personnel costs during recessions, they are likely to lay off employees. To strengthen this argument, you need to show that morale is a significant factor in companies’ decision making during a recession.

A. Yes. If employee morale is the primary concern, this would strengthen the economist’s conclusion that companies will choose the option that damages morale less—laying off employees.

B. No. Increasing wages is outside the scope of the argument.

C. No. Making a profit is outside the scope of the argument, which is concerned with cutting personnel costs.

D. No. The fact that some employees resign when companies resort to reducing wages to cut personnel costs doesn’t tie in to the idea of employee morale, as others may not choose to resign.

E. No. Finding qualified employees after a recession is irrelevant to the economist’s argument.

154
Q
  1. There are far fewer independent bookstores than
    there were 20 years ago, largely because chain
    bookstores prospered and multiplied during that
    time. Thus, chain bookstores’ success has been to the
    detriment of book consumers, for the shortage of
    independent bookstores has prevented the variety of
    readily available books from growing as much as it
    otherwise would have.
    Which one of the following is an assumption on
    which the argument relies?
    (A) Book consumers would be better off if there
    were a greater variety of readily available
    books than there currently is.
    (B) Independent bookstores typically do not sell
    the kinds of books that are available in chain
    bookstores.
    (C) The average bookstore today is larger than the
    average bookstore of 20 years ago.
    (D) The average bookstore today is smaller than
    the average bookstore of 20 years ago.
    (E) Some book consumers value low prices more
    highly than wide selection.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that chain bookstores’ success has been to the detriment of book consumers. Why? The shortage of independent bookstores has prevented the variety of readily available books from growing as much as it otherwise would have. The premises discuss the reduced growth in the variety of available books while the conclusion refers to a detriment to book consumers; this is the gap you need to bridge.

A. Yes. This bridges the gap between detriment and selection; if you negate this statement, the argument is no longer valid.

B. No. If you negate this choice, the argument’s conclusion could still be valid, so it’s not necessary to the argument.

C. No. The size of the bookstore is out of scope; you want to know about the variety of books available.

D. No. The size of the bookstore is out of scope; you want to know about the variety of books available.

E. No. Whether some consumers prize price over selection is irrelevant to the conclusion.

155
Q
  1. Concert promoter: Some critics claim that our
    concert series lacks popular appeal. But our
    income from the sales of t-shirts and other
    memorabilia at the concerts is equal to or
    greater than that for similar sales at
    comparable series. So those critics are
    mistaken.
    The concert promoter’s argument is flawed in that it
    (A) attacks the critics on the basis of emotional
    considerations rather than factual ones
    (B) takes for granted that income from sales of
    memorabilia is the sole indicator of popular
    appeal
    (C) takes for granted that the comparable series
    possess popular appeal
    (D) draws a conclusion about the popularity of a
    series based on a comparison with other,
    dissimilar events
    (E) fails to adequately distinguish the series as a
    whole from individual concerts in it
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The concert promoter notes that some critics claim that his concert series lacks popular appeal. But the income from the sales of t-shirts and other memorabilia at the concerts is equal to or greater than that for similar sales at comparable series, so the concert promoter concludes that those critics are mistaken. However, the concert promoter compares sales at his concert series to those of comparable series, which doesn’t actually address the critics’ concerns since the comparable series could also lack popular appeal.

A. No. The concert promoter does not “attack” the critics based on emotional considerations.

B. No. The concert promoter never claims that income from sales of memorabilia is the only indicator of popular appeal; such sales are presented as one means of assessing that appeal.

C. Yes. The concert promoter never provides any evidence to suggest that the comparable series have popular appeal.

D. No. The series is compared to other comparable series, so this doesn’t match the argument.

E. No. The concert promoter doesn’t make this distinction, but this isn’t a flaw in the argument’s logic.

156
Q
  1. The sun emits two types of ultraviolet radiation that
    damage skin: UV-A, which causes premature
    wrinkles, and UV-B, which causes sunburn. Until
    about ten years ago, sunscreens protected against
    UV-B radiation but not against UV-A radiation.
    Which one of the following is best supported by the
    information above?
    (A) Since about ten years ago, the percentage of
    people who wear sunscreen every time they
    spend time in the sun has increased.
    (B) Most people whose skin is prematurely
    wrinkled have spent a large amount of time in
    the sun without wearing sunscreen.
    (C) The specific cause of premature skin wrinkling
    was not known until about ten years ago.
    (D) People who wear sunscreen now are less likely
    to become sunburned than were people who
    spent the same amount of time in the sun
    wearing sunscreen ten years ago.
    (E) Until about ten years ago, people who wore
    sunscreen were no less likely to have
    premature wrinkles than were people who
    spent the same amount of time in the sun
    without wearing sunscreen.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. There is no information provided about the percentage of people who wear sunscreen.

B. No. There could be reasons other than sun exposure for people having skin that is prematurely wrinkled.

C. No. No mention is made of when the cause of premature skin wrinkling became known.

D. No. The argument states that sunscreen has protected against UV-B radiation, which causes sunburn, since before ten years ago, so there shouldn’t be any lessened risk of sunburn for people now as compared to ten years ago.

E. Yes. Until about ten years ago, sunscreen provided no protection against premature skin wrinkling, so the likelihood of having premature wrinkles would have been the same for both those who wore sunscreen and those who didn’t.

157
Q
  1. Advice columnist: Several scientific studies have
    shown that, when participating in competitive
    sports, those people who have recently been
    experiencing major stress in their lives are
    several times more likely to suffer serious
    injuries than are other participants in
    competitive sports. Since risking serious injury
    is unwise, no sports activity should be used as
    a method for coping with stress.
    Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
    helps to justify the reasoning in the advice
    columnist’s argument?
    (A) If people recently under stress should avoid a
    subset of activities of a certain type, they
    should avoid all activities of that type.
    (B) A method for coping with stress should be
    used only if it has been subjected to scientific
    study.
    (C) People who have not been experiencing major
    stress in their lives should participate in
    competitive sports.
    (D) When people have been under considerable
    stress, they should engage in competitive
    activities in order to relieve the stress.
    (E) People with a history of sports injuries should
    not engage in sports activities if they have
    recently been under stress.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Principle Strengthen

The advice columnist concludes that sports activity should not be used as a method for coping with stress. She bases this advice on several scientific studies that showed that people who have recently been experiencing major stress in their lives are more prone to suffer serious injuries when playing competitive sports than are other participants. Since risking serious injury is unwise, she advises people to avoid sports activity when under stress. You may have noticed that the argument jumped from competitive sports to sports activity in general; you want to bolster that shift with one of the answer choices.

A. Yes. This supports the advice columnist’s conclusion that people recently under stress should avoid engaging in all sports activity on the basis of the idea that they should avoid engaging in competitive sports.

B. No. The advice columnist never states that a method for coping with stress must be subjected to scientific study first.

C. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is specifically concerned with people who have recently been experiencing major stress.

D. No. The advice columnist’s argument seems to be going in the opposite direction.

E. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is not focused on people with a history of sports injuries.

158
Q
  1. Tent caterpillars’ routes between their nests and
    potential food sources are marked with chemical
    traces called pheromones that the caterpillars leave
    behind. Moreover, routes from food sources back to
    the nest are marked more heavily than are merely
    exploratory routes that have failed to turn up a food
    source. Thus, tent caterpillars are apparently among
    the insect species that engage in communal foraging,
    which consists in the conveying of information
    concerning the location of food to other members of
    the colony, nest, or hive.
    Which one of the following, if true, adds the most
    support to the argument?
    (A) A hungry tent caterpillar is more likely to
    follow heavily marked routes than lightly
    marked routes.
    (B) Tent caterpillars can detect the presence but
    not the concentration of pheromones.
    (C) Sometimes individual tent caterpillars will not
    return to the nest until a food source is
    located.
    (D) The pheromones left by tent caterpillars are
    different from the pheromones left by other
    animals.
    (E) The pheromones that tent caterpillars leave
    behind are detectable by certain other species
    of caterpillars.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The argument concludes that tent caterpillars are among the insect species that engage in communal foraging. Why? Tent caterpillars chemically mark the routes between their nests and potential food sources with pheromones, and routes from food sources back to the nest are marked more heavily than are exploratory routes that have not yielded a food source. To strengthen the argument, you need an answer that suggests that these markers are used by other tent caterpillars to find food, thereby supporting the idea that these caterpillars engage in communal foraging.

A. Yes. If hungry tent caterpillars follow these routes to find food, then the actions of some tent caterpillars serve to aid the whole community, supporting the idea that these insects engage in communal foraging.

B. No. This would weaken the argument, if anything, as it casts doubt on the idea that the heavily marked routes help convey the location of food to other members of the insect group.

C. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is concerned with how the paths to these food sources are indicated to others.

D. No. This doesn’t strengthen the argument because it doesn’t suggest that tent caterpillars engage in communal foraging, only that their markers aren’t useful to other foraging animals.

E. No. Again, this doesn’t tell you anything about tent caterpillars in particular with regard to communal foraging, so it’s irrelevant.

159
Q
  1. Many movies starring top actors will do well at the
    box office because the actors are already well known
    and have a loyal following. Movies starring unknown
    actors are therefore unlikely to do well.
    The flawed reasoning in the argument above is most
    similar to that in which one of the following?
    (A) Many animals must devote most of their
    energy to locating food, or they will not get
    enough food to maintain optimal energy
    levels. Thus, if immediate survival requires
    such an animal to devote most of its energy to
    some other purpose, optimal energy levels
    generally will not be maintained.
    (B) Often the presence of the flower bee balm in a
    garden will attract bumblebees that pollinate
    the plants and enable the garden to produce
    an abundant crop. So, gardens that lack bee
    balm usually do not produce abundant crops.
    (C) A person’s ability to keep confidences is a large
    part of being a friend, since frequently such
    an ability enables a high degree of openness
    in communication. Thus, a high degree of
    openness in communication is an essential
    feature of friendship.
    (D) Visual aids can be very useful in effectively
    teaching math skills, because they generally
    allow vivid conceptualization of math
    principles. If such visual aids were never
    employed, therefore, teaching math skills
    might sometimes be more difficult.
    (E) An understanding of the rules of perspective is
    necessary for achieving success as a painter,
    since it is the understanding of these most
    basic rules that allows the painter to paint
    realistically. Thus, painters with an
    understanding of the rules of perspective will
    achieve success.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Parallel Flaw

Movies starring top actors do well at the box office because of their fame and following. The argument thus concludes that movies with unknown actors are unlikely to do well at the box office. However, you can’t conclude that having the opposite quality (unknown vs. well-known) will likely generate an opposite result (bad box office vs. good box office).

A. No. This argument doesn’t involve an opposite quality in the same way that the original argument does.

B. Yes. This argument mistakenly assumes that because the presence of flower bee balm results in abundant crops, the lack of it will likely produce the opposite effect, meaning crops will not be abundant.

C. No. There is no opposite aspect to this argument, so it doesn’t match the original one.

D. No. There is nothing in this argument that functions in the way well known/unknown function in the original argument, so this doesn’t match.

E. No. The conclusion of this choice is too extreme—”will achieve success”—when compared to the original argument’s conclusion—”are therefore unlikely to do well.”

160
Q
  1. As part of a new trend in the writing of history, an
    emphasis on the details of historical events and
    motivations has replaced the previous emphasis on
    overarching historical trends and movements, with
    the result that the latter are often overlooked. In
    consequence, the ominous parallels that may exist
    between historical trends and current trends are also
    overlooked, which lessens our ability to learn from
    history.
    The statements above, if true, most strongly support
    which one of the following?
    (A) Studying the details of historical events and
    motivations lessens our ability to learn from
    history.
    (B) Overarching historical trends and movements
    can be discerned only when details of
    historical events and motivations are not
    emphasized.
    (C) Those who attend to overall trends and
    movements in history and not to details are
    the best able to learn from history.
    (D) A change in emphasis in the interpretation of
    history has lessened our ability to learn from
    history.
    (E) History should be interpreted in a way that
    gives equal emphasis to overarching historical
    trends and movements and to the details of
    historical events and motivations.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. Studying details in and of itself isn’t what leads to a lessening of our ability to learn from history. A lack of attention to overarching historical trends and movements lessens our ability to learn from history.

B. No. The argument never links these two ideas together in such a mutually exclusive fashion.

C. No. The argument never claims that people should not attend to details at all; this is too extreme.

D. Yes. The shift away from an emphasis on overarching historical trends and movements and toward an emphasis on details of historical events and motivations has lessened our ability to learn from history.

E. No. The argument never states that both approaches should be given equal emphasis; this choice goes too far.

161
Q
  1. Therapist: The ability to trust other people is
    essential to happiness, for without trust there
    can be no meaningful emotional connection to
    another human being, and without meaningful
    emotional connections to others we feel
    isolated.
    Which one of the following, if assumed, allows the
    conclusion of the therapist’s argument to be properly
    inferred?
    (A) No one who is feeling isolated can feel happy.
    (B) Anyone who has a meaningful emotional
    connection to another human being can be
    happy.
    (C) To avoid feeling isolated, it is essential to trust
    other people.
    (D) At least some people who do not feel isolated
    are happy.
    (E) Anyone who is able to trust other people has a
    meaningful emotional connection to at least
    one other human being.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Sufficient Assumption

Diagram the pieces of the argument. No trust → no meaningful emotional connection to another; meaningful emotional connection to another → trust. No meaningful emotional connection to another → isolation; no isolation → meaningful connection to another. Therefore, happiness → trust; no trust → no happiness. If you try to combine this information, you get one longer statement—no isolation → meaningful connection to another → trust—and then the conclusion—happiness → trust. In order for the conclusion to be valid, you need to connect happiness to the longer chain so that you have happiness → no isolation.

A. Yes. If you diagram this, you get isolated → not happy and happy → not isolated.

B. No. This restates information you already know. Meaningful emotional connection to another → trust, but trust is a necessary, not sufficient, condition for happiness. Therefore, this doesn’t fully connect the conclusion to the premises.

C. No. This doesn’t connect the premises to the idea of happiness in the conclusion.

D. No. The “at least some” part of this choice is weaker than what is needed for the argument.

E. No. This doesn’t connect the premises to the idea of happiness in the conclusion.

162
Q
  1. Of all the Arabic epic poems that have been popular
    at various times, only Sirat Bani Hilal is still publicly
    performed. Furthermore, while most other epics were
    only recited, Sirat Bani Hilal has usually been sung.
    The musical character of the performance, therefore,
    is the main reason for its longevity.
    The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the
    grounds that it
    (A) relies on evidence that is in principle
    impossible to corroborate
    (B) relies on a source of evidence that may be
    biased
    (C) takes for granted that a particular correlation
    is causal
    (D) takes what may be mere popular opinion to be
    an established fact
    (E) takes a sufficient condition to be a necessary
    condition
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

Sirat Bani Hilal is the only Arabic epic poem that is still publicly performed, and unlike most other epics, it is usually sung, not recited. The argument therefore concludes that it is the musical character of the performance that is the main reason for its longevity. However, the fact that Sirat Bani Hilal is still performed and is usually sung doesn’t mean that the two aspects are necessarily connected; one does not necessarily cause the other.

A. No. The evidence cited here seems possible to corroborate; you can confirm that it is still performed and that it is usually sung.

B. No. There doesn’t appear to be any bias with respect to the evidence.

C. Yes. The musical character and its longevity are correlated; you don’t know for sure that the musical character of Sirat Bani Hilal is the actual reason for its longevity.

D. No. This isn’t something the argument does; both pieces of information are factual.

E. No. The argument doesn’t confuse necessary and sufficient conditions; there’s nothing to diagram here.

163
Q
  1. Fund-raiser: A charitable organization rarely gives its
    donors the right to vote on its policies. The
    inability to directly influence how charities
    spend contributions makes potential donors
    feel less of an emotional connection to the
    charity. Thus, most charities could probably
    increase the amount of money they raise
    through donations by giving donors the right
    to vote.
    Which one of the following is an assumption that the
    fund-raiser’s argument depends on?
    (A) The most effective way for a charity to give
    potential donors the ability to directly
    influence what that charity does is by giving
    donors the right to vote on the charity’s
    policies.
    (B) Most charities that have increased the amount
    of money they raise through donations have
    done so by making potential donors feel a
    greater emotional connection to the charity.
    (C) Every charity that has given donors the right
    to vote on its policies has seen a marked
    increase in the emotional connection donors
    have to that charity.
    (D) Most potential donors to a charity are
    unwilling to give that charity any money if
    there is no possible way for them to have any
    influence on that charity’s policies.
    (E) The emotional connection potential donors
    feel to a charity can affect the amount of
    money that charity raises through donations.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The fund-raiser concludes that most charities could probably increase the amount of money they raise through donations by giving donors the right to vote. Why? Charities rarely give their donors the right to vote on their policies, and the inability to directly influence how charities spend contributions makes potential donors feel less of an emotional connection to a given charity. The fund-raiser’s conclusion talks about raising more money through donations while the premises discuss donors having an emotional connection to the charity. You need an answer choice that bridges the two.

A. No. The fund-raiser never claims that this is the most effective way to accomplish this goal.

B. No. The fund-raiser offers this as a solution, so charities that have already increased donations are out of scope. Whether other charities have done this before isn’t relevant to the argument here.

C. No. This doesn’t connect the idea of raising more money through donations; if you negate this, you’ll see that the argument’s conclusion isn’t really affected.

D. No. This leaves out the emotional connection part, so it isn’t necessary to the argument.

E. Yes. Try negating this statement and you’ll see that the argument becomes invalid. This ties together both the idea of raising more money through donations and fostering an emotional connection between a donor and a given charity.

164
Q
  1. Leslie: I’ll show you that your quest for the treasure
    is irrational. Suppose you found a tablet
    inscribed, “Whoever touches this tablet will
    lose a hand, yet will possess the world.” Would
    you touch it?
    Erich: Certainly not.
    Leslie: Just as I expected! It is clear from your answer
    that your hands are more important to you
    than possessing the world. But your entire
    body is necessarily more important to you
    than your hands. Yet you are ruining your
    health and harming your body in your quest
    for a treasure that is much less valuable than
    the whole world. I rest my case.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the main conclusion drawn in Leslie’s argument?
    (A) Erich would not sacrifice one of his hands in
    order to possess the world.
    (B) Erich should not risk his physical well-being
    regardless of the possible gains that such risks
    might bring.
    (C) Erich is irrationally risking something that is
    precious to him for something that is of no
    value.
    (D) Erich can be convinced that his quest for the
    treasure is irrational.
    (E) Erich is engaging in irrational behavior by
    pursuing his quest for the treasure.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Main Point

Leslie concludes that Erich’s quest for the treasure is irrational. The basis for this is an analogy that she draws between Erich’s quest for this treasure, which is harming his health, and the hypothetical situation she poses to him, in which she asks whether he would risk losing a hand to possess the world, to which his response is no.

A. No. This is a part of the analogy that serves as a premise.

B. No. This idea is part of the support for her conclusion.

C. No. Leslie never says the treasure is of no value, only of lesser value when compared to Erich’s health and body.

D. No. Her conclusion isn’t that he can be convinced; it’s that he’s acting in an irrational manner whether he believes it or not.

E. Yes. This is a paraphrase of Leslie’s first statement.

165
Q
  1. Newspaper article: People who take vitamin C
    supplements tend to be healthier than average.
    This was shown by a study investigating the
    relationship between high doses of vitamin C
    and heart disease, which showed that people
    who regularly consume high doses of vitamin
    C supplements have a significantly lower than
    average risk of heart disease.
    Which one of the following, if true, would most
    weaken the argument in the newspaper article?
    (A) Vitamin C taken in the form of supplements
    has a different effect on the body than does
    vitamin C taken in food.
    (B) The reduction in risk of heart disease due to
    the consumption of vitamin C is no greater
    than the reduction due to certain other
    dietary changes.
    (C) Taking both vitamin C supplements and
    vitamin E supplements lowers one’s risk of
    heart disease far more than does taking either
    one alone.
    (D) High doses of vitamin C supplements tend to
    reduce slightly one’s resistance to certain
    common infectious diseases.
    (E) Taking vitamin C supplements has been found
    to lower one’s risk of developing cancer.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Weaken

The newspaper article concludes that people who take vitamin C supplements tend to be healthier than average. The support for this conclusion is a study that showed that those who regularly consume high doses of vitamin C supplements have a significantly lower-than-average risk of heart disease. To weaken this argument, you need to find a reason other than the vitamin C supplements that could account for the reduced risk of heart disease or show that taking vitamin C supplements doesn’t cause one to be healthier than average.

A. No. This is irrelevant; the argument focuses specifically on vitamin C supplements.

B. No. This doesn’t weaken the causal relationship that the argument established.

C. No. This doesn’t suggest that vitamin C wasn’t responsible for the reduction in risk of heart disease.

D. Yes. This introduces a negative effect of high doses of vitamin C supplements, which casts doubt on the argument’s conclusion that these supplements are the reason some people are healthier than average.

E. No. This would strengthen the newspaper article’s conclusion.

166
Q
  1. George: Throughout the 1980s and early 1990s,
    hardly anyone learned ballroom dancing. Why
    is it that a large number of people now take
    ballroom dancing lessons?
    Boris: It’s because, beginning in 1995, many people
    learned the merengue and several related
    ballroom dances. Because these dances are so
    popular, other ballroom dances are now
    catching on.
    Boris’s response to George is most vulnerable to
    criticism because it fails to
    (A) show that the people who learned the
    merengue are the same people who are now
    interested in other ballroom dances
    (B) explain why ballroom dancing was so
    unpopular before 1995
    (C) relate the merengue to the forms of dancing
    that were more prevalent before 1995
    (D) account for the beginning of the revival of
    interest in ballroom dancing
    (E) demonstrate that all types of ballroom dancing
    are currently popular
A

Correct Answer: D

D Flaw

George asks why a large number of people now take ballroom dancing lessons when throughout the 1980s and early 1990s, few people did. Boris responds that beginning in 1995, people started to learn the merengue and several related ballroom dances, and the popularity of those sparked interest in learning other ballroom dances. However, Boris doesn’t actually address George’s question of why people suddenly had a renewed interest in ballroom dancing; Boris merely provides some history from the moment that interest was renewed without stating what triggered that renewal.

A. No. Boris doesn’t show this, but that’s not the flaw in his reasoning.

B. No. George asks why ballroom dancing became popular again in the mid-1990s, so it is not necessary for Boris to explain why it was unpopular before 1995.

C. No. Boris doesn’t do this, but that’s not the flaw in his reasoning.

D. Yes. Boris doesn’t address George’s question as to what led to the renewed interest in ballroom dancing.

E. No. The argument isn’t concerned with whether all types of ballroom dancing are currently popular; this is irrelevant.

167
Q
  1. On the basis of relatively minor morphological
    differences, some scientists suggest that Neanderthals
    should be considered a species distinct from CroMagnons, the forerunners of modern humans. Yet
    the fact that the tools used by these two groups of
    hominids living in different environments were of
    exactly the same type indicates uncanny behavioral
    similarities, for only if they faced the same daily
    challenges and met them in the same way would they
    have used such similar tools. This suggests that they
    were members of the same species, and that the
    morphological differences are due merely to their
    having lived in different environments.
    If the statements above are true, then each of the
    following could be true EXCEPT:
    (A) Morphological differences between the
    members of two populations do not
    guarantee that the two populations do not
    belong to the same species.
    (B) The daily challenges with which an
    environment confronts its inhabitants are
    unique to that environment.
    (C) There are greater morphological differences
    between Cro-Magnons and modern humans
    than there are between Cro-Magnons and
    Neanderthals.
    (D) Use of similar tools is required if members of
    two distinct groups of tool-making hominids
    are to be considered members of the same
    species.
    (E) Through much of their coexistence, CroMagnons and Neanderthals were
    geographically isolated from one another.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

You’re looking for an answer that directly contradicts information in the paragraph. Four of the answer choices will be consistent with the information provided, even if they contain ideas that are not directly expressed in the argument.

A. No. This is consistent with the last sentence of the paragraph.

B. Yes. This cannot be true. The second sentences suggests that it is possible for two groups living in different environments to face the same daily challenges, so those challenges cannot be unique to those environments.

C. No. This could be true, as it doesn’t contradict anything stated in the passage.

D. No. This could be true, as it is in line with the information found in the second and third sentences.

E. No. This could be true, as you know from the argument that they lived in different environments.

168
Q
  1. A summer day is “pleasant” if there are intermittent
    periods of wind and the temperature stays below
    84°F (29°C) all afternoon. A summer day with high
    humidity levels is “oppressive” either if the
    temperature stays above 84°F (29°C) all afternoon or
    if there is no wind.
    Which one of the following summer weather reports
    most closely conforms to the principles stated above?
    (A) The temperature on Friday stayed below 82°F
    (28°C) all day, and there was no wind at all. It
    was a day of low humidity, and it was a
    pleasant day.
    (B) On Monday, the temperature ranged from
    85°F to 90°F (30°C to 32°C) from early
    morning until night. It was an oppressive day
    even though the humidity levels were low.
    (C) On Tuesday, the temperature neither rose
    above nor fell below 84°F (29°C) throughout
    late morning and all afternoon. It was a
    pleasant day because there were occasional
    periods of wind.
    (D) On Wednesday, a refreshing breeze in the early
    morning became intermittent by late
    morning, and the day’s humidity levels were
    constantly high. It was an oppressive day,
    even though the temperature did not rise
    above 84°F (29°C) all day.
    (E) On Thursday morning, the air was very still,
    and it remained windless for the whole day.
    Humidity levels for the day were high, and
    even though the temperature fell below 84°F
    (29°C) between early and late afternoon, it
    was an oppressive day
A

Correct Answer: E

E Principle Match

Diagram the two pieces of information you have. Intermittent wind and temperature below 84 degrees → pleasant. Not pleasant → not intermittent wind or temperatures at 84 degrees or higher. High humidity with either no wind or temperatures above 84 degrees → oppressive. Not oppressive → not high humidity and some wind and temperatures at 84 degrees or lower.

A. No. To be pleasant, there must be intermittent wind; however, this says there was no wind.

B. No. To be oppressive, there must be high humidity; however, this says humidity levels were low.

C. No. To be pleasant, the temperature must be below 84 degrees; however, this says the temperature stayed at 84 degrees.

D. No. To be oppressive, the temperature must rise above 84 degrees; however, this says the temperature did not do so.

E. Yes. High humidity and no wind → oppressive.

169
Q
  1. The local radio station will not win the regional
    ratings race this year. In the past ten years the station
    has never finished better than fifth place in the
    ratings. The station’s manager has not responded to
    its dismal ratings by changing its musical format or
    any key personnel, while the competition has often
    sought to respond to changing tastes in music and
    has aggressively recruited the region’s top radio
    personalities.
    The reasoning in which one of the following is most
    similar to that in the argument above?
    (A) Every swan I have seen was white. Therefore all
    swans are probably white.
    (B) A fair coin was fairly flipped six times and was
    heads every time. The next flip will probably
    be heads too.
    (C) All lions are mammals. Therefore Leo, the local
    zoo’s oldest lion, is a mammal too.
    (D) Recently stock prices have always been lower
    on Mondays. Therefore they will be lower this
    coming Monday too.
    (E) Only trained swimmers are lifeguards, so it
    follows that the next lifeguard at the local
    pool will be a trained swimmer.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Parallel

The argument concludes that the local radio station will not win the regional ratings race this year because the station has never finished better than fifth over the past ten years and the station’s manager has made no changes in response to the poor ratings. You need to find an argument the conclusion of which is similarly based on trends in the past.

A. No. The conclusion of the argument is stronger than the conclusion here, which uses the word “probably.”

B. No. The conclusion of the argument is stronger than the conclusion here, which uses the word “probably.”

C. No. This conclusion is based on a conditional requirement (lion → mammal), not on prior trends, so this doesn’t match the original argument.

D. Yes. The conclusion about stock prices this coming Monday is based on stock prices from prior Mondays.

E. No. This conclusion is based on a conditional requirement (lifeguard → trained swimmer), not on prior trends, so this doesn’t match the original argument.

170
Q
  1. Chef: This mussel recipe’s first step is to sprinkle the
    live mussels with cornmeal. The cornmeal is
    used to clean them out: they take the cornmeal
    in and eject the sand that they contain. But I
    can skip this step, because the mussels
    available at seafood markets are farm raised
    and therefore do not contain sand.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the chef’s argument?
    (A) Cornmeal is not used to clean out farm-raised
    mussels before they reach seafood markets.
    (B) Mussels contain no contaminants other than
    sand.
    (C) Sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal does not
    affect their taste.
    (D) The chef’s mussel recipe was written before
    farm-raised mussels became available.
    (E) The mussels the chef is using for the mussel
    recipe came from a seafood market.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The chef concludes that she can skip the step of sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal, which is usually done to clean out the sand they may contain. The chef’s reason for skipping this step is that the mussels available at seafood markets are farm raised and therefore don’t contain sand. In order for the chef’s argument to be valid, though, you need to know that the mussels the chef is using are indeed farm raised or from a seafood market; otherwise, skipping the step can’t be justified.

A. No. This is irrelevant; as long as any sand is cleaned out before the mussels get to the chef, it doesn’t matter.

B. No. This is out of scope; the only contaminant the argument is concerned with is sand.

C. No. The issue of taste is irrelevant to the chef’s argument.

D. No. This isn’t essential to the argument; if you negate this statement, the chef’s conclusion is still valid.

E. Yes. If this isn’t true, then the chef isn’t justified in skipping the step of sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal based on the information you have in the argument.

171
Q
  1. Many doctors cater to patients’ demands that they be
    prescribed antibiotics for their colds. However, colds
    are caused by viruses, and antibiotics have no effect on
    viruses, and so antibiotics have no effect on colds.
    Such treatments are also problematic because
    antibiotics can have dangerous side effects. So doctors
    should never prescribe antibiotics to treat colds.
    The reasoning above most closely conforms to which
    one of the following principles?
    (A) A doctor should not prescribe a drug for a
    condition if it cannot improve that condition
    and if the drug potentially has adverse side
    effects.
    (B) A doctor should not prescribe any drug that
    might have harmful effects on the patient
    even if the drug might have a positive effect
    on the patient.
    (C) A doctor should attempt to prescribe every
    drug that is likely to affect the patient’s health
    positively.
    (D) A doctor should withhold treatment from a
    patient if the doctor is uncertain whether the
    treatment will benefit the patient.
    (E) A doctor should never base the decision to
    prescribe a certain medication for a patient
    on the patient’s claims about the effectiveness
    of that medication.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Principle Match

The argument concludes that although patients may demand them, doctors should never prescribe antibiotics to treat colds. The reasons behind this conclusion are that colds are caused by viruses, on which antibiotics have no effect, and that antibiotics can have dangerous side effects. You need an answer choice that supports this line of reasoning.

A. Yes. This matches up well with both of the stated premises above.

B. No. There is no mention in the argument of a potential positive effect of antibiotic treatment for colds, so this doesn’t match.

C. No. The conclusion argues against prescribing antibiotics because they won’t help patients with colds, whereas this choice is concerned with drugs that might have a positive effect.

D. No. There is no mention of uncertainty in the argument.

E. No. No mention is made in the argument of the patient’s claims about the effectiveness of antibiotics.

172
Q
  1. Long-distance runners use two different kinds of
    cognitive strategies: “associative” and “dissociative.”
    Associative strategies involve attending closely to
    physical sensations, while dissociative strategies
    involve mostly ignoring physical sensations.
    Associative strategies, unlike dissociative ones,
    require so much concentration that they result in
    mental exhaustion lasting more than a day. Since it is
    important for long-distance runners to enter a race
    mentally refreshed, ________.
    Which one of the following most logically completes
    the argument?
    (A) long-distance runners should not rely heavily
    on associative strategies during training the
    day before they run in a race
    (B) unless they regularly train using associative
    strategies, long-distance runners should use
    dissociative strategies during races
    (C) maximizing the benefits of training for
    long-distance running involves frequently
    alternating associative and dissociative
    strategies
    (D) long-distance runners are about evenly divided
    between those who use dissociative strategies
    during races and those who use associative
    strategies during races
    (E) in long-distance running, dissociative strategies
    are generally more effective for a day’s training
    run than are associative strategies
A

Correct Answer: A

A Main Point

You need to determine what the main point of the argument is. The argument states that there are two kinds of cognitive strategies, “associative” and “dissociative,” and that associative strategies, which involve attending closely to physical sensations, require so much concentration that they leave one mentally exhausted for more than a day. Long-distance runners need to enter a race mentally refreshed. It follows, then, that long-distance runners shouldn’t make use of associative strategies the day prior to a given race.

A. Yes. This matches what was stated above.

B. No. The evidence presented by the argument doesn’t suggest that regular training would eliminate the exhaustion caused by using associative strategies.

C. No. This is irrelevant. Maximizing the benefits of training is not addressed in the argument.

D. No. This is irrelevant. There is no support for the claim that long-distance runners are about evenly divided with respect to which type of strategy they employ during races.

E. No. The argument supports only the idea that dissociative strategies are better than associative ones for the day before a race, not in general.

173
Q
  1. MetroBank made loans to ten small companies, in
    amounts ranging from $1,000 to $100,000. These ten
    loans all had graduated payment plans, i.e., the
    scheduled monthly loan payment increased slightly
    each month over the five-year term of the loan.
    Nonetheless, the average payment received by
    MetroBank for these ten loans had decreased by the
    end of the five-year term.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    resolve the apparent discrepancy in the statements
    above?
    (A) The number of small companies receiving new
    loans from MetroBank increased over the
    five-year term.
    (B) Several of the ten small companies also
    borrowed money from other banks.
    (C) Most banks offer a greater number of loans for
    under $100,000 than for over $100,000.
    (D) Of the ten small companies, the three that had
    borrowed the largest amounts paid off their
    loans within three years.
    (E) For some loans made by MetroBank, the
    monthly payment decreases slightly over the
    term of the loan.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Resolve/Explain

MetroBank made loans to ten small companies in amounts of anywhere from $1,000 to $100,000, and all of these loans had graduated payment plans so that the monthly loan payment increased slightly each month over the five-year term of the loan. However, the average payment that MetroBank received for these ten loans had decreased by the end of the loan period. Why did the average payment received by MetroBank decline when the monthly loan payment amounts were slightly increasing over the five-year term?

A. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is specifically focused on only the ten loans noted above.

B. No. Loans from other banks are not relevant to the argument.

C. No. You are concerned only with MetroBank and its loans, not other banks and their loans, so this doesn’t help.

D. Yes. This would explain why, even though the monthly payment amounts were increasing, the average payment received by MetroBank declined: The loans with the biggest monthly payment amounts were paid off sooner, leaving only the smaller monthly amounts and thereby lowering the average payment amount.

E. No. Because the argument is focused only on these ten specific loans, the nature of other loans made by MetroBank is irrelevant to the argument.

174
Q
  1. Professor: A guest speaker recently delivered a talk
    entitled “The Functions of Democratic
    Governments” to a Political Ideologies class at
    this university. The talk was carefully
    researched and theoretical in nature. But two
    students who disagreed with the theory hurled
    vicious taunts at the speaker. Several others
    applauded their attempt to humiliate the
    speaker. This incident shows that universities
    these days do not foster fair-minded and
    tolerant intellectual debate.
    The professor’s reasoning is flawed in that it
    (A) draws a conclusion based on the professor’s
    own opinion rather than on that of the
    majority of the students present at the talk
    (B) is inconsistent in advocating tolerance while
    showing intolerance of the dissenting
    students’ views
    (C) relies primarily on an emotional appeal
    (D) draws a general conclusion based on too small
    a sample
    (E) incorrectly focuses on the behavior of the
    dissenting students rather than relating the
    reasons for that behavior
A

Correct Answer: D

D Flaw

The professor concludes that universities these days do not foster fair-minded and tolerant intellectual debate because two students insulted a recent guest speaker and several others applauded those students’ attempts to humiliate the speaker. However, the professor is making a very broad generalization about universities based on the behavior of a few students at a single university, so look for an answer choice that describes this flaw.

A. No. The conclusion is the professor’s opinion, but the pieces of evidence offered are actual events, so this doesn’t match.

B. No. The professor is not advocating tolerance, so there is no inconsistency.

C. No. The professor’s argument does not rest on an emotional appeal.

D. Yes. The professor draws his conclusion about universities in general based on the actions of only a few students.

E. No. The flaw isn’t that he focuses on the students’ behavior; it’s that he takes that behavior as being representative of all or most students.

175
Q
  1. Studies reveal that most people select the foods they
    eat primarily on the basis of flavor, and that
    nutrition is usually a secondary concern at best. This
    suggests that health experts would have more success
    in encouraging people to eat wholesome foods if they
    emphasized how flavorful those foods truly are
    rather than how nutritious they are.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
    the argument above?
    (A) Most people currently believe that wholesome
    foods are more flavorful, on average, than
    unwholesome foods are.
    (B) Few people, when given a choice between foods
    that are flavorful but not nutritious and foods
    that are nutritious but not flavorful, will choose
    the foods that are nutritious but not flavorful.
    (C) Health experts’ attempts to encourage people
    to eat wholesome foods by emphasizing how
    nutritious those foods are have been
    moderately successful.
    (D) The studies that revealed that people choose the
    foods they eat primarily on the basis of flavor
    also revealed that people rated as most flavorful
    those foods that were least nutritious.
    (E) In a study, subjects who were told that a given
    food was very flavorful were more willing to
    try the food and more likely to enjoy it than
    were subjects who were told that the food was
    nutritious.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Strengthen

The argument concludes that health experts might have more success in encouraging people to eat wholesome foods if they emphasized how flavorful those foods are rather than how nutritious they are. The evidence offered to support this conclusion is the fact that studies have shown that most people select which foods to eat primarily on the basis of flavor, with nutrition mostly a secondary concern at best. You want to find an answer that links up emphasizing a given food’s flavor with successfully encouraging people to eat that food.

A. No. If anything, this might weaken the argument by implying that health experts wouldn’t have greater success if they employed the strategy suggested because most people already think wholesome foods are more flavorful, so calling attention to this fact might not have the desired effect.

B. No. The argument isn’t concerned with people choosing between two opposing options.

C. No. This might weaken the argument by suggesting that you could accomplish the same goal by emphasizing nutrition over flavor, but it certainly doesn’t strengthen the argument’s conclusion.

D. No. This is irrelevant. How people rate foods doesn’t strengthen the connection between the suggestion offered to health experts and the studies.

E. Yes. If this is true, it suggests that health experts would be more successful in their quest to get people to eat more wholesome foods if they emphasized flavor as opposed to nutrition.

176
Q
  1. Studies show that individuals with a high propensity
    for taking risks tend to have fewer ethical principles
    to which they consciously adhere in their business
    interactions than do most people. On the other hand,
    individuals with a strong desire to be accepted
    socially tend to have more such principles than do
    most people. And, in general, the more ethical
    principles to which someone consciously adheres, the
    more ethical is that person’s behavior. Therefore,
    business schools can promote more ethical behavior
    among future businesspeople by promoting among
    their students the desire to be accepted socially and
    discouraging the propensity for taking risks.
    The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the
    argument
    (A) infers from the fact that something is usually
    true that it is always true
    (B) takes for granted that promoting ethical
    behavior is more important than any other goal
    (C) concludes merely from the fact that two things
    are correlated that one causes the other
    (D) takes for granted that certain actions are
    morally wrong simply because most people
    believe that they are morally wrong
    (E) draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim
    presented in support of that conclusion
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The argument concludes that business schools can promote more ethical behavior among future businesspeople by promoting among their students the desire to be accepted socially and discouraging the propensity for taking risks. The reasons given in support of this conclusion are that studies have found that people with a high propensity for risk taking tend to have fewer ethical principles to which they adhere in their business interactions than do others, while those individuals with a strong desire to be accepted socially tend to have more such principles than do others. Furthermore, it is generally the case that the more ethical principles to which an individual adheres, the more ethical is that individual’s behavior. The flaw here is that you don’t know whether anything else is a factor in making individuals more or less prone to ethical behavior. Just because certain elements (such as risk taking or a desire for social acceptance) seem linked to others (the number of ethical principles one consciously adheres to) doesn’t mean you can infer a cause-effect relationship.

A. No. This doesn’t describe the flaw in this particular argument; there is no jump from “usually” to “always” here.

B. No. The argument never compares this goal to any other in terms of importance.

C. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.

D. No. There is no mention in the argument of what is “morally wrong,” so this is irrelevant.

E. No. This choice describes circular reasoning, which is not the flaw in this particular argument.

177
Q
  1. Essayist: Lessing contended that an art form’s medium
    dictates the kind of representation the art form
    must employ in order to be legitimate; painting,
    for example, must represent simultaneous arrays
    of colored shapes, while literature, consisting of
    words read in succession, must represent events
    or actions occurring in sequence. The claim
    about literature must be rejected, however, if one
    regards as legitimate the imagists’ poems, which
    consist solely of amalgams of disparate images.
    Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
    essayist’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
    (A) An amalgam of disparate images cannot
    represent a sequence of events or actions.
    (B) Poems whose subject matter is not appropriate
    to their medium are illegitimate.
    (C) Lessing was not aware that the imagists’ poetry
    consists of an amalgam of disparate images.
    (D) All art, even the imagists’ poetry, depicts or
    represents some subject matter.
    (E) All art represents something either as
    simultaneous or as successive.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Sufficient Assumption

The essayist concludes that Lessing’s claim about literature must be rejected if one considers the imagists’ poems legitimate. Why? Lessing contended that an art form’s medium dictates the kind of representation the art form must employ in order to be legitimate; for literature, which consists of words read in succession, this entails representing events or actions occurring in sequence. Yet the imagists’ poems consist solely of amalgams of disparate images. In order for the conclusion to be valid, you need to know that amalgams of disparate images cannot be considered events or actions occurring in sequence.

A. Yes. This matches what was stated above.

B. No. This is irrelevant; subject matter is never discussed.

C. No. Whether Lessing was aware of the nature of the imagists’ poetry is irrelevant to the conclusion.

D. No. This is too broad; the conclusion is about literature, not all art.

E. No. This is too broad; the conclusion is about literature, not all art.

178
Q
  1. A psychiatrist argued that there is no such thing as a
    multiple personality disorder on the grounds that in
    all her years of clinical practice, she had never
    encountered one case of this type.
    Which one of the following most closely parallels the
    questionable reasoning cited above?
    (A) Anton concluded that colds are seldom fatal on
    the grounds that in all his years of clinical
    practice, he never had a patient who died of
    a cold.
    (B) Lyla said that no one in the area has seen a
    groundhog and so there are probably no
    groundhogs in the area.
    (C) Sauda argued that because therapy rarely had
    an effect on her patient’s type of disorder,
    therapy was not warranted.
    (D) Thomas argued that because Natasha has
    driven her car to work every day since she
    bought it, she would probably continue to
    drive her car to work.
    (E) Jerod had never spotted a deer in his area and
    concluded from this that there are no deer in
    the area.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Parallel Flaw

The psychiatrist concluded that there is no such thing as a multiple personality disorder because in all her years of clinical practice, she had never encountered one instance of this type. The flaw is that this type of disorder could still exist even if the psychiatrist has never personally witnessed a case of it. Note the use of extreme language (“no such thing,” “never”) in both the conclusion and the premise; you want to be sure to find an answer choice that similarly makes use of strong language.

A. No. This isn’t the same flaw as the original argument because it doesn’t match in terms of language. The conclusion here is “seldom fatal,” which allows for the possibility that Anton might be wrong in his thinking. The original argument does not make this concession, which is why it is flawed to begin with.

B. No. This isn’t flawed; the conclusion that there are “probably no groundhogs in the area” is reasonable enough.

C. No. While this choice is flawed, it doesn’t match the flaw in the original argument. Sauda does not assume that because she has never witnessed a particular phenomenon, it doesn’t exist.

D. No. This isn’t flawed; Thomas’s conclusion is reasonable because the language, “probably continue,” allows room for contradiction.

E. Yes. This is the same flaw as in the original argument: Because Jerod has never seen a deer in his area, he assumes there are no deer in the area. However, it’s entirely possible that there could still be deer in his area without his having seen them.

179
Q
  1. Even if many more people in the world excluded
    meat from their diet, world hunger would not
    thereby be significantly reduced.
    Which one of the following, if true, most calls into
    question the claim above?
    (A) Hunger often results from natural disasters
    like typhoons or hurricanes, which sweep
    away everything in their path.
    (B) Both herds and crops are susceptible to
    devastating viral and other diseases.
    (C) The amount of land needed to produce
    enough meat to feed one person for a week
    can grow enough grain to feed more than ten
    people for a week.
    (D) Often people go hungry because they live in
    remote barren areas where there is no efficient
    distribution for emergency food relief.
    (E) Most historical cases of famine have been due
    to bad social and economic policies or
    catastrophes such as massive crop failure.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Weaken

The argument concludes that world hunger would not be significantly reduced even if many more people in the world excluded meat from their diet. Underlying this claim is an assumption that the causes of world hunger cannot be solved by greater numbers of people choosing not to eat meat. You want to find an answer choice that suggests that people’s decision not to include meat in their diet could somehow impact and help to reduce world hunger.

A. No. This might strengthen the argument by showing that hunger is not generally linked to people’s consumption choices.

B. No. This is irrelevant. If disease affects both herds and crops, then there isn’t a clear advantage to either, according to this choice.

C. Yes. This shows that not including meat in one’s diet has an effect equivalent to feeding more than ten people, suggesting that if more people excluded meat from their diet, a significant reduction in world hunger could be achieved, thereby weakening the argument.

D. No. This is irrelevant. This choice is concerned with people going hungry in times of emergency because they live in a remote area; this is not necessarily the same issue as world hunger, since the original argument isn’t limited to emergency situations.

E. No. This would strengthen the argument, if anything, by suggesting that factors other than people’s decision to eat meat impact world hunger. It certainly doesn’t weaken the argument, though.

180
Q
  1. Dairy farmer: On our farm, we have great concern
    for our cows’ environmental conditions. We
    have recently made improvements that
    increase their comfort, such as providing them
    with special sleeping mattresses. These changes
    are intended to increase blood flow to the
    udder. This increased blood flow would boost
    milk output and thus increase profits.
    Of the following propositions, which one is best
    illustrated by the dairy farmer’s statements?
    (A) Dairy cows cannot have comfortable living
    conditions unless farmers have some knowledge
    about the physiology of milk production.
    (B) Farming practices introduced for the sake of
    maximizing profits can improve the living
    conditions of farm animals.
    (C) More than other farm animals, dairy cows
    respond favorably to improvements in their
    living environments.
    (D) The productivity of dairy farms should be
    increased only if the quality of the product is
    not compromised.
    (E) The key to maximizing profits on a dairy
    farm is having a concern for dairy cows’
    environment.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Principle Match

The dairy farmer states that on their farm, much concern is shown for cows’ environmental conditions in that they have recently made improvements to increase the cows’ comfort. These changes are intended to increase blood flow to the udder, thereby increasing milk output and thus profits. You need to find an answer choice that illustrates how the interests of both the farmer (profits) and the cows (comfort) coincide.

A. No. This is too extreme. The argument doesn’t support the idea that cows having comfortable living conditions depends on farmers having some knowledge about the physiology of milk production.

B. Yes. This choice is in line with the idea that the interests of the farmer—increased profits—can result in more comfortable conditions for the cows.

C. No. This is irrelevant. The argument doesn’t compare cows to other farm animals.

D. No. This is irrelevant. Quality is never mentioned in the argument.

E. No. This is too strong. While the farmer implies that having concern for dairy cows’ environment is a way to increase profits, there’s no support for the idea that it is the key to maximizing profits.

181
Q
  1. Pat: E-mail fosters anonymity, which removes
    barriers to self-revelation. This promotes a
    degree of intimacy with strangers that would
    otherwise take years of direct personal contact
    to attain.
    Amar: Frankness is not intimacy. Intimacy requires a
    real social bond, and social bonds cannot be
    formed without direct personal contact.
    The dialogue most strongly supports the claim that Pat
    and Amar disagree with each other about whether
    (A) barriers to self-revelation hinder the initial
    growth of intimacy
    (B) E-mail can increase intimacy between friends
    (C) intimacy between those who communicate
    with each other solely by e-mail is possible
    (D) real social bonds always lead to intimacy
    (E) the use of e-mail removes barriers to
    self-revelation
A

Correct Answer: C

C Point at Issue

Pat concludes that E-mail promotes a degree of intimacy with strangers that would otherwise take years of direct personal contact to attain because E-mail fosters anonymity, which removes barriers to self-revelation. Amar states that frankness and intimacy are not the same thing because intimacy requires a real social bond, which in turn requires direct personal contact; his implied conclusion is that E-mail therefore doesn’t really promote intimacy in the way Pat suggests.

A. No. Amar never mentions barriers to self-revelation, so you don’t know whether he would agree or disagree with this statement.

B. No. This is irrelevant. Neither person discusses whether E-mail can increase intimacy among friends.

C. Yes. Pat would seem to agree with this choice, while Amar would disagree.

D. No. Pat never discusses social bonds, so you don’t know whether he would agree with this choice.

E. No. Amar doesn’t mention either barriers to self-revelation or the use of E-mail, so you don’t have enough information to evaluate whether he would agree with this statement.

182
Q
  1. Criminologist: The main purpose of most criminal
    organizations is to generate profits. The
    ongoing revolutions in biotechnology and
    information technology promise to generate
    enormous profits. Therefore, criminal
    organizations will undoubtedly try to become
    increasingly involved in these areas.
    The conclusion of the criminologist’s argument is
    properly inferred if which one of the following is
    assumed?
    (A) If an organization tries to become increasingly
    involved in areas that promise to generate
    enormous profits, then the main purpose of
    that organization is to generate profits.
    (B) At least some criminal organizations are or
    will at some point become aware that the
    ongoing revolutions in biotechnology and
    information technology promise to generate
    enormous profits.
    (C) Criminal organizations are already heavily
    involved in every activity that promises to
    generate enormous profits.
    (D) Any organization whose main purpose is to
    generate profits will try to become
    increasingly involved in any technological
    revolution that promises to generate
    enormous profits.
    (E) Most criminal organizations are willing to
    become involved in legal activities if those
    activities are sufficiently profitable.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Sufficient Assumption

The criminologist concludes that criminal organizations will try to become increasingly involved in the areas of biotechnology and information technology. Why? The ongoing revolutions in these areas promise to generate enormous profits, and the main purpose of most criminal organizations is to generate profits. In order for the conclusion to be properly inferred, you need to know that criminal organizations tend to get involved in those areas where there is the potential for enormous profits.

A. No. You have already been told that the main purpose of most criminal organizations is to generate profits, so this choice doesn’t add anything to the argument.

B. No. This is close, but it doesn’t go far enough. It’s not enough to know that some criminal organizations are or may become aware of these potential profits; you need to know that these groups will try to become involved because of the potential for profits.

C. No. What criminal organizations have done up to now is not relevant to the argument, which is concerned about what they will do in the future.

D. Yes. This connects the conclusion to the premises as noted above.

E. No. The legality of the activities is irrelevant, as you’re talking about criminal organizations to begin with.

183
Q
  1. Administrators of educational institutions are
    enthusiastic about the educational use of computers
    because they believe that it will enable schools to
    teach far more courses with far fewer teachers than
    traditional methods allow. Many teachers fear
    computers for the same reason. But this reason is
    mistaken. Computerized instruction requires more,
    not less, time of instructors, which indicates that any
    reduction in the number of teachers would require
    an accompanying reduction in courses offered.
    The statement that the educational use of computers
    enables schools to teach far more courses with far
    fewer teachers figures in the argument in which one
    of the following ways?
    (A) It is presented as a possible explanation for an
    observation that follows it.
    (B) It is a statement of the problem the argument
    sets out to solve.
    (C) It is a statement that the argument is designed
    to refute.
    (D) It is a statement offered in support of the
    argument’s main conclusion.
    (E) It is the argument’s main conclusion.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Reasoning

The argument concludes that, contrary to what administrators and teachers may think, the educational use of computers will not enable schools to teach far more courses with far fewer teachers than traditional methods allow. This is because computerized instruction requires more time of instructors, so reducing the number of teachers would likewise require reducing the number of courses offered. The statement asked about in the question stem, therefore, is a belief the argument aims to reject.

A. No. The statement presents the belief of administrators with regard to the educational use of computers as a matter of fact, so there is no “possible explanation” in the argument.

B. No. The argument is not attempting to solve anything.

C. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.

D. No. The argument’s conclusion rejects this statement.

E. No. The argument’s conclusion rejects this statement.

184
Q
  1. Scientists have shown that older bees, which usually
    forage outside the hive for food, tend to have larger
    brains than do younger bees, which usually do not
    forage but instead remain in the hive to tend to
    newly hatched bees. Since foraging requires greater
    cognitive ability than does tending to newly hatched
    bees, it appears that foraging leads to the increased
    brain size of older bees.
    Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
    weakens the argument above?
    (A) Bees that have foraged for a long time do not
    have significantly larger brains than do bees
    that have foraged for a shorter time.
    (B) The brains of older bees that stop foraging to
    take on other responsibilities do not become
    smaller after they stop foraging.
    (C) Those bees that travel a long distance to find
    food do not have significantly larger brains
    than do bees that locate food nearer the hive.
    (D) In some species of bees, the brains of older
    bees are only marginally larger than those of
    younger bees.
    (E) The brains of older bees that never learn to
    forage are the same size as those of their
    foraging counterparts of the same age.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Weaken

The argument concludes that foraging leads to the increased brain size of older bees. Why? Older bees, which usually forage outside the hive for food, tend to have larger brains than do younger bees, which usually remain in the hive to tend to newly hatched bees instead of foraging. Foraging requires greater cognitive ability than does tending to newly hatched bees. The argument is assuming a causal relationship (foraging increases brain size) from a correlation (foraging and larger brain size happen to occur together in older bees). In order to weaken the argument, you need to show that this causality isn’t true or that some other factor accounts for the size of the brain.

A. No. This doesn’t weaken the argument; it could still be true that the act of foraging, regardless of the overall length of time a bee has foraged, contributes to increased brain size.

B. No. This is irrelevant and doesn’t provide an alternative explanation as to why the bees’ brains increased in size in the first place.

C. No. The distance traveled outside the hive while foraging is not relevant to whether the activity of foraging itself leads to the increased brain size of older bees.

D. No. This doesn’t weaken the argument, as this still doesn’t provide another explanation for the larger brain size of older bees.

E. Yes. This implies that larger brain size could be due to the age of the bees and not the activity that they engage in, thereby weakening the causal assumption of the argument.

185
Q
  1. Carla: Professors at public universities should receive
    paid leaves of absence to allow them to engage
    in research. Research not only advances
    human knowledge, but also improves
    professors’ teaching by keeping them abreast of
    the latest information in their fields.
    David: But even if you are right about the beneficial
    effects of research, why should our limited
    resources be devoted to supporting professors
    taking time off from teaching?
    David’s response to Carla is most vulnerable to
    criticism on the grounds that it
    (A) ignores the part of Carla’s remarks that could
    provide an answer to David’s question
    (B) takes for granted that the only function of a
    university professor is teaching
    (C) incorrectly takes Carla’s remarks as claiming
    that all funding for professors comes from
    tax money
    (D) takes for granted that providing the
    opportunity for research is the only function
    of paid leaves of absence
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    professors do not need vacations
A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

Carla concludes that professors at public universities should receive paid leaves of absence to allow them to engage in research because research will both advance human knowledge and improve professors’ teaching by keeping them up to speed on the latest developments in their field. David responds by first acknowledging Carla’s mention of the possible benefits of research, but then asks why limited resources should be devoted to supporting professors taking time off from teaching. His question indicates that he has missed part of Carla’s initial reasoning, in which she explained that engaging in research improves professors’ teaching.

A. Yes. This accurately states the flaw as noted above.

B. No. This is extreme. David never claims that the sole function of a professor is teaching.

C. No. David never directly addresses the source of funding for professors; he merely says that there are “limited resources.”

D. No. David never claims that paid leave has only one function.

E. No. This is irrelevant. Neither person discusses the issue of vacations.

186
Q
  1. Software reviewer: Dictation software allows a
    computer to produce a written version of
    sentences that are spoken to it. Although
    dictation software has been promoted as a
    labor-saving invention, it fails to live up to its
    billing. The laborious part of writing is in the
    thinking and the editing, not in the typing. And
    proofreading the software’s error-filled output
    generally squanders any time saved in typing.
    Which one of the following most accurately describes
    the role played in the software reviewer’s argument
    by the claim that dictation software fails to live up to
    its billing?
    (A) It is the argument’s main conclusion but not
    its only conclusion.
    (B) It is the argument’s only conclusion.
    (C) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
    as direct support for the argument’s main
    conclusion.
    (D) It is a premise offered in support of the
    argument’s conclusion.
    (E) It is a premise offered as direct support for an
    intermediate conclusion of the argument.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

The software reviewer concludes that, despite the fact that dictation software has been promoted as a labor-saving device, it in fact fails to live up to its billing. The evidence offered by the software reviewer for this opinion is that the laborious part of writing is in the thinking and editing, not in the typing. Furthermore, the time spent proofreading the software’s error-filled output generally squanders any time saved in typing. The statement asked about in the question stem, therefore, is the argument’s conclusion.

A. No. There are no other conclusions in this argument.

B. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.

C. No. There are no other conclusions in this argument.

D. No. The statement is the conclusion, not a premise.

E. No. The statement is the conclusion, not a premise, and there are no other conclusions in this argument.

187
Q
  1. Poetry journal patron: Everybody who publishes in
    The Brick Wall Review has to agree in advance
    that if a poem is printed in one of its regular
    issues, the magazine also has the right to
    reprint it, without monetary compensation, in
    its annual anthology. The Brick Wall Review
    makes enough money from sales of its
    anthologies to cover most operating expenses.
    So, if your magazine also published an
    anthology of poems first printed in your
    magazine, you could depend less on donations.
    After all, most poems published in your
    magazine are very similar to those published
    in The Brick Wall Review.
    Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
    patron’s argument?
    (A) Neither The Brick Wall Review nor the other
    magazine under discussion depends on
    donations to cover most operating expenses.
    (B) Many of the poets whose work appears in The
    Brick Wall Review have had several poems
    rejected for publication by the other
    magazine under discussion.
    (C) The only compensation poets receive for
    publishing in the regular issues of the
    magazines under discussion are free copies of
    the issues in which their poems appear.
    (D) The Brick Wall Review depends on donations
    to cover most operating expenses not covered
    by income from anthology sales.
    (E) The Brick Wall Review’s annual poetry
    anthology always contains a number of
    poems by famous poets not published in the
    regular issues of the magazine.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Weaken

The poetry journal patron concludes that if the magazine under discussion were to publish an anthology of poems first printed in its pages, it could depend less on donations. The patron cites as evidence The Brick Wall Review, which has an agreement with those who publish in it that any poem printed in one of its regular issues can be reprinted without monetary compensation in its annual anthology. The Brick Wall Review makes enough money from sales of its anthologies to cover most operating expenses. The patron also notes that most poems published in the magazine at issue are very similar to those published in The Brick Wall Review. To weaken the argument, you need to find a choice that attacks the legitimacy of the comparison between the magazine under discussion and The Brick Wall Review.

A. No. Whether either publication depends on donations to cover operating expenses is irrelevant.

B. No. While this might appear to suggest that the two publications are not in fact as similar as the patron claims, this still doesn’t weaken the argument. It could be that the poems that were rejected by the magazine under discussion were atypical of what the poets themselves normally write and have published in The Brick Wall Review.

C. No. The nature of the compensation received by the poets who publish in the magazine in question is not relevant.

D. No. How The Brick Wall Review covers operating expenses not covered by income from anthology sales is irrelevant.

E. Yes. This implies that there are other factors involved in the success of The Brick Wall Review’s anthology that could affect whether or how well the magazine in question could replicate The Brick Wall Review’s strategy.

188
Q
  1. No one with a serious medical problem would rely
    on the average person to prescribe treatment.
    Similarly, since a good public servant has the interest
    of the public at heart, ________.
    Which one of the following statements would most
    reasonably complete the argument?
    (A) public servants should not be concerned about
    the outcomes of public opinion surveys
    (B) the average public servant knows more about
    what is best for society than the average
    person does
    (C) public servants should be more knowledgeable
    about the public good than they are
    (D) public servants should base decisions on
    something other than the average person’s
    recommendations
    (E) one is a good public servant if one is more
    knowledgeable about the public good than is
    the average person
A

Correct Answer: D

D Main Point

You need to supply the conclusion to this argument. You are told that no one with a serious medical problem would rely on the average person to prescribe treatment. Therefore, since a good public servant has the interest of the public at heart, a good public servant would also not rely on the average person to solve a given problem, in keeping with the reasoning underlying the premise above.

A. No. The outcomes of public opinion surveys are not relevant to the argument.

B. No. This is irrelevant. The argument isn’t concerned with what the average public servant knows.

C. No. The argument isn’t focused on whether public servants need a greater level of knowledge than they already have.

D. Yes. This is in keeping with the discussion above.

E. No. What constitutes being a good public servant is not relevant to the argument.

189
Q
  1. Team captain: Winning requires the willingness to
    cooperate, which in turn requires motivation.
    So you will not win if you are not motivated.
    The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following
    is most similar to that in the argument above?
    (A) Being healthy requires exercise. But exercising
    involves risk of injury. So, paradoxically, anyone
    who wants to be healthy will not exercise.
    (B) Learning requires making some mistakes. And
    you must learn if you are to improve. So you
    will not make mistakes without there being a
    noticeable improvement.
    (C) Our political party will retain its status only if
    it raises more money. But raising more money
    requires increased campaigning. So our party
    will not retain its status unless it increases its
    campaigning.
    (D) You can repair your own bicycle only if you are
    enthusiastic. And if you are enthusiastic, you
    will also have mechanical aptitude. So if you
    are not able to repair your own bicycle, you
    lack mechanical aptitude.
    (E) Getting a ticket requires waiting in line.
    Waiting in line requires patience. So if you do
    not wait in line, you lack patience.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Parallel

Diagram the statements in the argument. Winning → willingness to cooperate → motivation. Therefore, not motivated → won’t win. The conclusion is the contrapositive; you need to find an answer choice that matches this structure.

A. No. The conclusion here involves a paradox, which does match the structure of the original argument.

B. No. Improvement → learning → making some mistakes. However, the conclusion states that you will not make mistakes without having some improvement, which isn’t the contrapositive of this sequence.

C. Yes. Retain status → raise more money → increased campaigning. Therefore, no increase in campaigning → won’t retain status. This matches the original argument.

D. No. Repair own bicycle → enthusiastic → mechanical aptitude. Therefore, unable to repair own bicycle → lack mechanical aptitude. This reasoning is flawed, so this choice doesn’t match the original argument.

E. No. Getting ticket → waiting in line → patience. Therefore, don’t wait in line → lack patience. This reasoning is flawed, so this choice doesn’t match the original argument.

190
Q
  1. In the past, when there was no highway speed limit,
    the highway accident rate increased yearly, peaking a
    decade ago. At that time, the speed limit on highways
    was set at 90 kilometers per hour (kph) (55 miles per
    hour). Every year since the introduction of the
    highway speed limit, the highway accident rate has
    been at least 15 percent lower than that of its peak
    rate. Thus, setting the highway speed limit at 90 kph
    (55 mph) has reduced the highway accident rate by at
    least 15 percent.
    Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
    weakens the argument?
    (A) In the years prior to the introduction of the
    highway speed limit, many cars could go
    faster than 90 kph (55 mph).
    (B) Ten years ago, at least 95 percent of all
    automobile accidents in the area occurred on
    roads with a speed limit of under 80 kph
    (50 mph).
    (C) Although the speed limit on many highways is
    officially set at 90 kph (55 mph), most people
    typically drive faster than the speed limit.
    (D) Thanks to changes in automobile design in the
    past ten years, drivers are better able to
    maintain control of their cars in dangerous
    situations.
    (E) It was not until shortly after the introduction
    of the highway speed limit that most cars
    were equipped with features such as seat belts
    and airbags designed to prevent harm to
    passengers.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Weaken

The argument concludes that setting the highway speed limit at 90 kph (55 mph) has reduced the highway accident rate by at least 15 percent. The evidence for this claim is that the highway accident rate peaked a decade ago, at which time the speed limit on highways was set to the current limit. For every year since that time, the highway accident rate has been at least 15 percent lower than that of its peak. The argument assumes that it’s the fixed speed limit that is responsible for the lower accident rate; to weaken the argument, then, you need to show that there is another possible explanation, outside of the set speed limit, for why the highway accident rate has decreased.

A. No. This does not provide an alternative explanation for why the highway accident rate has decreased.

B. No. This is not relevant to the argument, which is focused specifically on the highway accident rate. This choice addresses all automobile accidents, which goes beyond the scope of this argument.

C. No. This doesn’t go far enough to weaken the argument. Even if most people typically drive faster than the speed limit, that doesn’t mean the setting of the limit wasn’t responsible for the decreased accident rate.

D. Yes. This weakens the argument by suggesting that changes in automobile design and not the fixed speed limits are responsible for the reduced highway accident rate.

E. No. While this may appear to weaken the argument, it’s actually irrelevant. The measures discussed may reduce harm to passengers, but since the conclusion is concerned with the rate of accidents, not injuries or fatalities, this choice has no impact on the argument.

191
Q
  1. Editorial: It is a travesty of justice, social critics say,
    that we can launch rockets into outer space but
    cannot solve social problems that have plagued
    humanity. The assumption underlying this
    assertion is that there are greater difficulties
    involved in a space launch than are involved in
    ending long-standing social problems, which
    in turn suggests that a government’s failure to
    achieve the latter is simply a case of misplaced
    priorities. The criticism is misplaced, however,
    for rocket technology is much simpler than the
    human psyche, and until we adequately
    understand the human psyche we cannot solve
    the great social problems.
    The statement that rocket technology is much
    simpler than the human psyche plays which one of
    the following roles in the editorial’s argument?
    (A) It is cited as a possible objection to the
    argument’s conclusion.
    (B) According to the argument, it is a fact that has
    misled some social critics.
    (C) It is the argument’s conclusion.
    (D) It is claimed to be a false assumption on which
    the reasoning that the argument seeks to
    undermine rests.
    (E) It is used by the argument to attempt to
    undermine the reasoning behind a viewpoint.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Reasoning

The editorial disagrees with those who believe that the government’s inability to solve long-standing social problems even though it has launched rockets into outer space stems from a case of misplaced priorities. The editorial concludes that such criticism is itself misplaced because rocket technology is much simpler than the human psyche and understanding the human psyche is necessary to solving the great social problems. The statement asked about in the question stem, therefore, is a premise used to support the argument’s conclusion.

A. No. It is a premise that supports the argument’s conclusion, not an objection to the conclusion.

B. No. The argument never says this fact has misled some social critics.

C. No. The statement is a premise, not the conclusion.

D. No. The statement is used to support the argument’s conclusion, which in turn undermines the social critics’ reasoning.

E. Yes. The statement is a premise used to support the argument’s conclusion undermining the viewpoint of the social critics.

192
Q
  1. Archaeologist: After the last ice age, groups of
    paleohumans left Siberia and crossed the
    Bering land bridge, which no longer exists,
    into North America. Archaeologists have
    discovered in Siberia a cache of Clovis
    points—the distinctive stone spear points
    made by paleohumans. This shows that,
    contrary to previous belief, the Clovis point
    was not invented in North America.
    Which one of the following, if true, would most
    strengthen the archaeologist’s argument?
    (A) The Clovis points found in Siberia are older
    than any of those that have been found in
    North America.
    (B) The Bering land bridge disappeared before any
    of the Clovis points found to date were made.
    (C) Clovis points were more effective hunting
    weapons than earlier spear points had been.
    (D) Archaeologists have discovered in Siberia
    artifacts that date from after the time
    paleohumans left Siberia.
    (E) Some paleohuman groups that migrated from
    Siberia to North America via the Bering land
    bridge eventually returned to Siberia.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The archaeologist concludes that, contrary to previous belief, the Clovis point was not invented in North America. The evidence offered for this conclusion is the discovery in Siberia of a cache of Clovis points and the fact that groups of paleohumans, who made Clovis points, left Siberia and crossed the Bering land bridge into North America after the last Ice Age. The archaeologist assumes that the Clovis points found in Siberia must have been made by paleohumans prior to their crossing; you want to find an answer choice that supports this interpretation of facts.

A. Yes. This strengthens the archaeologist’s argument that Clovis points were not invented in North America by confirming that those found in Siberia were made before any of those found in North America.

B. No. This doesn’t tell you anything further about when the Clovis points found on either side of the Bering land bridge were fabricated, so it’s irrelevant.

C. No. The relative effectiveness of Clovis points as hunting weapons is not relevant to the archaeologist’s argument.

D. No. Artifacts other than Clovis points are irrelevant, since the conclusion is specifically concerned with Clovis points.

E. No. This weakens the argument by suggesting that the Clovis points found in Siberia might have been made in North America and then brought back to Siberia when some paleohuman groups migrated back.

193
Q
  1. Taxi drivers, whose income is based on the fares they
    receive, usually decide when to finish work each day
    by setting a daily income target; they stop when they
    reach that target. This means that they typically work
    fewer hours on a busy day than on a slow day.
    The facts described above provide the strongest
    evidence against which one of the following?
    (A) The number of hours per day that a person is
    willing to work depends on that person’s
    financial needs.
    (B) People work longer when their effective hourly
    wage is high than when it is low.
    (C) Workers will accept a lower hourly wage in
    exchange for the freedom to set their own
    schedules.
    (D) People are willing to work many hours a day in
    order to avoid a reduction in their standard of
    living.
    (E) People who are paid based on their production
    work more efficiently than those who are paid
    a fixed hourly wage.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

Pick the answer that is contradicted by the passage.

A. No. This could be true. You know that each taxi driver sets a daily income target, which affects the number of hours a driver needs to work, so it’s conceivable that the income target is based on that driver’s financial needs.

B. Yes. This directly contrasts with the last sentence of the argument. Taxi drivers work fewer hours when they are busiest, which means they work fewer hours when their effective hourly wage is high. This goes against the idea presented by the answer choice.

C. No. This could be true. Nothing in the argument contradicts this idea.

D. No. This could be true. Nothing in the argument contradicts this idea.

E. No. This could be true. Nothing in the argument contradicts this idea.

194
Q
  1. Sometimes one reads a poem and believes that the
    poem expresses contradictory ideas, even if it is a
    great poem. So it is wrong to think that the meaning
    of a poem is whatever the author intends to
    communicate to the reader by means of the poem.
    No one who is writing a great poem intends it to
    communicate contradictory ideas.
    Which one of the following is an assumption on
    which the argument depends?
    (A) Different readers will usually disagree about
    what the author of a particular poem intends
    to communicate by means of that poem.
    (B) If someone writes a great poem, he or she
    intends the poem to express one primary idea.
    (C) Readers will not agree about the meaning of a
    poem if they do not agree about what the
    author of the poem intended the poem to mean.
    (D) Anyone reading a great poem can discern
    every idea that the author intended to express
    in the poem.
    (E) If a reader believes that a poem expresses a
    particular idea, then that idea is part of the
    meaning of the poem.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that it is wrong to think that the meaning of a poem is whatever the author intends to communicate to the reader by means of the poem. Why? Sometimes one can read a poem and believe that it expresses contradictory ideas, even though it is a great poem. And no one who is writing a great poem intends the poem to communicate contradictory ideas. The missing link here is the assumption that what a reader believes a poem expresses is actually what the author intended the poem to mean. You need an answer choice that connects the poem’s meaning to what the reader perceives the poem to be expressing.

A. No. This is irrelevant. Whether readers agree about what the author intends to communicate in a poem is not relevant.

B. No. The notion that the writer of a great poem intends it to express one primary idea is irrelevant.

C. No. Whether readers agree on the meaning of a poem is irrelevant.

D. No. This doesn’t bring in the key element of the poem’s meaning.

E. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.

195
Q
  1. The law of the city of Weston regarding contributions
    to mayoral campaigns is as follows: all contributions to
    these campaigns in excess of $100 made by nonresidents
    of Weston who are not former residents of Weston
    must be registered with the city council. Brimley’s
    mayoral campaign clearly complied with this law since
    it accepted contributions only from residents and
    former residents of Weston.
    If all the statements above are true, which one of the
    following statements must be true?
    (A) No nonresident of Weston contributed in
    excess of $100 to Brimley’s campaign.
    (B) Some contributions to Brimley’s campaign in
    excess of $100 were registered with the city
    council.
    (C) No contributions to Brimley’s campaign
    needed to be registered with the city council.
    (D) All contributions to Brimley’s campaign that
    were registered with the city council were in
    excess of $100.
    (E) Brimley’s campaign did not register any
    contributions with the city council.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Inference

Pick the answer supported by the passage.

A. No. This doesn’t have to be true. It’s possible that a nonresident who is a former resident of Weston contributed in excess of $100 to Brimley’s campaign.

B. No. The only contributions that you know have to be registered are those made by nonresidents who are not former residents of Weston, and according to the last sentence of the argument, Brimley’s campaign did not accept any contributions made from those in this particular category.

C. Yes. This must be true. According to the law given in the argument, contributions in excess of $100 made by nonresidents who are not former residents need to be registered with the city council. Since you are told that it is true that Brimley’s campaign complied with the law, it must therefore also be true that none of the contributions needed to be registered, given that the campaign accepted contributions only from residents and former residents.

D. No. According to the argument, Brimley did not need to register any contributions with the city council because the campaign did not accept any from those to whom the law would apply. Therefore, you can’t know anything about the relative amounts that the campaign might have chosen to register of its own accord.

E. No. According to the argument, Brimley’s campaign did not need to register any of the contributions it accepted. However, that does not mean the campaign did not register any with the city council; there could be other reasons for the campaign to register some contributions of its own volition.

196
Q
  1. Historian: Flavius, an ancient Roman governor who
    believed deeply in the virtues of manual labor
    and moral temperance, actively sought to
    discourage the arts by removing state financial
    support for them. Also, Flavius was widely
    unpopular among his subjects, as we can
    conclude from the large number of satirical
    plays that were written about him during his
    administration.
    The historian’s argumentation is most vulnerable to
    criticism on the grounds that it
    (A) fails to consider the percentage of plays written
    during Flavius’s administration that were not
    explicitly about Flavius
    (B) treats the satirical plays as a reliable indicator
    of Flavius’s popularity despite potential bias
    on the part of the playwrights
    (C) presumes, without providing evidence, that
    Flavius was unfavorably disposed toward the
    arts
    (D) takes for granted that Flavius’s attempt to
    discourage the arts was successful
    (E) fails to consider whether manual labor and
    moral temperance were widely regarded as
    virtues in ancient Rome
A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The historian concludes that Flavius was widely unpopular among his subjects based on the fact that a large number of satirical plays were written about him during his administration. However, you are also told that Flavius actively sought to discourage the arts and removed state financial support for them. This calls into question the historian’s assertion that Flavius was widely unpopular based merely on the fact that playwrights chose to satirize him; the sample population may not be representative of the larger population of his subjects.

A. No. While the argument does not consider this, this isn’t a problem with the historian’s logic.

B. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.

C. No. The historian does provide evidence to support the notion that Flavius was not a fan of the arts: You are told that Flavius removed state financial support for the arts.

D. No. The historian never mentions whether Flavius’s attempt to discourage the arts was actually successful, and the fact that a large number of satirical plays were written during his administration would seem to suggest that it was not.

E. No. The argument does not consider this; however, it’s neither relevant to the argument nor the problem with the historian’s logic.

197
Q
  1. Educators studied the performance of 200 students
    in a university’s history classes. They found that
    those students who performed the best had either
    part-time jobs or full-time jobs, had their history
    classes early in the morning, and had a very limited
    social life, whereas those students who performed the
    worst had no jobs, had their history classes early in
    the morning, and had a very active social life.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    explain the educators’ findings?
    (A) The students compensated for any study time
    lost due to their jobs but they did not
    compensate for any study time lost due to
    their social lives.
    (B) The students who had full-time jobs typically
    worked late-night hours at those jobs.
    (C) Better students tend to choose classes that are
    scheduled to meet early in the morning.
    (D) A larger percentage of those students
    interested in majoring in history had
    part-time jobs than had full-time jobs.
    (E) Although having a job tends to provide a
    release from stress, thus increasing academic
    performance, having a full-time job, like
    having an active social life, can distract a
    student from studying.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Resolve/Explain

Students who performed the best in a university’s history classes had either part-time or full-time jobs, limited social lives, and history classes that met early in the morning. Those students who performed the worst lacked jobs, had very active social lives, and had their history classes early in the morning. You need an answer choice that accounts for the discrepancy in performance given that both the best and worst performers had their classes early in the morning.

A. Yes. This explains the disparity in terms of the differences among the students with respect to their jobs and social lives.

B. No. This doesn’t explain why those with full-time jobs performed better than those without jobs.

C. No. This makes the discrepancy worse, since both the best and worst performers had classes that met early in the morning.

D. No. This is irrelevant; you know only that the students in the study were taking history classes, not whether any of them were interested in majoring in history.

E. No. This makes the discrepancy worse, as it suggests that those with full-time jobs shouldn’t have performed better than those with active social lives.

198
Q
  1. Politician: Most of those at the meeting were not
    persuaded by Kuyler’s argument, nor should they
    have been, for Kuyler’s argument implied that it
    would be improper to enter into a contract with
    the government; and yet—as many people
    know— Kuyler’s company has had numerous
    lucrative contracts with the government.
    Which one of the following describes a flaw in the
    politician’s argument?
    (A) It concludes that an argument is defective
    merely on the grounds that the argument has
    failed to persuade anyone of the truth of its
    conclusion.
    (B) It relies on testimony that is likely to be biased.
    (C) It rejects an argument merely on the grounds
    that the arguer has not behaved in a way that
    is consistent with the argument.
    (D) It rejects a position merely on the grounds that
    an inadequate argument has been given for it.
    (E) It rejects an argument on the basis of an
    appeal to popular opinion.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The politician concludes that those who were not persuaded by Kuyler’s argument that it would be improper to enter into a contract with the government were right not to have been persuaded. As evidence, the politician states that Kuyler’s company has had numerous lucrative contracts with the government. The flaw is that Kuyler could still be correct in terms of the advice given even if Kuyler’s company has not followed that advice; there could be differing circumstances, for example. The politician dismisses Kuyler’s argument without evaluating its merit as it relates to the situation at hand.

A. No. The politician merely says that everyone was right not to have been persuaded by Kuyler’s argument, but this is not the reason the argument is rejected.

B. No. There is no testimony presented here.

C. Yes. This is consistent with the discussion above.

D. No. The politician never discusses Kuyler’s reasoning; Kuyler’s argument is dismissed because Kuyler’s company does not conform to the argument made.

E. No. There is no appeal to popular opinion in the politician’s argument.

199
Q
  1. Although free international trade allows countries to
    specialize, which in turn increases productivity, such
    specialization carries risks. After all, small countries
    often rely on one or two products for the bulk of
    their exports. If those products are raw materials, the
    supply is finite and can be used up. If they are
    foodstuffs, a natural disaster can wipe out a season’s
    production overnight.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the conclusion of the argument as a whole?
    (A) Specialization within international trade
    comes with risks.
    (B) A natural disaster can destroy a whole season’s
    production overnight, devastating a small
    country’s economy.
    (C) A small country’s supply of raw materials can
    be used up in a short period.
    (D) Some countries rely on a small number of
    products for the export-based sectors of their
    economies.
    (E) When international trade is free, countries can
    specialize in what they export.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Main Point

The argument concludes that specialization in international trade carries risks. This is because small countries often rely on one or two products for the bulk of their exports. If those products are raw materials, the risk is that the finite supply may be used up; if those products are foodstuffs, the risk is that a natural disaster could wipe out a season’s production overnight.

A. Yes. This is stated in the first sentence of the argument.

B. No. This is a premise.

C. No. This is a premise.

D. No. This is a premise.

E. No. This introduces the argument, but it is not its conclusion.

200
Q
  1. Two randomly selected groups of 30 adults each were
    asked to write short stories on a particular topic. One
    group was told that the best stories would be awarded
    cash prizes, while the other group was not told of any
    prizes. Each story was evaluated by a team of judges
    who were given no indication of the group from which
    the story came. The stories submitted by those who
    thought they were competing for prizes were ranked
    on average significantly lower than the stories from
    the other group.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    explain the difference in average ranking between the
    two groups’ stories?
    (A) The cash prizes were too small to motivate an
    average adult to make a significant effort to
    produce stories of high quality.
    (B) People writing to win prizes show a greater
    than usual tendency to produce stereotypical
    stories that show little creativity.
    (C) Most adults show little originality in writing
    stories on a topic suggested by someone else.
    (D) The team of judges was biased in favor of
    stories that they judged to be more realistic.
    (E) No one explained clearly to either group what
    standards would be used in judging their
    stories.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Resolve/Explain

Two groups of adults were asked to write short stories on a particular topic. One group was told that the best stories would be awarded cash prizes, while the other was told no such thing. The stories submitted by those who had been told there would be prizes were ranked on average much lower than those from the other group. You need to find a choice that explains the difference in quality between the two groups.

A. No. This would make the paradox worse—why would one group have had significantly higher average ranking if this were true?

B. Yes. This would account for the lower average ranking of the stories written by those who thought they were competing for prizes.

C. No. This doesn’t explain the difference between the two groups; it seems to suggest that the rankings should have been comparable between the two.

D. No. This doesn’t account for the differences in average ranking, as both groups were given the same topic to write on and any bias would have been applied equally across the board.

E. No. Again, this doesn’t explain why one group’s stories were ranked significantly lower than the other’s stories, since both groups were treated equally in terms of information about judging standards.

201
Q
  1. Hernandez: I recommend that staff cars be replaced
    every four years instead of every three years.
    Three-year-old cars are still in good condition
    and this would result in big savings.
    Green: I disagree. Some of our salespeople with big
    territories wear out their cars in three years.
    Hernandez: I meant three-year-old cars subjected to
    normal use.
    In the conversation, Hernandez responds to Green’s
    objection in which one of the following ways?
    (A) by explicitly qualifying a premise used earlier
    (B) by criticizing salespeople who wear out their
    cars in three years
    (C) by disputing the accuracy of Green’s evidence
    (D) by changing the subject to the size of sales
    territories
    (E) by indicating that Green used a phrase
    ambiguously
A

Correct Answer: A

A Reasoning

Hernandez concludes that staff cars should be replaced every four years instead of every three years because three-year-old cars are still in good condition and this change would result in big savings. Green disagrees, noting that some salespeople with big territories wear out their cars in three years. Hernandez responds to Green’s objection by clarifying his reasoning, stating that he was referring to three-year-old cars subjected to normal use.

A. Yes. Hernandez qualifies his statement concerning the condition of three-year-old cars by saying that it applies to those three-year-old cars subjected to normal use.

B. No. Hernandez never criticizes anyone.

C. No. Hernandez does not challenge the accuracy of Green’s statement.

D. No. Hernandez does not discuss the size of sales territories.

E. No. Hernandez does not claim that Green used a phrase in an ambiguous manner.

202
Q
  1. Economist: As should be obvious, raising the
    minimum wage significantly would make it
    more expensive for businesses to pay workers
    for minimum-wage jobs. Therefore, businesses
    could not afford to continue to employ as
    many workers for such jobs. So raising the
    minimum wage significantly will cause an
    increase in unemployment.
    Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
    economist’s argument?
    (A) Businesses typically pass the cost of increased
    wages on to consumers without adversely
    affecting profits.
    (B) When the difference between minimum wage
    and a skilled worker’s wage is small, a greater
    percentage of a business’s employees will be
    skilled workers.
    (C) A modest increase in unemployment is
    acceptable because the current minimum
    wage is not a livable wage.
    (D) Most workers are earning more than the
    current minimum wage.
    (E) The unemployment rate has been declining
    steadily in recent years.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Weaken

The economist concludes that raising the minimum wage significantly will cause an increase in unemployment. This is because raising the minimum wage significantly makes it more expensive for businesses to pay workers for minimum-wage jobs. Hence businesses could not afford to continue to employ as many workers for such jobs. The economist assumes that there’s no way businesses could absorb this extra cost other than by laying off workers. You need to find an answer choice that contradicts this assumption.

A. Yes. This weakens the argument because it suggests that raising the minimum wage significantly does not have to result in an increase in unemployment; businesses simply pass the cost on to consumers.

B. No. This doesn’t weaken the argument, as you have no information about the current relationship between minimum wage and a skilled worker’s wage.

C. No. This is irrelevant; the argument isn’t concerned with what is acceptable in terms of increasing unemployment.

D. No. This comes close, but ultimately doesn’t weaken the argument. Even if most workers are earning more than the current minimum wage and would therefore be unaffected by the increase, it’s still possible that the economist’s prediction could come true if businesses can’t otherwise absorb the extra cost of paying their minimum-wage workers more money.

E. No. This is irrelevant; this doesn’t address the issue of whether businesses could absorb an increase in the minimum wage without laying off workers.

203
Q
  1. Scientists removed all viruses from a seawater sample
    and then measured the growth rate of the plankton
    population in the water. They expected the rate to
    increase dramatically, but the population actually got
    smaller.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    explain the unexpected result described above?
    (A) Viruses in seawater help to keep the plankton
    population below the maximum level that the
    resources in the water will support.
    (B) Plankton and viruses in seawater compete for
    some of the same nutrients.
    (C) Plankton utilize the nutrients released by the
    death of organisms killed by viruses.
    (D) The absence of viruses can facilitate the
    flourishing of bacteria that sometimes
    damage other organisms.
    (E) At any given time, a considerable portion of
    the plankton in seawater are already infected
    by viruses.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Resolve/Explain

Scientists removed all viruses from a seawater sample and then measured the growth rate of the plankton population in the water, expecting that the rate would increase. However, they found that the population actually got smaller. What would explain this result?

A. No. This doesn’t explain why, upon removal of the viruses, the plankton population decreased; this seems to suggest that it should have increased as the scientists expected.

B. No. As in choice (A), this seems to suggest that removing the viruses would have allowed the plankton population to expand.

C. Yes. This tells you that removing the viruses actually interfered with the ability of plankton to get enough nutrients, thereby explaining the decrease in the size of the population.

D. No. This isn’t strong enough. It doesn’t actually state that these bacteria did in fact flourish and that they would have affected the plankton population.

E. No. This doesn’t explain why removal of the viruses resulted in a shrinking of the plankton population if it’s common for plankton to be infected by viruses.

204
Q
  1. City council member: The Senior Guild has asked for
    a temporary exception to the ordinance
    prohibiting automobiles in municipal parks.
    Their case does appear to deserve the
    exception. However, if we grant this exception,
    we will find ourselves granting many other
    exceptions to this ordinance, some of which
    will be undeserved. Before long, we will be
    granting exceptions to all manner of other city
    ordinances. If we are to prevent anarchy in our
    city, we must deny the Senior Guild’s request.
    The city council member’s argument is most
    vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it
    (A) distorts an argument and then attacks this
    distorted argument
    (B) dismisses a claim because of its source rather
    than because of its content
    (C) presumes, without sufficient warrant, that one
    event will lead to a particular causal sequence
    of events
    (D) contains premises that contradict one another
    (E) fails to make a needed distinction between
    deserved exceptions and undeserved ones
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The city council member concludes that in order to prevent anarchy in their city, they must deny the Senior Guild’s request for a temporary exception to the ordinance prohibiting automobiles in municipal parks. This is because, although the Senior Guild’s case has merit, the city council member believes that granting one exception will lead to granting many more exceptions to this particular ordinance, some of which will be undeserved, and will ultimately result in granting exceptions to all manner of other city ordinances as well. The flaw in the argument here is that the city council member assumes that granting this one exception will necessarily result in a downward spiral of all manner of other exceptions to city ordinances; however, there’s nothing provided to support this belief.

A. No. The city council member doesn’t distort an argument and then attack it.

B. No. The decision to deny the request is not based on the source of the request.

C. Yes. The city council member assumes that granting one exception will cause many other exceptions to be granted in the future.

D. No. The premises stated here do not contradict each other.

E. No. The argument does not provide a distinction between these two types of exceptions, but this is not the flaw in the city council member’s logic.

205
Q
  1. Physician: In comparing our country with two other
    countries of roughly the same population size,
    I found that even though we face the same
    dietary, bacterial, and stress-related causes of
    ulcers as they do, prescriptions for ulcer
    medicines in all socioeconomic strata are
    much rarer here than in those two countries.
    It’s clear that we suffer significantly fewer
    ulcers, per capita, than they do.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
    the physician’s argument?
    (A) The two countries that were compared with
    the physician’s country had approximately the
    same ulcer rates as each other.
    (B) The people of the physician’s country have a
    cultural tradition of stoicism that encourages
    them to ignore physical ailments rather than
    to seek remedies for them.
    (C) Several other countries not covered in the
    physician’s comparisons have more
    prescriptions for ulcer medication than does
    the physician’s country.
    (D) A person in the physician’s country who is
    suffering from ulcers is just as likely to obtain
    a prescription for the ailment as is a person
    suffering from ulcers in one of the other two
    countries.
    (E) The physician’s country has a much better
    system for reporting the number of
    prescriptions of a given type that are obtained
    each year than is present in either of the other
    two countries.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Strengthen

The physician concludes that his country suffers significantly fewer ulcers per capita than do two other countries of roughly the same population size. This conclusion is based on the physician’s findings that even though all three countries face the same dietary, bacterial, and stress-related causes of ulcers, prescriptions for ulcer medicines in all socioeconomic strata are much rarer in his country than in the other two. The physician assumes that there are no other factors that could account for the difference in prescription rates other than fewer instances of ulcers. To strengthen this argument, you need a choice that either further bolsters the physician’s logic or that eliminates a potential alternative explanation for the lower prescription rate.

A. No. Whether the ulcer rates for the two countries to which the physician’s country is compared are similar to each other is irrelevant.

B. No. This would weaken the physician’s argument by providing an alternative explanation for the lower rate of prescriptions in the physician’s country.

C. No. Other countries are not relevant to the physician’s conclusion, which is concerned only with the three countries referred to above.

D. Yes. This strengthens the physician’s argument by showing that it is equally likely that people in all countries would seek out a prescription if they were suffering from ulcers, supporting the conclusion that the lower rate of prescriptions in the physician’s country is due to fewer occurrences of ulcers in that country.

E. No. This is irrelevant. How good the system for reporting the number of prescriptions is doesn’t tell you anything about whether the physician’s conclusion is justified.

206
Q
  1. Columnist: The failure of bicyclists to obey traffic
    regulations is a causal factor in more than one
    quarter of the traffic accidents involving
    bicycles. Since inadequate bicycle safety
    equipment is also a factor in more than a
    quarter of such accidents, bicyclists are at least
    partially responsible for more than half of the
    traffic accidents involving bicycles.
    The columnist’s reasoning is flawed in that it
    (A) presumes, without providing justification, that
    motorists are a factor in less than half of the
    traffic accidents involving bicycles
    (B) improperly infers the presence of a causal
    connection on the basis of a correlation
    (C) fails to consider the possibility that more than
    one factor may contribute to a given accident
    (D) fails to provide the source of the figures it cites
    (E) fails to consider that the severity of injuries to
    bicyclists from traffic accidents can vary
    widely
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The columnist concludes that bicyclists are at least partially responsible for more than half of the traffic accidents involving bicycles. The columnist presents two pieces of evidence for this conclusion. First, the failure of bicyclists to obey traffic regulations is a causal factor in more than a quarter of traffic accidents involving bicycles. Second, inadequate bicycle safety equipment is also a factor in more than a quarter of such accidents. However, the two causes the columnist cites aren’t mutually exclusive; it is possible to have both a failure to obey traffic regulations and inadequate bicycle safety equipment as contributors to a given accident. Therefore, it’s incorrect to assume that these two factors account for more than half of all traffic accidents involving bicycles.

A. No. The columnist never states what factors are involved in those traffic accidents involving bicyclists in which responsibility is not assigned to the bicyclist.

B. No. The columnist states that each of the two factors is a causal factor in traffic accidents involving bicycles, so there’s no confusion here between correlation and causation.

C. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.

D. No. While the columnist doesn’t cite the source of the figures, this isn’t the problem with the argument’s logic.

E. No. The varying severity of injuries to bicyclists is not relevant to the columnist’s argument.

207
Q
  1. Many vaccines create immunity to viral diseases by
    introducing a certain portion of the disease-causing
    virus’s outer coating into the body. Exposure to that
    part of a virus is as effective as exposure to the whole
    virus in stimulating production of antibodies that
    will subsequently recognize and kill the whole virus.
    To create a successful vaccine of this type, doctors
    must first isolate in the disease-causing virus a
    portion that stimulates antibody production. Now
    that a suitable portion of the virus that causes
    hepatitis E has been isolated, doctors claim they can
    produce a vaccine that will produce permanent
    immunity to that disease.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strongly
    counters the doctors’ claim?
    (A) Most of the people who contract hepatitis E
    are young adults who were probably exposed
    to the virus in childhood also.
    (B) Some laboratory animals exposed to one strain
    of the hepatitis virus developed immunity to
    all strains of the virus.
    (C) Researchers developed a successful vaccine for
    another strain of hepatitis, hepatitis B, after
    first isolating the virus that causes it.
    (D) The virus that causes hepatitis E is very
    common in some areas, so the number of
    people exposed to that virus is likely to be
    quite high in those areas.
    (E) Many children who are exposed to viruses that
    cause childhood diseases such as chicken pox
    never develop those diseases.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Weaken

Doctors claim they can produce a vaccine that will produce permanent immunity to the viral disease hepatitis E. Why? Many vaccines create immunity by introducing a certain portion of the disease-causing virus’s outer coating into the body to stimulate the production of antibodies that will subsequently recognize and kill the whole virus. A suitable portion of the virus that causes hepatitis E has now been isolated. The doctors assume that this particular method of vaccination will work to create permanent immunity; to weaken their claim, you need to look for a reason that this method may not work as planned.

A. Yes. This weakens the argument because it suggests that most people who contract hepatitis E have usually already been exposed to the virus once before and yet still later contracted the disease, implying that exposure to the virus once does not necessarily confer permanent immunity. This suggests that the vaccine the doctors claim to be able to create may not produce permanent immunity.

B. No. The argument is concerned only with whether exposure to one strain can lead to immunity to that particular strain, not to all strains, so this is irrelevant.

C. No. This is irrelevant. While the choice says researchers first isolated the virus that causes hepatitis B before they created the vaccine, that doesn’t mean the vaccine was created using the method described in the argument.

D. No. This might appear at first to weaken the doctors’ claim, but it’s not strong enough. This choice suggests that in some areas the vaccine the doctors hope to produce might not be effective because some people will have already had exposure to the virus that causes hepatitis E, but it’s still possible that a vaccine could be produced that would confer permanent immunity on those who hadn’t previously been exposed to the virus.

E. No. If anything, this would strengthen the doctors’ claim by suggesting that the method described in the argument to create a vaccine (exposure to the virus that causes a given disease) could produce permanent immunity.

208
Q
  1. Editorial: To qualify as an effective law, as opposed to
    merely an impressive declaration, a command
    must be backed up by an effective enforcement
    mechanism. That is why societies have police.
    The power of the police to enforce a society’s
    laws makes those laws effective. But there is
    currently no international police force. Hence,
    what is called “international law” is not
    effective law.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the editorial’s argument?
    (A) No one obeys a command unless mechanisms
    exist to compel obedience.
    (B) If an international police force were
    established, then so-called international law
    would become effective law.
    (C) The only difference between international law
    and the law of an individual society is the
    former’s lack of an effective enforcement
    mechanism.
    (D) The primary purpose of a police force is to
    enforce the laws of the society.
    (E) Only an international police force could
    effectively enforce international law.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The editorial concludes that what is called “international law” is not effective law. This is because to qualify as effective law, a command must be backed up by an effective enforcement mechanism. Police serve as this enforcement mechanism in any given society, thereby rendering that society’s laws effective. But there is no international police force at present. The assumption made by the editorial is that there is no other way to enforce international law other than by having an international police force.

A. No. This is too broad; you need something that specifically relates to international law.

B. No. This is backwards. The argument assumes that an international police force is necessary to making international law effective: international law effective → international police force. This choice, however, claims that an international police force is sufficient to render international law effective: international police force → international law effective.

C. No. The editorial is not focused on differences between international law and the laws of individual societies.

D. No. The editorial claims that police are necessary to enforce the laws of a society, but never assumes that enforcement is the primary purpose of a police force.

E. Yes. Try negating it if you’re not sure. If something other than an international police force could effectively enforce international law, then the editorial’s conclusion is no longer valid, which means this statement is necessary to the argument.

209
Q
  1. Art historian: More than any other genre of
    representational painting, still-life painting
    lends itself naturally to art whose goal is the
    artist’s self-expression, rather than merely the
    reflection of a preexisting external reality. This
    is because in still-life painting, the artist
    invariably chooses, modifies, and arranges the
    objects to be painted. Thus, the artist has
    considerably more control over the
    composition and subject of a still-life painting
    than over those of a landscape painting or
    portrait, for example.
    Which one of the following is most strongly
    supported by the art historian’s statements?
    (A) Landscape painting and portraiture are the
    artistic genres that lend themselves most
    naturally to the mere reflection of a
    preexisting external reality.
    (B) The only way in which artists control the
    composition and subject of a painting is by
    choosing, modifying, and arranging the
    objects to be represented in that painting.
    (C) Nonrepresentational painting does not lend
    itself as naturally as still-life painting does to
    the goal of the artist’s self-expression.
    (D) In genres of representational painting other
    than still-life painting, the artist does not
    always choose, modify, and arrange the
    objects to be painted.
    (E) When painting a portrait, artists rarely
    attempt to express themselves through the
    choice, modification, or arrangement of the
    background elements against which the
    subject of the portrait is painted.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. This is too extreme. You don’t know that landscape painting and portraiture are the artistic genres that most naturally lend themselves to the mere reflection of a preexisting external reality.

B. No. The art historian presents this as one way in which an artist controls the composition and subject of a painting, but never claims this is the only way through which an artist can achieve that control.

C. No. Nonrepresentational painting is never mentioned.

D. Yes. The last sentence of the argument states that the artist has more control over the composition and subject of a still-life painting than over those of a landscape painting or portrait. Since you are also told that in a still-life painting, the artist invariably chooses, modifies, and arranges the objects to be painted, you can conclude that in at least landscape painting and portraiture the artist does not always choose, modify, and arrange the objects to be painted.

E. No. There is not enough information about what artists do when painting a portrait to support this claim.

210
Q
  1. Food labeling regulation: Food of a type that does
    not ordinarily contain fat cannot be labeled
    “nonfat” unless most people mistakenly
    believe the food ordinarily contains fat. If most
    people mistakenly believe that a food
    ordinarily contains fat, the food may be
    labeled “nonfat” if the label also states that the
    food ordinarily contains no fat.
    Which one of the following situations violates the
    food labeling regulation?
    (A) Although most people know that bran flakes
    do not normally contain fat, Lester’s Bran
    Flakes are not labeled “nonfat.”
    (B) Although most people are aware that lasagna
    ordinarily contains fat, Lester’s Lasagna,
    which contains no fat, is not labeled “nonfat.”
    (C) Although most garlic baguettes contain fat,
    Lester’s Garlic Baguettes are labeled “nonfat.”
    (D) Although most people are aware that
    applesauce does not ordinarily contain fat,
    Lester’s Applesauce is labeled “nonfat.”
    (E) Although most people mistakenly believe that
    salsa ordinarily contains fat, the label on
    Lester’s Zesty Salsa says “This product, like all
    salsas, is nonfat.”
A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

Food that does not ordinarily contain fat can be labeled “nonfat” only if most people mistakenly believe the food ordinarily contains fat. In that case, the food can be labeled “nonfat” if the label also states that the food ordinarily contains no fat. You need to find an answer choice that violates this food labeling regulation.

A. No. This is consistent with the food labeling regulation described above.

B. No. This is consistent with the food labeling regulation described above. There is no mandate for using the “nonfat” label, only restrictions on how and when it can be used, so the lack of a “nonfat” label on a nonfat food falls within the scope of the regulation.

C. No. This does not contradict the food labeling regulation, as the regulation applies to those foods that do not ordinarily contain fat and you are told that most garlic baguettes contain fat.

D. Yes. This violates the food labeling regulation. Most people are aware that applesauce does not ordinarily contain fat, so there is no need for the “nonfat” label on Lester’s Applesauce.

E. No. This is consistent with the food labeling regulation described above. The label indicates that salsa ordinarily is nonfat.

211
Q
  1. Medical ethicist: Assuming there is a reasonable
    chance for a cure, it is acceptable to offer
    experimental treatments for a disease to
    patients who suffer from extreme symptoms of
    that disease. Such patients are best able to
    weigh a treatment’s risks against the benefits of
    a cure. Therefore, it is never acceptable to offer
    experimental treatments to patients who
    experience no extreme symptoms of the
    relevant disease.
    The flawed reasoning in which one of the following is
    most similar to the flawed reasoning in the medical
    ethicist’s argument?
    (A) Even a geological engineer with a background
    in economics can lose money investing in
    mineral extraction. So, those who are less
    knowledgeable about geology or economics
    should not expect to make money in every
    investment in mineral extraction.
    (B) One is always in a better position to judge
    whether an automobile would be worth its
    cost if one has test-driven that automobile.
    Therefore, if an automobile proves to be not
    worth its cost, it is likely that it was not
    test-driven.
    (C) Someone born and raised in a country, who
    has lived abroad and then returned, is
    exceptionally qualified to judge the merits of
    living in that country. That is why someone
    who has not lived in that country should not
    form judgments about the merits of living
    there.
    (D) One can never eliminate all of the risks of
    daily life, and even trying to avoid every risk
    in life is costly. Therefore, anyone who is
    reasonable will accept some of the risks of
    daily life.
    (E) Almost any industrial development will have
    unwelcome environmental side effects.
    Therefore, it is not worthwhile to weigh the
    costs of potential environmental side effects
    since such side effects are unavoidable.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Parallel Flaw

The medical ethicist concludes that it is never acceptable to offer experimental treatments to patients who experience no extreme symptoms of the relevant disease. This is because patients who suffer from extreme symptoms of a disease are best able to weigh the risks of an experimental treatment against the benefits of a cure. The ethicist provides no evidence to support the claim that these patients are best able to judge the risks and benefits, nor does the ethicist consider that there could be other factors to support the idea of offering experimental treatments to patients who do not experience extreme symptoms of a given disease. Note also the use of extreme language here (“best able,” “never,” “no”); you’ll need to match that in the answer choices.

A. No. This choice is not flawed.

B. No. The conclusion that the automobile was “likely” not test-driven does not match the original argument.

C. Yes. This choice contains the same flawed reasoning and extreme use of language (“exceptionally qualified,” “not,” “not”) as the original argument.

D. No. The conclusion here uses softer language (“some”) than does the conclusion of the original argument, so this doesn’t match.

E. No. This choice is flawed, but not in the same way as the original argument. Here, the conclusion is more extreme (“not worthwhile,” “unavoidable”) than the premise warrants (“almost”), which is structurally different from the original argument.

212
Q
  1. Critic: As modern methods of communication and
    transportation have continued to improve, the
    pace of life today has become faster than ever
    before. This speed has created feelings of
    impermanence and instability, making us feel
    as if we never have enough time to achieve
    what we want—or at least what we think we
    want.
    The critic’s statements most closely conform to
    which one of the following assessments?
    (A) The fast pace of modern life has made it
    difficult for people to achieve their goals.
    (B) The disadvantages of technological progress
    often outweigh the advantages.
    (C) Changes in people’s feelings about life can
    result from technological changes.
    (D) The perception of impermanence in
    contemporary life makes it more difficult for
    people to know what they want.
    (E) Changes in people’s feelings fuel the need for
    technological advancement.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Match

The critic states that as modern methods of communication and transportation have improved, the pace of life has become faster than ever before. This in turn has fostered feelings of impermanence and instability, making people feel as if there is never enough time to achieve what they want or what they think they want. You need to find a principle in the answer choices that addresses the fact that improvements in communication and transportation have led people to feel less permanence and less stability than before.

A. No. You know that the fast pace of modern life has made people feel that there isn’t enough time to achieve their goals, but nothing is said about whether it has in fact made it more difficult for people to achieve their goals.

B. No. There is no discussion of whether improvements in communication and technology outweigh feelings of impermanence and instability.

C. Yes. This is in line with the analysis above.

D. No. The critic never addresses what makes it difficult for people to know what they want.

E. No. This is backwards. Technological change has created feelings of impermanence and instability in people, not the other way around.

213
Q
  1. Consumer: If you buy a watch at a department store
    and use it only in the way it was intended to be
    used, but the watch stops working the next
    day, then the department store will refund
    your money. So by this very reasonable
    standard, Bingham’s Jewelry Store should give
    me a refund even though they themselves are
    not a department store, since the watch I
    bought from them stopped working the very
    next day.
    The consumer’s argument relies on the assumption
    that
    (A) one should not sell something unless one
    expects that it will function in the way it was
    originally designed to function
    (B) a watch bought at a department store and a
    watch bought at Bingham’s Jewelry Store can
    both be expected to keep working for about
    the same length of time if each is used only as
    it was intended to be used
    (C) a seller should refund the money that was paid
    for a product if the product does not perform
    as the purchaser expected it to perform
    (D) the consumer did not use the watch in a way
    contrary to the way it was intended to be used
    (E) the watch that was purchased from Bingham’s
    Jewelry Store was not a new watch
A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The consumer concludes that Bingham’s Jewelry Store, even though it is not a department store, should provide a refund. Why? The watch the consumer purchased from Bingham’s stopped working the very next day. If you buy a watch at a department store and use it only in the way it was intended to be used, the department store will refund your money if the watch stops working the next day. The gap here is in how the watch purchased by the consumer was used: In order for the consumer’s argument to be valid, the watch must have been used only in the way it was intended to be used.

A. No. This is focused on the seller, whereas the consumer’s concern is for the purchaser, so this choice is not relevant.

B. No. How long either watch would work if used only as intended is beyond the scope of the argument, which is concerned only with what compensation there would be if either watch stopped working the day after it was purchased.

C. No. What expectations a purchaser may have of a watch are secondary to whether the watch was used only as it was intended to be used.

D. Yes. This is a paraphrase of the gap stated above.

E. No. This is irrelevant; the consumer never makes a distinction between new and old watches.

214
Q
  1. A study found that patients referred by their doctors to
    psychotherapists practicing a new experimental form
    of therapy made more progress with respect to their
    problems than those referred to psychotherapists
    practicing traditional forms of therapy. Therapists
    practicing the new form of therapy, therefore, are more
    effective than therapists practicing traditional forms.
    Which one of the following most accurately describes
    a flaw in the argument?
    (A) It ignores the possibility that therapists trained in
    traditional forms of therapy use the same
    techniques in treating their patients as therapists
    trained in the new form of therapy do.
    (B) It ignores the possibility that the patients
    referred to therapists practicing the new form
    of therapy had problems more amenable to
    treatment than did those referred to
    therapists practicing traditional forms.
    (C) It presumes, without providing justification,
    that any psychotherapist trained in
    traditional forms of therapy is untrained in
    the new form of therapy.
    (D) It ignores the possibility that therapists
    practicing the new form of therapy
    systematically differ from therapists
    practicing traditional forms of therapy with
    regard to some personality attribute relevant
    to effective treatment.
    (E) It presumes, without providing justification, that
    the personal rapport between therapist and
    patient has no influence on the effectiveness of
    the treatment the patient receives.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The argument concludes that therapists practicing a new experimental form of therapy are more effective than therapists practicing traditional forms. This is because a study found that patients who were referred to psychotherapists practicing the new form made more progress with respect to their problems than did those referred to psychotherapists practicing traditional forms. The flaw here is that there could be other reasons those patients made more progress than others. Those patients’ progress may not be the result of therapists practicing a new form of therapy, so those therapists may not be more effective than those practicing traditional forms.

A. No. The argument never discusses whether therapists trained in the new form of therapy use the same techniques, but this isn’t the problem with the argument’s logic.

B. Yes. This suggests that it was the nature of the patient’s problem, rather than the form of therapy practiced by the therapist, that is responsible for the differing levels of progress.

C. No. The argument does not discuss whether psychotherapists trained in traditional forms of therapy have also trained in the new form of therapy.

D. No. The argument doesn’t address this, but that isn’t the flaw in the argument’s reasoning. If there were some systematic difference with respect to a relevant personality attribute, this might actually lend credence to the idea that those therapists practicing the new form of therapy are more effective.

E. No. The argument does not assume that personal rapport has no influence; it merely says that the new form of therapy is what accounts for the difference in progress.

215
Q
  1. Essayist: One of the drawbacks of extreme personal
    and political freedom is that free choices are
    often made for the worst. To expect people to
    thrive when they are given the freedom to
    make unwise decisions is frequently
    unrealistic. Once people see the destructive
    consequences of extreme freedom, they may
    prefer to establish totalitarian political regimes
    that allow virtually no freedom. Thus, one
    should not support political systems that allow
    extreme freedom.
    Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
    helps to justify the essayist’s reasoning?
    (A) One should not support any political system
    that will inevitably lead to the establishment
    of a totalitarian political regime.
    (B) One should not expect everyone to thrive even
    in a political system that maximizes people’s
    freedom in the long run.
    (C) One should support only those political
    systems that give people the freedom to make
    wise choices.
    (D) One should not support any political system
    whose destructive consequences could lead
    people to prefer totalitarian political regimes.
    (E) One should not support any political system
    that is based on unrealistic expectations
    about people’s behavior under that system.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Strengthen

The essayist concludes that one should not support political systems that allow extreme freedom. This is because when people have extreme personal and political freedom, they often make choices for the worst and it is unrealistic to expect people to thrive when they are free to make such unwise choices. Once people see the destructive consequences of extreme freedom, it is possible that they may prefer to establish totalitarian political regimes that allow virtually no freedom. You need an answer choice that supports the essayist’s conclusion that political systems that allow extreme freedom should not be supported.

A. No. This is too strong. The essayist says that people “may prefer” to establish a totalitarian regime, not that such a regime will inevitably be established.

B. No. This is not relevant to the essayist’s conclusion, which does not discuss whether everyone should be expected to thrive.

C. No. The essayist’s conclusion says nothing about what sort of political systems should be supported; it deals only with what sort of political system should not be supported.

D. Yes. This is in line with the essayist’s reasoning, as noted above.

E. No. This is not relevant to the essayist’s conclusion, which is concerned with political systems that could lead people to desire a more restrictive form of political system.

216
Q
  1. Ethicist: Every moral action is the keeping of an
    agreement, and keeping an agreement is
    nothing more than an act of securing mutual
    benefit. Clearly, however, not all instances of
    agreement-keeping are moral actions.
    Therefore, some acts of securing mutual
    benefit are not moral actions.
    The pattern of reasoning in which one of the
    following arguments is most similar to that in the
    ethicist’s argument?
    (A) All calculators are kinds of computers, and all
    computers are devices for automated
    reasoning. However, not all devices for
    automated reasoning are calculators.
    Therefore, some devices for automated
    reasoning are not computers.
    (B) All exercise is beneficial, and all things that are
    beneficial promote health. However, not all
    things that are beneficial are forms of
    exercise. Therefore, some exercise does not
    promote health.
    (C) All metaphors are comparisons, and not all
    comparisons are surprising. However, all
    metaphors are surprising. Therefore, some
    comparisons are not metaphors.
    (D) All architecture is design and all design is art.
    However, not all design is architecture.
    Therefore, some art is not design.
    (E) All books are texts, and all texts are
    documents. However, not all texts are books.
    Therefore, some documents are not books.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Parallel

Diagram the argument. Moral action → keeping of an agreement → securing mutual benefit. Not all agreement-keeping actions are moral actions, so then some acts of securing mutual benefit are not moral actions. The conclusion here essentially reinforces the idea that you can’t read against the direction of the arrows: Knowing that an action is an agreement-keeping action does not imply that it is a moral one, so while the act of keeping an agreement does have to be an act of securing mutual benefit, that same action could be, but does not have to be, a moral action.

A. No. Calculator → computer → device for automated reasoning. Not all devices for automated reasoning are calculators, so some devices for automated reasoning are not computers. This doesn’t have the same structure as the original argument, which places emphasis in the conclusion on the element all the way to the left of the arrows, which in this case would be the calculator (moral action in the original argument).

B. No. Exercise → beneficial → promote health. Not all beneficial things are forms of exercise, so some exercise does not promote health. This is flawed; according to the premises, all exercise must promote health.

C. No. Metaphor → comparison and surprising. This doesn’t match the argument above.

D. No. Architecture → design → art. Not all design is architecture, so some art is not design. This is close, but the conclusion doesn’t match up. For the logic to be the same, the conclusion would need to assert that some art is not architecture.

E. Yes. This is the same logic as the argument above. Book → text → document. Not all texts are books (because you can’t read against the arrow), but all texts are documents; therefore, some documents are not books.

217
Q
  1. Sociologist: The more technologically advanced a
    society is, the more marked its members’
    resistance to technological innovations. This is
    not surprising, because the more technologically
    advanced a society is, the more aware its members
    are of technology’s drawbacks. Specifically,
    people realize that sophisticated technologies
    deeply affect the quality of human relations.
    The claim that the more technologically advanced a
    society is, the more aware its members are of
    technology’s drawbacks plays which one of the
    following roles in the sociologist’s argument?
    (A) It is a conclusion supported by the claim that
    people realize that sophisticated technologies
    deeply affect the quality of human relations.
    (B) It is offered as an explanation of why people’s
    resistance to technological innovations is
    more marked the more technologically
    advanced the society in which they live is.
    (C) It is a premise in support of the claim that the
    quality of human relations in technologically
    advanced societies is extremely poor.
    (D) It is a generalization based on the claim that
    the more people resist technological
    innovations, the more difficult it is for them
    to adjust to those innovations.
    (E) It is an example presented to illustrate the
    claim that resistance to technological
    innovations deeply affects the quality of
    human relations.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Reasoning

The sociologist concludes that the more technologically advanced a society is, the more marked its members’ resistance to technological innovations. This is because the more technologically advanced a society is, the more aware its members are of technology’s drawbacks; people realize that sophisticated technologies deeply affect the quality of human relations. The statement that is asked about in the question stem, therefore, is one of the sociologist’s premises.

A. No. The statement is a premise, not a conclusion.

B. Yes. This is in line with the analysis above.

C. No. The sociologist never states that the quality of human relations in technologically advanced societies is extremely poor.

D. No. The sociologist never claims that the more people resist technological innovations, the more difficult it is for them to adjust to those innovations.

E. No. The statement does not serve as an example and the sociologist never claims that resistance to technological innovations deeply affects the quality of human relations.

218
Q
  1. To win democratic elections that are not fully
    subsidized by the government, nonwealthy candidates
    must be supported by wealthy patrons. This makes
    plausible the belief that these candidates will
    compromise their views to win that support. But since
    the wealthy are dispersed among the various political
    parties in roughly equal proportion to their percentage
    in the overall population, this belief is false.
    The argument is vulnerable to criticism on the
    grounds that it fails to consider that
    (A) the primary function of political parties in
    democracies whose governments do not
    subsidize elections might not be to provide a
    means of negating the influence of wealth on
    elections
    (B) in democracies in which elections are not fully
    subsidized by the government, positions
    endorsed by political parties might be much
    less varied than the positions taken by
    candidates
    (C) in democracies, government-subsidized
    elections ensure that the views expressed by
    the people who run for office might not be
    overly influenced by the opinions of the
    wealthiest people in those countries
    (D) in democracies in which elections are not fully
    subsidized by the government, it might be no
    easier for a wealthy person to win an election
    than it is for a nonwealthy person to win an
    election
    (E) a democracy in which candidates do not
    compromise their views in order to be elected
    to office might have other flaws
A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The argument concludes that it is false to believe that nonwealthy candidates supported by wealthy patrons in democratic elections not fully subsidized by the government will compromise their views to win such support. Why? The wealthy are dispersed among the various political parties in roughly equal proportion to their percentage in the overall population. The flaw in this reasoning is that you can’t presume that the views of the candidates necessarily align with those of the wealthy people who support them, regardless of how those supporters are distributed among political parties. A candidate’s views could just as easily not align with any political party and therefore not align with any wealthy supporter, necessitating that the candidate compromise his or her views.

A. No. The primary function of political parties is not relevant to the argument.

B. Yes. This paraphrases the problem with the argument noted above.

C. No. This argument is concerned with democracies in which elections are not fully subsidized by the government, while this choice is focused on government-subsidized elections.

D. No. The ability of a wealthy person to win an election is not relevant to the argument, which is focused on nonwealthy candidates.

E. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned with whether candidates might have to compromise their views in order to be elected; it claims they do not need to. Flaws that might be found in a democracy in which candidates do not compromise their views in order to be elected constitute a separate issue

219
Q
  1. In modern “brushless” car washes, cloth strips called
    mitters have replaced brushes. Mitters are easier on
    most cars’ finishes than brushes are. This is especially
    important with the new clear-coat finishes found on
    many cars today, which are more easily scratched
    than older finishes are.
    Which one of the following is most strongly
    supported by the statements above, if those
    statements are true?
    (A) When car washes all used brushes rather than
    mitters, there were more cars on the road
    with scratched finishes than there are today.
    (B) Modern “brushless” car washes were
    introduced as a direct response to the use of
    clear-coat finishes on cars.
    (C) Modern “brushless” car washes usually do not
    produce visible scratches on cars with older
    finishes.
    (D) Brushes are more effective than mitters and
    are preferred for cleaning cars with older
    finishes.
    (E) More cars in use today have clear-coat finishes
    rather than older finishes.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. The argument says that the new clear-coat finishes are more easily scratched than are older finishes and that mitters are easier on most cars’ finishes than are brushes. However, you don’t know that in the past when all car washes used brushes, more cars had scratched finishes. You don’t have enough information to know how much cars with older finishes were prone to scratching by brushes.

B. No. This choice goes too far. From the argument, you don’t know specifically why modern “brushless” car washes were introduced.

C. Yes. You are told that the new clear-coat finishes are more easily scratched than are older finishes and that mitters are easier on most cars’ finishes than are brushes. Therefore you can conclude that modern “brushless” car washes, which use mitters, usually do not produce visible scratches on cars with older finishes. Note, too, the safe language here (“usually”), which leaves some wiggle room for exceptions.

D. No. The argument tells you nothing about the relative effectiveness of brushes (as opposed to mitters).

E. No. The argument does not state that more cars today have clear-coat finishes than older finishes; you know only that there are many cars today that do have clear-coat finishes.

220
Q
  1. It is widely believed that lancelets—small, primitive
    sea animals—do not have hearts. Each lancelet has a
    contracting vessel, but this vessel is considered an
    artery rather than a heart. However, this vessel is
    indeed a heart. After all, it strongly resembles the
    structure of the heart of certain other sea animals.
    Moreover, the muscular contractions in the lancelet’s
    vessel closely resemble the muscular contractions of
    other animals’ hearts.
    The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which
    one of the following is assumed?
    (A) Only animals that have contracting vessels
    have hearts.
    (B) Some primitive animals other than lancelets
    have what is widely held to be a heart.
    (C) A vessel whose structure and actions closely
    resemble those of other animal hearts is a
    heart.
    (D) For a vessel in an animal to be properly
    considered a heart, that vessel must undergo
    muscular contractions.
    (E) No animal that has a heart lacks an artery
A

Correct Answer: C

C Sufficient Assumption

The argument concludes that, contrary to what is widely believed, lancelets, which are small, primitive sea animals, do have hearts. This is because the contracting vessel that all lancelets have strongly resembles the structure of the heart of certain other sea animals. Moreover, the muscular contractions in the lancelet’s vessel closely resemble the muscular contractions of other animals’ hearts. The argument makes an analogy assumption: It’s valid to draw conclusions about the lancelet’s vessel being a heart based on how well it compares to other animals’ hearts in terms of structure and muscular contractions. You need an answer choice that confirms this comparison’s validity.

A. No. This doesn’t focus on the comparison made in the argument.

B. No. Again, this doesn’t focus on the specific nature of the comparison being made in the argument.

C. Yes. This tells you that a vessel whose structure and actions resemble those of other animals’ hearts can legitimately be considered a heart.

D. No. This doesn’t address whether the comparison made in the argument is validly drawn. You already know the lancelet has a contracting vessel; the issue is whether this vessel can be considered a heart based on a comparison between it and other animals’ hearts.

E. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned with whether an animal can be considered to have a heart, not whether an animal can have a heart without an artery.

221
Q
  1. Manager: I recommend that our company reconsider
    the decision to completely abandon our
    allegedly difficult-to-use computer software
    and replace it companywide with a new
    software package advertised as more flexible
    and easier to use. Several other companies in
    our region officially replaced the software we
    currently use with the new package, and while
    their employees can all use the new software,
    unofficially many continue to use their former
    software as much as possible.
    Which one of the following is most strongly
    supported by the manager’s statements?
    (A) The current company software is as flexible as
    the proposed new software package.
    (B) The familiarity that employees have with a
    computer software package is a more
    important consideration in selecting software
    than flexibility or initial ease of use.
    (C) The employees of the manager’s company
    would find that the new software package
    lacks some of the capabilities of the present
    software.
    (D) Adopting the new software package would
    create two classes of employees, those who
    can use it and those who cannot.
    (E) Many of the employees in the manager’s
    company would not prefer the new software
    package to the software currently in use.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

Pick the answer best supported by the passage.

A. No. You are never told that the current company software is as flexible as the proposed new software package.

B. No. Familiarity is never discussed. You don’t know why employees at other companies unofficially continue to use the old software as much as possible.

C. No. The capabilities of the new software package are never discussed.

D. No. The manager never mentions the idea of creating two classes of employees.

E. Yes. This is supported by the last sentence of the argument, in which the manager notes that employees at other companies who have officially adopted the new software unofficially continue to use the old software, and by the first sentence of the argument, in which the manager advocates not completely abandoning the software currently in use at the company.

222
Q
  1. Commentator: Although the present freshwater
    supply is adequate for today’s patterns of water
    use, the human population will increase
    substantially over the next few decades,
    drastically increasing the need for freshwater.
    Hence, restrictions on water use will be
    necessary to meet the freshwater needs of
    humankind in the not-too-distant future.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the argument?
    (A) Humans will adapt to restrictions on the use of
    water without resorting to wasteful use of
    other natural resources.
    (B) The total supply of freshwater has not
    diminished in recent years.
    (C) The freshwater supply will not increase
    sufficiently to meet the increased needs of
    humankind.
    (D) No attempt to synthesize water will have an
    appreciable effect on the quantity of
    freshwater available.
    (E) No water conservation measure previously
    attempted yielded an increase in the supply of
    freshwater available for human use.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that restrictions on water use will be necessary to meet the freshwater needs of humankind in the not-too-distant future. This is based on the fact that while the water supply is currently adequate, the population will increase over the next few decades. The assumption is that the current water supply will continue to be the water supply in the future.

A. No. Other natural resources are irrelevant to the argument.

B. No. This strengthens the conclusion somewhat, but is not necessary for the conclusion to be true. Negating this answer choice doesn’t necessarily hurt the conclusion.

C. Yes. If you negate the answer choice, it says that the freshwater supply WILL increase to meet future demands. This invalidates the conclusion, so this choice must be necessary.

D. No. Synthesizing water is irrelevant to the argument.

E. No. The commentator does not seek to increase the freshwater supply; rather, he aims to decrease water consumption. Therefore, this choice is irrelevant.

223
Q
  1. Psychologist: The best way to recall a certain word or
    name that one is having trouble remembering
    is to occupy one’s mind with other things,
    since often the more we strive to remember a
    certain word or name that we can’t think of,
    the less likely it becomes that the word will
    come to mind.
    The principle that underlies the psychologist’s
    argument underlies which one of the following
    arguments?
    (A) Often, the best way to achieve happiness is to
    pursue other things besides wealth and fame,
    for there are wealthy and famous people who
    are not particularly happy, which suggests
    that true happiness does not consist in wealth
    and fame.
    (B) The best way to succeed in writing a long
    document is not to think about how much is
    left to write but only about the current
    paragraph, since on many occasions thinking
    about what remains to be done will be so
    discouraging that the writer will be tempted
    to abandon the project.
    (C) The best way to overcome a serious mistake is
    to continue on confidently as though all is
    well. After all, one can overcome a serious
    mistake by succeeding in new challenges, and
    dwelling on one’s errors usually distracts
    one’s mind from new challenges.
    (D) The best way to fall asleep quickly is to engage
    in some mental diversion like counting sheep,
    because frequently the more one concentrates
    on falling asleep the lower the chance of
    falling asleep quickly.
    (E) The best way to cope with sorrow or grief is to
    turn one’s attention to those who are
    experiencing even greater hardship, for in
    many circumstances this will make our own
    troubles seem bearable by comparison.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

The psychologist claims that the best way to recall a word or name is to stop trying to think about it.

A. No. The core of this situation is that one should stop trying in order to achieve the result. This answer choice does not deal with this.

B. No. This choice deals with how to avoid dwelling on the size of a project by dividing it into small bits, which doesn’t match the principle given in the argument.

C. No. This says one should ignore mistakes, which doesn’t match the psychologist’s principle.

D. Yes. Counting sheep is doing something other than trying to fall asleep, which the answer choice claims will make you fall asleep faster. This matches the stated principle.

E. No. This tells you to focus on people worse off than you are to make yourself feel better. This doesn’t match the psychologist’s principle.

224
Q
  1. Letter to the editor: The Planning Department
    budget increased from $100,000 in 2001 to
    $524,000 for this year. However, this does not
    justify your conclusion in yesterday’s editorial
    that the department now spends five times as
    much money as it did in 2001 to perform the
    same duties.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    support the claim made in the letter regarding the
    justification of the editorial’s conclusion?
    (A) Departments other than the Planning
    Department have had much larger budget
    increases since 2001.
    (B) Since 2001, the Planning Department has
    dramatically reduced its spending on
    overtime pay.
    (C) In some years between 2001 and this year, the
    Planning Department budget did not
    increase.
    (D) The budget figures used in the original
    editorial were adjusted for inflation.
    (E) A restructuring act, passed in 2003, broadened
    the duties of the Planning Department.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Strengthen

The argument concludes that the conclusion drawn in the editorial (the Planning Department now spends five times as much money as it did in 2001 to perform the same duties) is not justified. There isn’t much evidence that supports the letter-writer’s argument, and the only evidence used to support the editorial’s claim is that the budget has increased from 2001 to now. The editorial assumes that the Planning Department has the same duties it had in 2001. To justify the position of the letter writer, then, you need a choice that essentially claims those duties have somehow changed since 2001.

A. No. Other departments are irrelevant.

B. No. If this statement were true, it is possible that overall spending could have decreased as well, but then it’s unlikely that their budget would have increased fivefold if they were managing to cut spending.

C. No. This is irrelevant. These are the only two years you know about, and for all you know “this year” could be 2002.

D. No. This is irrelevant because the department still had a massive budget increase.

E. Yes. This says that the Planning Department’s duties have been increased, which would justify a larger budget and thus strengthen the position expressed in the letter to the editor.

225
Q
  1. At mock trials in which jury instructions were given
    in technical legal jargon, jury verdicts tended to
    mirror the judge’s own opinions. Jurors had become
    aware of the judge’s nonverbal behavior: facial
    expressions, body movements, tone of voice. Jurors
    who viewed the same case but were given instruction
    in clear, nontechnical language, however, were
    comparatively more likely to return verdicts at odds
    with the judge’s opinion.
    Which one of the following is best illustrated by the
    example described above?
    (A) Technical language tends to be more precise
    than nontechnical language.
    (B) A person’s influence is proportional to that
    person’s perceived status.
    (C) Nonverbal behavior is not an effective means
    of communication.
    (D) Real trials are better suited for
    experimentation than are mock trials.
    (E) The way in which a judge instructs a jury can
    influence the jury’s verdict.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Principle Match

The argument tells you that when a jury is given instructions using technical jargon, jurors tended to side with the judge’s opinion. Conversely, when given instructions in nontechnical language, they tended to go against the judge. This suggests that how jurors are given instructions affects the decision they make.

A. No. The argument does not pass judgment on which opinion was more correct, so which set of instructions is more precise is irrelevant.

B. No. It doesn’t seem likely that the judge’s status would change depending on whether he or she gave technical or nontechnical instructions; thus the judge’s influence should not change, either.

C. No. The nonverbal behavior the judge exhibited to the jury that received technical instructions seemed very effective.

D. No. The argument discusses only the results of mock trials, so you have no way of knowing this.

E. Yes. This restates what was stated above: The delivery of the instructions affected the jury.

226
Q
  1. Doctor: While a few alternative medicines have
    dangerous side effects, some, such as many
    herbs, have been proven safe to consume.
    Thus, though there is little firm evidence of
    medicinal effect, advocates of these herbs as
    remedies for serious illnesses should always be
    allowed to prescribe them, since their patients
    will not be harmed, and might be helped, by
    the use of these products.
    Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
    weakens the doctor’s argument?
    (A) Many practitioners and patients neglect more
    effective conventional medicines in favor of
    herbal remedies.
    (B) Many herbal remedies are marketed with
    claims of proven effectiveness when in fact
    their effectiveness is unproven.
    (C) Some patients may have allergic reactions to
    certain medicines that have been tolerated by
    other patients.
    (D) The vast majority of purveyors of alternative
    medicines are driven as much by the profit
    motive as by a regard for their patients’
    health.
    (E) Any pain relief or other benefits of many herbs
    have been proven to derive entirely from
    patients’ belief in the remedy, rather than
    from its biochemical properties.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Weaken

The argument concludes that while there is little firm evidence of medicinal effect, people should always be allowed to prescribe herbal remedies. The evidence is that the patient will not be harmed and may be helped by herbal alternative medicines. The argument assumes that there are no other considerations other than the effectiveness of the remedy itself.

A. Yes. If a patient forgoes effective conventional treatment in favor of herbal remedies, this could definitely bring about negative consequences. Therefore this choice weakens the doctor’s argument.

B. No. The argument already claims that there is little firm evidence of medicinal effect. Truth in advertising is irrelevant.

C. No. The doctor is talking only about alternative medicines; this answer choice broadens the focus to all medicines, so it is irrelevant.

D. No. The motives of the purveyors of alternative medicines are irrelevant.

E. No. Whether the benefits are real or derive from a placebo effect is irrelevant.

227
Q
  1. When a nation is on the brink of financial crisis, its
    government does not violate free-market principles
    if, in order to prevent economic collapse, it limits the
    extent to which foreign investors and lenders can
    withdraw their money. After all, the right to free
    speech does not include the right to shout “Fire!” in a
    crowded theatre, and the harm done as investors and
    lenders rush madly to get their money out before
    everyone else does can be just as real as the harm
    resulting from a stampede in a theatre.
    The argument does which one of the following?
    (A) tries to show that a set of principles is limited
    in a specific way by using an analogy to a
    similar principle that is limited in a similar
    way
    (B) infers a claim by arguing that the truth of that
    claim would best explain observed facts
    (C) presents numerous experimental results as
    evidence for a general principle
    (D) attempts to demonstrate that an explanation
    of a phenomenon is flawed by showing that it
    fails to explain a particular instance of that
    phenomenon
    (E) applies an empirical generalization to reach a
    conclusion about a particular case
A

Correct Answer: A

A Reasoning

This argument says that government does not violate free-market principles by imposing certain limitations on transactions if it does so in order to prevent economic collapse. As support for this conclusion, the argument uses the analogy of curtailing freedom of speech in certain appropriate situations.

A. Yes. This choice matches the argument: two sets of principles, each limited in its own way under certain circumstances.

B. No. There are no observed facts given in the argument.

C. No. There are no experimental results given in the argument.

D. No. The argument doesn’t claim that there is a flaw in an explanation of a phenomenon.

E. No. The entire scenario is a generalization; there is no particular case given.

228
Q
  1. Although many political candidates object to being
    made the target of advertising designed to cast them
    in an adverse light, such advertising actually benefits
    its targets because most elections have been won by
    candidates who were the targets of that kind of
    advertising.
    The pattern of flawed reasoning in the argument
    most closely parallels that in which one of the
    following?
    (A) Although many people dislike physical
    exercise, they should exercise because it is a
    good way to improve their overall health.
    (B) Although many actors dislike harsh reviews of
    their work, such reviews actually help their
    careers because most of the really prestigious
    acting awards have gone to actors who have
    had performances of theirs reviewed harshly.
    (C) Although many students dislike studying, it
    must be a good way to achieve academic
    success because most students who study pass
    their courses.
    (D) Although many film critics dislike horror
    films, such films are bound to be successful
    because a large number of people are eager to
    attend them.
    (E) Although many people dislike feeling sleepy as
    a result of staying up late the previous night,
    such sleepiness must be acceptable to those
    who experience it because most people who
    stay up late enjoy doing so.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Parallel Flaw

The argument attempts to claim that being the target of a smear campaign can actually benefit a candidate because most elections have been won by candidates who have been attacked via advertising. This is a case in which correlation does not equal causation: The author fails to consider that those candidates may have won elections despite, not because of, these negative attacks.

A. No. This choice displays logical reasoning.

B. Yes. This matches the flaw in the original argument. Many award-winning actors have received negative reviews at some point in their careers, but that doesn’t mean those negative reviews caused them to win awards.

C. No. This is fairly logical reasoning.

D. No. This choice doesn’t display the same flaw as the original argument; it doesn’t attempt to claim that the critics’ dislike of horror films is what causes those films to be successful.

E. No. This choice doesn’t display the same flawed causal assumption as the original argument.

229
Q
  1. Working residents of Springfield live, on average,
    farther from their workplaces than do working
    residents of Rorchester. Thus, one would expect that
    the demand for public transportation would be
    greater in Springfield than in Rorchester. However,
    Springfield has only half as many bus routes as
    Rorchester.
    Each of the following, if true, contributes to a
    resolution of the apparent discrepancy described
    above EXCEPT:
    (A) Three-fourths of the Springfield workforce is
    employed at the same factory outside the city
    limits.
    (B) The average number of cars per household is
    higher in Springfield than in Rorchester.
    (C) Rorchester has fewer railway lines than
    Springfield.
    (D) Buses in Springfield run more frequently and
    on longer routes than in Rorchester.
    (E) Springfield has a larger population than
    Rorchester does.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: Residents of Springfield live farther away from work than those of Rorchester, so you would expect a greater demand for public transportation in Springfield. Fact 2: Springfield has half as many bus routes as Rorchester.

A. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. If the majority of the workforce is employed outside the city limits at the same factory, then it makes sense that there wouldn’t be as many bus routes, as most of the workforce would be taking the same routes to work. And public transportation might not extend beyond the city limits, either.

B. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. If there are more car owners in Springfield, it makes sense that there wouldn’t be as great a need for buses.

C. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. Adding another form of public transportation to the equation might explain why Springfield has fewer bus routes.

D. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. Fact 2 talks only about the number of bus routes. This choice suggests that it is possible for Springfield to have fewer routes yet provide equal coverage.

E. Yes. If anything, this choice exacerbates the contradiction because you would expect a larger population to need more bus routes, not fewer.

230
Q
  1. People who need to reduce their intake of fat and to
    consume fewer calories often turn to fat substitutes,
    especially those with zero calories such as N5. But
    studies indicate that N5 is of no use to such people.
    Subjects who ate foods prepared with N5 almost
    invariably reported feeling hungrier afterwards than
    after eating foods prepared with real fat and
    consequently they ate more, quickly making up for
    the calories initially saved by using N5.
    The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
    criticism on the grounds that the argument fails to
    consider the possibility that
    (A) many foods cannot be prepared with N5
    (B) N5 has mild but unpleasant side effects
    (C) not everyone who eats foods prepared with N5
    pays attention to caloric intake
    (D) people who know N5 contains zero calories
    tend to eat more foods prepared with N5 than
    do people who are unaware that N5 is caloriefree
    (E) the total fat intake of people who eat foods
    prepared with N5 tends to decrease even if
    their caloric intake does not
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The argument concludes that the zero-calorie fat substitute N5 is of no use to people trying to reduce their intake of fat and calories. This is because people who ate foods prepared with N5 ate more food, making up for the calories initially saved by using N5. The argument ignores the fact that half of the goal is still met with N5, namely, reducing fat intake; the phrase “of no use” in the argument’s conclusion is too strong.Best restaurants near me

A. No. How many foods can or cannot be prepared with N5 is irrelevant.

B. No. The side effects of N5 are irrelevant to the argument.

C. No. Whether those who consume N5 pay attention to caloric intake does not seem to matter.

D. No. While possibly a true statement, this is not the flaw in the argument’s reasoning because it doesn’t deal with fat intake.

E. Yes. This choice tells you that N5 is not completely useless because it solves part of the problem: It reduces fat intake.

231
Q
  1. Music historian: Some critics lament the fact that
    impoverished postwar recording studios forced
    early bebop musicians to record extremely
    short solos, thus leaving a misleading record of
    their music. But these musicians’ beautifully
    concise playing makes the recordings superb
    artistic works instead of mere representations
    of their live solos. Furthermore, the
    conciseness characteristic of early bebop
    musicians’ recordings fostered a compactness
    in their subsequent live playing, which the
    playing of the next generation lacks.
    The music historian’s statements, if true, most
    strongly support which one of the following?
    (A) Representations of live solos generally are not
    valuable artistic works.
    (B) The difficult postwar recording conditions had
    some beneficial consequences for bebop.
    (C) Short bebop recordings are always superior to
    longer ones.
    (D) The music of the generation immediately
    following early bebop is of lower overall
    quality than early bebop.
    (E) Musicians will not record extremely short
    solos unless difficult recording conditions
    force them to do so.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

The music historian claims that the lamentations of some critics are not justified because the things they do not like about postwar bebop recordings can actually be viewed as positives.

A. No. The argument states that they are not only representations of live solos, but also superb artistic works.

B. Yes. This choice fits the music historian’s assertion that the critics are wrong.

C. No. The use of the word “always” is too extreme.

D. No. The music historian doesn’t claim the next generation’s music is of lower overall quality, only that those musicians lack the compactness in live playing that early bebop musicians possessed.

E. No. You have no way of knowing whether difficult recording conditions are a necessary component of short solos, only that it happened in this particular case.

232
Q
  1. Recent studies indicate a correlation between damage
    to human chromosome number six and adult
    schizophrenia. We know, however, that there are
    people without damage to this chromosome who
    develop adult schizophrenia and that some people
    with damage to chromosome number six do not
    develop adult schizophrenia. So there is no causal
    connection between damage to human chromosome
    number six and adult schizophrenia.
    Which one of the following most accurately describes
    a reasoning flaw in the argument above?
    (A) The argument ignores the possibility that
    some but not all types of damage to
    chromosome number six lead to
    schizophrenia.
    (B) The argument presumes, without providing
    evidence, that schizophrenia is caused solely
    by chromosomal damage.
    (C) The argument makes a generalization based on
    an unrepresentative sample population.
    (D) The argument mistakes a cause for an effect.
    (E) The argument presumes, without providing
    warrant, that correlation implies causation.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

The argument concludes that there is no causal connection between damage to human chromosome number six and adult schizophrenia. The reason for this assertion is that while a recent study found a correlation between the two, there are people who have damage to the chromosome who do not develop schizophrenia and people who have schizophrenia whose chromosome is undamaged. The flaw in this argument is that the term “damage” is fairly broad. It could be that the extent of the damage could be a factor in whether a person develops schizophrenia, a possibility that the extreme language of the conclusion doesn’t allow for.

A. Yes. If only some types of damage to chromosome number six can cause schizophrenia, this would explain why some people have damage to the chromosome but not schizophrenia. This choice addresses the flaw in the argument.

B. No. The argument never claims chromosomal damage is the sole cause of schizophrenia. In fact, the argument disputes this, since you are told that some people have schizophrenia yet have no damage to chromosome number six.

C. No. There is no reason to doubt the representativeness of the sample used in this argument.

D. No. The argument does not offer a cause; it merely concludes that damage to the chromosome is not the cause. Thus, the argument does not mistake a cause for an effect.

E. No. The argument claims that in this case correlation does not imply causation, so this choice is backwards.

233
Q
  1. City councilperson: Many city residents oppose the
    city art commission’s proposed purchase of an
    unusual stone edifice, on the grounds that art
    critics are divided over whether the edifice
    really qualifies as art. But I argue that the
    purpose of art is to cause experts to debate
    ideas, including ideas about what constitutes
    art itself. Since the edifice has caused experts
    to debate what constitutes art itself, it does
    qualify as art.
    Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
    conclusion of the city councilperson’s argument to be
    properly inferred?
    (A) Nothing qualifies as art unless it causes debate
    among experts.
    (B) If an object causes debate among experts, no
    expert can be certain whether that object
    qualifies as art.
    (C) The purchase of an object that fulfills the
    purpose of art should not be opposed.
    (D) Any object that fulfills the purpose of art
    qualifies as art.
    (E) The city art commission should purchase the
    edifice if it qualifies as art.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Sufficient Assumption

The city councilperson’s conclusion is that the stone edifice qualifies as art. The evidence is that the edifice has caused experts to debate what constitutes art itself and that the purpose of art is to cause experts to debate ideas. The assumption needs to bridge the gap between the object in question and the purpose of art. Essentially, the city councilperson is assuming that if something satisfies the purpose of art, then it can be considered art.

A. No. This is backwards. This choice says if something is art, then it causes debate, but that’s the opposite of what was stated above.

B. No. This goes against the assumption you are looking for and would certainly not prove true the city councilperson’s conclusion that this edifice is art. Furthermore, whether an expert can be certain that an object is art is not relevant to the argument’s conclusion.

C. No. The purpose of this argument is to try to prove that the edifice qualifies as art. Whether the town should purchase it is completely irrelevant.

D. Yes. This choice puts the pieces in the correct order: If something fulfills the purpose of art, then it is art. You know that this edifice fulfills the purpose of art according to the city councilperson; therefore, it must qualify as art.

E. No. Once again, you are not trying to determine whether the city should buy the edifice, only whether the edifice qualifies as art.

234
Q
  1. It is a given that to be an intriguing person, one must
    be able to inspire the perpetual curiosity of others.
    Constantly broadening one’s abilities and extending
    one’s intellectual reach will enable one to inspire that
    curiosity. For such a perpetual expansion of one’s
    mind makes it impossible to be fully comprehended,
    making one a constant mystery to others.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the conclusion drawn in the argument above?
    (A) To be an intriguing person, one must be able
    to inspire the perpetual curiosity of others.
    (B) If one constantly broadens one’s abilities and
    extends one’s intellectual reach, one will be
    able to inspire the perpetual curiosity of
    others.
    (C) If one’s mind becomes impossible to fully
    comprehend, one will always be a mystery to
    others.
    (D) To inspire the perpetual curiosity of others,
    one must constantly broaden one’s abilities
    and extend one’s intellectual reach.
    (E) If one constantly broadens one’s abilities and
    extends one’s intellectual reach, one will
    always have curiosity.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Main Point

The argument concludes that constantly broadening one’s abilities and extending one’s intellectual reach will enable one to inspire the perpetual curiosity of others. Why? If a person constantly does the aforementioned things, it makes it impossible for that person to be fully comprehended, rendering him or her a constant mystery to others.

A. No. In the argument, this statement begins with the phrase “it is a given,” which implies that this a starting point on which the rest of the argument is based. Therefore, it is not the conclusion.

B. Yes. This almost perfectly restates the conclusion of the argument.

C. No. This is a part of the premise.

D. No. If you compare this choice to (B), you’ll notice that they are very similar. The difference is that while both are conditional in nature, the necessary and sufficient terms are flipped. In the argument, the phrase “will enable” means that the information preceding that phrase (constantly broadening one’s abilities and extending one’s intellectual reach) is sufficient. This choice, however, presents that information as being necessary instead of sufficient.

E. No. This choice uses many of the same words as the argument, but changes their context. The argument is concerned with inspiring curiosity in others. This choice, however, states that the person broadening his or her mind will be curious rather than inspire curiosity in others.

235
Q
  1. Theater managers will not rent a film if they do not
    believe it will generate enough total revenue—
    including food-and-beverage concession revenue—to
    yield a profit. Therefore, since film producers want
    their films to be shown as widely as possible, they
    tend to make films that theater managers consider
    attractive to younger audiences.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the argument?
    (A) Adults consume less of the sort of foods and
    beverages sold at movie concession stands
    than do either children or adolescents.
    (B) Movies of the kinds that appeal to younger
    audiences almost never also appeal to older
    audiences.
    (C) Food-and-beverage concession stands in movie
    theaters are usually more profitable than the
    movies that are shown.
    (D) Theater managers generally believe that a film
    that is attractive to younger audiences is more
    likely to be profitable than other films.
    (E) Films that have an appeal to older audiences
    almost never generate a profit for theaters
    that show them.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that film producers tend to make movies that theater managers consider attractive to younger audiences. This is because film producers want their films to be shown as widely as possible. Furthermore, you are told that theater managers will not rent a film if they do not believe it will generate enough revenue, including concession sales, to make a profit. There is a gap in this argument between what film producers want and what theater managers want. You need to show that there is an overlap in the wishes of both groups.Online movie streaming services

A. No. This strengthens the theater managers’ portion of the argument but disregards the position of the film producers.

B. No. It is not necessary that young and old audiences “almost never” agree. This language is too strong.

C. No. This may be true, but it is not necessary to the argument. If you negate this choice, it says that the concession stands are not more profitable than the movies, which does not weaken the conclusion.

D. Yes. If you use the negation test on this choice, it says that theater managers don’t think that films targeted to younger audiences are more likely to be profitable than other films. This certainly invalidates the conclusion, because if theater managers don’t feel that films targeted to younger audiences are more profitable, there is no reason for film producers to cater to younger audiences in choosing which films to make, given that theater managers use profitability as a factor in deciding which films to rent.

E. No. The entire argument deals with films aimed at younger audiences, so older audiences are irrelevant. This may seem to strengthen the conclusion, but it is not necessary for the conclusion to be true.

236
Q
  1. Almost all advances in genetic research give rise to
    ethical dilemmas. Government is the exclusive source
    of funding for most genetic research; those projects
    not funded by government are funded solely by
    corporations. One or the other of these sources of
    funding is necessary for any genetic research.
    If all the statements above are true, then which one
    of the following must be true?
    (A) Most advances in genetic research occur in
    projects funded by government rather than
    by corporations.
    (B) Most genetic research funded by government
    results in advances that give rise to ethical
    dilemmas.
    (C) At least some advances in genetic research
    occur in projects funded by corporations.
    (D) No ethical dilemmas resulting from advances
    in genetic research arise without government
    or corporate funding.
    (E) As long as government continues to fund
    genetic research, that research will give rise to
    ethical dilemmas.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Inference

Almost all advances in genetic research lead to ethical dilemmas. Funding for said research is exclusively provided by government in most cases, with the remainder being funded solely by corporations. Thus it appears you can make a connection between the sources of funding and ethical dilemmas.

A. No. You know that most of the funding for genetic research comes from government sources, but that does not mean that the majority of advances come from that money.

B. No. As with (A), you don’t know what percent of government-funded research results in advances, so you cannot prove the word “most” to be true here.

C. No. Again, the problem here is similar to those found in (A) and (B). You know that corporations provide some of the money, but you have no idea what percent of advances comes from the research they fund.

D. Yes. You are told all funding comes from either government or corporations and that this funding is necessary for any genetic research. Therefore, any advances made must come from a project funded by one of these two groups. If nearly all advances lead to ethical dilemmas, then at least one of these two funding sources must be connected to these ethical dilemmas.

E. No. Once again, you don’t know whether a government-funded program has made any advances in genetic research, so there is no way to say for certain whether there are any ethical dilemmas with which government is associated.

237
Q
  1. Corporate businesses, like species, must adapt to
    survive. Businesses that are no longer efficient will
    become extinct. But sometimes a business cannot
    adapt without changing its core corporate
    philosophy. Hence, sometimes a business can survive
    only by becoming a different corporation.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the argument?
    (A) No business can survive without changing its
    core corporate philosophy.
    (B) As a business becomes less efficient, it
    invariably surrenders its core corporate
    philosophy.
    (C) Different corporations have different core
    corporate philosophies.
    (D) If a business keeps its core corporate
    philosophy intact, it will continue to exist.
    (E) A business cannot change its core corporate
    philosophy without becoming a different
    corporation.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The conclusion of the argument is that sometimes a business can survive only by becoming a different corporation. The justification is that because corporations must adapt to survive, they are sometimes forced to change their core corporate philosophy. Becoming a different corporation is mentioned only in the conclusion, so you need to link it to the change in core corporate philosophy discussed in the premises.

A. No. There is no mention of becoming a different corporation, so this does not create the link you need. Furthermore, the argument states only that sometimes a company is forced to change its core corporate philosophy, so this choice is also too strong.

B. No. This does not forge the link you want. The argument says extinction results when a business is “no longer efficient,” while this choice discusses becoming “less efficient,” which is not necessarily the same thing.

C. No. Whether corporations’ philosophies are similar or different is irrelevant.

D. No. There is no support for this choice, since the argument says nothing about a business keeping its core corporate philosophy intact, and it does not create the necessary link.

E. Yes. This creates a link between changing core corporate philosophy and becoming a different corporation. Using the negation test, you get that a company CAN change its core corporate philosophy without becoming a different corporation, which definitely invalidates the conclusion.

238
Q
  1. A survey taken ten years ago of residents of area L
    showed that although living conditions were slightly
    below their country’s average, most residents of L
    reported general satisfaction with their living
    conditions. However, this year the same survey found
    that while living conditions are now about the same
    as the national average, most residents of L report
    general dissatisfaction with their living conditions.
    Which one of the following, if true, would most help
    to resolve the apparent conflict between the results of
    the surveys described above?
    (A) Residents of area L typically value aspects of
    living conditions different from the aspects of
    living conditions that are valued by residents
    of adjacent areas.
    (B) Between the times that the two surveys were
    conducted, the average living conditions in L’s
    country had substantially declined.
    (C) Optimal living conditions were established in
    the survey by taking into account
    governmental policies and public demands on
    three continents.
    (D) Living conditions in an area generally improve
    only if residents perceive their situation as
    somehow in need of improvement.
    (E) Ten years ago the residents of area L were not
    aware that their living conditions were below
    the national average.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: A survey taken ten year ago showed the residents of area L had below-average living conditions relative to the rest of their country; however, most of the residents were generally satisfied with their standard of living. Fact 2: A more recent survey shows that the living conditions in area L are now about the same as those of the rest of the country, yet residents are currently dissatisfied with their living conditions.

A. No. This may be true, but by itself this choice doesn’t give any real explanation of why they are no longer satisfied with their living conditions.

B. Yes. The argument leads you to believe that because the standard of living in area L became close to the national average living conditions, the national average remained static while area L’s living conditions increased. If, however, area L’s standard of living remained static, but the standard in the country as a whole decreased substantially, it would explain why the residents of area L are dissatisfied now even though their living conditions match those of the rest of the country.

C. No. How optimal living conditions are calculated doesn’t explain why the residents in area L are now dissatisfied.

D. No. While people in area L were satisfied with their living conditions in the first survey, this is not the same thing as saying they didn’t think it needed improving. You don’t know whether people saw a need for improvement. And even if they did think conditions needed to improve and thus caused them to improve, this choice still doesn’t explain why the residents are now unhappy.

E. No. Even if the residents were not aware they were living in below-average conditions, they were happy. One could argue that ignorance is bliss and so once the residents became aware, it caused them to change their opinions, but the choice itself doesn’t state this outright. Plus, you know that their living conditions have changed relative to the national average, so you still need an explanation for why they are unhappy now.

239
Q
  1. Travel agent: Although most low-fare airlines have
    had few, if any, accidents, very few such airlines
    have been in existence long enough for their
    safety records to be reliably established. Major
    airlines, on the other hand, usually have longstanding records reliably indicating their
    degree of safety. Hence, passengers are safer on
    a major airline than on one of the newer lowfare airlines.
    Of the following, which one is the criticism to which
    the reasoning in the travel agent’s argument is most
    vulnerable?
    (A) The argument fails to address adequately the
    possibility that the average major airline has
    had a total number of accidents as great as
    the average low-fare airline has had.
    (B) The argument draws a general conclusion
    about how safe passengers are on different
    airlines on the basis of safety records that are
    each from too brief a period to adequately
    justify such a conclusion.
    (C) The argument fails to consider the possibility
    that long-standing and reliable records
    documenting an airline’s degree of safety may
    indicate that the airline is unsafe.
    (D) The argument takes for granted that airlines
    that are the safest are also the most reliable in
    documenting their safety.
    (E) The argument fails to address adequately the
    possibility that even airlines with longstanding, reliable records indicating their
    degree of safety are still likely to have one or
    more accidents.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The travel agent’s conclusion is that passengers are safer on a major airline than on one of the newer low-fare airlines. The travel agent attempts to justify this by stating that though most low-fare airlines have had few, if any, accidents, very few of them have been in existence long enough for their safety records to be reliably established. At the same time, major airlines have been keeping track of safety for many years. The issue with this argument is that the travel agent doesn’t actually provide evidence that the major airlines are safe, only that they have been keeping diligent records. What if those records show that they get in a crash every other flight?

A. No. You would expect a major airline to have a higher number of crashes than a low-fare airline because they have more planes flying. The bigger issue is the percent chance a crash will occur on either airline, meaning what percent of the total number flights will result in a crash.

B. No. Major airlines have been keeping records for an adequate length of time. This choice says the time period for both types of airlines is too short.

C. Yes. As stated above, nowhere in the argument does it show that the major airlines have a good safety record, only that they keep track of their safety. This choice accurately describes the flaw in the travel agent’s argument.

D. No. The argument discusses the comparison between the airlines and uses the term “safer,” which is not the same as the language in this choice, which says “safest.” There could be a small airline that does not have low fares, such as a private charter service, that could be safer than the major airlines but does not keep reliable records to indicate such. Nothing in the travel agent’s argument, moreover, discounts this possibility, so this doesn’t describe the flaw in the travel agent’s reasoning.

E. No. The travel agent never claims that flying a major airline eliminates one’s chances of getting in an accident, just that it is safer than flying a low-fare airline.

240
Q
  1. Economist: Our economy’s weakness is the direct
    result of consumers’ continued reluctance to
    spend, which in turn is caused by factors such
    as high-priced goods and services. This
    reluctance is exacerbated by the fact that the
    average income is significantly lower than it
    was five years ago. Thus, even though it is not
    a perfect solution, if the government were to
    lower income taxes, the economy would
    improve.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the economist’s argument?
    (A) Increasing consumer spending will cause
    prices for goods and services to decrease.
    (B) If consumer spending increases, the average
    income will increase.
    (C) If income taxes are not lowered, consumers’
    wages will decline even further.
    (D) Consumers will be less reluctant to spend
    money if income taxes are lowered.
    (E) Lowering income taxes will have no effect on
    government spending.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The conclusion of the economist’s argument is that if the government were to lower income taxes, the economy would improve. This is based on the several facts. First, the economy’s weakness is a result of consumers’ reluctance to spend, which has been caused in part by prices going up. Second, this reluctance to spend has been exacerbated by the fact that average income is significantly lower than it was five years ago. The problem with the economist’s solution is that it takes into account only part of the problem: falling income. This solution would put more money in the hands of consumers, but you don’t know if they will actually spend the money. For the economist’s solution to work, then, you need to know that lowering income taxes would override whatever other reasons consumers may have had for not spending money.

A. No. While higher prices have contributed to decreased spending, you have no way of knowing whether the scenario will work in reverse.

B. No. This may happen, but it is not a requirement for the argument. If you negate this choice and say that average incomes will not increase, it doesn’t necessarily weaken the argument.

C. No. This choice deals with a factor (lower income) that has already contributed to the economy getting worse. Since the conclusion focuses on improving the economy, this is irrelevant.

D. Yes. This addresses the problem noted above. If you negate this choice, it suggests that consumers will be just as or more reluctant to spend money if this solution—lowering income taxes—is put into effect. If people are more reluctant to spend money, the economy will most likely not improve, which is counter to the economist’s conclusion. Therefore this choice must be necessary to the economist’s argument.

E. No. Government spending is irrelevant here; the issue is consumer spending.

241
Q
  1. A person with a type B lipid profile is at much
    greater risk of heart disease than a person with a type
    A lipid profile. In an experiment, both type A
    volunteers and type B volunteers were put on a lowfat diet. The cholesterol levels of the type B
    volunteers soon dropped substantially, although their
    lipid profiles were unchanged. The type A volunteers,
    however, showed no benefit from the diet, and 40
    percent of them actually shifted to type B profiles.
    If the information above is true, which one of the
    following must also be true?
    (A) In the experiment, most of the volunteers had
    their risk of heart disease reduced at least
    marginally as a result of having been put on
    the diet.
    (B) People with type B lipid profiles have higher
    cholesterol levels, on average, than do people
    with type A lipid profiles.
    (C) Apart from adopting the low-fat diet, most of
    the volunteers did not substantially change
    any aspect of their lifestyle that would have
    affected their cholesterol levels or lipid
    profiles.
    (D) The reduction in cholesterol levels in the
    volunteers is solely responsible for the change
    in their lipid profiles.
    (E) For at least some of the volunteers in the
    experiment, the risk of heart disease increased
    after having been put on the low-fat diet.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Inference

A person with a type B lipid profile has a greater risk of heart disease than does someone with a type A lipid profile. After being put on a low-fat diet, volunteers with type B profiles lowered their cholesterol levels but remained type B profiles. Type A volunteers, however, showed no benefit from the diet; furthermore, 40 percent of them shifted to type B lipid profiles.

A. No. The opposite of this actually seems to be true, since some of the people in the lower risk group (type A profile) moved to the higher risk group (type B profile) as a result of the diet.

B. No. The argument does not say what anyone’s starting cholesterol level was.

C. No. The argument does not discuss anything about the volunteers in terms of their lifestyles, so there’s no way to prove that this choice must be true.

D. No. The word “solely” is too strong; you have no way of knowing whether the reduction in cholesterol levels was the only factor or one of many.

E. Yes. This must be true. Those volunteers who began as type A profiles and then shifted to type B as a result of being on the diet increased their risk of heart disease.

242
Q
  1. Columnist: Although there is and should be
    complete freedom of thought and expression,
    that does not mean that there is nothing
    wrong with exploiting depraved popular tastes
    for the sake of financial gain.
    Which one of the following judgments conforms
    most closely to the principle cited by the columnist?
    (A) The government should grant artists the right
    to create whatever works of art they want to
    create so long as no one considers those
    works to be depraved.
    (B) People who produce depraved movies have the
    freedom to do so, but that means that they
    also have the freedom to refrain from doing
    so.
    (C) There should be no laws restricting what
    books are published, but publishing books
    that pander to people with depraved tastes is
    not thereby morally acceptable.
    (D) The public has the freedom to purchase
    whatever recordings are produced, but that
    does not mean that the government may not
    limit the production of recordings deemed to
    be depraved.
    (E) One who advocates complete freedom of
    speech should not criticize others for saying
    things that he or she believes to exhibit
    depraved tastes.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Match

The principle is that while there should be no restrictions placed on freedom of speech, it can still be considered “bad” to exploit depraved popular tastes for the sake of financial gain.

A. No. The principle says there should be no restrictions, so this choice doesn’t match.

B. No. This choice does not address the part of the principle that says it is not okay to exploit depraved popular tastes for financial gain.

C. Yes. This matches the principle stated above. It should be legal to publish whatever sort of book one wants, but it may be morally wrong to do so.

D. No. This choice suggests the government has the right to limit freedom of speech, which goes against the principle stated above.

E. No. To claim that a person should not criticize something would be to limit that person’s freedom of expression, which violates the principle.

243
Q
  1. When a society undergoes slow change, its younger
    members find great value in the advice of its older
    members. But when a society undergoes rapid
    change, young people think that little in the
    experience of their elders is relevant to them, and so
    do not value their advice. Thus, we may measure the
    rate at which a society is changing by measuring the
    amount of deference its younger members show to
    their elders.
    Which one of the following is an assumption on
    which the argument depends?
    (A) A society’s younger members can often
    accurately discern whether that society is
    changing rapidly.
    (B) How much deference young people show to
    their elders depends on how much of the
    elders’ experience is practically useful to
    them.
    (C) The deference young people show to their
    elders varies according to how much the
    young value their elders’ advice.
    (D) The faster a society changes, the less relevant
    the experience of older members of the
    society is to younger members.
    (E) Young people value their elders’ advice just
    insofar as the elders’ experience is practically
    useful to them.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Necessary Assumption

The argument concludes that we may measure the rate at which a society is changing by measuring the amount of deference its younger members show to their elders. The justification for this conclusion is that when a society undergoes slow change, young members find great value in the advice of its older members. However, when a society undergoes rapid change, young people think that little in the experience of their elders is relevant to them and so do not value their advice. There is a gap in this argument between the term “deference” in the conclusion and the notion of valuing advice in the premises.

A. No. Whether a society’s younger members can accurately discern rapid societal change is irrelevant to the conclusion.

B. No. This is close; however, the argument is concerned with finding value in the elders’ advice, not with whether their experience is practically useful.

C. Yes. This creates the link you need. If you negate this choice, it says that deference does not vary according to the value placed on the advice. This would invalidate the conclusion; therefore, this choice must be necessary to the argument.

D. No. This seems to be supported by the argument and so is not an assumption.

E. No. This choice talks about the advice being practically useful to young people, which is irrelevant.

244
Q
  1. Politician: We should impose a tariff on imported
    fruit to make it cost consumers more than
    domestic fruit. Otherwise, growers from other
    countries who can grow better fruit more
    cheaply will put domestic fruit growers out of
    business. This will result in farmland’s being
    converted to more lucrative industrial uses and
    the consequent vanishing of a unique way of
    life.
    The politician’s recommendation most closely
    conforms to which one of the following principles?
    (A) A country should put its own economic
    interest over that of other countries.
    (B) The interests of producers should always take
    precedence over those of consumers.
    (C) Social concerns should sometimes take
    precedence over economic efficiency.
    (D) A country should put the interests of its own
    citizens ahead of those of citizens of other
    countries.
    (E) Government intervention sometimes creates
    more economic efficiency than free markets.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Match

The politician concludes that a tariff should be imposed on imported fruit to make it cost more than domestically grown fruit. If this is not done, domestic growers will go out of business, resulting in their farmland being converted to more lucrative industrial uses. Clearly from these statements, money is not the only motivating factor; the “vanishing of a unique way of life,” another consequence of not imposing a tariff, is even more important.

A. No. Economic interest is ancillary to the “unique way of life.” If it were only about economics, then fruit would be imported and domestic orchards turned into industrial parks.Financial news subscriptions

B. No. In this scenario that is true, but you cannot generalize from this one case to one of all producers and all consumers.

C. Yes. This says that sometimes social concerns (the unique way of life) are more important than money.

D. No. The interests of citizens of other countries are irrelevant to the argument.

E. No. The politician is not seeking to increase economic efficiency; if anything, the proposed tariff may do the opposite.

245
Q
  1. The Kiffer Forest Preserve, in the northernmost part
    of the Abbimac Valley, is where most of the bears in
    the valley reside. During the eight years that the
    main road through the preserve has been closed the
    preserve’s bear population has nearly doubled. Thus,
    the valley’s bear population will increase if the road
    is kept closed.
    Which one of the following, if true, most undermines
    the argument?
    (A) Most of the increase in the preserve’s bear
    population over the past eight years is due to
    migration.
    (B) Only some of the increase in the preserve’s
    bear population over the past eight years is
    due to migration of bears from other parts of
    the Abbimac Valley.
    (C) Only some of the increase in the preserve’s
    bear population over the past eight years is
    due to migration of bears from outside the
    Abbimac Valley.
    (D) The bear population in areas of the Abbimac
    Valley outside the Kiffer Forest Preserve has
    decreased over the past eight years.
    (E) The bear population in the Abbimac Valley has
    remained about the same over the past eight
    years.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Weaken

The conclusion is that the valley’s bear population will increase if the road is kept closed. This is based on the fact that in the Kipper Forest Preserve, most of the bears live in the valley. During the eight years that the main road through the preserve has been closed, the preserve’s bear population has nearly doubled. One problem with this argument is that it tells you that the preserve’s bear population has doubled and then it concludes that the valley’s bear population will also increase. This is flawed: Just because the population of one area has gone up does not mean that the population of the total area will go up. You need to find an answer that addresses this gap.

A. No. Why the population in the preserve increased is irrelevant.

B. No. Once again, why the population in the preserve increased is irrelevant. You are concerned only with whether the total population will increase if the road remains closed.

C. No. This choice also deals with why the population in the preserve has increased, which is irrelevant.

D. No. This doesn’t effectively weaken the conclusion. There could be many reasons the bear population in the rest of the valley decreased, reasons that could perhaps be dealt with by keeping the road closed.

E. Yes. This tells you that during the time the main road was closed, the valley’s overall bear population remained roughly the same, implying that the increase in the preserve’s bear population was not replicated elsewhere in the valley and might have been the result of the bears moving from other parts of the valley into the preserve. Therefore, keeping the road closed could not be expected to increase the valley’s bear population further, which weakens the argument’s conclusion.

246
Q
  1. If a wig has any handmade components, it is more
    expensive than one with none. Similarly, a made-tomeasure wig ranges from medium-priced to
    expensive. Handmade foundations are never found
    on wigs that do not use human hair. Furthermore,
    any wig that contains human hair should be drycleaned. So all made-to-measure wigs should be drycleaned.
    The conclusion of the argument follows logically if
    which one of the following is assumed?
    (A) Any wig whose price falls in the mediumpriced to expensive range has a handmade
    foundation.
    (B) If a wig’s foundation is handmade, then it is
    more expensive than one whose foundation is
    not handmade.
    (C) A wig that has any handmade components
    should be dry-cleaned.
    (D) If a wig’s foundation is handmade, then its
    price is at least in the medium range.
    (E) Any wig that should be dry-cleaned has a
    foundation that is handmade.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Sufficient Assumption

The conclusion is that made-to-measure wigs should be dry-cleaned (MMW → DC). This is based on several facts. First, a made-to-measure wig has a price range of medium-priced to expensive (MMW → M-E). Second, handmade foundations are never found on wigs that don’t have human hair (HF → HH). Third, any wig that contains human hair should be dry cleaned (HH → DC). So you get this basic setup when mapping out the argument: Conclusion: MMW → DC. Premises: MMW → M-E, HF → HH, HH → DC. You can now see that to get from MMW to DC you have to connect the price range of the wig to the handmade foundation. MMW → M-E → HF → HH → DC. This proves the conclusion and would thus be the answer you want to find.

A. Yes. This is the missing conditional statement that is stated above (M-E → HF). This statement links together the premises and proves the conclusion true.

B. No. This choice mentions a foundation that is not handmade, which isn’t what you need.

C. No. This is an inference that can be drawn from both statements regarding human hair in the argument. HF → HH plus HH → DC yields HF → DC. However, this doesn’t connect the premise about made-to-measure wigs ranging in price to the conclusion, so it can’t be the credited response.

D. No. This choice is backwards. The conditional statement discussed above and stated in (A) has the terms on the correct side of the arrow, while this choice gives you HF → M-E.

E. No. This choice confuses necessity and sufficiency. From the premises you can conclude that any wig with a handmade foundation should be dry cleaned, making the handmade foundation part sufficient. However, this choice uses it as a necessary term (DC → HF), which goes against what you mapped out above.

247
Q
  1. Philosopher: Wolves do not tolerate an attack by one
    wolf on another if the latter wolf demonstrates
    submission by baring its throat. The same is
    true of foxes and domesticated dogs. So it
    would be erroneous to deny that animals have
    rights on the grounds that only human beings
    are capable of obeying moral rules.
    The philosopher’s argument proceeds by attempting
    to
    (A) provide counterexamples to refute a premise
    on which a particular conclusion is based
    (B) establish inductively that all animals possess
    some form of morality
    (C) cast doubt on the principle that being capable
    of obeying moral rules is a necessary
    condition for having rights
    (D) establish a claim by showing that the denial of
    that claim entails a logical contradiction
    (E) provide evidence suggesting that the concept
    of morality is often applied too broadly
A

Correct Answer: A

A Reasoning

The philosopher’s conclusion is that it would be erroneous to deny that animals have rights on the grounds that only human beings are capable of obeying moral rules. The evidence given in support of this conclusion is an example of wolves’ behavior: A wolf will not tolerate an attack by one wolf on another if the latter wolf demonstrates submission by baring its throat. The philosopher also mentions that both foxes and domesticated dogs exhibit this sort of behavior, too. The statement that the philosopher rejects is based on the premise that only human beings are capable of obeying moral rules. The argument shows that in certain situations animals do behave morally.

A. Yes. Wolves, foxes, and domesticated dogs are all counterexamples to the premise that the philosopher refutes.

B. No. The philosopher never claims that all animals possess some form of morality, only that wolves, foxes, and domesticated dogs have displayed what could be seen as moral behavior.

C. No. There is no principle stated in this argument; all the evidence given is factual.

D. No. Denying the claim in this argument does not produce any sort of contradiction.

E. No. If anything, the philosopher seems to broaden the application of the concept of morality.

248
Q
  1. Automated flight technology can guide an aircraft
    very reliably, from navigation to landing. Yet this
    technology, even when functioning correctly, is not a
    perfect safeguard against human error.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    explain the situation described above?
    (A) Automated flight technology does not always
    function correctly.
    (B) Smaller aircraft do not always have their
    automated flight technology updated
    regularly.
    (C) If a plane’s automated flight technology
    malfunctions, crew members have to operate
    the plane manually.
    (D) Some airplane crashes are due neither to
    human error nor to malfunction of
    automated flight technology.
    (E) Automated flight technology invariably
    executes exactly the commands that humans
    give it.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: Automated flight technology can guide an aircraft reliably from navigation to landing. Fact 2: Even when functioning correctly, this technology does not completely guard against human error.

A. No. According to Fact 2, you are concerned only with trying to explain the situation when the technology is functioning correctly.

B. No. This would not explain why the technology isn’t a perfect safeguard against human error.

C. No. The argument states that it is not a perfect safeguard against human error even when it is functioning correctly. You are not concerned with instances during which it malfunctions.

D. No. This choice does not explain why correctly functioning flight technology does not prevent such errors.

E. Yes. If automated flight technology responds directly to human commands, then that would explain how it could function correctly and still make errors. If a human makes an error, then the flight technology would simply carry out that error.

249
Q
  1. To keep one’s hands warm during the winter, one
    never needs gloves or mittens. One can always keep
    one’s hands warm simply by putting on an extra
    layer of clothing, such as a thermal undershirt or a
    sweater. After all, keeping one’s vital organs warm
    can keep one’s hands warm as well.
    Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
    argument?
    (A) Maintaining the temperature of your hands is
    far less important, physiologically, than
    maintaining the temperature of your torso.
    (B) Several layers of light garments will keep one’s
    vital organs warmer than will one or two
    heavy garments.
    (C) Wearing an extra layer of clothing will not
    keep one’s hands warm at temperatures low
    enough to cause frostbite.
    (D) Keeping one’s hands warm by putting on an
    extra layer of clothing is less effective than
    turning up the heat.
    (E) The physical effort required to put on an extra
    layer of clothing does not stimulate
    circulation enough to warm your hands.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Weaken

The author concludes that a person can invariably keep his/her hands warm by putting on an extra layer of clothing. The author supports this by stating that by keeping your vital organs warm you can warm your hands as well. However, just because extra clothing can keep your hands warm does not mean it always will, so you want to look for an answer choice that exploits this gap in the argument.

A. No. The question requires you to attack the ability of an extra layer to keep one’s hands warm, not the importance of keeping one’s hands warm.

B. No. The way in which one adds extra layers of clothing to keep one’s hands warm is irrelevant.

C. Yes. This choice exploits the strong language in the conclusion by showing there are times when an extra layer of clothing will not keep one’s hands warm.

D. No. Despite being less effective at warming the hands than turning up the heat, an extra layer still could keep the hands warm. Thus, this choice does not weaken the conclusion.

E. No. Although the physical effort required to put on an extra layer of clothing may not be enough to warm the hands, other factors (such as the body warmth the extra layer may help contain) could help warm the hands, so this doesn’t weaken the argument.

250
Q
  1. The reason music with a simple recurring rhythm
    exerts a strong primordial appeal is that it reminds
    us of the womb environment. After all, the first
    sound heard within the womb is the comforting
    sound of the mother’s regular heartbeat. So in taking
    away from us the warmth and security of the womb,
    birth also takes away a primal and constant source of
    comfort. Thus it is extremely natural that in seeking
    sensations of warmth and security throughout life,
    people would be strongly drawn toward simple
    recurring rhythmic sounds.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the main conclusion drawn in the reasoning above?
    (A) The explanation of the strong primordial
    appeal of music with a simple recurring
    rhythm is that it reminds us of the womb
    environment.
    (B) The comforting sound of the mother’s regular
    heartbeat is the first sound that is heard
    inside the womb.
    (C) Birth deprives us of a primal and constant
    source of comfort when it takes away the
    warmth and security of the womb.
    (D) People seek sensations of warmth and security
    throughout life because birth takes away the
    warmth and security of the womb.
    (E) The comforting sound of the mother’s regular
    heartbeat is a simple recurring rhythmic
    sound.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Main Point

The author concludes that the reason music with a simple recurring rhythm exerts a strong primordial appeal is that it reminds us of the womb. Why? The first sound heard in the womb is the comforting sound of the mother’s heartbeat which, along with the womb’s warmth and security, birth takes away.

A. Yes. This almost perfectly restates the conclusion.

B. No. This is a premise.

C. No. This is provided as one of the reasons that people are comforted by the womb; thus it is a premise, not the conclusion.

D. No. This choice is too broad. The author specifically discusses the appeal of music with simple recurring rhythms. The fact that people seek the warmth and security that was taken away at birth serves to explain why such music is appealing.

E. No. The fact that the mother’s heartbeat is a simple rhythmic sound is a reason that people like music with a similar sound; thus it is a premise of the argument.

251
Q
  1. Linguist: Most people can tell whether a sequence of
    words in their own dialect is grammatical. Yet
    few people who can do so are able to specify
    the relevant grammatical rules.
    Which one of the following best illustrates the
    principle underlying the linguist’s statements?
    (A) Some people are able to write cogent and
    accurate narrative descriptions of events. But
    these people are not necessarily also capable
    of composing emotionally moving and
    satisfying poems.
    (B) Engineers who apply the principles of physics
    to design buildings and bridges must know a
    great deal more than do the physicists who
    discover these principles.
    (C) Some people are able to tell whether any given
    piece of music is a waltz. But the majority of
    these people cannot state the defining
    characteristics of a waltz.
    (D) Those travelers who most enjoy their journeys
    are not always those most capable of vividly
    describing the details of those journeys to
    others.
    (E) Quite a few people know the rules of chess, but
    only a small number of them can play chess
    very well.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Match

The author states that even though people can detect whether a sentence in their language is grammatical, they are not able to specify the particular grammatical rules. You must find a similar case in which people are able to identify a particular concept without being able to state the rules that guide that concept.

A. No. This choice describes a case in which people are able to perform one sort of action but are not able to perform a completely separate kind of action.

B. No. This choice deals with two separate groups of people. The argument deals with a single group of people who can perform one action but cannot cite the particular rules guiding their action.

C. Yes. This choice is similar to the principle underlying the original argument in that it deals with people who are able to identify a particular concept but are unable to cite the rules guiding that concept.

D. No. While the first part of this choice is similar to the original argument in that it deals with a single group of people in relation to a concept, the latter half differs from the argument in that it discusses the same people not being fully able to recall the details of that concept.

E. No. This choice concerns people who know the rules of chess but may not be able to play chess very well. This does not match the principle underlying the original argument.

252
Q
  1. Company president: For the management consultant
    position, we shall interview only those
    applicants who have worked for management
    consulting firms generally recognized as in the
    top 1 percent of firms worldwide. When we
    finally select somebody, then, we can be sure to
    have selected one of the best management
    consultants available.
    The company president’s reasoning is most
    vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it
    (A) takes for granted that only the best
    management consultants have worked for the
    top management consulting firms
    (B) generalizes from too small a sample of
    management consulting firms worldwide
    (C) takes for granted that if something is true of
    each member of a collection, then it is also
    true of the collection as a whole
    (D) presumes, without providing warrant, that
    persons who have worked for the top
    companies will accept a job offer
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    highly competent management consultants
    are highly competent at every task
A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

The company president concludes that when somebody is finally selected for the consultant position, the company will surely have selected one of the best possible management consultants. The reason the president gives for this belief is that they are interviewing only applicants who have worked for the top 1 percent of firms worldwide. The problem, however, is that the best consultants might not necessarily have worked at those top firms.

A. Yes. This choice addresses the assumption that the best consultants work for the top firms. Perhaps the best consultants do not work for the best firms, in which case hiring someone who has worked for one of those firms wouldn’t guarantee that the company has hired one of the best consultants.

B. No. The sample size is never mentioned.

C. No. This choice describes a part-to-whole flaw, while the argument actually contains a whole-to-part flaw. The company president assumes that what is true of the top firms (the whole) is true of each consultant working in those firms (the part).

D. No. The argument mentions only interviewing and selecting people. It never actually mentions the hiring process.

E. No. The company president does not assume that the consultants will be highly competent at every task.

253
Q
  1. Beginners typically decide each chess move by
    considering the consequences. Expert players, in
    contrast, primarily use pattern-recognition
    techniques. That is, such a player recognizes having
    been in a similar position before and makes a
    decision based on information recalled about the
    consequences of moves chosen on that prior
    occasion.
    Which one of the following is most strongly
    supported by the information above?
    (A) Beginning chess players are better at thinking
    through the consequences of chess moves
    than experts are.
    (B) A beginning chess player should use patternrecognition techniques when deciding what
    move to make.
    (C) One’s chess skills will improve only if one
    learns to use pattern-recognition techniques.
    (D) In playing chess, an expert player relies
    crucially on his or her memory.
    (E) Any chess player who played other games that
    require pattern-recognition skills would
    thereby improve his or her chess skills.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Inference

The passage details techniques used by beginner and expert chess players. Beginners tend to decide each move by considering the consequences. An expert player, however, typically makes use of pattern-recognition techniques in which the player recalls relevant prior experience to help determine the next move.

A. No. The author never states who is better at thinking through the consequences. This information goes beyond the passage.

B. No. While the author states that pattern-recognition techniques are what the experts use, he never claims that they are what should be used. Moreover, the author never states whether beginning chess players have the ability to use such techniques.

C. No. How to improve one’s chess skills is never mentioned in the passage.

D. Yes. The passage states that expert players primarily use pattern-recognition techniques in which players recall previous experiences.

E. No. This choice is irrelevant; the passage does not discuss how to improve one’s chess skills.

254
Q
  1. Farmer: Because water content is what makes
    popcorn pop, the kernels must dry at just the
    right speed to trap the correct amount of
    water. The best way to achieve this effect is to
    have the sun dry the corn while the corn is still
    in the field, but I always dry the ears on a
    screen in a warm, dry room.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    resolve the apparent discrepancy between the
    farmer’s theory and practice?
    (A) The region in which the farmer grows popcorn
    experiences a long, cloudy season that begins
    shortly before the popcorn in fields would
    begin to dry.
    (B) Leaving popcorn to dry on its stalks in the
    field is the least expensive method of drying
    it.
    (C) Drying popcorn on its stalks in the field is
    only one of several methods that allow the
    kernels’ water content to reach acceptable
    levels.
    (D) When popcorn does not dry sufficiently, it will
    still pop, but it will take several minutes to do
    so, even under optimal popping conditions.
    (E) If popcorn is allowed to dry too much, it will
    not pop
A

Correct Answer: A

A Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: The best way to dry kernels in order to make popcorn is to dry the corn in the sun while the corn is still in the field. Fact 2: Even though this is the best way, the farmer dries them on a screen in a warm, dry room. You need to find a choice that explains why he doesn’t make use of the best method in practice.

A. Yes. This choice explains why the farmer does not use the sun-drying method. Drying corn in the field is not possible because the region’s cloudy season coincides with the time during which he would generally dry popcorn.

B. No. This choice would give the farmer even more incentive to dry the kernels in the field. You need an answer choice that explains why he doesn’t.

C. No. The passage states that drying popcorn on its stalks in the field is the best method. Even if there are other ways to dry the kernels, this doesn’t explain why the farmer does not choose the best method.

D. No. This choice does not explain why the farmer does not dry popcorn in the sun.

E. No. What happens when popcorn is dried too much is irrelevant.

255
Q
  1. Factory manager: One reason the automobile parts
    this factory produces are expensive is that our
    manufacturing equipment is outdated and
    inefficient. Our products would be more
    competitively priced if we were to refurbish
    the factory completely with new, more efficient
    equipment. Therefore, since to survive in
    today’s market we have to make our products
    more competitively priced, we must
    completely refurbish the factory in order to
    survive.
    The reasoning in the factory manager’s argument is
    flawed because this argument
    (A) fails to recognize that the price of a particular
    commodity can change over time
    (B) shifts without justification from treating
    something as one way of achieving a goal to
    treating it as the only way of achieving that
    goal
    (C) argues that one thing is the cause of another
    when the evidence given indicates that the
    second thing may in fact be the cause of the
    first
    (D) recommends a solution to a problem without
    first considering any possible causes of that
    problem
    (E) fails to make a definite recommendation and
    instead merely suggests that some possible
    course of action might be effective
A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The factory manager concludes that the factory must be refurbished in order to make its products more competitively priced and thus survive. The support for this conclusion is that the factory’s manufacturing equipment is outdated and inefficient, which results in higher prices for the automobile parts it produces. However, the manager states that this is only one reason the parts are expensive. The flaw is that the manager shifts from noting one way to make products more competitively priced to stating that it is the only way to achieve this goal.

A. No. The fact that prices may change over time is irrelevant to the argument.

B. Yes. This choice identifies the manager’s flawed assumption that because refurbishing the factory could make products more competitively priced, it is therefore the only way to achieve this result.

C. No. There is no reverse causation flaw in this argument.

D. No. The argument does provide a reason for the expensive products—outdated and inefficient manufacturing equipment.

E. No. The factory manager does make a definite recommendation; he concludes that the factory must be refurbished.

256
Q
  1. Two months ago a major shipment of pythons
    arrived from Africa, resulting in a great number of
    inexpensive pythons in pet stores. Anyone interested
    in buying a python, however, should beware: many
    pythons hatched in Africa are afflicted with a deadly
    liver disease. Although a few pythons recently
    hatched in North America have this disease, a much
    greater proportion of African-hatched pythons have
    it. The disease is difficult to detect in its early stages,
    and all pythons die within six months of contracting
    the disease.
    Which one of the following statements can be
    properly inferred from the statements above?
    (A) Some pythons hatched in North America may
    appear fine but will die within six months as a
    result of the liver disease.
    (B) Pythons that hatch in Africa are more
    susceptible to the liver disease than are
    pythons that hatch in North America.
    (C) Any python that has not died by the age of six
    months does not have the liver disease.
    (D) The pythons are inexpensively priced because
    many of them suffer from the liver disease.
    (E) Pythons hatched in neither Africa nor North
    America are not afflicted with the liver
    disease.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Inference

The passage states that some pythons hatched in Africa and some pythons recently hatched in North America have a deadly liver disease. The passage further states that the disease is difficult to detect in its early stages and that all pythons with the disease die within six months of contracting it.

A. Yes. The passage tells you that some pythons hatched in North America have the deadly liver disease. You know the disease is difficult to detect and all pythons with the disease will die within six months. You can link these two pieces of information together and infer that some pythons hatched in North America will seem okay but will die within six months.

B. No. The passage states that a greater proportion of African-hatched pythons have the disease, but you do not necessarily know that this is due to a higher susceptibility rate to the disease among African-hatched pythons. There could be any number of other reasons that the disease is more prevalent among African-hatched pythons.

C. No. The passage states that pythons die within six months of contracting the disease, not that they die within the first six months of life.

D. No. The first sentence states that the reason for the large number of inexpensive pythons was the arrival of a major shipment of pythons from Africa.

E. No. The passage never discusses the conditions of pythons hatched in areas other than Africa and North America.

257
Q
  1. Nutritionists believe that a person’s daily
    requirement for vitamins can readily be met by
    eating five servings of fruits and vegetables daily.
    However, most people eat far less than this. Thus,
    most people need to take vitamin pills.
    Which one of the following statements, if true, most
    seriously weakens the argument?
    (A) Even five servings of fruits and vegetables a
    day is insufficient unless the intake is varied
    to ensure that different vitamins are
    consumed.
    (B) Certain commonly available fruits and
    vegetables contain considerably more
    nutrients than others.
    (C) Nutritionists sometimes disagree on how
    much of a fruit or vegetable constitutes a
    complete serving.
    (D) Many commonly consumed foods that are
    neither fruits nor vegetables are fortified by
    manufacturers with the vitamins found in
    fruits and vegetables.
    (E) Fruits and vegetables are also important
    sources of fiber, in forms not found in
    vitamin pills.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Weaken

The author concludes that most people need to take vitamin pills. The support for this conclusion is that although nutritionists believe the daily requirement for vitamins can be reached by eating five servings of fruits and vegetables daily, most people eat far less than this amount. However, the author does not consider that there are perhaps other ways of obtaining the daily requirement for vitamins.

A. No. The premises tell you that most people do not even consume five servings of fruits and vegetables to begin with, so this is irrelevant.

B. No. The different levels of nutrients in fruits and vegetables are irrelevant. The argument already states that most people do not eat enough fruits and vegetables to meet the daily vitamin requirement.

C. No. Regardless of what the agreed-upon amount is, the passage states that people do not eat enough fruits and vegetables to fulfill their daily vitamin requirement.

D. Yes. This choice directly weakens the conclusion by showing that it may be possible to acquire the amount of vitamins needed each day from sources other than vitamin pills or fruits and vegetables.

E. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is not concerned with fiber.

258
Q
  1. Researcher: This fall I returned to a research site to
    recover the armadillos I had tagged there the
    previous spring. Since a large majority of the
    armadillos I recaptured were found within a
    few hundred yards of the location of their
    tagging last spring, I concluded that armadillos
    do not move rapidly into new territories.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the researcher’s argument?
    (A) Of the armadillos living in the area of the
    tagging site last spring, few were able to avoid
    being tagged by the researcher.
    (B) Most of the armadillos tagged the previous
    spring were not recaptured during the
    subsequent fall.
    (C) Predators did not kill any of the armadillos
    that had been tagged the previous spring.
    (D) The tags identifying the armadillos cannot be
    removed by the armadillos, either by accident
    or deliberately.
    (E) A large majority of the recaptured armadillos
    did not move to a new territory in the
    intervening summer and then move back to
    the old territory by the fall.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Necessary Assumption

The researcher concludes that armadillos do not move rapidly into new territories because many of the ones he had tagged the previous spring were found near the location of their tagging the following spring. There is a gap in this argument between finding the tagged armadillos in the same location at one point in time and asserting that they never moved into new territories at all.

A. No. This may support the conclusion by affirming the sample size, but it is not something that is essential for the conclusion to work.

B. No. This may weaken the argument by questioning the sample size, but it is not something the researcher assumes.

C. No. This is not necessary to the argument. Even if predators did kill some of the armadillos that had been tagged, the conclusion could still work.

D. No. Even if the tags could be removed by the armadillos, it would not change the fact that most of the armadillos the researcher recaptured were found near the location of their tagging the previous spring.

E. Yes. This choice links the idea of finding the armadillos in the same location of their tagging to their remaining in that location since the time they were tagged. If you negate this choice—a large majority of the recaptured armadillos DID move to a new territory in the intervening summer—the conclusion would certainly fall apart. Thus, this statement is necessary to the researcher’s argument.

259
Q
  1. Sahira: To make a living from their art, artists of
    great potential would have to produce work
    that would gain widespread popular acclaim,
    instead of their best work. That is why
    governments are justified in subsidizing
    artists.
    Rahima: Your argument for subsidizing art depends
    on claiming that to gain widespread popular
    acclaim, artists must produce something other
    than their best work; but this need not be true.
    In her argument, Rahima
    (A) disputes an implicit assumption of Sahira’s
    (B) presents independent support for Sahira’s
    argument
    (C) accepts Sahira’s conclusion, but for reasons
    different from those given by Sahira
    (D) uses Sahira’s premises to reach a conclusion
    different from that reached by Sahira
    (E) argues that a standard that she claims Sahira
    uses is self-contradictory
A

Correct Answer: A

A Reasoning

Sahira concludes that governments are justified in subsidizing artists. Her support is that in order to make a living from art, artists would have to create work that would gain widespread popularity instead of their best work. Sahira assumes that an artist’s best work would not gain widespread popular acclaim. Rahima responds to Sahira by questioning this assumption.

A. Yes. This choice describes how Rahima responds to Sahira’s argument.

B. No. Rahima does not support Sahira’s argument.

C. No. Rahima disagrees with Sahira’s premises. The passage makes no mention of how Rahima feels about Sahira’s conclusion that governments are justified in subsidizing artists.

D. No. Rahima actually disagrees with Sahira’s premises.

E. No. Rahima never points out a contradiction in Sahira’s argument. Rather, Rahima takes issue with an assumption in Sahira’s argument

260
Q
  1. Adult frogs are vulnerable to dehydration because of
    their highly permeable skins. Unlike large adult frogs,
    small adult frogs have such a low ratio of body
    weight to skin surface area that they cannot survive
    in arid climates. The animals’ moisture requirements
    constitute the most important factor determining
    where frogs can live in the Yucatán peninsula, which
    has an arid climate in the north and a wet climate in
    the south.
    The information above most strongly supports which
    one of the following conclusions about frogs in the
    Yucatán peninsula?
    (A) Large adult frogs cannot coexist with small
    adult frogs in the wet areas.
    (B) Frogs living in wet areas weigh more on
    average than frogs in the arid areas.
    (C) Large adult frogs can live in more of the area
    than small adult frogs can.
    (D) Fewer small adult frogs live in the south than
    do large adult frogs.
    (E) Small adult frogs in the south have less
    permeable skins than small adult frogs in the
    north.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Inference

The passage states that small adult frogs are unable to live in arid climates, but large adult frogs can. This is due to the animals’ moisture requirements, the most important factor in determining where frogs can live. You can link this information to the fact that the Yucatán peninsula has an arid climate in the north and a wet climate in the south to support the notion that large adult frogs would be able to live in more places on the peninsula than would small adult frogs.

A. No. The passage never mentions the ability of small and large adult frogs to coexist.

B. No. If anything, the passage suggests the opposite. Because small adult frogs are limited to wet areas, frogs in such areas probably weigh less on average than do frogs in arid regions.

C. Yes. Because moisture requirements are the most important factor in determining where frogs can live and because the passage states that large adult frogs can survive in arid climates (as opposed to small adult frogs), this choice is supported. Large adult frogs can survive in both arid and wet climates, so they can live in more of the peninsula than small adult frogs can.

D. No. The passage never mentions the ratio of large adult frogs to small adult frogs in the south.

E. No. The passage indicates that small adult frogs cannot survive in the north.

261
Q
  1. Editorial: A recent survey shows that 77 percent of
    people feel that crime is increasing and that 87
    percent feel the judicial system should be
    handing out tougher sentences. Therefore, the
    government must firmly address the rising
    crime rate.
    The reasoning in the editorial’s argument is most
    vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
    argument
    (A) appeals to survey results that are inconsistent
    because they suggest that more people are
    concerned about the sentencing of criminals
    than are concerned about crime itself
    (B) presumes, without providing justification, that
    there is a correlation between criminal
    offenders being treated leniently and a high
    crime rate
    (C) fails to consider whether other surveys
    showing different results have been conducted
    over the years
    (D) fails to distinguish between the crime rate’s
    actually rising and people’s believing that the
    crime rate is rising
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    tougher sentences are the most effective
    means of alleviating the crime problem
A

Correct Answer: D

D Flaw

The editorial concludes that the government should address the rising crime rate. The editorial bases this on the premise that 77 percent of people feel that crime is increasing and 87 percent think tougher sentences should be handed out. However, the editorial makes a leap from a premise that states that people feel the crime rate is increasing to a conclusion that assumes that the crime rate actually is increasing.

A. No. Just because more people are concerned about the sentencing of criminals than are concerned about crime itself does not mean the survey is inconsistent.

B. No. The editorial does not make this connection.

C. No. No other surveys are considered, but this is not the flaw in the editorial’s argument.

D. Yes. This choice correctly points out the editorial’s presumption that the crime rate is rising simply because people think the crime rate is rising.

E. No. The editorial never states that tougher sentences are the most effective means of lowering the crime rate.

262
Q
  1. Proofs relying crucially on computers provide less
    certainty than do proofs not requiring computers.
    Human cognition alone cannot verify computerdependent proofs; such proofs can never provide the
    degree of certainty that attends our judgments
    concerning, for instance, simple arithmetical facts,
    which can be verified by human calculation. Of
    course, in these cases one often uses electronic
    calculators, but here the computer is a convenience
    rather than a supplement to human cognition.
    The statements above, if true, most strongly support
    which one of the following?
    (A) Only if a proof’s result is arrived at without
    the help of a computer can one judge with
    any degree of certainty that the proof is
    correct.
    (B) We can never be completely sure that proofs
    relying crucially on computers do not contain
    errors that humans do not detect.
    (C) Whenever a computer replaces human
    calculation in a proof, the degree of certainty
    provided by the proof is reduced.
    (D) If one can corroborate something by human
    calculation, one can be completely certain of
    it.
    (E) It is impossible to supplement the cognitive
    abilities of humans by means of artificial
    devices such as computers.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Inference

Find an answer choice that can be supported by the facts given in the passage.

A. No. The language in this choice is too strong.

B. Yes. The passage states that human cognition alone cannot verify computer-dependent proofs and such proofs can never provide the degree of certainty that might otherwise be achieved from verifying by human calculation.

C. No. This choice is too strong. Just because a computer is used does not mean it had to be used, as noted in the last sentence of the passage. You know only that the degree of certainty is reduced in the case of proofs that rely crucially on computers.

D. No. The passage states that if something cannot be verified by human cognition, then one cannot be certain of it. Verification through human cognition is a necessary component of certainty. This choice, however, claims that corroboration via human calculation is the only thing needed for certainty.

E. No. The passage discusses only computers. Thus, whether it is feasible for other artificial devices to supplement the abilities of humans is unknown.

263
Q
  1. Madden: Industrialists address problems by
    simplifying them, but in farming that strategy
    usually leads to oversimplification. For
    example, industrialists see water retention and
    drainage as different and opposite functions—
    that good topsoil both drains and retains water
    is a fact alien to industrial logic. To facilitate
    water retention, they use a terrace or a dam; to
    facilitate drainage, they use drain tile, a ditch,
    or a subsoiler. More farming problems are
    created than solved when agriculture is the
    domain of the industrialist, not of the farmer.
    The situation as Madden describes it best illustrates
    which one of the following propositions?
    (A) The handling of water drainage and retention
    is the most important part of good farming.
    (B) The problems of farming should be viewed in
    all their complexity.
    (C) Farmers are better than anyone else at solving
    farming problems.
    (D) Industrial solutions for problems in farming
    should never be sought.
    (E) The approach to problem solving typical of
    industrialists is fundamentally flawed.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Principle Match

Madden concludes that more problems are created when industrialists address the problems of farming because industrialists tend to oversimplify. The author presents an example in which industrialists separate the problems of water retention and water drainage and choose to solve them separately instead of viewing them as related functions. This strategy of separation and simplification ultimately creates more problems than it solves. The correct answer should capture the idea that farming problems should not be oversimplified.

A. No. Madden never states that water drainage and retention are the most important parts of good farming.

B. Yes. This goes along well with the argument. Madden states that industrialists should not simplify problems in farming because that strategy usually leads to oversimplification. Thus, problems in this area should be viewed in all their complexity.

C. No. The argument compares only farmers and industrialists.

D. No. The argument states that industrialists usually oversimplify things and therefore create more farming problems, but this does not mean that such techniques are always bad.

E. No. The argument states only that the typical approach of industrialists is usually flawed in relation to farming.

264
Q
  1. Critic: Works of modern literature cannot be
    tragedies as those of ancient playwrights and
    storytellers were unless their protagonists are
    seen as possessing nobility, which endures
    through the calamities that befall one. In an
    age that no longer takes seriously the belief
    that human endeavors are governed by fate, it
    is therefore impossible for a contemporary
    work of literature to be a tragedy.
    Which one of the following is an assumption
    required by the critic’s argument?
    (A) Whether or not a work of literature is a
    tragedy should not depend on characteristics
    of its audience.
    (B) The belief that human endeavors are governed
    by fate is false.
    (C) Most plays that were once classified as
    tragedies were misclassified.
    (D) Those whose endeavors are not regarded as
    governed by fate will not be seen as
    possessing nobility.
    (E) If an ignoble character in a work of literature
    endures through a series of misfortunes, that
    work of literature is not a tragedy.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The critic concludes that it is impossible for a contemporary work of literature to be a tragedy because this age no longer takes seriously the belief that human endeavors are governed by fate. The critic states that the only way a work of modern literature can be viewed as a tragedy is if the protagonists are seen as possessing nobility. There is a missing link between viewing protagonists as having nobility and taking the idea of fate seriously.

A. No. If anything, the argument actually suggests the opposite of this.

B. No. The critic never presumes that the belief that human endeavors are governed by fate is false.

C. No. The critic never discusses whether any plays were misclassified.

D. Yes. This choice establishes a link between taking the idea of fate seriously and viewing the protagonist as possessing nobility. If you negate this answer choice, you will see that it is indeed necessary to the conclusion. If those whose endeavors are not regarded as governed by fate are seen as possessing nobility, then works of modern literature may still be tragedies, which is contrary to the critic’s conclusion.

E. No. While a work containing an ignoble character may not be considered a tragedy given the critic’s criteria, this choice is not necessary to the argument.

265
Q
  1. Despite the efforts of a small minority of graduate
    students at one university to unionize, the majority
    of graduate students there remain unaware of the
    attempt. Most of those who are aware believe that a
    union would not represent their interests or that, if it
    did, it would not effectively pursue them. Thus, the
    graduate students at the university should not
    unionize, since the majority of them obviously
    disapprove of the attempt.
    The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
    criticism on the grounds that the argument
    (A) tries to establish a conclusion simply on the
    premise that the conclusion agrees with a
    long-standing practice
    (B) fails to exclude alternative explanations for
    why some graduate students disapprove of
    unionizing
    (C) presumes that simply because a majority of a
    population is unaware of something, it must
    not be a good idea
    (D) ignores the possibility that although a union
    might not effectively pursue graduate student
    interests, there are other reasons for
    unionizing
    (E) blurs the distinction between active
    disapproval and mere lack of approval
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The author concludes that the graduate students should not unionize. The author supports his statement by stating that the majority of graduate students disapprove of the attempt. However, it is not clear that the majority of graduate students disapprove; rather, the majority of graduate students were unaware of any unionization attempt. Thus, the feelings of the majority of graduate students toward unionization are unknown, which casts doubt on the validity of the author’s conclusion.

A. No. The argument never mentions any long-standing practice.

B. No. The argument is focused on whether graduate students disapprove, not on why they do or don’t disapprove.

C. No. The author bases his conclusion on the belief that the majority of graduate students disapprove of the attempt, not that the majority of them are unaware of the attempt.

D. No. The author doesn’t really discuss the reasons for unionizing; the argument is focused on whether to do so.

E. Yes. The author assumes that the majority of graduate students disapprove of unionizing from a premise stating that the majority of graduate students are unaware of unionizing efforts. Thus, he is confounding this lack of awareness, which is akin to lack of approval (you can’t approve if you aren’t aware), with active disapproval.

266
Q
  1. Anyone who believes in democracy has a high regard
    for the wisdom of the masses. Griley, however, is an
    elitist who believes that any artwork that is popular
    is unlikely to be good. Thus, Griley does not believe
    in democracy.
    The conclusion follows logically if which one of the
    following is assumed?
    (A) Anyone who believes that an artwork is
    unlikely to be good if it is popular is an elitist.
    (B) Anyone who believes that if an artwork is
    popular it is unlikely to be good does not
    have a high regard for the wisdom of the
    masses.
    (C) If Griley is not an elitist, then he has a high
    regard for the wisdom of the masses.
    (D) Anyone who does not have a high regard for
    the wisdom of the masses is an elitist who
    believes that if an artwork is popular it is
    unlikely to be good.
    (E) Unless Griley believes in democracy, Griley
    does not have a high regard for the wisdom of
    the masses.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Sufficient Assumption

The author concludes that Griley does not believe in democracy. The author supports this claim by stating that Griley is an elitist who believes that popular artwork is unlikely to be good. The problem with the conclusion is that the author never explains what characteristic Griley has that makes him a non-believer in democracy. The only thing you know about those who do believe in democracy is that they have a high regard for the wisdom of the masses. If you could link together those who believe popular artwork is not likely to be good to those who do not have a high regard for the wisdom of the masses, then the conclusion would work.

A. No. The author never suggests that this is a requirement to be an elitist.

B. Yes. If this statement is true, then the conclusion is true. Griley believes that if an artwork is popular it probably won’t be good. And if everyone who holds such a belief does not have a high regard for the wisdom of the masses, then that would mean Griley does not have a high regard for the wisdom of the masses. By virtue of the premise, this would mean he does not believe in democracy.

C. No. The argument states that Griley is an elitist.

D. No. This choice would not help explain why Griley does not believe in democracy.

E. No. This choice treats having a high regard for the wisdom of the masses as sufficient for believing in democracy, whereas the argument treats having a high regard for the masses as necessary for believing in democracy. This choice does not explain why Griley does not believe in democracy.

267
Q
  1. A recent study confirmed that salt intake tends to
    increase blood pressure and found that, as a result,
    people with high blood pressure who significantly
    cut their salt intake during the study had lower blood
    pressure by the end of the study. However, it was also
    found that some people who had very high salt
    intake both before and throughout the study
    maintained very low blood pressure.
    Which one of the following, if true, contributes the
    most to an explanation of the results of the study?
    (A) Study participants with high blood pressure
    who cut their salt intake only slightly during
    the study did not have significantly lower
    blood pressure by the end of the study.
    (B) Salt intake is only one of several dietary factors
    associated with high blood pressure.
    (C) For most people who have high blood
    pressure, reducing salt intake is not the most
    effective dietary change they can make to
    reduce their blood pressure.
    (D) At the beginning of the study, some people
    who had very low salt intake also had very
    high blood pressure.
    (E) Persons suffering from abnormally low blood
    pressure have heightened salt cravings, which
    ensure that their blood pressure does not
    drop too low
A

Correct Answer: E

E Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: Salt intake tends to increase blood pressure. Fact 2: During a study some people who had very high salt intake before and during the study maintained low blood pressure levels. You need to figure out why these people had low blood pressure despite having high salt intake.

A. No. You must figure out how some people had high salt intake but low blood pressure. You are not concerned with those who have high blood pressure.

B. No. Like (A), this choice concerns itself with those who have high blood pressure.

C. No. Like (A), this choice concerns itself with those who have high blood pressure.

D. No. The paradox at hand involves those with low blood pressure and high salt intake. Knowing more information about those with very high blood pressure and very low salt intake does not help.

E. Yes. This choice explains how salt intake could be very high while blood pressure remains low. If people with abnormally low blood pressure eat salty foods, it could raise their blood pressure to a level that is higher but still relatively low compared to others’ levels.

268
Q
  1. The odds of winning any major lottery jackpot are
    extremely slight. However, the very few people who
    do win major jackpots receive a great deal of
    attention from the media. Thus, since most people
    come to have at least some awareness of events that
    receive extensive media coverage, it is likely that
    many people greatly overestimate the odds of their
    winning a major jackpot.
    Which one of the following is an assumption on
    which the argument depends?
    (A) Most people who overestimate the likelihood
    of winning a major jackpot do so at least in
    part because media coverage of other people
    who have won major jackpots downplays the
    odds against winning such a jackpot.
    (B) Very few people other than those who win
    major jackpots receive a great deal of
    attention from the media.
    (C) If it were not for media attention, most people
    who purchase lottery tickets would not
    overestimate their chances of winning a
    jackpot.
    (D) Becoming aware of individuals who have won
    a major jackpot leads at least some people to
    incorrectly estimate their own chances of
    winning such a jackpot.
    (E) At least some people who are heavily
    influenced by the media do not believe that
    the odds of their winning a major jackpot are
    significant.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The author concludes that many people greatly overestimate the odds of winning a major jackpot. However, the premises never mentioned overestimating jackpots. Rather, the premises simply stated that few people win major jackpots and those who do win receive a lot of media attention. The author also says that most people come to have some awareness of events that receive extensive media coverage. You must link the idea of overestimating the odds of winning to being aware of events receiving extensive media coverage.

A. No. The argument never states that media coverage of those who have won a major jackpot downplays the odds against winning.

B. No. Those who receive media attention without winning jackpots are not relevant.

C. No. There could be other reasons that people overestimate their chances of winning the lottery.

D. Yes. This choice links one’s awareness of media coverage of jackpot winners to overestimating one’s chances of winning. If you negate this answer choice (“Becoming aware of individuals who have won a major jackpot does not lead people to incorrectly estimate their own chances of winning such a jackpot.”), the conclusion is no longer valid.

E. No. The argument never mentions people who are heavily influenced by the media but do not overestimate their chances of winning the lottery.

269
Q
  1. A book tour will be successful if it is well publicized
    and the author is an established writer. Julia is an
    established writer, and her book tour was successful.
    So her book tour must have been well publicized.
    Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of
    flawed reasoning most closely parallel to the pattern
    of flawed reasoning exhibited by the argument
    above?
    (A) This recipe will turn out only if one follows it
    exactly and uses high-quality ingredients.
    Arthur followed the recipe exactly and it
    turned out. Thus, Arthur must have used
    high-quality ingredients.
    (B) If a computer has the fastest microprocessor
    and the most memory available, it will meet
    Aletha’s needs this year. This computer met
    Aletha’s needs last year. So it must have had
    the fastest microprocessor and the most
    memory available last year.
    (C) If cacti are kept in the shade and watered more
    than twice weekly, they will die. This cactus
    was kept in the shade, and it is now dead.
    Therefore, it must have been watered more
    than twice weekly.
    (D) A house will suffer from dry rot and poor
    drainage only if it is built near a high water
    table. This house suffers from dry rot and has
    poor drainage. Thus, it must have been built
    near a high water table.
    (E) If one wears a suit that has double vents and
    narrow lapels, one will be fashionably
    dressed. The suit that Joseph wore to dinner
    last night had double vents and narrow lapels,
    so Joseph must have been fashionably
    dressed.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Parallel Flaw

The argument states that there are two things sufficient to bring about a successful book tour: It must be well publicized and the author must be an established writer. The conclusion, however, assumes that just because you have an established writer and a successful book tour, the tour must have been well publicized. The argument essentially commits a necessary-sufficient error by flipping the necessary component and one of the sufficient components.

A. No. Unlike the original argument, which had two factors sufficient to bring out a single outcome, this argument has a single factor sufficient to bring out two outcomes.

B. No. This choice incorrectly assumes that what is true of this year was true of last year, which does not match the flaw in the original argument.

C. Yes. This operates just like the original argument. In this argument, watering cacti more than twice a week is a sufficient factor to bring about the plant’s death. In the conclusion, however, the plant’s death is presented as one of the factors sufficient to know the plant was watered more than twice a week. In other words, the argument switches the necessary and sufficient terms.

D. No. This argument is not flawed.

E. No. This argument is not flawed.

270
Q
  1. Eight large craters run in a long straight line across a
    geographical region. Although some of the craters
    contain rocks that have undergone high-pressure
    shocks characteristic of meteorites slamming into
    Earth, these shocks could also have been caused by
    extreme volcanic events. Because of the linearity of
    the craters, it is very unlikely that some of them were
    caused by volcanoes and others were caused by
    meteorites. Thus, since the craters are all different
    ages, they were probably caused by volcanic events
    rather than meteorites.
    Which one of the following statements, if true, would
    most strengthen the argument?
    (A) A similar but shorter line of craters that are all
    the same age is known to have been caused by
    volcanic activity.
    (B) No known natural cause would likely account
    for eight meteorite craters of different ages
    forming a straight line.
    (C) There is no independent evidence of either
    meteorites or volcanic activity in the region
    where the craters are located.
    (D) There is no independent evidence of a volcanic
    event strong enough to have created the highpressure shocks that are characteristic of
    meteorites slamming into Earth.
    (E) No known single meteor shower has created
    exactly eight impact craters that form a
    straight line.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Strengthen

The author concludes that eight linear craters were probably caused by volcanic events and not meteorites. The author supports this by stating that all of the craters are different ages and cannot be from both sources due to the craters’ linearity. To strengthen the conclusion, you need either a choice that shows that meteorites cannot cause linear craters from different time periods or a choice that states that volcanic activity can.

A. No. You are trying to strengthen the idea that volcanic activity can cause craters of different ages, whereas this choice is discussing craters of the same age.

B. Yes. This choice supports the conclusion that volcanic activity probably caused the eight linear craters by questioning the likelihood of meteorite craters of different ages forming a straight line.

C. No. This would only weaken the idea that volcanic events caused the craters.

D. No. If anything, this choice weakens the conclusion by questioning whether volcanic events can produce craters similar to those produced by meteorites.

E. No. While this choice may seem appealing at first since it questions the ability of meteorites to create linear craters, it is ultimately concerned with a single meteor shower, implying that the craters created would thus be from the same time period. However, the argument is concerned with the cause of linear craters of different ages, so this choice doesn’t strengthen the conclusion.

271
Q
  1. The genuine creative genius is someone who is
    dissatisfied with merely habitual assent to widely
    held beliefs; thus these rare innovators tend to anger
    the majority. Those who are dissatisfied with merely
    habitual assent to widely held beliefs tend to seek out
    controversy, and controversy seekers enjoy
    demonstrating the falsehood of popular viewpoints.
    The conclusion of the argument follows logically if
    which one of the following is assumed?
    (A) People become angry when they are
    dissatisfied with merely habitual assent to
    widely held beliefs.
    (B) People who enjoy demonstrating the falsehood
    of popular viewpoints anger the majority.
    (C) People tend to get angry with individuals who
    hold beliefs not held by a majority of people.
    (D) People who anger the majority enjoy
    demonstrating the falsehood of popular
    viewpoints.
    (E) People who anger the majority are dissatisfied
    with merely habitual assent to widely held
    beliefs.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Sufficient Assumption

The author concludes that rare innovators tend to anger the majority. The author supports the conclusion through a long chain of reasoning: 1) Such innovators are dissatisfied with merely habitual assent to widely held beliefs; 2) those who are dissatisfied with habitual assent to widely held beliefs tend to seek controversy; and 3) those who seek controversy enjoy demonstrating the falsehood of popular viewpoints. What’s missing, though, is the final link: the idea that those who enjoy demonstrating the falsehood of popular viewpoints tend to anger the majority.

A. No. This choice considers a single person who is both angered and dissatisfied with merely habitual assent to widely held beliefs. In the argument, the person who is angered and the person who is dissatisfied are two separate people.

B. Yes. This links the new information in the conclusion to the premises as discussed above.

C. No. The argument does not discuss people who hold beliefs not held by a majority of people.

D. No. What you’re looking for is a choice that states that those who demonstrate the falsehood of popular viewpoints anger the majority. This choice flips around the necessary and sufficient terms.

E. No. Like (D), this choice flips around the necessary and sufficient terms.

272
Q
  1. Claude: When I’m having lunch with job candidates,
    I watch to see if they salt their food without
    first tasting it. If they do, I count that against
    them, because they’re making decisions based
    on inadequate information.
    Larissa: That’s silly. It’s perfectly reasonable for me
    to wear a sweater whenever I go into a
    supermarket, because I already know
    supermarkets are always too cool inside to suit
    me. And I never open a credit card offer that
    comes in the mail, because I already know that
    no matter how low its interest rate may be, it
    will never be worthwhile for me.
    The two analogies that Larissa offers can most
    reasonably be interpreted as invoking which one of
    the following principles to criticize Claude’s policy?
    (A) In matters involving personal preference,
    performing an action without first
    ascertaining whether it is appropriate in the
    specific circumstances should not be taken as
    good evidence of faulty decision making,
    because the action may be based on a
    reasoned policy relating to knowledge of a
    general fact about the circumstances.
    (B) In professional decision-making contexts,
    those who have the responsibility of judging
    other people’s suitability for a job should not
    use observations of job-related behavior as a
    basis for inferring general conclusions about
    those people’s character.
    (C) General conclusions regarding a job
    candidate’s suitability for a position should
    not be based exclusively on observations of
    the candidate’s behavior in situations that are
    neither directly job related nor likely to be
    indicative of a pattern of behavior that the
    candidate engages in.
    (D) Individuals whose behavior in specific
    circumstances does not conform to generally
    expected norms should not automatically be
    considered unconcerned with meeting social
    expectations, because such individuals may be
    acting in accordance with reasoned policies
    that they believe should be generally adopted
    by people in similar circumstances.
    (E) Evidence that a particular individual uses bad
    decision-making strategies in matters of
    personal taste should not be considered
    sufficient to warrant a negative assessment of
    his or her suitability for a job, because any
    good decision maker can have occasional
    lapses of rationality with regard to such
    matters.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Principle Match

Claude considers salting one’s food before tasting it a negative trait in job candidates; in Claude’s view, such a decision is based on inadequate information. Larissa responds to Claude’s statement with two analogies, each of which demonstrates that taking an action beforehand based on a general rule is sound policy.

A. Yes. This perfectly describes the principle used by Larissa. In both the supermarket and credit card examples, Larissa shows that sometimes performing an action before ascertaining whether it is the best decision is reasonable since previous experiences have shown it to be so.

B. No. Larissa never states that one should not use observations of job-related behavior to judge a person’s character.

C. No. Although the type of behaviors discussed by Claude and Larissa do not appear to be job related, this choice does not match up with the idea underlying Larissa’s examples, which is that there may be a reasoned policy behind one’s actions even if they are taken prior to establishing a need for them.

D. No. Larissa never discusses social norms.

E. No. Larissa never mentions excusing a person for possible lapses of rationality.

273
Q
  1. On the Caribbean island of Guadeloupe, a researcher
    examined 35 patients with atypical Parkinson’s
    disease and compared their eating habits to those of
    65 healthy adults. She found that all of the patients
    with atypical Parkinson’s regularly ate the tropical
    fruits soursop, custard apple, and pomme cannelle,
    whereas only 10 of the healthy adults regularly ate
    these fruits. From this, she concluded that eating
    these fruits causes atypical Parkinson’s.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
    the researcher’s reasoning?
    (A) For many of the atypical Parkinson’s patients,
    their symptoms stopped getting worse, and in
    some cases actually abated, when they
    stopped eating soursop, custard apple, and
    pomme cannelle.
    (B) Of the healthy adults who did not regularly eat
    soursop, custard apple, and pomme cannelle,
    most had eaten each of these fruits on at least
    one occasion.
    (C) In areas other than Guadeloupe, many people
    who have never eaten soursop, custard apple,
    and pomme cannelle have contracted atypical
    Parkinson’s.
    (D) The 10 healthy adults who regularly ate
    soursop, custard apple, and pomme cannelle
    ate significantly greater quantities of these
    fruits, on average, than did the 35 atypical
    Parkinson’s patients.
    (E) Soursop, custard apple, and pomme cannelle
    contain essential vitamins not contained in
    any other food that is commonly eaten by
    residents of Guadeloupe.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

This is a classic causal argument. The researcher’s conclusion is that eating certain fruits causes atypical Parkinson’s disease. Her evidence is a research study in which those with atypical Parkinson’s regularly ate certain tropical fruits, whereas those without Parkinson’s were less likely to eat the fruit. In order to strengthen this argument, you need to prove that correlation equals causation and that there are no other possible causes.

A. Yes. This is one solid way to prove causation: Remove the cause and the effect goes away.

B. No. If anything, this goes in the wrong direction, showing that some people can eat the fruits without developing Parkinson’s.

C. No. Again, this weakens the argument somewhat, showing that there may be other causes.

D. No. The quantity of the fruit may or may not be relevant to the argument, and this choice somewhat weakens the causal relationship.

E. No. While this may be interesting information and explain why the fruits might be good to eat, it doesn’t have anything to do with atypical Parkinson’s.

274
Q
  1. Price: A corporation’s primary responsibility is to its
    shareholders. They are its most important
    constituency because they take the greatest
    risks. If the corporation goes bankrupt, they
    lose their investment.
    Albrecht: Shareholders typically have diversified
    investment portfolios. For employees,
    however, the well-being of the corporation for
    which they have chosen to work represents
    their very livelihood. The corporation’s
    primary responsibility should be to them.
    On the basis of their statements, Price and Albrecht
    are committed to disagreeing about whether
    (A) corporations have a responsibility to their
    shareholders
    (B) corporations are responsible for the welfare of
    their employees
    (C) means should be provided for a corporation’s
    investors to recoup their losses if the
    corporation goes bankrupt
    (D) a corporation’s shareholders have more at
    stake than anyone else does in the
    corporation’s success or failure
    (E) the livelihood of some of the shareholders
    depends on the corporation’s success
A

Correct Answer: D

D Point at Issue

Price’s point is that a corporation’s primary responsibility is to its shareholders because they take the greatest risks. Albrecht, on the other hand, concludes that a corporation’s primary responsibility should be to its employees because their livelihood is at stake. Price and Albrecht disagree both about the point of their arguments (to whom a corporation should be primarily responsible) and about their central premises (who takes the greatest risks).

A. No. This may be tempting, but the argument is about “primary” responsibility. Albrecht would probably agree that there is some responsibility to shareholders, too.

B. No. This is one of Albrecht’s ideas, but you have no evidence that Price would disagree with this entirely, only about the “primary” responsibility aspect.

C. No. This choice is irrelevant to both arguments, neither of which mentions recouping losses.

D. Yes. Albrecht would disagree with this statement, whereas Price would agree because, as he notes, the shareholders take the greatest risk.

E. No. Neither of the two says this. Price says it’s the investment of the shareholders that is at risk, while Albrecht says it’s the livelihood of the employees.

275
Q
  1. Despite the enormous number of transactions
    processed daily by banks nowadays, if a customer’s
    bank account is accidentally credited with a large
    sum of money, it is extremely unlikely that the error
    will not be detected by the bank’s internal audit
    procedures.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strongly
    supports the claim above?
    (A) Banks initially process all transactions using
    one set of computer programs, but then use a
    different set of programs to double-check
    large transactions.
    (B) Recent changes in banking standards require
    that customers present identification both
    when making deposits into their accounts and
    when making withdrawals from their
    accounts.
    (C) Banks are required by law to send each
    customer a monthly statement detailing every
    transaction of the previous month.
    (D) The average ratio of bank auditors to customer
    accounts has slowly increased over the past
    100 years.
    (E) The development of sophisticated security
    software has rendered bank computers nearly
    impervious to tampering by computer
    hackers.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The argument’s claim is that it is extremely unlikely that a large accidental credit will not be detected, despite the large number of transactions processed daily. In other words, it’s likely that the bank will catch the accidental credit. In order to support this, you need strong evidence of how the bank will catch the error.

A. Yes. Another set of computer programs to double-check is strong evidence that there’s a system in place to detect errors, especially those made by the first set of programs.

B. No. While this might reduce errors on the part of bank tellers, this doesn’t explain how an error will be detected after it happens.

C. No. This might explain how a customer will find mistakes, but not the bank itself (reread the conclusion).

D. No. This choice addresses only the first sentence of the argument, but doesn’t support the conclusion.

E. No. This choice isn’t relevant to the conclusion, which is about detecting errors. This explains why hacking is less likely to happen, which has nothing to do with accidental credits.

276
Q
  1. Scientist: While studying centuries-old Antarctic ice
    deposits, I found that several years of relatively
    severe atmospheric pollution in the 1500s
    coincided with a period of relatively high
    global temperatures. So it is clear in this case
    that atmospheric pollution did cause global
    temperatures to rise.
    The reasoning in the scientist’s argument is most
    vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
    argument
    (A) presumes, without providing justification, that
    a rise in global temperatures is harmful
    (B) draws a general conclusion based on a sample
    that is likely to be unrepresentative
    (C) inappropriately generalizes from facts about a
    specific period of time to a universal claim
    (D) takes for granted that the method used for
    gathering data was reliable
    (E) infers, merely from a claim that two
    phenomena are associated, that one
    phenomenon causes the other
A

Correct Answer: E

E Flaw

The scientist concludes that “in this case” (the 1500s), atmospheric pollution was the cause of global warming. His only evidence is that the pollution coincided with a period of relatively high global temperatures. This is a clear “correlation equals causation” flaw.

A. No. This is irrelevant. No mention is made in the argument as to whether global warming is harmful.

B. No. Reread the conclusion. He’s making a claim only about one specific instance, not about all cases involving a rise in temperatures.

C. No. Reread the conclusion; it says “in this case,” indicating that the scientist is not making a universal claim.

D. No. While the scientist does take the reliability of the data collection for granted, this is not the central flaw in the conclusion.

E. Yes. This is exactly the flaw as stated above.

277
Q
  1. Gilbert: This food label is mistaken. It says that these
    cookies contain only natural ingredients, but
    they contain alphahydroxy acids that are
    chemically synthesized by the cookie company
    at their plant.
    Sabina: The label is not mistaken. After all,
    alphahydroxy acids also are found occurring
    naturally in sugarcane.
    Which one of the following, if true, would most
    strengthen Sabina’s argument?
    (A) The cookie company has recently dropped
    alphahydroxy acids from its cookie
    ingredients.
    (B) Not all chemicals that are part of the
    manufacturing process are ingredients of the
    cookies.
    (C) The label was printed before the cookie
    company decided to switch from sugarcane
    alphahydroxy acids to synthesized ones.
    (D) Many other foods advertising all natural
    ingredients also contain some ingredients that
    are chemically synthesized.
    (E) All substances except those that do not occur
    naturally in any source are considered
    natural.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Strengthen

Gilbert says that the food label, which claims “only natural ingredients,” is mistaken, because the food in question contains chemically synthesized ingredients. Sabina, on the other hand, is claiming that the label is not a mistake, that the ingredients are natural. Her evidence is that alphahydroxy acids occur naturally in sugarcane. She makes one major assumption: Things that occur naturally somewhere else are natural, even if they’re synthesized. You’re looking for a choice that supports her assumption.Best restaurants near me

A. No. This choice address the time period after the label was written, not this particular batch of cookies.

B. No. This is irrelevant. This doesn’t address whether alphahydroxy acids are natural.

C. No. Like (A), this doesn’t address this particular batch of cookies.

D. No. Other foods are irrelevant to whether this label is true. Perhaps the other food labels are mistaken as well.

E. Yes. This choice clearly bridges the gap in Sabina’s argument and, if true, proves that alphahydroxy acids are natural.

278
Q
  1. Although Jaaks is a respected historian, her negative
    review of Yancey’s new book on the history of coastal
    fisheries in the region rests on a mistake. Jaaks’s
    review argues that the book inaccurately portrays the
    lives of fishery workers. However, Yancey used the
    same research methods in this book as in her other
    histories, which have been very popular. This book is
    also very popular in local bookstores.
    The reasoning above is flawed in that it
    (A) relies on the word of a scholar who is
    unqualified in the area in question
    (B) attacks the person making the claim at issue
    rather than addressing the claim
    (C) takes for granted that the popularity of a book
    is evidence of its accuracy
    (D) bases a general conclusion on a sample that is
    likely to be unrepresentative
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    the methods used by Yancey are the only
    methods that would produce accurate results
A

Correct Answer: C

C Flaw

The author is trying to prove that Jaaks’s review of Yancey’s book is wrong and that Yancey’s book is accurate. The only evidence is the book’s similarity to Yancey’s other books, all of which have been very popular. The flaw here is a clear appeal to popular opinion in lieu of providing actual evidence that Yancey’s book is indeed accurate.

A. No. This goes in the wrong direction. The argument is disagreeing with a respected scholar, not relying on her word to advance his argument.

B. No. No attack on either Jaaks’s character or motives is made in the argument. In fact, the author calls her a “respected historian.”

C. Yes. This matches the prediction noted above.

D. No. There is no “sample that is likely to be unrepresentative” given in this argument.

E. No. This doesn’t match what the author does. There is no reference to Yancey’s methods as being the only methods that could yield accurate results.

279
Q
  1. Columnist: It has been noted that attending a live
    musical performance is a richer experience
    than is listening to recorded music. Some say
    that this is merely because we do not see the
    performers when we listen to recorded music.
    However, there must be some other reason, for
    there is relatively little difference between
    listening to someone read a story over the
    radio and listening to someone in the same
    room read a story.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the role played in the argument by the observation
    that attending a live musical performance is a richer
    experience than is listening to recorded music?
    (A) It is what the columnist’s argument purports
    to show.
    (B) It is the reason given for the claim that the
    columnist’s argument is attempting to
    undermine.
    (C) It is what the columnist’s argument purports
    to explain.
    (D) It is what the columnist’s argument purports
    to refute.
    (E) It is what the position that the columnist tries
    to undermine is purported to explain.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Reasoning

The question asks for the role of the first sentence, which states that attending a live musical performance is a richer experience than is listening to recorded music. The columnist notes that some people say that the reason live music is richer is that we do not see the performers in recorded music. The columnist then disagrees with this explanation and says that there must be another reason, drawing an analogy to people reading stories to support this point. Therefore, the role of the first sentence is to provide a fact that some people explain with one cause, with which the columnist disagrees.

A. No. The first sentence is what the columnist is trying to explain; it is not the point of the argument.

B. No. The reason is in the second sentence, not the first.

C. No. The columnist disagrees with a possible explanation of the phenomenon stated in the first sentence; he doesn’t, however, provide his own explanation for it.

D. No. The columnist is refuting the explanation, not the fact itself.

E. Yes. Unfriendly though the wording may be, this is exactly the role of the first sentence. The position that the columnist tries to undermine (live music is richer because you see the performers) is an attempt to explain the phenomenon in the first sentence (attending a live musical performance is a richer experience than is listening to recorded music).

280
Q
  1. Though ice cream is an excellent source of calcium,
    dairy farmers report that during the past ten years
    there has been a sharp decline in ice cream sales. And
    during the same period, sales of cheddar cheese have
    nearly doubled. Therefore, more and more people
    must be choosing to increase their intake of calcium
    by eating cheddar cheese rather than ice cream.
    The reasoning above is most vulnerable to criticism
    on the grounds that it
    (A) fails to produce statistical evidence supporting
    the dairy farmers’ claims
    (B) fails to consider alternative explanations of the
    decline in sales of ice cream
    (C) relies solely on the testimony of individuals
    who are likely to be biased
    (D) presumes, without providing justification, that
    ice cream is a better source of calcium than is
    cheddar cheese
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    people who eat cheddar cheese never eat ice
    cream
A

Correct Answer: B

B Flaw

The author notes that there has been a drop in sales of ice cream, an excellent source of calcium, and a rise in sales of cheddar cheese. His conclusion is that people are choosing to increase their calcium through cheddar cheese rather than ice cream. This is a causal argument, and the central flaw, as in every causal argument, is a failure to consider other causes.

A. No. This is not the flaw in the conclusion. If you take the premises to be true, which you must do on the LSAT, then you don’t need more statistics.

B. Yes. There could be any number of other reasons, unrelated to the increase in sales of cheddar cheese, for the decline in sales of ice cream.

C. No. While the dairy farmers do report their sales, this is not the sole source of evidence. This argument makes no appeal to their authority.

D. No. No mention is made of which product is a better source of calcium.

E. No. The author never describes ice cream and cheddar cheese as being mutually exclusive.

281
Q
  1. No member of the Richardson Theater Group is both
    a performer and an administrator. Since Leon and
    Marta are both members of the Richardson Theater
    Group but neither is an administrator, it follows that
    both are performers.
    Which one of the following arguments displays a
    flawed pattern of reasoning most similar to that in
    the argument above?
    (A) Not all of the employees of the Tedenco
    Company are salaried employees of that
    company. Since Mr. López and Ms. Allen are
    both salaried employees of the Tedenco
    Company, it follows that they are not the only
    employees of the Tedenco Company.
    (B) No employee of the Tedenco Company is both
    an accountant and a corporate attorney.
    Since Ms. Walsh is both an accountant and a
    corporate attorney, it follows that she is not
    an employee of the Tedenco Company.
    (C) No company can have its headquarters in both
    Canada and Mexico. Since neither the
    Dumone Company nor the Tedenco
    Company has its headquarters in Mexico, it
    follows that both have their headquarters in
    Canada.
    (D) No corporate attorney represents both the
    Dumone Company and the Tedenco
    Company. Since Ms. Tseung is a corporate
    attorney who represents the Dumone
    Company, it follows that she does not also
    represent the Tedenco Company.
    (E) No member of the board of directors of the
    Dumone Company is also a member of the
    board of directors of the Tedenco Company.
    Since neither company has fewer than five
    board members, it follows that both boards
    together include at least ten members.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Parallel Flaw

Diagram this in order to see the pattern. No member can be both a performer and an administrator: P → ~A and A → ~P. Leon and Marta are not administrators, so they must be performers: ~A → P, which is a clear violation of the contrapositive. Look for a choice with exactly the same pattern.

A. No. This doesn’t match the original argument. The first sentence should set up two things as mutually exclusive, and this choice does not.

B. No. This choice doesn’t contain a flaw. The first sentence tells you that T → ~A/~C, and the second sentence gives you the contrapositive, A&C → ~T.

C. Yes. This contains the same flaw as the original argument. C → ~M and M → ~C. Dumone and Tedenco are not headquartered in Mexico, so they must have headquarters in Canada: ~M → C.

D. No. This choice doesn’t contain a flaw. This one tells you that D → ~T. Ms. Tseung represents Dumone, so therefore she doesn’t represent Tedenco: D → ~T.

E. No. This choice doesn’t contain a flaw. Also, the second sentence gets into stuff about numbers, which doesn’t parallel the original argument.

282
Q
  1. Chemical fertilizers not only create potential health
    hazards, they also destroy earthworms, which are
    highly beneficial to soil. For this reason alone the use
    of chemical fertilizers should be avoided. The castings
    earthworms leave behind are much richer than the soil
    they ingest, thus making a garden rich in earthworms
    much more fertile than a garden without them.
    Which one of the following most accurately expresses
    the main conclusion of the argument?
    (A) Earthworms are highly beneficial to soil.
    (B) Chemical fertilizers destroy earthworms.
    (C) The castings that earthworms leave behind are
    much richer than the soil they ingest.
    (D) The use of chemical fertilizers should be avoided.
    (E) A garden rich in earthworms is much more
    fertile than a garden that is devoid of
    earthworms.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Main Point

The conclusion here can be found in the second sentence; all the stuff in the first and last sentences is evidence to prove the recommendation that the use of chemical fertilizers should be avoided. Use the “Why Test” to be sure you’ve correctly identified the conclusion.

A. No. This is a premise.

B. No. This is a premise.

C. No. This is a premise.

D. Yes. This is the conclusion as stated above. Note the clue here: The phrase “for this reason” tells you that the prior sentence acts as a premise, so what follows is likely to be the conclusion.

E. No. While this part of the sentence begins with “thus,” it isn’t the main conclusion of the argument. If you apply the “Why Test,” you’ll see that only part of the rest of the argument explains why this statement is true.

283
Q
  1. Medical research has established that the Beta Diet is
    healthier than a more conventional diet. But on
    average, people who have followed the Beta Diet for
    several decades are much more likely to be in poor
    health than are people whose diet is more
    conventional.
    Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
    resolve the apparent conflict between the two
    statements above?
    (A) On average, people who have followed the Beta
    Diet for their entire lives are much more
    likely to have a variety of healthful habits
    than are people whose diet is more
    conventional.
    (B) The Beta Diet is used primarily as a treatment
    for a condition that adversely affects overall
    health.
    (C) People of average health who switch from a
    conventional diet to the Beta Diet generally
    find that their health improves substantially
    as a result.
    (D) The Beta Diet provides dramatic health
    benefits for some people but only minor
    benefits for others.
    (E) Recent research has shown that a diet high in
    fruits, vegetables, and skim milk is even
    healthier than the Beta Diet
A

Correct Answer: B

B Resolve/Explain

Fact 1: The Beta Diet is, overall, a healthier diet. Fact 2: People who follow the Beta Diet for a long time are more likely to be in poor health. You’re looking for something to explain both sides of this. How can a diet be healthier, yet the people who follow it more sickly? There has to be some other factor that makes these people have poor health.

A. No. While this accounts for the first fact, it doesn’t account for the second one.

B. Yes. If many of the people following the diet for a long time were in poor health to begin with, then that explains why people following the diet are in poorer health even though the diet is better.

C. No. Again, this accounts for the first fact, but not the second one.

D. No. This choice splits the group of Beta dieters, but doesn’t explain why on average they’re in poorer health.

E. No. Other diets are irrelevant.

284
Q
  1. A theoretical framework facilitates conceptual
    organization of material and fruitful expansions of
    research. Many historians argue that historical
    analysis is therefore done best within a theoretical
    framework. But the past is too complex for all of its
    main trends to be captured within a theoretical
    framework. Therefore, _______.
    Which one of the following most logically completes
    the argument?
    (A) there is no benefit ever to be gained in
    recommending to historians that they place
    their work within a theoretical framework
    (B) theoretical frameworks are less useful in
    history than they are in any other discipline
    (C) even the best historical analysis done within a
    theoretical framework fails to capture all of
    history’s main trends
    (D) the value of theoretical work in extending
    research has been emphasized by historians
    who recommend doing historical analysis
    within a theoretical framework
    (E) there is no difference between historical
    analysis that is placed within a theoretical
    framework and historical analysis that is not
A

Correct Answer: C

C Main Point

Your job is to fill in the conclusion. The argument starts by stating that a theoretical framework is a good thing, and that many historians argue that historical analysis should use a theoretical framework. The author, however, argues that the past is too complicated for all of its main trends to be captured within a theoretical framework. If you fill in your own conclusion, you might say something such as “Therefore, a theoretical framework won’t allow for a thorough historical analysis.”

A. No. This is close, but too extreme. No benefit, ever? The argument is about the “best” analysis, which doesn’t preclude an incomplete one.

B. No. This is irrelevant. You don’t know anything about their value in other disciplines.

C. Yes. This matches the idea that a theoretical framework won’t be sufficient for a complete historical analysis.

D. No. This choice leads you in the wrong direction; the author suggests that using a theoretical framework may impose some limitations.

E. No. The point is that a theoretical framework won’t be enough for a complete historical analysis; therefore, there might be a big difference between the two analyses.

285
Q
  1. Bethany: Psychologists have discovered a technique for
    replacing one’s nightmares with pleasant dreams,
    and have successfully taught it to adults suffering
    from chronic nightmares. Studies have found
    that nightmare-prone children are especially
    likely to suffer from nightmares as adults. Thus,
    psychologists should direct efforts toward
    identifying nightmare-prone children so that
    these children can be taught the technique for
    replacing their nightmares with pleasant dreams.
    Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
    helps to justify drawing the conclusion in Bethany’s
    argument?
    (A) Psychologists should make an effort to determine
    why certain children are especially prone to
    nightmares while other children are not.
    (B) Any psychological technique that can be
    successfully taught to a child can also be
    successfully taught to an adult.
    (C) Psychologists should do everything they can to
    minimize the number of adults troubled by
    chronic nightmares.
    (D) Identifying nightmare-prone children is
    generally more difficult than teaching adults
    the technique for replacing nightmares with
    pleasant dreams.
    (E) Psychologists should not teach the technique
    for replacing nightmares with pleasant
    dreams to children who are unlikely to suffer
    from nightmares as adults.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Principle Strengthen

Bethany’s conclusion is that psychologists should direct their efforts toward identifying nightmare-prone children so the children can be taught to replace their nightmares with pleasant dreams. Her evidence is that adults can be taught a technique to do this and that children who have nightmares are likely to have nightmares as adults. There are several assumptions at work here (that you can teach children the same technique that you teach adults, that this is worth the psychologists’ time, and so forth). But mostly, you’re looking for a choice that supports the notion that psychologists should direct their efforts toward identifying nightmare-prone children.

A. No. Why children have nightmares is irrelevant; Bethany is concerned only with identifying these children and teaching them techniques to have better dreams.

B. No. This does bridge one of the gaps in the argument, but it’s going in the wrong direction (child to adult) and doesn’t support the main point about psychologists.

C. Yes. This is the only choice that supports the point that psychologists should direct their efforts toward helping nightmare-prone people.

D. No. The difficulty inherent in either identifying children or teaching adults is irrelevant. And, if anything, this choice weakens the argument.

E. No. The argument is about people who are likely to suffer from nightmares, not people who are unlikely to suffer from nightmares.

286
Q
  1. At one sitting, a typical doughnut eater consumes 4
    doughnuts containing a total of 680 calories and 40
    grams of fat. The typical bagel eater consumes
    exactly one bagel, at 500 calories and one or two
    grams of fat per sitting, though the addition of
    spreads can raise calorie and fat content to the fourdoughnut range. Thus, as far as total calorie content
    is concerned, there is very little difference between
    what a typical doughnut eater and a typical bagel
    eater each consumes at one sitting.
    The argument depends on assuming which one of
    the following?
    (A) The calories and fat in bagels have the same
    health impact on bagel eaters as the calories
    and fat in doughnuts have on doughnut eaters.
    (B) Most bagel eaters are not fully aware of the
    calorie and fat content of a bagel.
    (C) Eating bagels instead of eating doughnuts
    provides no real health benefit.
    (D) The typical doughnut eater does not add to
    doughnuts any substances that increase the
    total caloric intake.
    (E) Most typical doughnut eaters are not also
    bagel eaters.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Necessary Assumption

The author concludes that people who eat doughnuts and people who eat bagels consume almost the same number of calories per sitting. The evidence for this is that doughnut eaters consume about 680 calories per sitting and that while bagel eaters consume only 500 calories in bagels, they can add extra calories in the form of spreads. This argument assumes that all factors in the comparison are the same and that there are no other factors that would make the calorie counts different.

A. No. This is a tempting answer, but if you reread the conclusion, you’ll see it is only about total calorie content. Therefore, fat and health impact are both irrelevant.

B. No. Bagel eaters’ awareness is irrelevant to the argument, which is about the number of calories consumed.

C. No. This is irrelevant; health benefits are not part of the argument.

D. Yes. This is the “no other factors” answer you were looking for. Use the “Negation Test” to be sure: If the doughnut eater does add other substances, then the doughnut eater is going to consume a lot more calories than the bagel eater will.

E. No. The argument does not set up doughnut eaters and bagel eaters as mutually exclusive groups. If you negate this choice, it doesn’t have any effect on the number of calories consumed in one sitting and therefore does not invalidate the conclusion.

287
Q
  1. Bowers: A few theorists hold the extreme view that
    society could flourish in a condition of
    anarchy, the absence of government. Some of
    these theorists have even produced interesting
    arguments to support that position. One writer,
    for example, contends that anarchy is laissezfaire capitalism taken to its logical extreme. But
    these theorists’ views ignore the fundamental
    principle of social philosophy—that an
    acceptable social philosophy must promote
    peace and order. Any social philosophy that
    countenances chaos, i.e., anarchy, accordingly
    deserves no further attention.
    The reasoning in Bowers’s argument is most
    vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that
    (A) the meaning of a key term shifts illicitly during
    the course of the argument
    (B) the argument fails to show that laissez-faire
    capitalism deserves to be rejected as a social
    philosophy
    (C) the truth or falsity of a view is not determined
    by the number of people who accept it as true
    (D) the argument presumes, without providing
    justification, that any peaceful society will
    flourish
    (E) it is unreasonable to reject a view merely
    because it can be described as extreme
A

Correct Answer: A

A Flaw

Bowers disagrees with the view of some theorists, who believe that society could flourish in a condition of anarchy. However, while the theorists define anarchy as merely the absence of government, Bowers defines anarchy as a social philosophy that countenances chaos. Therefore, the flaw in Bowers’s argument is this shift in meaning.

A. Yes. The key term, anarchy, is defined in two different ways.

B. No. The argument is about anarchy, not laissez-faire capitalism.

C. No. Bowers never mentions the number of people who hold a particular view as grounds for rejecting that view.

D. No. Whether a peaceful society will flourish is irrelevant to the argument.

E. No. Bowers doesn’t reject the view because it’s extreme; he rejects it based on his definition of anarchy.

288
Q
  1. All poets, aside from those who write only epigrams,
    have wit. All lyrical composers are poets. Azriel does
    not write epigrams, though he is a lyrical composer.
    So Azriel has wit.
    The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following
    is most similar to that in the argument above?
    (A) All squeeze toys, except those designed for cats,
    are safe for infants. All squeeze toys are sold
    prewrapped. This item is not designed for
    cats, and it is sold prewrapped. So it must be
    safe for infants.
    (B) Aside from the dogcatcher and the police chief,
    all of the politicians in town are lawyers. All
    of the politicians in town have websites. Sal is
    a politician in town, but is neither the
    dogcatcher nor the police chief. Since Sal is a
    politician in town he must have a website.
    (C) All visas are assigned by this office, except for
    those that are issued through diplomatic
    channels. All visit permits are visas. Thus, the
    visit permit in Will’s passport was assigned
    through diplomatic channels.
    (D) All of this store’s winter garments are on sale,
    except for the designer clothes. None of the
    shirts in this store are designer clothes. This
    shirt, therefore, since it is on sale, is a winter
    garment.
    (E) All residential buildings are subject to the
    original fire code, except for those built last
    year. All townhouses are residential buildings.
    Bloom House was not built last year, and it is
    a townhouse, so it is subject to the original
    fire code.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Parallel Reasoning

Start by diagramming the statements. Poet and ~ only epigrams → wit. Lyrical composer → poet, which means, if he doesn’t write epigrams, he’ll have wit. Then apply this rule to specific case: Azriel is a lyrical composer, which means he’s a poet. He doesn’t write epigrams, so therefore he has wit. You need to find an answer choice with this same logical structure.

A. No. While this choice contains many of the same elements, the conclusion doesn’t match that of the original argument.

B. No. The original argument has only one exception; this choice starts off with two exceptions, so it can’t be parallel.

C. No. While this choice starts off with the right elements, it ultimately confuses the rule (assigned by this office) with the exception (diplomatic channels) and is therefore not correct.

D. No. The last sentence in this choice reverses the rule. To match the original argument, it would need to be winter garment → sale, not the other way around.

E. Yes. Bloom House is a townhouse, which means it’s a residential building. It wasn’t built last year, so therefore it’s subject to the original fire code.

289
Q
  1. Teachers should not do anything to cause their
    students to lose respect for them. And students can
    sense when someone is trying to hide his or her
    ignorance. Therefore, a teacher who does not know
    the answer to a question a student has asked should
    not pretend to know the answer.
    The conclusion is properly drawn if which one of the
    following is assumed?
    (A) A teacher cannot be effective unless he or she
    retains the respect of students.
    (B) Students respect honesty above all else.
    (C) Students’ respect for a teacher is independent
    of the amount of knowledge they attribute to
    that teacher.
    (D) Teachers are able to tell when students respect
    them.
    (E) Students lose respect for teachers whenever
    they sense that the teachers are trying to hide
    their ignorance.
A

Correct Answer: E

E Sufficient Assumption

The argument concludes that a teacher who doesn’t know the answer to a question shouldn’t pretend to know the answer. The support for this conclusion is that teachers should not cause students to lose respect for them and that students can sense when someone is trying to hide his or her ignorance. There seems to be a big shift in language between the first two sentences of this argument and its conclusion—namely, that if a teacher tries to hide his or her ignorance, students will lose respect for that teacher.

A. No. Effectiveness is irrelevant.

B. No. Honesty is irrelevant.

C. No. The amount of knowledge students attribute to a teacher is irrelevant; the argument is focused on how teachers act when they don’t know the answer to a question.

D. No. The argument is not concerned with whether teachers are able to tell when students respect them.

E. Yes. This is a clear expression of the language shift in this argument.

290
Q
  1. Contrary to Malthus’s arguments, human foodproducing capacity has increased more rapidly than
    human population. Yet, agricultural advances often
    compromise biological diversity. Therefore, Malthus’s
    prediction that insufficient food will doom humanity
    to war, pestilence, and famine will likely be proven
    correct in the future, because a lack of biodiversity
    will eventually erode our capacity to produce food.
    The statement that human food-producing capacity
    has increased more rapidly than human population
    plays which one of the following roles in the
    argument?
    (A) It is a hypothesis the argument provides
    reasons for believing to be presently false.
    (B) It is a part of the evidence used in the
    argument to support the conclusion that a
    well-known view is misguided.
    (C) It is an observation that the argument suggests
    actually supports Malthus’s position.
    (D) It is a general fact that the argument offers
    reason to believe will eventually change.
    (E) It is a hypothesis that, according to the
    argument, is accepted on the basis of
    inadequate evidence.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Reasoning

This question asks you to determine the role played by the statement “human food-producing…population.” This fact is contrary to one of Malthus’s arguments, but the overall conclusion agrees with Malthus’s prediction. So, what’s the role? It’s a fact, but it’s one that won’t be true anymore in the future, when a lack of biodiversity will erode humans’ capacity to produce food.

A. No. It is currently a true statement.

B. No. There is no well-known view in this argument, only Malthus’s prediction, which the argument’s conclusion agrees with.

C. No. The statement actually contradicts Malthus’s arguments.

D. Yes. It’s true now, and the argument predicts that this fact won’t be true in the future.

E. No. There is no mention in the argument as to the quality of the evidence supporting this statement.

291
Q
  1. At a gathering at which bankers, athletes, and lawyers
    are present, all of the bankers are athletes and none
    of the lawyers are bankers.
    If the statements above are true, which one of the
    following statements must also be true?
    (A) All of the athletes are bankers.
    (B) Some of the lawyers are not athletes.
    (C) Some of the athletes are not lawyers.
    (D) All of the bankers are lawyers.
    (E) None of the lawyers are athletes.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Inference

Diagram all the facts and see what you know. All bankers are athletes: B → A; ~A → ~B. So you know that at least one of the athletes is a banker, but there might be other non-banker athletes, too. You also know that no lawyers are bankers: L → ~B; B → ~L. Put it all together, and you know that at least one athlete (the one who is a banker) is not a lawyer.

A. No. This is a clear violation of the contrapositive.

B. No. The lawyers could all be athletes, just not banker athletes.

C. Yes. This matches your prediction and must be true. You know there’s at least one banker there and that he must be an athlete, but because he’s a banker, he cannot be a lawyer.

D. No. This contradicts the end of the sentence.

E. No. As noted in (B), it’s possible to have lawyer athletes.

292
Q
  1. Quality control investigator: Upon testing samples
    of products from our supplier that were sent
    by our field inspectors from various
    manufacturing locations, our laboratory
    discovered that over 20 percent of the samples
    were defective. Since our supplier is
    contractually required to limit the rate of
    defects among items it manufactures for us to
    below 5 percent, it has violated its contract
    with us.
    The reasoning in the quality control investigator’s
    argument is flawed in that the argument
    (A) bases its conclusion on too small a sample of
    items tested by the laboratory
    (B) presumes, without providing justification, that
    the field inspectors were just as likely to
    choose a defective item for testing as they
    were to choose a nondefective item
    (C) overlooks the possibility that a few of the
    manufacturing sites are responsible for most
    of the defective items
    (D) overlooks the possibility that the field
    inspectors tend to choose items for testing
    that they suspect are defective
    (E) presumes, without providing justification, that
    the field inspectors made an equal number of
    visits to each of the various manufacturing
    sites of the supplier
A

Correct Answer: D

D Flaw

The investigator concludes that the supplier has violated its contractual obligation to limit the rate of defects to 5 percent. The investigator’s evidence is that 20 percent of the products sampled were defective. The investigator is assuming that the sample was representative and that there are no additional factors that would make the sample unrepresentative.

A. No. This does address the sample, but not how the sample might be unrepresentative.

B. No. This does address the statistical nature of the flaw. However, if this were the case, then the results would be 50 percent defective, not 20 percent defective.

C. No. Whether only a few of the sites are responsible for the defective products doesn’t affect the overall percentage of defective products.

D. Yes. If the inspectors are choosing only samples that they suspect are defective, then the sample is clearly unrepresentative of the whole.

E. No. The number of visits made to each site is irrelevant to the percentage of defective products.

293
Q
  1. Essayist: When the first prehistoric migrations of
    humans from Asia to North America took
    place, the small bands of new arrivals
    encountered many species of animals that
    would be extinct only 2,000 years later. Since it
    is implausible that hunting by these small
    bands of humans could have had such an
    effect, and since disease-causing
    microorganisms not native to North America
    were undoubtedly borne by the new arrivals as
    well as by the animals that followed them,
    these microorganisms were probably the
    crucial factor that accounts for the extinctions.
    Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
    essayist’s argument?
    (A) Animals weakened by disease are not only less
    able to avoid hunters but are also less able to
    avoid their other predators.
    (B) Human beings generally have a substantial
    degree of biological immunity to the diseases
    carried by other species.
    (C) Very few species of North American animals
    not hunted by the new arrivals from Asia
    were extinct 2,000 years after the first
    migrations.
    (D) Individual humans and animals can carry a
    disease-causing microorganism without
    themselves suffering from the disease.
    (E) Some species of North American animals
    became extinct more than 2,000 years after
    the arrival in North America of the first
    prehistoric human migrants from Asia.
A

Correct Answer: C

C Weaken

The essayist’s conclusion is that microorganisms were the main cause of all the extinctions, given that it is implausible that the hunting done by humans at the time could have had such an effect. The central assumption of every causal argument is that there are no other causes or factors that could explain the phenomenon at issue. So to weaken the argument, you need another clear cause of the extinctions.

A. No. This strengthens the argument by showing how the disease-causing microorganisms could have caused the extinctions.

B. No. Whether humans have immunity is irrelevant to the argument, which is focused on animals.

C. Yes. By showing that most of the animals that later became extinct were those hunted by humans, this choice gives a clear alternative cause: hunting.

D. No. This doesn’t provide an alternative cause for the extinctions.

E. No. This is outside the scope of the argument, which focuses on the animals that became extinct 2,000 years after the first migrations.

294
Q
  1. A recent study confirms that nutritious breakfasts
    make workers more productive. For one month,
    workers at Plant A received free nutritious breakfasts
    every day before work, while workers in Plant B did
    not. The productivity of Plant A’s workers increased,
    while that of Plant B’s workers did not.
    Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
    the argument?
    (A) Few workers in Plant B consumed nutritious
    breakfasts during the month of the study.
    (B) Workers in the study from Plant A and Plant B
    started work at the same time of day.
    (C) During the month before the study, workers at
    Plant A and Plant B were equally productive.
    (D) Workers from Plant A took fewer vacation
    days per capita during the month than did
    workers from Plant B.
    (E) Workers in Plant B were more productive
    during the month of the study than were
    workers from Plant A.
A

Correct Answer: A

A Strengthen

The argument’s conclusion is that nutritious breakfasts help workers to be more productive. The evidence is a study about workers at two plants, Plant A and Plant B. In order for this argument to be true, you need to prove that the nutritious breakfast was the only cause of the difference in productivity and that the only difference between the groups was their breakfasts.

A. Yes. If Plant B workers didn’t consume nutritious breakfasts, then it helps prove the causal relationship (no cause, no effect).

B. No. Starting at the same time of day doesn’t have any significance for the workers’ productivity or the quality of their breakfasts.

C. No. This establishes that the two groups are comparable, but not that the nutritious breakfast was the cause of the difference in productivity.

D. No. This shows that there’s another factor, which would hurt the argument.

E. No. This shows that the two groups were different and therefore hurts the overall argument.

295
Q
  1. This year a flood devastated a small river town.
    Hollyville, also a river town, responded with an
    outpouring of aid in which a majority of its residents
    participated, a proportion that far surpassed that of a
    few years ago when Hollyville sent aid to victims of a
    highly publicized earthquake. This year’s
    circumstances were a reversal of last year’s, when
    Hollyville itself was the scene of a deadly tornado
    and so the recipient rather than the supplier of
    emergency aid.
    The situation described above most closely conforms
    to which one of the following generalizations?
    (A) People are more likely to aid people they know
    than they are to aid strangers.
    (B) Those who have received aid are more likely to
    be in favor of government relief programs
    than are those who have not.
    (C) The amount of aid that victims of a disaster
    receive is unrelated to the extent to which the
    disaster is publicized.
    (D) Once a disaster has struck them, people are
    more likely to aid others in need than they
    were before the disaster.
    (E) People are more likely to aid those who have
    experienced a hardship similar to one they
    themselves have experienced than to aid those
    who have experienced a dissimilar hardship.
A

Correct Answer: D

D Principle Match

A small river town gets flooded, and Hollyville, another town that’s been through a disaster, gives out a whole lot of aid, more than it gave to a different town that had been shaken by an earthquake prior to Hollyville’s being hit by a tornado last year. What does this show? It seems to suggest that people give more when they’ve gone through some kind of trouble themselves.

A. No. There’s no indication as to whether the people of Hollyville know the victims in the small river town.

B. No. Government relief programs are irrelevant.

C. No. You don’t know how much this disaster (the flood) has been publicized.

D. Yes. This is most supported by the situation. Review the timeline—they gave more because they’d been through a disaster recently, too.

E. No. Though Hollyville is a river town, it experienced a tornado, not a flood, so this choice doesn’t match.

296
Q
  1. Market analyst: According to my research, 59 percent
    of consumers anticipate paying off their credit
    card balances in full before interest charges
    start to accrue, intending to use the cards only
    to avoid carrying cash and writing checks. This
    research also suggests that in trying to win
    business from their competitors, credit card
    companies tend to concentrate on improving
    the services their customers are the most
    interested in. Therefore, my research would
    lead us to expect that _______.
    Which one of the following most logically completes
    the market analyst’s argument?
    (A) most consumers would be indifferent about
    which company’s credit card they use
    (B) credit card companies would not make the
    interest rates they charge on cards the main
    selling point
    (C) most consumers would prefer paying interest
    on credit card debts over borrowing money
    from banks
    (D) most consumers would ignore the length of
    time a credit card company allows to pay the
    balance due before interest accrues
    (E) the most intense competition among credit card
    companies would be over the number of places
    that they can get to accept their credit card
A

Correct Answer: B

B Main Point

You need to supply the conclusion here, so put the premises together. The first premise is that many consumers anticipate paying off their credit card balances before interest charges accrue. The second premise is that in order to win business, credit card companies tend to focus on improving the services that their customers are most interested in. So you might expect, then, that they would focus less on the interest rates they charge and more on other things.

A. No. They would probably care about some things, particularly the services offered by the card.

B. Yes. If customers expect to pay off their card balances before the interest kicks in, they won’t care too much about the advertised interest rates.

C. No. Borrowing money from banks is irrelevant, and most consumers don’t intend to pay the interest anyway.

D. No. If they anticipate paying off the balance before interest accrues, they’ll probably pay attention to the length of time they have before said interest kicks in.

E. No. The number of places that accept a given credit card is irrelevant.

297
Q
  1. About 3 billion years ago, the Sun was only 80
    percent as luminous as it is currently. Such
    conditions today would result in the freezing of
    Earth’s oceans, but geological evidence shows that
    water rather than ice filled the oceans at that time.
    Heat is trapped within Earth’s atmosphere through
    the presence of carbon dioxide, which, like methane,
    is a “greenhouse gas.” Only if the level of greenhouse
    gases were higher 3 billion years ago than it is today
    would Earth have retained enough heat to keep the
    oceans from freezing. It is likely, therefore, that the
    level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere was
    significantly higher then than it is today.
    Which one of the following, if true, weakens the
    argument?
    (A) Sufficient heat to keep the oceans liquid 3
    billion years ago could not have been
    generated through geological processes such
    as volcanic activity.
    (B) Geological studies indicate that there is much
    less methane in Earth’s atmosphere today
    than there was 3 billion years ago.
    (C) Geological evidence indicates that the oceans
    contained greater amounts of dissolved
    minerals 3 billion years ago, but not enough
    to alter their freezing points significantly.
    (D) The increase in the Sun’s luminosity over the
    past 3 billion years roughly coincided with an
    increasing complexity of life forms on Earth.
    (E) Because the distance from Earth to the Sun has
    not changed significantly over the last 3
    billion years, the increase in the Sun’s
    luminosity has resulted in more radiation
    reaching Earth.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Weaken

The argument concludes that the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere 3 billion years ago was higher than it is today. The evidence is that water, rather than ice, filled the oceans at that time. The only way that could have been possible is if there were a higher level of greenhouse gases, gases such as carbon dioxide and methane, in Earth’s atmosphere than there is today. To weaken this, you need to show that something other than carbon dioxide was responsible for keeping the oceans from freezing.

A. No. This says that volcanic activity was not the cause. In other words, this choice would strengthen the argument.

B. Yes. If there was a lot of methane around 3 billion years ago, then methane, rather than carbon dioxide, could have been responsible for warming the oceans.

C. No. This choice also eliminates another potential cause and would therefore strengthen the argument.

D. No. The increasing complexity of life forms is irrelevant.

E. No. This choice explains how Earth got warmer, but not why the oceans were warm enough to be full of water 3 billion years ago.

298
Q
  1. Commentator: For a free market to function
    properly, each prospective buyer of an item
    must be able to contact a large number of
    independent prospective sellers and compare
    the prices charged for the item to what the
    item is worth. Thus, despite advertised prices
    and written estimates available from many of
    its individual businesses, the auto repair
    industry does not constitute a properly
    functioning free market.
    The conclusion of the commentator’s argument
    follows logically if which one of the following is
    assumed?
    (A) People do not usually shop for auto repairs but
    instead take their autos to their regular repair
    shop out of habit.
    (B) Some persons who are shopping for auto
    repairs cannot determine what these repairs
    are worth.
    (C) Not all auto repair shops give customers
    written estimates.
    (D) Many auto repair shops charge more for auto
    repairs than these repairs are worth.
    (E) Because it is not regulated, the auto repair
    industry does not have standardized prices.
A

Correct Answer: B

B Sufficient Assumption

The conclusion is that the auto repair industry is not a free market. The central premise is that a free market allows each buyer to contact a large number of sellers to figure out what an item is worth. The new idea introduced in the conclusion, but not mentioned in the premise, is the auto repair industry, so the commentator must be assuming that the auto repair industry doesn’t allow people to assess what an item is worth.

A. No. This is irrelevant; the fact that people go to a regular repair shop out of habit doesn’t mean that it’s impossible to assess what an item is worth.

B. Yes. This choice links the premise (what these repairs are worth) to the conclusion (auto repairs).

C. No. Written estimates aren’t essential to determining the worth of a repair.

D. No. This wouldn’t matter if the auto repair industry were a properly functioning free market.

E. No. Regulation of the industry is irrelevant.

299
Q
  1. Jim’s teacher asked him to determine whether a sample
    of a substance contained iron. Jim knew that magnets
    attract iron, so he placed a magnet near the substance.
    Jim concluded that the substance did contain iron,
    because the substance became attached to the magnet.

Jim’s reasoning is questionable in that it fails to
consider the possibility that

(A) iron sometimes fails to be attracted to magnets
(B) iron is attracted to other objects besides magnets
(C) the magnet needed to be oriented in a certain
way
(D) magnets attract substances other than iron
(E) some magnets attract iron more strongly than
others

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

Jim concludes that the substance he was examining contained iron. He concludes this on the basis of the fact that magnets attract iron, and the substance became attached to the magnet. Jim confuses a necessary factor (all iron is magnetic) with a sufficient factor (only iron is magnetic). If the substance does contain iron, then it will behave in this way; however, knowing that it behaves this way doesn’t prove that it contains iron. It could contain something else that magnets attract (another metal, for example).

A. No. This is not possible because according to the argument, “magnets attract iron.”

B. No. This is irrelevant. The attractive object used here was definitely a magnet, so even if iron is attracted to other things, that would have no bearing on what happened.

C. No. Even if this were true, it is not clear what orientation has to do with anything. The argument says that magnets attract iron, but it does not make clear whether they do so in every possible orientation or only in some, so it is impossible to know what bearing this has on the argument.

D. Yes. A magnet attracted this substance. If magnets attract substances other than iron, then the fact that this magnet attracted this substance does not prove that the substance is iron.

E. No. The strength of the attraction is irrelevant. The issue at hand is whether the substance contained iron or not, not how best to attract it.

300
Q
  1. All the books in the library have their proper shelf
    locations recorded in the catalog. The book Horatio
    wants is missing from its place on the library shelves,
    and no one in the library is using it. Since it is not
    checked out to a borrower nor awaiting shelving nor
    part of a special display, it must have been either
    misplaced or stolen.

Which one of the following most accurately describes
the method of reasoning used in the argument?

(A) An observation about one object is used as a
basis for a general conclusion regarding the
status of similar objects.
(B) A deficiency in a system is isolated by arguing
that the system failed to control one of the
objects that it was intended to control.
(C) A conclusion about a particular object is
rebutted by observing that a generalization that
applies to most such objects does not apply to
the object in question.
(D) A generalization is rejected by showing that it
fails to hold in one particular instance.
(E) The conclusion is supported by ruling out other
possible explanations of an observed fact.

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Reasoning

The argument concludes that the book Horatio wants was either misplaced or stolen. It does so on the basis of the facts that it is not in its proper place, no one is using it, it is not checked out, it is not awaiting shelving, and it is not part of a special display. That is, it rules out the alternatives to being misplaced or stolen.

A. No. There is no general conclusion about the status of similar objects. The only object mentioned is the book that Horatio wants.

B. No. The conclusion is not that there is a deficiency in the library’s system for keeping track of books. While a possible next step for this argument would be to say, on the basis of the fact that a book could be misplaced or stolen in this fashion, that the system is deficient, the argument never actually takes this next step.

C. No. There is no generalization that applies to most such objects but not to this one. The only generalization in the argument is that all the books have their proper shelf locations recorded in the catalog, but this appears to apply to Horatio’s book, too, since the librarians know that Horatio’s book is definitely not where it is supposed to be.

D. No. There is no generalization that fails to hold in one particular instance. Just as in (C), the only generalization is the one in the first sentence, but it applies to Horatio’s desired book just as well as to any other book.

E. Yes. The other possible explanations ruled out are that it is in its proper place, someone is using it, it is checked out, it is awaiting shelving, or it is part of a special display.

301
Q
  1. The level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere is slightly
    higher than it was ten years ago. This increase is
    troubling because ten years ago the Interior Ministry
    imposed new, stricter regulations on emissions from
    coal-burning power plants. If these regulations had been
    followed, then the level of sulfur dioxide in the
    atmosphere would have decreased.

Which one of the following can be properly inferred
from the statements above?

(A) If current regulations on emissions from
coal-burning power plants are not followed
from now on, then the level of sulfur dioxide
in the atmosphere will continue to increase.
(B) There have been violations of the regulations on
emissions from coal-burning power plants that
were imposed ten years ago.
(C) If the regulations on emissions from
coal-burning power plants are made even
stronger, the level of sulfur dioxide in the
atmosphere still will not decrease.
(D) Emissions from coal-burning power plants are
one of the main sources of air pollution.
(E) Government regulations will never reduce the
level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere.

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Inference

The last sentence says that if the regulations had been followed, the level of sulfur dioxide would have decreased. The first sentence says that the level of sulfur dioxide did not decrease. Combining these statements, we know that the regulations have not been followed.

A. No. All of the statements given are about the past. No predictions about the future are logically justified on the basis of generalizations solely about the past.

B. Yes. The contrapositive of the third sentence is that if the level of sulfur dioxide did not decrease, then the regulations were not followed, and the first sentence says that the level of sulfur dioxide did not decrease. The regulations have not been followed, so there have been violations.

C. No. All of the statements given are about the past. No predictions about the future are logically justified on the basis of generalizations solely about the past.

D. No. This might be true based on outside knowledge, but the statements do not mention whether these emissions are significant as sources of air pollution or not.

E. No. All of the statements given are about the past. No predictions about the future are logically justified on the basis of generalizations solely about the past. The word “never” makes a prediction about the future in this answer choice.

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302
Q
  1. Ecologist: Landfills are generally designed to hold ten
    years’ worth of waste. Some people maintain that
    as the number of active landfills consequently
    dwindles over the coming decade, there will
    inevitably be a crisis in landfill availability.
    However, their prediction obviously relies on the
    unlikely assumption that no new landfills will
    open as currently active ones close and is
    therefore unsound.

The claim that there will be a crisis in landfill availability
plays which one of the following roles in the ecologist’s
argument?

(A) It follows from the claim stated in the argument’s
first sentence.
(B) It is the main conclusion of the argument.
(C) It establishes the truth of the argument’s
conclusion.
(D) It is a claim on which the argument as a whole is
designed to cast doubt.
(E) It is an intermediate conclusion of the argument.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Reasoning

The argument is structured to disagree with the particular part that the question asks about. The unstated conclusion, signaled by the “However,” is that it is not inevitable that there will be a crisis in landfill availability. Thus, the role of the claim asked about is to put forward a point of view that the rest of the argument tries to refute.

A. No. The ecologist appears to believe that the first sentence is true, since it is stated without any attribution to anyone else or contradicted anywhere. However, the next sentence does not follow from that, because the ecologist does not believe that it is true.

B. No. The main conclusion is unstated and disagrees with the claim asked about.

C. No. It is not evidence that supports the argument’s conclusion.

D. Yes. This is indicated by the fact that the ecologist says that “Some people” think this, opening the possibility that he might not, and this possibility is confirmed by the “However” that follows.

E. No. It is something the argument disagrees with. An intermediate conclusion would be direct support for the main conclusion, not an opposing point of view.

303
Q
  1. Recent epidemiological studies report that Country X
    has the lowest incidence of disease P of any country.
    Nevertheless, residents of Country X who are reported
    to have contracted disease P are much more likely to die
    from it than are residents of any other country.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
resolve the apparent discrepancy described above?

(A) There are several forms of disease P, some of
which are more contagious than others.
(B) Most of the fatal cases of disease P found in
Country X involve people who do not reside in
Country X.
(C) In Country X, diagnosis of disease P seldom
occurs except in the most severe cases of the
disease.
(D) The number of cases of disease P that occur in
any country fluctuates widely from year to year.
(E) Because of its climate, more potentially fatal
illnesses occur in Country X than in many
other countries.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Resolve/Explain

The first sentence indicates that disease P does not occur very often in Country X, and the second sentence adds that when it does occur, it causes death more often in Country X than in other countries. The credited response should explain that the few cases of disease P in Country X are much worse than the many cases elsewhere.

A. No. This does not address the fatality rate; even if some forms are more contagious than others, that just means that certain forms are more likely to spread from one person to another, which does not explain why people die in Country X.

B. No. Even if the people who die of disease P in Country X are from other countries, this answer still does not explain why they die of the disease primarily when they’re in Country X and not in their own countries.

C. Yes. If this is true, then the high death rate comes as a natural consequence of diagnosing only the most severe cases. It connects the low incidence rate—they diagnose only the most severe cases, so perhaps they are not diagnosing the less severe cases and are undercounting the actual incidence of the disease—and the high fatality rate—they diagnose only the most severe cases, so those who are diagnosed are very likely to die.

D. No. This does not address the fatality rate.

E. No. Even if there are other fatal illnesses, this answer still does not explain why this particular disease, disease P, has this fatality rate. Other illnesses are out of scope.

304
Q
  1. After an oil spill, rehabilitation centers were set up to
    save sea otters by removing oil from them. The effort
    was not worthwhile, however, since 357 affected live
    otters and 900 that had died were counted, but only
    222 affected otters, or 18 percent of those counted, were
    successfully rehabilitated and survived. Further, the
    percentage of all those affected that were successfully
    rehabilitated was much lower still, because only a fifth
    of the otters that died immediately were ever found.

Which one of the following, as potential challenges,
most seriously calls into question evidence offered in
support of the conclusion above?

(A) Do sea otters of species other than those
represented among the otters counted exist in
areas that were not affected by the oil spill?
(B) How is it possible to estimate, of the sea otters
that died, how many were not found?
(C) Did the process of capturing sea otters
unavoidably involve trapping and releasing
some otters that were not affected by the spill?
(D) Were other species of wildlife besides sea otters
negatively affected by the oil spill?
(E) What was the eventual cost, per otter
rehabilitated, of the rehabilitation operation?

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Weaken

The argument concludes that the effort to save sea otters by removing oil from them was not worthwhile. The evidence is that they were not able to save a very high percentage: 18 percent of the otters that were physically seen and counted were saved, and only a fifth of the affected otters were ever found. Since the question stem specifically says to attack the integrity of the evidence, it is likely that this last part—the number of otters never found was estimated somehow—is going to be attacked.

A. No. If sea otters in other areas existed, they would not be relevant to this argument, because this argument is only about this effort for these otters.

B. Yes. The argument claims to estimate the total number of otters, including those that were never found, and it uses this as evidence for its conclusion.

C. No. Even if the process did involve trapping some unaffected otters, it is not clear how that would affect the worth of the effort. The effort still saved some otters and failed to save others.

D. No. The effort did not involve other species of wildlife, so this answer is irrelevant.

E. No. Knowing the costs associated with saving otters would not address the evidence offered in the argument.

305
Q
  1. Psychologist: Research has shown that a weakened
    immune system increases vulnerability to cancer.
    So, cancer-patient support groups, though derided
    by those who believe that disease is a purely
    biochemical phenomenon, may indeed have
    genuine therapeutic value, as it is clear that
    participation in such groups reduces participants’
    stress levels.

Which one of the following is an assumption required
by the psychologist’s argument?

(A) Cancer patients can learn to function well under
extreme stress.
(B) Disease is not a biochemical phenomenon at all.
(C) Stress can weaken the immune system.
(D) Discussing one’s condition eliminates the stress
of being in that condition.
(E) Stress is a symptom of a weakened immune
system.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Necessary Assumption

The conclusion is that cancer-patient support groups may have genuine therapeutic value. The evidence involves a language shift: The author assumes that the group’s reduction in stress levels is connected to a weakened immune system and a vulnerability to cancer. This is the missing link in the chain from support groups to stress levels to immune systems to vulnerability to cancer.

A. No. This answer makes support groups less necessary, because if they can function well under extreme stress, then the stress-reducing effects of the support groups are not needed. This hurts the argument instead of helping it.

B. No. This is not required by the argument, as can be seen from the Negation Test: If disease is a biochemical phenomenon at least in part, these groups could still reduce stress, and stress reduction could still help strengthen the immune system, provided that there is some biochemical reaction to stress reduction.

C. Yes. This connects the premises to the conclusion. Use the Negation Test: If stress can’t weaken the immune system, then stress reductions won’t help the weakened immune system problem described in the first sentence, which means that the stress reductions no longer necessarily have anything to do with helping cancer victims. The argument falls apart.

D. No. This is not necessary to the argument. Even if discussing the condition only reduces but does not eliminate the stress of the condition, the stress reduction could help the immune system.

E. No. This is backwards: If stress is a symptom of a weakened immune system, then stress reduction won’t help the immune system, because it will alleviate only a symptom of the problem, not the root cause of it.

306
Q
  1. Adobe is an ideal material for building in desert
    environments. It conducts heat very slowly. As a result,
    a house built of adobe retains the warmth of the desert
    sun during the cool evenings and then remains cool
    during the heat of the day, thereby helping to maintain a
    pleasant temperature. In contrast, houses built of other
    commonly used building materials, which conduct heat
    more rapidly, grow hot during the day and cold at night.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion drawn in the argument above?

(A) Adobe is a suitable substitute for other building
materials where the heat-conduction properties
of the structure are especially important.
(B) In the desert, adobe buildings remain cool
during the heat of the day but retain the
warmth of the sun during the cool evenings.
(C) Because adobe conducts heat very slowly, adobe
houses maintain a pleasant, constant temperature.
(D) Ideally, a material used for building houses
in desert environments should enable those
houses to maintain a pleasant, constant
temperature.
(E) Adobe is an especially suitable material to use for
building houses in desert environments.

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Main Point

The conclusion is the first sentence. The second sentence is a fact about adobe, and the third sentence explains why this feature of adobe is useful in deserts, which justifies that adobe is good for building in deserts. The third sentence also makes a contrast with other building materials to justify that adobe is special in this regard. The other three sentences support the first, and the credited response should match the first sentence as closely as possible.

A. No. This is not what the first sentence says.

B. No. This is not what the first sentence says.

C. No. This is not what the first sentence says.

D. No. This is not what the first sentence says.

E. Yes. This is almost exactly the same wording as the first sentence.

307
Q
  1. In one study of a particular plant species, 70 percent of
    the plants studied were reported as having patterned
    stems. In a second study, which covered approximately
    the same geographical area, only 40 percent of the
    plants of that species were reported as having patterned
    stems.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
resolve the apparent discrepancy described above?

(A) The first study was carried out at the time of
year when plants of the species are at their
most populous.
(B) The first study, but not the second study, also
collected information about patterned stems
in other plant species.
(C) The second study included approximately
15 percent more individual plants than the first
study did.
(D) The first study used a broader definition of
“patterned.”
(E) The focus of the second study was patterned
stems, while the first study collected
information about patterned stems only as a
secondary goal.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Resolve/Explain

The apparent discrepancy is that two studies found different percentages for patterned stems, one 70 percent and the other 40 percent. The credited response should give some reason that the two studies would have found different percentages of plants with patterned stems.

A. No. This doesn’t address the patterned stem percentage.

B. No. Other plant species are out of scope.

C. No. This doesn’t address the patterned stem percentage.

D. Yes. If this is true, then both studies were looking at the same plants, but some of the plants that the first study saw as patterned were not seen as patterned by the second study.

E. No. The primary or secondary focus of each study does not address why they found different rates of patterns.

308
Q
  1. Letter to the editor: Sites are needed for disposal of
    contaminated dredge spoils from the local harbor.
    However, the approach you propose would
    damage commercial fishing operations. One
    indication of this is that over 20,000 people have
    signed petitions opposing your approach and
    favoring instead the use of sand-capped pits in
    another area.

Which one of the following most accurately describes a
reasoning flaw in the letter’s argument?

(A) The argument distorts the editor’s view in a
manner that makes that view seem more
vulnerable to criticism.
(B) The argument fails to establish that the alternative
approach referred to is a viable one.
(C) The argument attempts to establish a particular
conclusion because doing so is in the letter
writer’s self-interest rather than because of any
genuine concern for the truth of the matter.
(D) The argument’s conclusion is based on the
testimony of people who have not been shown
to have appropriate expertise.
(E) The argument takes for granted that no third
option is available that will satisfy all the
interested parties.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

The conclusion is the second sentence. The evidence is the third, which is an appeal to popular opinion. The fact that many people of unknown nature oppose the plan is not evidence that the plan is bad, just that it is not universally popular.

A. No. The argument does not distort the editor’s view. It presents the editor’s proposal accurately.

B. No. The argument does not need to establish that the alternative is viable. The conclusion is not that the alternative is better, just that the proposal would be damaging.

C. No. The letter writer’s self-interest is not involved in this argument.

D. Yes. The argument appeals to the opinions of 20,000 people, but there is no evidence that they are correct.

E. No. The argument does not take this for granted, because even if a third option were available, the conclusion could still be true: The proposal could still be damaging.

309
Q
  1. Most universities today offer students a more in-depth
    and cosmopolitan education than ever before. Until
    recently, for example, most university history courses
    required only the reading of textbooks that hardly
    mentioned the history of Africa or Asia after the ancient
    periods, or the history of the Americas’ indigenous
    cultures. The history courses at most universities no
    longer display such limitations.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument above?

(A) The history courses that university students find
most interesting are comprehensive in their
coverage of various periods and cultures.
(B) Many students at universities whose history
courses require the reading of books covering
all periods and world cultures participate in
innovative study-abroad programs.
(C) The extent to which the textbooks of university
history courses are culturally inclusive is a
strong indication of the extent to which
students at those universities get an in-depth
and cosmopolitan education.
(D) Universities at which the history courses are
quite culturally inclusive do not always have
courses in other subject areas that show the
same inclusiveness.
(E) University students who in their history courses
are required only to read textbooks covering
the history of a single culture will not get an
in-depth and cosmopolitan education from
these courses alone.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Strengthen

The conclusion is that students are offered a more in-depth and cosmopolitan education than they have been before. The evidence is that the university’s history textbooks include a broader discussion of African, Asian, and indigenous American cultures than they once did. The credited response should connect cultural inclusivity (from the premises) and an in-depth and cosmopolitan education (from the conclusion).

A. No. How interesting the courses are is irrelevant to the conclusion, which is about how in-depth and cosmopolitan they are.

B. No. Innovative study-abroad programs do not necessarily make for an in-depth and cosmopolitan education so this does not support the conclusion.

C. Yes. This suggests that the evidence, that the history course textbooks are more culturally inclusive, leads to the conclusion, that the educations are more in-depth and cosmopolitan.

D. No. This would weaken the argument by saying that the history courses may be the exception, not the rule, and as a result, the educations are not in general in-depth and cosmopolitan.

E. No. Textbooks that cover only a single culture are irrelevant to the conclusion about multicultural textbooks leading to an in-depth and cosmopolitan education.

310
Q
  1. The government has recently adopted a policy of
    publishing airline statistics, including statistics about
    each airline’s number of near collisions and its fines for
    safety violations. However, such disclosure actually
    undermines the government’s goal of making the public
    more informed about airline safety, because airlines will
    be much less likely to give complete reports if such
    information will be made available to the public.

The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it

(A) fails to consider that, even if the reports are
incomplete, they may nevertheless provide the
public with important information about airline
safety
(B) presumes, without providing justification, that
the public has a right to all information about
matters of public safety
(C) presumes, without providing justification, that
information about airline safety is impossible
to find in the absence of government
disclosures
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that
airlines, rather than the government, should be
held responsible for accurate reporting of
safety information
(E) fails to consider whether the publication of
airline safety statistics will have an effect on
the revenues of airlines

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

The conclusion is that the disclosures reduce the public’s ability to be informed about the safety of airlines. The evidence is that airlines will not give complete reports under the proposed policy. The flaw is that the argument assumes that these incomplete reports will not increase the public’s information about airline safety.

A. Yes. If incomplete reports still give important information about airline safety, then the conclusion may no longer follow. The argument is neglecting this possibility.

B. No. Whether the public has a right to know is irrelevant to the conclusion about whether the proposal will help the public to know.

C. No. Other ways to learn information are irrelevant to the conclusion about whether the proposal will help the public become informed about airline safety.

D. No. The responsibility for accuracy is irrelevant to this argument’s conclusion, which is about whether the information would be accurate, not whose responsibility it is.

E. No. The revenue of airlines is irrelevant.

311
Q
  1. Many economists claim that financial rewards provide
    the strongest incentive for people to choose one job over
    another. But in many surveys, most people do not name
    high salary as the most desirable feature of a job. This
    shows that these economists overestimate the degree to
    which people are motivated by money in their job choices.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
argument?

(A) Even high wages do not enable people to obtain
all the goods they desire.
(B) In many surveys, people say that they would
prefer a high-wage job to an otherwise identical
job with lower wages.
(C) Jobs that pay the same salary often vary
considerably in their other financial benefits.
(D) Many people enjoy the challenge of a difficult
job, as long as they feel that their efforts are
appreciated.
(E) Some people are not aware that jobs with high
salaries typically leave very little time for
recreation.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Weaken

The conclusion is the final sentence, suggesting that the economists in the first sentence are wrong. The economists, according to the first sentence, think that financial rewards are the most important factor in choosing a job. The reason that the argument claims that this is wrong is the second sentence, which shows that high salary is not named as the most important factor. There is a language shift from the first sentence to the second: The financial rewards of a job and the salary may not be identical.

A. No. This answer provides a disadvantage of high wages, and the argument argues that high wages are not a decisive factor, so this would not weaken the argument.

B. No. If people prefer high wages over low wages in otherwise identical situations, then this shows that people care about wages somewhat, whereas the argument is concerned about it being the strongest incentive.

C. Yes. If this is true, then evidence about salaries is completely inadequate for drawing a conclusion about overall financial rewards, because salary is only one part of financial benefits. This says that the evidence provided is not sufficient to draw the conclusion given.

D. No. This is in the wrong direction. If this is true, and further, if this enjoyment is more important than financial rewards, then this answer choice strengthens the conclusion.

E. No. Information about what some people know about jobs does not impact the argument about motivations for choosing a job.

312
Q
  1. Editorial: A proposed new law would limit elementary
    school class sizes to a maximum of 20 students.
    Most parents support this measure and argue that
    making classes smaller allows teachers to devote
    more time to each student, with the result that
    students become more engaged in the learning
    process. However, researchers who conducted a
    recent study conclude from their results that this
    reasoning is questionable. The researchers studied
    schools that had undergone recent reductions in
    class size, and found that despite an increase in
    the amount of time teachers spent individually
    with students, the students’ average grades were
    unchanged.

Which one of the following is an assumption required
by the researchers’ argument?

(A) The only schools appropriate for study are large
elementary schools.
(B) Teachers generally devote the same amount of
individualized attention to each student in a
class.
(C) Reductions in class size would also involve a
decrease in the number of teachers.
(D) Degree of student engagement in the learning
process correlates well with students’ average
grades.
(E) Parental support for the proposed law rests
solely on expectations of increased student
engagement in the learning process.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Necessary Assumption

The researchers concluded it is questionable to reason that small classes sizes lead to greater time devoted by the teachers to each student and in turn to greater student engagement. They concluded this because in reduced-size classes, students’ grades were similar to how they had been beforehand. This argument is assuming that students’ grades are related to engagement.

A. No. Try the Negation Test: Even if other schools are also appropriate for study, the sizes of the schools studied in the argument are not specified, so it is not clear how this affects the argument.

B. No. Whether teachers devote more time to some students than others or equal amounts of time to each student does not impact whether being able to devote more time to students overall will increase student engagement.

C. No. The author’s argument about smaller class sizes does not discuss the number of teachers. In fact, for a given number of students to have smaller class sizes, there would necessarily be more teachers.

D. Yes. The reason that the argument doubted that the smaller class sizes led to increase student engagement was that their grades did not increase, which assumes that grades are a good proxy for student engagement.

E. No. The reasons for parental support for the proposed law are irrelevant to whether the law will work.

313
Q
  1. Camille: Manufacturers of water-saving faucets
    exaggerate the amount of money such faucets can
    save. Because the faucets handle such a low
    volume of water, people using them often let the
    water run longer than they would otherwise.
    Rebecca: It is true that showering now takes longer.
    Nevertheless, I have had lower water bills since I
    installed a water-saving faucet. Thus, it is not true
    that the manufacturers’ claims are exaggerated.

The reasoning in Rebecca’s argument is questionable in
that she takes for granted that

(A) the cost of installing her water-saving faucet
was less than her overall savings on her
water bill
(B) she saved as much on her water bills as the
manufacturers’ claims suggested she would
(C) the manufacturers’ claims about the savings
expected from the installation of water-saving
faucets are consistent with one another
(D) people who use water-saving faucets are
satisfied with the low volume of water handled
by such faucets
(E) installing more water-saving faucets in her
house would increase her savings

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

Rebecca’s conclusion is that the manufacturers’ claims about cost savings are not exaggerated. Her evidence is that she personally has had lower water bills since she installed the type of faucet in question. She does not mention whether she has saved as much as the manufacturer of the faucet claimed she would, however, which means that it is not clear whether the claims were exaggerated in her case.

A. No. This does not directly address the conclusion about the manufacturers’ claims.

B. Yes. While Rebecca does indicate that her bills are lower, she never indicates whether it is as much as the manufacturer claimed.

C. No. All claims do not need to be consistent in order to be correct. Rebecca’s argument is that her bills are lower so the manufacturers’ claims about her water-saving faucet are not exaggerated.

D. No. Consumer satisfaction is not relevant to the conclusion about the manufacturers’ claims.

E. No. This does not address the issue of how much the manufacturer claimed would be saved.

314
Q
  1. Company spokesperson: In lieu of redesigning our
    plants, our company recently launched an
    environmental protection campaign to buy and
    dispose of old cars, which are generally highly
    pollutive. Our plants account for just 4 percent of
    the local air pollution, while automobiles that
    predate 1980 account for 30 percent. Clearly, we
    will reduce air pollution more by buying old cars
    than we would by redesigning our plants.

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the company spokesperson’s argument?

(A) Only 1 percent of the automobiles driven in the
local area predate 1980.
(B) It would cost the company over $3 million to
reduce its plants’ toxic emissions, while its
car-buying campaign will save the company
money by providing it with reusable scrap metal.
(C) Because the company pays only scrap metal
prices for used cars, almost none of the cars
sold to the company still run.
(D) Automobiles made after 1980 account for over
30 percent of local air pollution.
(E) Since the company launched its car-buying
campaign, the number of citizen groups filing
complaints about pollution from the company’s
plants has decreased.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Weaken

The company spokesperson’s conclusion is the final sentence. The evidence is that automobiles that predate 1980 account for considerably more of the local air pollution than the company’s plant does. The credited response that weakens this argument should indicate that there is some problem with the plan to buy old cars to reduce air pollution.

A. No. Even if this is true, these automobiles still account for much more pollution than the plant does.

B. No. This doesn’t address the issue of whether the plan will work. Indicating that buying old cars will save the company money doesn’t provide enough information to determine which will reduce air pollution more.

C. Yes. If this is true, then the non-running cars that the company is going to purchase aren’t going to be the cars that are contributing to the pollution mentioned anyway, so buying these non-running cars is unlikely to affect air pollution much, if at all.

D. No. Even if this is true, it doesn’t address the comparison between buying old cars and redesigning the plant, since the old cars would still account for much more pollution than the plant.

E. No. This does not address whether the car-buying plan is better than redesigning the plants.

315
Q
  1. Humankind would not have survived, as it clearly has,
    if our ancestors had not been motivated by the desire to
    sacrifice themselves when doing so would ensure the
    survival of their children or other close relatives. But
    since even this kind of sacrifice is a form of altruism, it
    follows that our ancestors were at least partially
    altruistic.

Which one of the following arguments is most similar in
its reasoning to the argument above?

(A) Students do not raise their grades if they do not
increase the amount of time they spend
studying. Increased study time requires good
time management. However, some students do
raise their grades. So some students manage
their time well.
(B) Organisms are capable of manufacturing their
own carbohydrate supply if they do not
consume other organisms to obtain it. So
plants that consume insects must be incapable
of photosynthesis, the means by which most
plants produce their carbohydrate supplies.
(C) If fragile ecosystems are not protected by
government action their endemic species will
perish, for endemic species are by definition
those that exist nowhere else but in those
ecosystems.
(D) The natural resources used by human beings
will be depleted if they are not replaced by
alternative materials. But since such replacement
generally requires more power, the resources
used to create that power will become depleted.
(E) Public buildings do not harmonize with their
surroundings if they are not well designed. But
any well-designed building is expensive to
construct. Thus, either public buildings are
expensive to construct or else they do not
harmonize with their surroundings.

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Parallel

The argument gives a conditional statement, that if our ancestors had not been motivated by a certain desire, then humanity would not have survived. It denies the “then” part of the conditional, saying that humanity has survived. It identifies one part of the conditional, the desire, with another concept, altruism, and then concludes something regarding the “if” part of the conditional and the additional concept, that the ancestors were at least partly altruistic.

A. Yes. This argument gives a conditional statement, denies the “then” part, identifies one part of the conditional with another concept, and concludes something to do with the “if” part of the conditional and the additional concept, just as the original argument does. Students raising their grades can be identified with humanity surviving, increasing study time with the desire to sacrifice themselves, and good time management with altruism.

B. No. This argument gives a conditional statement but never denies the “then” part. It’s missing a statement that organisms are not capable of manufacturing their own carbohydrate supply, to match that humankind has survived in the original argument.

C. No. This argument gives a conditional statement but never denies the “then” part. It’s missing a statement that their endemic species will not perish, to match that humankind has survived in the original argument.

D. No. This argument gives a conditional statement but never denies the “then” part. It’s missing a statement that the natural resources will not be depleted, to match that humankind has survived in the original argument.

E. No. This argument has an either/or in its conclusion, which doesn’t match the original argument’s conclusion. Furthermore, it needs to say in the premises that public buildings do harmonize with their surroundings, to match that humankind has survived in the original argument, but it does not say this.

316
Q
  1. Bus driver: Had the garbage truck not been exceeding
    the speed limit, it would not have collided with
    the bus I was driving. I, on the other hand, was
    abiding by all traffic regulations—as the police
    report confirms. Therefore, although I might have
    been able to avoid the collision had I reacted
    more quickly, the bus company should not
    reprimand me for the accident.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning in the bus driver’s
argument?

(A) If a vehicle whose driver is violating a traffic
regulation collides with a vehicle whose driver
is not, the driver of the first vehicle is solely
responsible for the accident.
(B) A bus company should not reprimand one of its
drivers whose bus is involved in a collision if
a police report confirms that the collision was
completely the fault of the driver of another
vehicle.
(C) Whenever a bus driver causes a collision to
occur by violating a traffic regulation, the bus
company should reprimand that driver.
(D) A company that employs bus drivers should
reprimand those drivers only when they
become involved in collisions that they
reasonably could have been expected to avoid.
(E) When a bus is involved in a collision, the bus
driver should not be reprimanded by the bus
company if the collision did not result from
the bus driver’s violating a traffic regulation.

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Principle Strengthen

The bus driver concludes that the company should not reprimand him for the accident.

His evidence is that the garbage truck was exceeding the speed limit, while he was abiding by all traffic regulations. The credited response needs to say that the premises lead to the conclusion: If a bus driver is abiding by traffic regulations, then he should not be reprimanded, even if he is involved in an accident.

A. No. Who is responsible does not directly determine whether the bus driver should be reprimanded.

B. No. The police report did not confirm who was at fault, so this conditional does not give any information about the issue at hand.

C. No. This tells when the bus driver should be reprimanded but not when he shouldn’t be reprimanded.

D. No. This tells when the bus driver should be reprimanded but not when he shouldn’t.

E. Yes. This collision did not result from the bus driver’s violating a traffic regulation, so this principle says that the bus driver should not be reprimanded.

317
Q
  1. Historian: Radio drama requires its listeners to think
    about what they hear, picturing for themselves
    such dramatic elements as characters’ physical
    appearances and spatial relationships. Hence,
    while earlier generations, for whom radio drama
    was the dominant form of popular entertainment,
    regularly exercised their imaginations, today’s
    generation of television viewers do so less
    frequently.

Which one of the following is an assumption required
by the historian’s argument?

(A) People spend as much time watching television
today as people spent listening to radio in
radio’s heyday.
(B) The more familiar a form of popular
entertainment becomes, the less likely its
consumers are to exercise their imaginations.
(C) Because it inhibits the development of
creativity, television is a particularly
undesirable form of popular entertainment.
(D) For today’s generation of television viewers,
nothing fills the gap left by radio as a medium
for exercising the imagination.
(E) Television drama does not require its viewers to
think about what they see

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Necessary Assumption

The conclusion says that today’s generation of television viewers exercises the imagination less frequently than radio listeners did. The evidence is that radio was the dominant form of entertainment previously, and it requires listeners to exercise their imaginations. Since no evidence is given about television or the present generation, one assumption has to be about the present generation. Specifically, the argument assumes that television does not exercise the imagination as much as radio, nor does anything else that the present generation does.

A. No. This does not address the conclusion, which was about exercising one’s imagination.

B. No. This goes against what the argument said about radio: It was a dominant form of entertainment, but it caused people to exercise their imaginations regularly.

C. No. The desirability of this type of entertainment is not addressed in the passage, nor is it relevant to whether television does in fact cause people to exercise their imaginations less.

D. Yes. Try the Negation Test: If something did fill the gap for exercising the imagination, then today’s generation would exercise the imagination as often as the previous generation did, which would make the argument fall apart.

E. No. Try the Negation Test: If television drama does require its viewers to think about what they see, this may or may not constitute exercising the imagination, and it may not require them to think about what they see as often as radio required them to think about what they heard. The conclusion could still be true.

318
Q
  1. Each of the candidates in this year’s mayoral election is
    a small-business owner. Most small-business owners are
    competent managers. Moreover, no competent manager
    lacks the skills necessary to be a good mayor. So, most
    of the candidates in this year’s mayoral election have
    the skills necessary to be a good mayor.

The pattern of flawed reasoning in which one of the
following is most similar to that in the argument above?

(A) Anyone who has worked in sales at this
company has done so for at least a year. Most
of this company’s management has worked in
its sales department. So, since no one who has
worked in the sales department for more than a
year fails to understand marketing, most of this
company’s upper management understands
marketing.
(B) Everything on the menu at Maddy’s Shake Shop
is fat-free. Most fat-free foods and drinks are
sugar-free. And all sugar-free foods and drinks
are low in calories. Hence, most items on the
menu at Maddy’s are low in calories.
(C) All the books in Ed’s apartment are hardcover
books. Most hardcover books are more than
100 pages long. Ed has never read a book
longer than 100 pages in its entirety in less
than 3 hours. So, Ed has never read any of his
books in its entirety in less than 3 hours.
(D) Each of the avant-garde films at this year’s film
festival is less than an hour long. Most films
less than an hour long do not become
commercially successful. So, since no movie
less than an hour long has an intermission, it
follows that most of the movies at this year’s
film festival do not have an intermission.
(E) All of the bicycle helmets sold in this store
have some plastic in them. Most of the bicycle
helmets sold in this store have some rubber in
them. So, since no helmets that have rubber in
them do not also have plastic in them, it
follows that most of the helmets in this store
that have plastic in them have rubber in them.

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Parallel Flaw

This argument depends heavily on conditional and quantity statements, so consider analyzing them as such. The first sentence says that if someone is a candidate in this year’s mayoral election, that person is a small-business owner (“candidate → smallbusiness”). The second sentence is a quantity statement directly (“most small-business owners are competent managers”). The third sentence says that if a person is a competent manager, then that person does not lack the skills to be a good mayor, or equivalently, has the skills (“competent manager → has skills”). The final sentence, the conclusion, is a quantity statement (most candidates have the skills). The problem is that even though all the candidates are small-business owners, they might happen to be in the minority of small-business owners who aren’t competent managers and as a result may not have the skills. Thus, it is illicit to conclude that most of the candidates have the skills.

A. No. The “most” statement in the premises aligns being in the company’s management with being a small-business owner in the original argument and working in the sales department with being a competent manager in the original argument. However, if being in management is like being a small-business owner, then to match the first premise in the original argument, being in management should be on the right side of a conditional somewhere (all people of some sort or other are in management). No such premise exists in the argument. This does not match. This argument is actually valid: Combine the second premise with the third and you get the conclusion.

B. Yes. If being on the menu at Maddy’s Shake Shop is like being a candidate in the mayoral election, being fat-free is like being a small-business owner, being sugar-free is like being a competent manager, and being low in calories is like having the skills to be a good mayor, this argument matches the original perfectly (even in order, which is more than it has to do).

C. No. The conclusion does not match. It contains a “never” when it should contain a “most.”

D. No. This argument draws a weaker conclusion than is justified by the premises. The first sentence might diagram as, “film at film festival → less than an hour long,” and the third might diagram as, “less than an hour long → ~intermission.” These should combine to the conclusion, “film at film festival → ~intermission.” The premises justify the conclusion that none of the films at the film festival has an intermission, but the conclusion actually drawn is that most of them do not.

E. No. This argument, while convoluted, is valid. If all the bike helmets have plastic, and most have rubber, then most of the bike helmets that have plastic have rubber, too.

319
Q
  1. One of the most useful social conventions is money,
    whose universality across societies is matched only by
    language. Unlike language, which is rooted in an innate
    ability, money is an artificial, human invention. Hence,
    it seems probable that the invention of money occurred
    independently in more than one society.

The argument’s conclusion is properly drawn if which
one of the following is assumed?

(A) Some societies have been geographically
isolated enough not to have been influenced by
any other society.
(B) Language emerged independently in different
societies at different times in human history.
(C) Universal features of human society that are not
inventions are rooted in innate abilities.
(D) If money were not useful, it would not be so
widespread.
(E) No human society that adopted the convention
of money has since abandoned it.

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Sufficient Assumption

The argument establishes in the premises that money exists across all societies and that money is a human invention. It concludes that the invention of money occurred in more than one society independently. The one aspect of this that it has not justified in the premises is the “independently” part; the credited response should say that the cultures were independent of each other at least to the necessary extent for this argument.

A. Yes. If this is true, then the money used there—which had to have been invented at some point—was invented independent of other inventions of money, which is good enough for the conclusion to be true.

B. No. If this is true, it does not affect the conclusion, which is about money, not language.

C. No. The premises already establish that money is an invention, so other features of society are not relevant to the conclusion about money.

D. No. This justifies a conclusion that money is useful, but that has nothing to do with the argument’s actual conclusion about its multiple, separate inventions.

E. No. The premises already establish that money is universal, so societies cannot have abandoned it anyway.

320
Q
  1. Libel is defined as damaging the reputation of someone
    by making false statements. Ironically, strong laws
    against libel can make it impossible for anyone in the
    public eye to have a good reputation. For the result of
    strong libel laws is that, for fear of lawsuits, no one will
    say anything bad about public figures.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning in the argument?

(A) The absence of laws against libel makes it
possible for everyone in the public eye to have
a good reputation.
(B) Even if laws against libel are extremely strong
and rigorously enforced, some public figures
will acquire bad reputations.
(C) If one makes statements that one sincerely
believes, then those statements should not be
considered libelous even if they are in fact
false and damaging to the reputation of a
public figure.
(D) In countries with strong libel laws, people make
negative statements about public figures only
when such statements can be proved.
(E) Public figures can have good reputations only if
there are other public figures who have bad
reputations.

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Principle Strengthen

The argument concludes that libel laws can prevent anyone from having a good reputation. The evidence is that libel laws prevent people from saying anything bad about public figures. There is a language shift from people not saying anything bad about public figures to no one having a good reputation, so the credited response should indicate that no one saying anything bad about public figures leads to no one having a good reputation.

A. No. The conclusion is about the effect of the presence of libel laws, not the absence of them.

B. No. The conclusion was stronger than this, that no one would have a good reputation, so the “even if” doesn’t make sense.

C. No. Whether something is libel or not is irrelevant to the issue of what the effect of strong libel laws is.

D. No. This does not address the issue of why no one would have a good reputation when there are strong libel laws.

E. Yes. The contrapositive of this is that if no other public figures have bad reputations, then public figures cannot have good reputations. If libel laws result in no one saying anything bad about public figures, and if that in turn results in no public figures having bad reputations, then no public figures will have good reputations (according to this conditional).

321
Q
  1. Mammals cannot digest cellulose and therefore cannot
    directly obtain glucose from wood. Mushrooms can,
    however; and some mushrooms use cellulose to make
    highly branched polymers, the branches of which are a
    form of glucose called beta-glucans. Beta-glucan extracts
    from various types of mushrooms slow, reverse, or
    prevent the growth of cancerous tumors in mammals,
    and the antitumor activity of beta-glucans increases as
    the degree of branching increases. These extracts
    prevent tumor growth not by killing cancer cells directly
    but by increasing immune-cell activity.

Which one of the following is most strongly supported
by the information above?

(A) Mammals obtain no beneficial health effects from
eating cellulose.
(B) If extracts from a type of mushroom slow,
reverse, or prevent the growth of cancerous
tumors in mammals, then the mushroom is
capable of using cellulose to make beta-glucans.
(C) The greater the degree of branching of
beta-glucans, the greater the degree of
immune-cell activity it triggers in mammals.
(D) Immune-cell activity in mammals does not
prevent tumor growth by killing cancer cells.
(E) Any organism capable of obtaining glucose
from wood can use cellulose to make
beta-glucans.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Inference

A. No. The argument says that mammals cannot digest cellulose, but they might get beneficial health effects without digestion.

B. No. The argument says that beta-glucans do this, but it does not say that they are the only things that do this.

C. Yes. The last part of the argument says, “the antitumor activity of beta-glucans increases as the degree of branching increases,” and, “These extracts prevent tumor growth…by increasing immune cell activity.” Putting those two together, when the degree of branching increases, the antitumor activity of beta-glucans increases, which happens because they increase immune cell activity.

D. No. Immune-cell activity in general was not discussed.

E. No. Mushrooms can do this, but the argument does not say or imply that any organism can.

322
Q
  1. A law is successful primarily because the behavior it
    prescribes has attained the status of custom. Just as
    manners are observed not because of sanctions attached
    to them but because, through repetition, contrary
    behavior becomes unthinkable, so societal laws are
    obeyed not because the behavior is ethically required or
    because penalties await those who act otherwise, but
    because to act otherwise would be uncustomary.

Which one of the following comparisons is utilized by
the argument?

(A) As with manners and other customs, laws vary
from society to society.
(B) As with manners, the primary basis for a society
to consider when adopting a law is custom.
(C) As with manners, the main factor accounting for
compliance with laws is custom.
(D) As with manners, most laws do not prescribe
behavior that is ethically required.
(E) As with manners, most laws do not have strict
penalties awaiting those who transgress them

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Reasoning

The comparison that is utilized is marked with the phrase “just as…so.” Paraphrase the comparison: Societal laws are like manners in that both are obeyed because obedience to such rules is what’s normal, not because there are penalties for lack of obedience.

A. No. Varying from society to society was not the basis of the comparison.

B. No. The basis to consider when adopting something was not the comparison made, though this answer may be tempting because “custom” was definitely part of the comparison. It was not the basis for adoption.

C. Yes. This paraphrases the comparison effectively. The reason for compliance was custom both for manners and for law.

D. No. The argument did not actually say that either laws or manners do not prescribe behavior that is ethically required.

E. No. The nature of the penalties was not the basis of the comparison. Whether the penalties were strict or not was not the issue here.

323
Q
  1. A research study revealed that, in most cases, once
    existing highways near urban areas are widened and
    extended in an attempt to reduce traffic congestion and
    resulting delays for motorists, these problems actually
    increase rather than decrease.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the discrepancy between the intended results of
the highway improvements and the results revealed in
the study?

(A) Widened and extended roads tend to attract
many more motorists than used them before
their improvement.
(B) Typically, road widening or extension projects
are undertaken only after the population near
the road in question has increased and then
leveled off, leaving a higher average
population level.
(C) As a general rule, the greater the number of
lanes on a given length of highway, the lower
the rate of accidents per 100,000 vehicles
traveling on it.
(D) Rural, as compared to urban, traffic usually
includes a larger proportion of trucks and
vehicles used by farmers.
(E) Urban traffic generally moves at a slower pace
and involves more congestion and delays than
rural and suburban traffic.

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Resolve/Explain

The discrepancy is that the goal was to reduce traffic, but the result was that traffic actually increased. The credited response should give some reason explaining how widening and extending highways would lead to increased, not reduced, traffic.

A. Yes. If there are more motorists, then there can be more traffic, despite the wider roads.

B. No. If the population increase had already taken place before the road project, and if the population had leveled off by the time of the project, then the population was constant during the road project. This makes the discrepancy worse by eliminating a possible reason (population increase) for the traffic to increase.

C. No. The number of accidents is irrelevant to the discrepancy involving the amount of traffic.

D. No. The types of vehicles are irrelevant to the discrepancy involving the amount of traffic.

E. No. The fact that urban traffic is worse than traffic in other areas does not, by itself, explain why widening the road doesn’t at least improve it, even if it is still bad.

324
Q
  1. A study found that consumers reaching supermarket
    checkout lines within 40 minutes after the airing of an
    advertisement for a given product over the store’s audio
    system were significantly more likely to purchase the
    product advertised than were consumers who checked
    out prior to the airing. Apparently, these advertisements
    are effective.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?

(A) During the study, for most of the advertisements
more people went through the checkout lines
after they were aired than before they were aired.
(B) A large proportion of the consumers who
bought a product shortly after the airing of an
advertisement for it reported that they had not
gone to the store intending to buy that product.
(C) Many of the consumers reported that they
typically bought at least one of the advertised
products every time they shopped at the store.
(D) Many of the consumers who bought an
advertised product and who reached the
checkout line within 40 minutes of the
advertisement’s airing reported that they could
not remember hearing the advertisement.
(E) Many of the consumers who bought an
advertised product reported that they buy that
product only occasionally

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Strengthen

The argument concludes that in-store advertisements over a store’s audio system were effective. The evidence was that more people bought the product shortly after the ads were aired than bought it before. The argument contains a causal flaw: It’s assuming that there is no other cause for people to purchase the product.

A. No. This would explain why there were more purchases after the ad than before, but not (as the argument indicates) why a higher percentage of the customers bought the relevant items.

B. Yes. This suggests that the ad actually was responsible for their behavior, because it eliminates the possibility that a large percentage of people just showed up to the store to buy the products at the same time right around the time the ad was being played.

C. No. Even if a handful of customers report something, it doesn’t necessarily account for the behavior of many.

D. No. Even if they could not remember the ads, they might have been affected by them.

E. No. Even if they buy the product only occasionally, the answer choice does not explain why they purchased it at this time.

325
Q
  1. Unless the building permit is obtained by February 1 of
    this year or some of the other activities necessary for
    construction of the new library can be completed in less
    time than originally planned, the new library will not be
    completed on schedule. It is now clear that the building
    permit cannot be obtained by February 1, so the new
    library will not be completed on schedule.

The conclusion drawn follows logically from the
premises if which one of the following is assumed?

(A) All of the other activities necessary for
construction of the library will take at least as
much time as originally planned.
(B) The officials in charge of construction of the new
library have admitted that it probably will not
be completed on schedule.
(C) The application for a building permit was
submitted on January 2 of this year, and
processing building permits always takes at
least two months.
(D) The application for a building permit was rejected
the first time it was submitted, and it had to be
resubmitted with a revised building plan.
(E) It is not possible to convince authorities to
allow construction of the library to begin
before the building permit is obtained.

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Sufficient Assumption

The argument concludes that the library will not be completed on schedule. The premises are that if the building permit is not obtained by February 1 of this year or if the other necessary activities are not completed in less time than originally planned, then the library will not be completed on schedule, and the building permit isn’t going to be obtained by February 1. The missing piece is the other half of the “if” statement, the other necessary activities. The credited response should say that the other necessary activities will not be completed in less time than originally planned.

A. Yes. If the other activities will take at least as much time as originally planned, then they will not be completed in less time than originally planned.

B. No. Even if they’ve admitted that it “probably” won’t be completed on schedule, it could still be completed on schedule, so this is not enough.

C. No. This just further specifies the premise that the building permit cannot be obtained by February 1, which we already know is true.

D. No. What happened the first time is irrelevant to this time.

E. No. Even if this is true, it doesn’t address the issue of the other necessary activities.

326
Q
  1. In a study of patients who enrolled at a sleep clinic
    because of insomnia, those who inhaled the scent of
    peppermint before going to bed were more likely to
    have difficulty falling asleep than were patients who
    inhaled the scent of bitter orange. Since it is known that
    inhaling bitter orange does not help people fall asleep
    more easily, this study shows that inhaling the scent of
    peppermint makes insomnia worse.

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument above?

(A) Several studies have shown that inhaling the
scent of peppermint tends to have a relaxing
effect on people who do not suffer from
insomnia.
(B) The patients who inhaled the scent of bitter
orange were, on average, suffering from milder
cases of insomnia than were the patients who
inhaled the scent of peppermint.
(C) Because the scents of peppermint and bitter
orange are each very distinctive, it was not
possible to prevent the patients from knowing
that they were undergoing some sort of study
of the effects of inhaling various scents.
(D) Some of the patients who enrolled in the sleep
clinic also had difficulty staying asleep once
they fell asleep.
(E) Several studies have revealed that in many
cases inhaling certain pleasant scents can
dramatically affect the degree to which a
patient suffers from insomnia.

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Weaken

The conclusion is that inhaling the scent of peppermint makes insomnia worse. The evidence is that a study showed that people who inhaled the scent of peppermint had a harder time falling asleep than people who inhaled the (apparently sleep-neutral) scent of bitter orange. The argument assumes, among other things, that the two groups of people being compared were the same in every respect except the kind of scent they inhaled when trying to go to sleep, so it could be weakened by pointing out that that assumption is not true.

A. No. The conclusion is about people who do suffer from insomnia, so the effects of peppermint on other people are not relevant.

B. Yes. If this were true, it wouldn’t be the peppermint that accounted for the difference in how easily the two groups could fall asleep; it would be the severity of their insomnia.

C. No. This would affect both groups of patients equally, since they would both know that they were undergoing a study, and would not account for the difference between the peppermint and bitter orange groups.

D. No. The argument’s conclusion is about the impact of the scent on falling asleep, not the amount of time they were able to stay asleep.

E. No. If this were true, it would strengthen the argument. If these scents can affect the degree to which a patient suffers from insomnia, they could worsen it, as the conclusion indicates.

327
Q
  1. Dogs learn best when they are trained using both voice
    commands and hand signals. After all, a recent study
    shows that dogs who were trained using both voice
    commands and hand signals were twice as likely to
    obey as were dogs who were trained using only voice
    commands.

The claim that dogs learn best when they are trained
using both voice commands and hand signals figures in
the argument in which one of the following ways?

(A) It is an explicit premise of the argument.
(B) It is an implicit assumption of the argument.
(C) It is a statement of background information
offered to help facilitate understanding the
issue in the argument.
(D) It is a statement that the argument claims is
supported by the study.
(E) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
as direct support for the argument’s main
conclusion

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Reasoning

The statement asked about is the conclusion of the argument. The evidence begins with “After all,” and it involves a study.

A. No. It’s the conclusion, not a premise.

B. No. It is stated in the argument as the conclusion.

C. No. The issue in the argument is whether this statement is true, so this is not background information to help understand the issue; it is the issue.

D. Yes. The study is a premise in support of this conclusion.

E. No. There is no other conclusion.

328
Q
  1. Of the many test pilots who have flown the new plane,
    none has found it difficult to operate. So it is unlikely
    that the test pilot flying the plane tomorrow will find it
    difficult to operate.

The reasoning in which one of the following arguments
is most similar to the reasoning in the argument above?

(A) All of the many book reviewers who read
Rachel Nguyen’s new novel thought that it was
particularly well written. So it is likely that the
average reader will enjoy the book.
(B) Many of the book reviewers who read
Wim Jashka’s new novel before it was
published found it very entertaining. So it is
unlikely that most people who buy the book
will find it boring.
(C) Neither of the two reviewers who enjoyed
Sharlene Lo’s new novel hoped that Lo would
write a sequel. So it is unlikely that the review
of the book in next Sunday’s newspaper will
express hope that Lo will write a sequel.
(D) Many reviewers have read Kip Landau’s new
novel, but none of them enjoyed it. So it is
unlikely that the reviewer for the local newspaper
will enjoy the book when she reads it.
(E) None of the reviewers who have read
Gray Ornsby’s new novel were offended by it.
So it is unlikely that the book will offend
anyone in the general public who reads it.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Parallel

The conclusion is the second sentence, and the premise is the first. The argument assumes that the particular pilot tomorrow will have the same reaction to flying the plane as all the previous pilots have, or more generally, that the pattern that has continued up to this point will continue with a specific event in the future as well.

A. No. The average reader in the conclusion introduces an additional shift from the book reviewers in the premise that was not in the original argument.

B. No. Many of the book reviewers thinking something does not match none of the test pilots finding something.

C. No. Two book reviewers do not match many test pilots. This answer choice creates a survey flaw that is not in the original argument.

D. Yes. This is assuming that what has happened with many reviewers up to this point will happen with a specific book reviewer in the future as well, just as the original argument assumed about test pilots.

E. No. This argument introduces an additional shift from book reviewers in the premise to the general public in the conclusion.

329
Q
  1. Scientist: Any theory that is to be taken seriously must
    affect our perception of the world. Of course, this
    is not, in itself, enough for a theory to be taken
    seriously. To see this, one need only consider
    astrology.

The point of the scientist’s mentioning astrology in the
argument is to present

(A) an example of a theory that should not be taken
seriously because it does not affect our
perception of the world
(B) an example of something that should not be
considered a theory
(C) an example of a theory that should not be taken
seriously despite its affecting our perception of
the world
(D) an example of a theory that affects our
perception of the world, and thus should be
taken seriously
(E) an example of a theory that should be taken
seriously, even though it does not affect our
perception of the world

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Reasoning

The question task is asking for the role played by the mention of astrology. The argument claims that affecting perception of the world is a necessary but not sufficient condition for taking a theory seriously. The role of astrology is to see that it is not sufficient. If astrology is to prove that affecting perception of the world is not sufficient reason to take a theory seriously, then astrology must affect perception of the world but should not be taken seriously.

A. No. According to the argument, astrology affects our perception of the world.

B. No. According to the argument, astrology is a theory.

C. Yes. According to the argument, astrology is a theory that affects perception of the world but should not be taken seriously.

D. No. According to the argument, astrology should not be taken seriously.

E. No. According to the argument, astrology is a theory that affects perception of the world but should not be taken seriously.

330
Q
  1. Clark: Our local community theater often produces
    plays by critically acclaimed playwrights. In fact,
    the production director says that critical acclaim
    is one of the main factors considered in the
    selection of plays to perform. So, since my
    neighbor Michaela’s new play will be performed
    by the theater this season, she must be a critically
    acclaimed playwright.

The reasoning in Clark’s argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument

(A) takes a condition necessary for a playwright’s
being critically acclaimed to be a condition
sufficient for a playwright’s being critically
acclaimed
(B) fails to consider that several different effects
may be produced by a single cause
(C) treats one main factor considered in the
selection of plays to perform as though it were
a condition that must be met in order for a
play to be selected
(D) uses as evidence a source that there is reason to
believe is unreliable
(E) provides no evidence that a playwright’s being
critically acclaimed is the result rather than the
cause of his or her plays being selected for
production

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

The argument concludes that Michaela must be a critically acclaimed playwright. The evidence is that critical acclaim is one of the main factors considered in deciding which play to perform, and her play is going to be performed. The flaw is that it is neglecting the other, unnamed factors that are used to determine the selection of plays.

A. No. There is no condition in this argument that is necessary for a playwright’s being critically acclaimed.

B. No. There are no different effects.

C. Yes. A main factor in the selection of plays is critical acclaim, and the argument assumes that a play must be critically acclaimed to be performed.

D. No. There is no reason to doubt the reliability of any source in this argument.

E. No. The argument argues that being critically acclaimed is the cause of the play being selected, so it does not need to provide evidence that being critically acclaimed is the result of being selected.

331
Q
  1. Legal theorist: Governments should not be allowed to
    use the personal diaries of an individual who is
    the subject of a criminal prosecution as evidence
    against that individual. A diary is a silent
    conversation with oneself and there is no relevant
    difference between speaking to oneself, writing
    one’s thoughts down, and keeping one’s thoughts
    to oneself.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, provides
the most support for the legal theorist’s argument?

(A) Governments should not be allowed to compel
corporate officials to surrender interoffice
memos to government investigators.
(B) When crime is a serious problem, governments
should be given increased power to investigate
and prosecute suspected wrongdoers, and
some restrictions on admissible evidence
should be relaxed.
(C) Governments should not be allowed to use an
individual’s remarks to prosecute the individual
for criminal activity unless the remarks were
intended for other people.
(D) Governments should not have the power to
confiscate an individual’s personal
correspondence to use as evidence against the
individual in a criminal trial.
(E) Governments should do everything in their
power to investigate and prosecute suspected
wrongdoers.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Principle Strengthen

The conclusion is that governments should not be allowed to use diaries as evidence. The premises are that writing in a diary is for oneself (not others), and that this is similar to keeping one’s thoughts to oneself. The credited response should indicate that such things, which are intended for oneself and not others and are like keeping thoughts to oneself, should not be allowable evidence.

A. No. Other types of evidence that should not be used by governments are not relevant to whether diaries should be used.

B. No. This answer choice is irrelevant and is in the opposite direction of the original argument, which was trying to limit what the government could do.

C. Yes. This answer choice could be paraphrased to say that if the remarks were not intended for other people, they should not be acceptable for the government’s prosecutorial use, which connects the premise to the conclusion.

D. No. The individual’s personal correspondence—which is different from a diary in that it is clearly intended for others—is not at issue here.

E. No. This goes in the opposite direction to the argument, which was trying to limit such government efforts.

332
Q
  1. A ring of gas emitting X-rays flickering 450 times per
    second has been observed in a stable orbit around a
    black hole. In light of certain widely accepted physical
    theories, that rate of flickering can best be explained if
    the ring of gas has a radius of 49 kilometers. But the
    gas ring could not maintain an orbit so close to a black
    hole unless the black hole was spinning.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support
which one of the following, assuming that the widely
accepted physical theories referred to above are correct?

(A) Black holes that have orbiting rings of gas with
radii greater than 49 kilometers are usually
stationary.
(B) Only rings of gas that are in stable orbits
around black holes emit flickering X-rays.
(C) The black hole that is within the ring of gas
observed by the astronomers is spinning.
(D) X-rays emitted by rings of gas orbiting black
holes cause those black holes to spin.
(E) A black hole is stationary only if it is orbited
by a ring of gas with a radius of more than
49 kilometers.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Inference

The argument says that there is a gas ring maintaining an orbit close to a black hole, and the gas ring could not maintain an orbit close to a black hole unless the black hole was spinning. Combining these statements, the credited response is likely to say that the black hole is spinning.

A. No. There is no information given about rings of gas greater than 49 kilometers.

B. No. There is no information given about other rings of gas.

C. Yes. If the gas couldn’t be where it is unless the black hole is spinning, then the black hole must be spinning.

D. No. Whether the X-rays cause the spinning or something else does is not given.

E. No. It is never stated that black holes must have gas rings.

333
Q
  1. A mass of “black water” containing noxious organic
    material swept through Laurel Bay last year. Some
    scientists believe that this event was a naturally occurring
    but infrequent phenomenon. The black water completely
    wiped out five species of coral in the bay, including
    mounds of coral that were more than two centuries old.
    Therefore, even if this black water phenomenon has
    struck the bay before, it did not reach last year’s
    intensity at any time in the past two centuries.

Which one of the following is an assumption required
by the argument?

(A) Masses of black water such as that observed
last summer come into the bay more frequently
than just once every two centuries.
(B) Every species of coral in the bay was seriously
harmed by the mass of black water that swept
in last year.
(C) The mass of black water that swept through the
bay last year did not decimate any plant or
animal species that makes use of coral.
(D) The mounds of centuries-old coral that were
destroyed were not in especially fragile
condition just before the black water swept in
last year.
(E) Older specimens of coral in the bay were more
vulnerable to damage from the influx of black
water than were young specimens.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Necessary Assumption

The conclusion is that there has not been a black water phenomenon at last year’s intensity any time in the past two centuries. The evidence is that the black water wiped out some species of coral that were more than two centuries old. The line of reasoning argues that even if there were black water before, the coral survived it, so it must not have been as bad. This assumes, however, that the black water’s intensity is the only factor relevant to its effect.

A. No. The argument does not assume that there was or was not a black water phenomenon in the past two centuries, because the conclusion is conditional: If there was such a phenomenon, then it must have had a lower intensity.

B. No. Try the Negation Test: Even if a few were not seriously harmed, that would have no impact on the conclusion about the history of black water.

C. No. Try the Negation Test: Even if it did decimate other species, this still does not affect whether there were black water phenomena earlier. Indeed, if it decimated other old living things, then the negation of the answer choice supports the argument, instead of destroying it.

D. Yes. Try the Negation Test: If the mounds were especially fragile before the black water, then they might have been wiped out by coincidence, not by the severity of the black water.

E. No. Even if everything were equally vulnerable, the black water might still have been of higher intensity than it had been before.

334
Q
  1. Many nurseries sell fruit trees that they label
    “miniature.” Not all nurseries, however, use this term
    in the same way. While some nurseries label any
    nectarine trees of the Stark Sweet Melody variety as
    “miniature,” for example, others do not. One thing that
    is clear is that if a variety of fruit tree is not suitable
    for growing in a tub or a pot, no tree of that variety
    can be correctly labeled “miniature.”

Which one of the following can be properly inferred
from the information above?

(A) Most nurseries mislabel at least some of their
fruit trees.
(B) Some of the nurseries have correctly labeled
nectarine trees of the Stark Sweet Melody
variety only if the variety is unsuitable for
growing in a tub or a pot.
(C) Any nectarine tree of the Stark Sweet Melody
variety that a nursery labels “miniature” is
labeled incorrectly.
(D) Some nectarine trees that are not labeled
“miniature” are labeled incorrectly.
(E) Unless the Stark Sweet Melody variety of
nectarine tree is suitable for growing in a tub
or a pot, some nurseries mislabel this variety
of tree.

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Inference

The argument gives two facts: In the last sentence, it says that if a fruit tree can’t be grown in a tub or pot, then it can’t correctly be labeled “miniature.” In the preceding sentence, it says that some Stark Sweet Melody nectarine trees are labeled “miniature” at some nurseries and not so labeled at others.

A. No. It is not clear in the argument whether any trees labeled “miniature” are not suitable for growing in a tub or pot (which would make them mislabeled).

B. No. The only labels that are mentioned in the argument are ones that would be inappropriate if the variety is unsuitable for growing in a tub or pot.

C. No. It is not clear whether Stark Sweet Melody nectarine trees are suitable for growing in a tub or pot, so it is not clear whether they can correctly be labeled “miniature.”

D. No. If they are not labeled “miniature,” they may not be labeled anything, which would make it impossible for them to be labeled incorrectly.

E. Yes. If these trees are not suitable for growing in a tub or pot, they cannot correctly be labeled “miniature,” so they are mislabeled.

335
Q
  1. Psychologist: Identical twins are virtually the same
    genetically. Moreover, according to some studies,
    identical twins separated at birth and brought up
    in vastly different environments show a strong
    tendency to report similar ethical beliefs, dress in
    the same way, and have similar careers. Thus, many
    of our inclinations must be genetic in origin, and
    not subject to environmental influences.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken
the psychologist’s argument?

(A) Many people, including identical twins, undergo
radical changes in their lifestyles at some point
in their lives.
(B) While some studies of identical twins separated
at birth reveal a high percentage of similar
personality traits, they also show a few
differences.
(C) Scientists are far from being able to link any
specific genes to specific inclinations.
(D) Identical twins who grow up together tend to
develop different beliefs, tastes, and careers in
order to differentiate themselves from each other.
(E) Twins who are not identical tend to develop
different beliefs, tastes, and careers.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Weaken

The argument concludes that many inclinations are genetic and not environmentally influenced. The premises are that identical twins have the same genes, but when they are brought up in different environments, they have the similar ethics, dress styles, and careers. This argument is assuming, very broadly, that the genes cause the similarities and nothing in the environment. A problem with this is that it may be possible to have two different environmental stimuli that lead to the same effect. The credited response should address this causal flaw, although it is hard to predict from the argument what exactly it will say.

A. No. Even if this were true, those changes could have been genetically programmed. The argument doesn’t address what is causing these changes.

B. No. A few differences are completely compatible with the many similarities suggested in the conclusion.

C. No. Genes might lead to inclinations even if it is not clear which ones lead to which at the current level of scientific development.

D. Yes. If this is true, then beliefs, tastes, and careers can be influenced by the environment, but the conclusion indicated that they could not.

E. No. These twins have different genes, so it is reasonable for them to develop different beliefs, tastes, and careers even if their genes are completely responsible for their behaviors.

336
Q
  1. Human beings can live happily only in a society where
    love and friendship are the primary motives for actions.
    Yet economic needs can be satisfied in the absence of
    this condition, as, for example, in a merchant society
    where only economic utility motivates action. It is
    obvious then that human beings _______.

Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?

(A) can live happily only when economic utility is
not a motivator in their society
(B) cannot achieve happiness unless their economic
needs have already been satisfied
(C) cannot satisfy economic needs by means of
interactions with family members and close
friends
(D) can satisfy their basic economic needs without
obtaining happiness
(E) cannot really be said to have satisfied their
economic needs unless they are happy

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Main Point

The argument says that human beings can live happily only in certain circumstances. It also says that economic needs can be satisfied without those circumstances. Combining these statements, it should conclude that satisfying economic needs does not necessarily make people happy.

A. No. Economic utility can be a motivator. The problem is that fulfilling economic needs doesn’t guarantee happiness, not that it prevents happiness.

B. No. The argument just says that economic needs depend on different things than happiness, not that happiness depends on more than economic needs.

C. No. The argument says that economic needs can be satisfied in one way, but it doesn’t say that it’s the only way.

D. Yes. The argument says happiness depends on one thing, but economic needs can be satisfied even without that. Thus, economic needs can be satisfied without obtaining happiness.

E. No. The argument says the opposite of this, namely that economic needs can be satisfied even without that which is required for happiness.

337
Q
  1. Technologically, it is already possible to produce
    nonpolluting cars that burn hydrogen rather than
    gasoline. But the national system of fuel stations that
    would be needed to provide the hydrogen fuel for such
    cars does not yet exist. However, this infrastructure is
    likely to appear and grow rapidly. A century ago no
    fuel-distribution infrastructure existed for gasolinepowered vehicles, yet it quickly developed in response
    to consumer demand.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion drawn in the argument?

(A) It is already technologically possible to produce
nonpolluting cars that burn hydrogen rather
than gasoline.
(B) The fuel-distribution infrastructure for hydrogenpowered cars still needs to be created.
(C) If a new kind of technology is developed, the
infrastructure needed to support that technology
is likely to quickly develop in response to
consumer demands.
(D) The fuel-distribution infrastructure for
hydrogen-powered cars is likely to appear
and grow rapidly.
(E) Hydrogen-powered vehicles will be similar to
gasoline-powered vehicles with regard to the
amount of consumer demand for their
fuel-distribution infrastructure.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Main Point

The conclusion is the third sentence, which says that the infrastructure is likely to appear and grow rapidly. The first two sentences are background for the third, since they clarify the kind of infrastructure under discussion and point out facts about its nonexistence. The final sentence is support for the third sentence by means of an analogy.

A. No. This is a premise (the first sentence).

B. No. This is a paraphrase of part of a premise (the second sentence).

C. No. This is a broader generalization than the conclusion. This argument is only about hydrogen fuel infrastructure.

D. Yes. This paraphrases the third sentence, which is the conclusion.

E. No. This is an assumption underlying the analogy in the fourth sentence, not the conclusion.

338
Q
  1. Wildlife management experts should not interfere with
    the natural habitats of creatures in the wild, because
    manipulating the environment to make it easier for an
    endangered species to survive in a habitat invariably
    makes it harder for nonendangered species to survive in
    that habitat.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the
grounds that it

(A) fails to consider that wildlife management
experts probably know best how to facilitate
the survival of an endangered species in a
habitat
(B) fails to recognize that a nonendangered species
can easily become an endangered species
(C) overlooks the possibility that saving an
endangered species in a habitat is incompatible
with preserving the overall diversity of species
in that habitat
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that the
survival of each endangered species is equally
important to the health of the environment
(E) takes for granted that preserving a currently
endangered species in a habitat does not have
higher priority than preserving species in that
habitat that are not endangered

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

The argument concludes that wildlife management experts should not interfere with the natural habitats of creatures in the wild. It concludes this because interfering to help out endangered species hurts nonendangered species. It’s assuming that this is not worth doing, that it is bad to help endangered species at the cost of harming nonendangered species.

A. No. Even if they do, this does not address the problem with nonendangered species.

B. No. Harming nonendangered species is the very problem that the argument raises, so endangering a species is not something the argument fails to recognize.

C. No. The argument suggests that helping an endangered species survive invariably makes it harder for nonendangered species to survive, so the possibility that it is not possible to save an endangered species and also preserve species diversity is implied, not overlooked.

D. No. This does not address the problem with nonendangered species. Even if the endangered species were not at all equal, the argument’s conclusion that none should be helped could still hold, so this argument does not presume this.

E. Yes. If preserving endangered species were of higher priority than preserving nonendangered species, then it might be a good idea to help endangered species even at the cost of some harm to nonendangered species, so the argument would no longer work.

339
Q
  1. Any food that is not sterilized and sealed can contain
    disease-causing bacteria. Once sterilized and properly
    sealed, however, it contains no bacteria. There are many
    different acceptable food-preservation techniques; each
    involves either sterilizing and sealing food or else at
    least slowing the growth of disease-causing bacteria.
    Some of the techniques may also destroy natural food
    enzymes that cause food to spoil or discolor quickly.

If the statements above are true, which one of the
following must be true?

(A) All food preserved by an acceptable method is
free of disease-causing bacteria.
(B) Preservation methods that destroy enzymes that
cause food to spoil do not sterilize the food.
(C) Food preserved by a sterilization method is less
likely to discolor quickly than food preserved
with other methods.
(D) Any nonsterilized food preserved by an acceptable
method can contain disease-causing bacteria.
(E) If a food contains no bacteria, then it has been
preserved by an acceptable method.

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Inference

The argument gives a large number of facts about food preservation and sterilization. These facts do not clearly combine to lead to a specific conclusion so the credited response will likely be the inverse of one of the facts in the paragraph.

A. No. The third sentence says that some acceptable food-preservation techniques involve slowing the growth of disease-causing bacteria, so the food is not necessarily free of the bacteria.

B. No. The techniques mentioned in the final sentence, which destroy enzymes, may be part of the former or latter category in the previous sentence, a sterilizing method or a slowing-growth method. If they are part of the former category, this answer choice is untrue.

C. No. It is not made clear in the information given whether sterilization involves destroying the food enzymes mentioned in the final sentence.

D. Yes. The first sentence says that any food that is not sterilized and sealed can contain disease-causing bacteria. The answer choice describes food that is not sterilized, so it can contain disease-causing bacteria according to the first sentence.

E. No. The argument says that sterilization causes a food to contain no bacteria and that preservation can involve sterilization, but it does not say that food is sterilized only for preservation. If the food were sterilized for some other reason, it would contain no bacteria but would not have been preserved by an acceptable method.

340
Q
  1. Activities that pose risks to life are acceptable if and
    only if each person who bears the risks either gains
    some net benefit that cannot be had without such risks,
    or bears the risks voluntarily.

Which one of the following judgments most closely
conforms to the principle above?

(A) A door-to-door salesperson declines to replace
his older car with a new model with more
safety features; this is acceptable because the
decision not to replace the car is voluntary.
(B) A smoker subjects people to secondhand smoke
at an outdoor public meeting; the resulting
risks are acceptable because the danger from
secondhand smoke is minimal outdoors, where
smoke dissipates quickly.
(C) A motorcyclist rides without a helmet; the risk
of fatal injury to the motorcyclist thus incurred
is acceptable because the motorcyclist incurs
this risk willingly.
(D) Motor vehicles are allowed to emit certain low
levels of pollution; the resulting health risks
are acceptable because all users of motor vehicles
share the resulting benefit of inexpensive,
convenient travel.
(E) A nation requires all citizens to spend two years
in national service; since such service involves
no risk to life, the policy is acceptable.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Principle Match

The principle created an absolute identity between acceptable activities posing risks to life and gaining a benefit that cannot be had without the risks or bearing the risks voluntarily. If either of the two criteria is met, then the activity is acceptable, even though it poses risk to life.

A. No. It is not clear whether this poses risks to life.

B. No. No benefit is gained that cannot be had without such risks, and the risks are not borne voluntarily by the people who must suffer them.

C. Yes. This is a risk to life, and it is judged acceptable because the person who bears it bears the risk voluntarily.

D. No. This answer choice does not specify that there is no other way to get the benefit without the risk.

E. No. The principle did not involve whether policies were acceptable, only risks.

341
Q
  1. Ecologist: One theory attributes the ability of sea
    butterflies to avoid predation to their appearance,
    while another attributes this ability to various
    chemical compounds they produce. Recently we
    added each of the compounds to food pellets, one
    compound per pellet. Predators ate the pellets no
    matter which one of the compounds was present.
    Thus the compounds the sea butterflies produce
    are not responsible for their ability to avoid
    predation.

The reasoning in the ecologist’s argument is flawed in
that the argument

(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
the two theories are incompatible with each
other
(B) draws a conclusion about a cause on the basis
of nothing more than a statistical correlation
(C) treats a condition sufficient for sea butterflies’
ability to avoid predators as a condition
required for this ability
(D) infers, from the claim that no individual
member of a set has a certain effect, that the
set as a whole does not have that effect
(E) draws a conclusion that merely restates material
present in one or more of its premises

A

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION TYPE: Flaw

The argument concludes that compounds are not responsible for butterflies’ ability to avoid predation. The evidence is that the compounds were separated out and each individual one does not cause predators to avoid eating. The assumption is that there is no difference between the compounds taken individually, as in the premises, and the compounds taken together, as in the conclusion, on the actual butterfly.

A. No. Incompatibility of the theories is not the issue. One theory could still be wrong even if both could have been true.

B. No. There is no statistical correlation. There is a lack of a predicted effect, and the argument concludes lack of causation on those grounds.

C. No. There is no condition in this argument that is definitely sufficient for sea butterflies’ ability to avoid predation.

D. Yes. The argument concludes, from the claim that no individual compound has the effect of avoiding predators, that the compounds together do not have that effect. The answer describes this.

E. No. The premises do not state that the compounds are not responsible for the ability to avoid predation. They state that one compound at a time is not responsible for the ability.

342
Q
  1. Principle: One should criticize the works or actions of
    another person only if the criticism will not
    seriously harm the person criticized and one does
    so in the hope or expectation of benefiting
    someone other than oneself.
    Application: Jarrett should not have criticized Ostertag’s
    essay in front of the class, since the defects in it
    were so obvious that pointing them out benefited
    no one.

Which one of the following, if true, justifies the above
application of the principle?

(A) Jarrett knew that the defects in the essay were
so obvious that pointing them out would
benefit no one.
(B) Jarrett’s criticism of the essay would have been
to Ostertag’s benefit only if Ostertag had been
unaware of the defects in the essay at the time.
(C) Jarrett knew that the criticism might antagonize
Ostertag.
(D) Jarrett hoped to gain prestige by criticizing
Ostertag.
(E) Jarrett did not expect the criticism to be to
Ostertag’s benefit.

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Strengthen

The principle says that if criticism will harm the person criticized or if one does not criticize in the hope or expectation of benefiting someone other than oneself, one should not criticize the works or actions of another person. (That is, harm or ~hope to benefit other → ~criticize.) The application gives a situation in which the criticism did not benefit anyone, and it concludes that the criticism should not have happened. It is not clear, in this example, whether the criticism was offered in the hope or expectation of benefiting someone (and just failed to do so) or was offered even though it would not benefit anyone. In the latter case, the application is legitimate.

A. Yes. In this case, Jarrett did not criticize in the hope or expectation of benefiting someone other than himself (or anyone, in truth), so he should not have criticized as he did.

B. No. It is not clear whether Jarrett knew this or not, so even if this were true, he still might have been hoping to benefit Ostertag.

C. No. Even if this were true, he might have been hoping to benefit Ostertag.

D. No. Even if this were true, he might also have been hoping to benefit Ostertag.

E. No. Even if this were true, he might have been hoping to benefit someone other than himself and Ostertag (someone else in the class, perhaps).

343
Q
  1. Safety consultant: Judged by the number of injuries per
    licensed vehicle, minivans are the safest vehicles
    on the road. However, in carefully designed crash
    tests, minivans show no greater ability to protect
    their occupants than other vehicles of similar size
    do. Thus, the reason minivans have such a good
    safety record is probably not that they are
    inherently safer than other vehicles, but rather
    that they are driven primarily by low-risk drivers.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the safety consultant’s argument?

(A) When choosing what kind of vehicle to drive,
low-risk drivers often select a kind that they
know to perform particularly well in crash tests.
(B) Judged by the number of accidents per licensed
vehicle, minivans are no safer than most other
kinds of vehicles are.
(C) Minivans tend to carry more passengers at any
given time than do most other vehicles.
(D) In general, the larger a vehicle is, the greater its
ability to protect its occupants.
(E) Minivans generally have worse braking and
emergency handling capabilities than other
vehicles of similar size.

A

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION TYPE: Strengthen

The argument concludes that minivans have a good safety record because they are driven by low-risk drivers and not because they are inherently safer. The evidence is that the number of injuries per vehicle is lowest for minivans (out of all vehicles), but they don’t appear in crash tests to be inherently safer. The argument assumes that other factors outside of the actual mechanics of a collision are no more important than the crash itself.

A. No. Minivans don’t perform better in crash tests, so if this were true, low-risk drivers would not necessarily select minivans.

B. No. The safety record of minivans is not at issue in this argument, rather the conclusion is concerned with the cause of the low injuries per licensed vehicle.

C. No. If this were true, it would make the number of injuries per licensed vehicle statistic more impressive (more people, but fewer injuries), but it does not address why there are so few injuries

D. No. This weakens the argument by saying that it is the inherent safety, not the type of driver, that makes the minivans so safe.

E. Yes. If this is true, then not only are the minivans no safer when they’re actually in a collision, but they also are no safer in preventing a collision, so they cannot be inherently safer than other vehicles. This strengthens the conclusion (that it is the low-risk drivers that are the cause) by eliminating a possible alternate cause.

344
Q
  1. Consumer advocate: There is no doubt that the
    government is responsible for the increased cost
    of gasoline, because the government’s policies
    have significantly increased consumer demand for
    fuel, and as a result of increasing demand, the
    price of gasoline has risen steadily.

Which one of the following is an assumption required
by the consumer advocate’s argument?

(A) The government can bear responsibility for that
which it indirectly causes.
(B) The government is responsible for some
unforeseen consequences of its policies.
(C) Consumer demand for gasoline cannot increase
without causing gasoline prices to increase.
(D) The government has an obligation to ensure that
demand for fuel does not increase excessively.
(E) If the government pursues policies that do not
increase the demand for fuel, gasoline prices
tend to remain stable.

A

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION TYPE: Necessary Assumption

The conclusion is that the government is responsible for the increased cost of gasoline. The evidence is that the government’s policies have increased demand, and as a result of increased demand, the price has risen. The argument is assuming, broadly speaking, that this is enough to assign the responsibility solely on the government.

A. Yes. Try the Negation Test: If the government could not bear responsibility for that which it indirectly causes, then the government could not bear responsibility for the gasoline price increase, since it only indirectly caused it.

B. No. Whether the consequences were unforeseen is unknown, so this may not even be relevant.

C. No. Try the Negation Test: Even if consumer demand could increase without causing gasoline prices to increase, it did not in this case, so this does not matter.

D. No. The issue in the argument was not the government’s obligation, but whether the government was responsible.

E. No. The government did pursue policies that increased the demand for fuel, so this answer choice describes a situation that is not relevant to the argument.

345
Q
  1. A species in which mutations frequently occur will
    develop new evolutionary adaptations in each generation.
    Since species survive dramatic environmental changes
    only if they develop new evolutionary adaptations in
    each generation, a species in which mutations frequently
    occur will survive dramatic environmental changes.

The flawed pattern of reasoning in which one of the
following is most closely parallel to that in the
argument above?

(A) In a stone wall that is properly built, every
stone supports another stone. Since a wall’s
being sturdy depends upon its being properly
built, only walls that are composed entirely of
stones supporting other stones are sturdy.
(B) A play that is performed before a different
audience every time will never get the same
reaction from any two audiences. Since no
plays are performed before the same audience
every time, no play ever gets the same reaction
from any two audiences.
(C) A person who is perfectly honest will tell the
truth in every situation. Since in order to be a
morally upright person one must tell the truth
at all times, a perfectly honest person will also
be a morally upright person.
(D) An herb garden is productive only if the soil
that it is planted in is well drained. Since soil
that is well drained is good soil, an herb
garden is not productive unless it is planted in
good soil.
(E) A diet that is healthful is well balanced. Since a
well-balanced diet includes fruits and vegetables,
one will not be healthy unless one eats fruits
and vegetables.

A

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION TYPE: Parallel Flaw

This argument commits a necessary/sufficient flaw by reading a conditional statement backwards. One could diagram the premises as “mutations → evolutionary adaptations” and “survive changes → evolutionary adaptations.” The conclusion might be represented as “mutations → survive changes.” The problem is the argument assumes these two statements are linked, which would require one of them to be reversed. The credited response should likewise flip a conditional improperly.

A. No. This is logically valid. Take the second conditional first and the first second: “sturdy → properly built” and “properly built → stone supports stone.” This does lead to the conclusion, which is “sturdy → stone supports stone.”

B. No. This likewise is valid. It gives that different audience will give different reactions, and it says that there are always different audiences, so there will always be different reactions.

C. Yes. Being “honest” matches “mutations frequently occurring,” “telling the truth” matches “developing new evolutionary adaptations,” and being “morally upright” matches “surviving dramatic environmental changes.” Then this argument matches the original, as the premises would diagram as follows: “honest → truth” and “moral → truth.” The conclusion would diagram as follows: “honest → moral.” This again reads the second conditional backwards.

D. No. This is logically valid. It takes the contrapositives of both conditionals in the premises and combines them to create the conclusion. That is, the premises are “productive → well drained” and “well drained → good soil,” which would lead to the contrapositives “~good soil → ~well drained” and “~well drained → ~productive,” which can be combined to form the conclusion, “~good soil → ~productive.”

E. No. This answer choice introduces a language shift at the very end. It takes a contrapositive of both conditionals in the premises and combines them to create the conclusion. However, the conclusion also involves a language shift from not eating a healthful diet to not being healthy, while no such language shift was present in the original argument.

346
Q
  1. Music critic: How well an underground rock group’s
    recordings sell is no mark of that group’s success
    as an underground group. After all, if a recording
    sells well, it may be because some of the music
    on the recording is too trendy to be authentically
    underground; accordingly, many underground
    musicians consider it desirable for a recording not
    to sell well. But weak sales may simply be the
    result of the group’s incompetence.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the music critic’s argument?

(A) If an underground rock group is successful as
an underground group, its recordings will sell
neither especially well nor especially poorly.
(B) An underground rock group is unsuccessful as
an underground group if it is incompetent or if
any of its music is too trendy to be authentically
underground, or both.
(C) Whether an underground group’s recordings
meet criteria that many underground musicians
consider desirable is not a mark of that group’s
success.
(D) An underground rock group is successful as an
underground group if the group is competent
but its recordings nonetheless do not sell well.
(E) For an underground rock group, competence
and the creation of authentically underground
music are not in themselves marks of success.

A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION TYPE: Principle Strengthen

The conclusion of the argument is that sales are not a mark of a rock group’s success as an underground group. The evidence is that strong sales may be the result of being too trendy, and weak sales may be the result of incompetence. The credited response should connect the premises (being trendy or incompetent) with the conclusion (not successful as an underground group).

347
Q
  1. Graham: The defeat of the world’s chess champion by a
    computer shows that any type of human intellectual
    activity governed by fixed principles can be
    mastered by machines and thus that a truly
    intelligent machine will inevitably be devised.
    Adelaide: But you are overlooking the fact that the
    computer in the case you cite was simply an
    extension of the people who programmed it. It
    was their successful distillation of the principles
    of chess that enabled them to defeat a chess
    champion using a computer.

The statements above provide the most support for
holding that Graham and Adelaide disagree about
whether

(A) chess is the best example of a human
intellectual activity that is governed by fixed
principles
(B) chess is a typical example of the sorts of
intellectual activities in which human beings
characteristically engage
(C) a computer’s defeat of a human chess player is
an accomplishment that should be attributed to
the computer
(D) intelligence can be demonstrated by the
performance of an activity in accord with fixed
principles
(E) tools can be designed to aid in any human
activity that is governed by fixed principles

A