LSAT PREP TEST QUESTIONS Flashcards
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #1 Certain companies require their managers to rank
workers in the groups they supervise from best to
worst, giving each worker a unique ranking based on
job performance. The top 10 percent of the workers
in each group are rewarded and the bottom 10
percent are penalized or fired. But this system is
unfair to workers. Good workers could receive low
rankings merely because they belong to groups of
exceptionally good workers. Furthermore, managers
often give the highest rankings to workers who share
the manager’s interests outside of work.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion drawn in the argument?
(A) Some companies require their managers to give
unique rankings to the workers they supervise.
(B) Under the ranking system, the top 10 percent of
the workers in each group are rewarded and the
bottom 10 percent are penalized or fired.
(C) The ranking system is not a fair way to determine
penalties or rewards for workers.
(D) Workers in exceptionally strong work groups are
unfairly penalized under the ranking system.
(E) Managers often give the highest rankings to
workers who share the manager’s outside
interests.
Correct Answer: C
C Main Point
This argument disagrees with the compensation system companies use requiring managers to first rank their workers from best to worst, and then reward the top 10 percent in each group and penalize or fire the workers in the bottom 10 percent. The argument concludes that this system is unfair to workers. The premises are that the rankings depend too much on the quality of the workers with whom each worker is grouped. Also, managers often rank workers for the wrong reasons, such as affinity.
A. No. This is a premise.
B. No. This is a premise.
C. Yes. This is a good restatement of the disagreement.
D. No. This is a premise.
E. No. This is a premise.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #2 Psychologist: A study of 436 university students
found that those who took short naps
throughout the day suffered from insomnia
more frequently than those who did not.
Moreover, people who work on commercial
fishing vessels often have irregular sleep
patterns that include frequent napping, and
they also suffer from insomnia. So it is very
likely that napping tends to cause insomnia.
The reasoning in the psychologist’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
university students suffer from insomnia
more frequently than do members of the
general population
(B) presumes that all instances of insomnia have
the same cause
(C) fails to provide a scientifically respectable
definition for the term “napping”
(D) fails to consider the possibility that frequent
daytime napping is an effect rather than a
cause of insomnia
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
there is such a thing as a regular sleep pattern
for someone working on a commercial fishing
vessel
Correct Answer: D
D Flaw
The argument presents a causal interpretation of evidence. The psychologist concludes that napping is likely to cause insomnia because two groups of people who nap more suffer more from insomnia.
A. No. The argument does not compare university students to the general population, but rather university students who nap to those who do not.
B. No. The argument does not assume that napping is the only cause of insomnia, just that it tends to cause insomnia.
C. No. The argument uses the term “napping” consistently and does not need to define it.
D. Yes. The argument fails to rule out the possibility that the causal direction might be reversed.
E. No. This is not essential to the argument.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #3 Whenever Joe’s car is vacuumed, the employees of
K & L Auto vacuum it; they are the only people who
ever vacuum Joe’s car. If the employees of K & L Auto
vacuumed Joe’s car, then Joe took his car to K & L
Auto to be fixed. Joe’s car was recently vacuumed.
Therefore, Joe took his car to K & L Auto to be fixed.
The pattern of reasoning exhibited by the argument
above is most similar to that exhibited by which one
of the following?
(A) Emily’s water glass is wet and it would be wet
only if she drank water from it this morning.
Since the only time she drinks water in the
morning is when she takes her medication,
Emily took her medication this morning.
(B) Lisa went to the hair salon today since either
she went to the hair salon today or she went
to the bank this morning, but Lisa did not go
to the bank this morning.
(C) There are no bills on John’s kitchen table. Since
John gets at least one bill per day and he
always puts his bills on his kitchen table,
someone else must have checked John’s mail
today.
(D) Linda is grumpy only if she does not have her
coffee in the morning, and Linda does not
have her coffee in the morning only if she
runs out of coffee. Therefore, Linda runs out
of coffee only on days that she is grumpy.
(E) Jeff had to choose either a grapefruit or cereal
for breakfast this morning. Given that Jeff is
allergic to grapefruit, Jeff must have had
cereal for breakfast this morning.
Correct Answer: A
A Parallel
Diagram the argument. Joe’s car is vacuumed → K & L vacuumed it. K & L vacuumed it → Joe took it to K & L to be fixed. The argument demonstrates that the sufficient factor (Joe’s car is vacuumed) is valid. Therefore, the result (Joe took his car to K & L to be fixed) must also be true.
A. Yes. Emily’s glass is wet → she drank water from it this morning → she took her medication. Emily’s glass is wet, so she must have taken her medication.
B. No. There is no either/or option in the original argument.
C. No. This answer choice does not match the structure of the original argument.
D. No. This answer choice demonstrates flawed reasoning and the original argument does not.
E. No. There is no either/or option in the original argument.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #4 Editorialist: In a large corporation, one of the
functions of the corporation’s president is to
promote the key interests of the shareholders.
Therefore, the president has a duty to keep the
corporation’s profits high.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
strengthen the editorialist’s argument?
(A) Shareholders sometimes will be satisfied even
if dividends paid to them from company
profits are not high.
(B) The president and the board of directors of a
corporation are jointly responsible for
advancing the key interests of the
shareholders.
(C) Keeping a corporation’s profits high is likely to
advance the important interests of the
corporation’s shareholders.
(D) In considering where to invest, most potential
shareholders are interested in more than just
the profitability of a corporation.
(E) The president of a corporation has many
functions besides advancing the important
interests of the corporation’s shareholders.
Correct Answer: C
C Strengthen
The editorialist concludes that the president has a duty to keep the corporation’s profits high. The premise is that one of the functions of the president is to promote the key interests of the stockholders. The argument would benefit from a connection between the key interests of the stockholders and high profits.
A. No. This answer choice would, if anything, weaken the argument.
B. No. The argument is concerned with the president and what he/she should do, not the board of directors.
C. Yes. This answer choice provides a strong connection between the key interests of the shareholders and keeping the profits high.
D. No. The argument does not imply that profitability is the only interest of the shareholders.
E. No. Like (D), the argument does not imply that advancing the important interests of shareholders is the president’s only responsibility.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #5 Everyone in Biba’s neighborhood is permitted to
swim at Barton Pool at some time during each day
that it is open. No children under the age of 6 are
permitted to swim at Barton Pool between noon and
5 P.M. From 5 P.M. until closing, Barton Pool is
reserved for adults only.
If all the sentences above are true, then which one of
the following must be true?
(A) Few children under the age of 6 live in Biba’s
neighborhood.
(B) If Biba’s next-door neighbor has a child under
the age of 6, then Barton Pool is open before
noon.
(C) If most children who swim in Barton Pool
swim in the afternoon, then the pool is
generally less crowded after 5 P.M.
(D) On days when Barton Pool is open, at least
some children swim there in the afternoon.
(E) Any child swimming in Barton Pool before
5 P.M. must be breaking Barton Pool rules.
Correct Answer: B
B Inference
This is a connect-the-facts inference with conditionals. Live in Biba’s neighborhood → permitted to swim at some time each day. Under 6 → can’t swim between noon and 5 P.M. Child → can’t swim from 5 P.M. until closing.
A. No. You can’t prove how many, if any, children live in Biba’s neighborhood.
B. Yes. Children under 6 can’t swim in the pool from noon until closing. Yet, as the passage says, everyone that lives in the neighborhood must be able to swim at some time during the day. This child would have to be able to swim before noon.
C. No. The argument does not provide any information to determine how crowded the pool will be.
D. No. The argument does not explain who lives in Biba’s neighborhood. It could be a neighborhood with no children.
E. No. The pool could be open before noon. Also, it’s only children under 6 that are not allowed to swim between noon and 5 P.M.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #6 Beck: Our computer program estimates municipal
automotive use based on weekly data. Some
staff question the accuracy of the program’s
estimates. But because the figures it provides
are remarkably consistent from week to week,
we can be confident of its accuracy.
The reasoning in Beck’s argument is flawed in that it
(A) fails to establish that consistency is a more
important consideration than accuracy
(B) fails to consider the program’s accuracy in
other tasks that it may perform
(C) takes for granted that the program’s output
would be consistent even if its estimates were
inaccurate
(D) regards accuracy as the sole criterion for
judging the program’s value
(E) fails to consider that the program could
produce consistent but inaccurate output
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
The purpose of this argument is to disagree with a claim. Beck concludes that, despite what some of the staff says, they can be confident of their computer program’s accuracy because the figures that the program provides are consistent from week to week. Beck equates consistency with accuracy.
A. No. The argument doesn’t claim that consistency is more important than accuracy. It equates the two.
B. No. The argument is concerned with only one task: estimating the municipal automotive use.
C. No. The argument takes for granted that, because the output is consistent, the program must be accurate.
D. No. The argument is concerned with only the accuracy of the program. It doesn’t make any claims about the program’s value in general.
E. Yes. The argument assumes that, because the output is consistent, the program must be accurate.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #7 Inertia affects the flow of water pumped through a
closed system of pipes. When the pump is first
switched on, the water, which has mass, takes time to
reach full speed. When the pump is switched off,
inertia causes the decrease in the water flow to be
gradual. The effects of inductance in electrical
circuits are similar to the effects of inertia in water
pipes.
The information above provides the most support
for which one of the following?
(A) The rate at which electrical current flows is
affected by inductance.
(B) The flow of electrical current in a circuit
requires inertia.
(C) Inertia in the flow of water pumped by an
electrically powered pump is caused by
inductance in the pump’s circuits.
(D) Electrical engineers try to minimize the effects
of inductance in electrical circuits.
(E) When a water pump is switched off it
continues to pump water for a second or two
Correct Answer: A
A Inference
The argument describes how inertia affects the flow of water pumped through a closed system of pipes. It then equates the effects of inductance in electrical circuits with the effects of inertia in water pipes.
A. Yes. If the effects of inductance are similar to the effects of inertia, and inertia affects the flow of water, then inductance will affect the flow of electrical current.
B. No. Inertia refers to water and pipes, not the flow of electrical current.
C. No. You cannot prove how inductance affects inertia from the information provided.
D. No. You cannot prove anything about electrical engineers from the information provided.
E. No. This choice is too strong. All you can prove is that the inertia causes the decrease in the water flow to be gradual. You cannot prove how long this takes.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #8 Journalist: To reconcile the need for profits sufficient
to support new drug research with the moral
imperative to provide medicines to those who
most need them but cannot afford them, some
pharmaceutical companies feel justified in
selling a drug in rich nations at one price and
in poor nations at a much lower price. But this
practice is unjustified. A nation with a low
average income may still have a substantial
middle class better able to pay for new drugs
than are many of the poorer citizens of an
overall wealthier nation.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the journalist’s reasoning?
(A) People who are ill deserve more consideration
than do healthy people, regardless of their
relative socioeconomic positions.
(B) Wealthy institutions have an obligation to
expend at least some of their resources to
assist those incapable of assisting themselves.
(C) Whether one deserves special consideration
depends on one’s needs rather than on
characteristics of the society to which one
belongs.
(D) The people in wealthy nations should not have
better access to health care than do the people
in poorer nations.
(E) Unequal access to health care is more unfair
than an unequal distribution of wealth.
Correct Answer: C
C Principle Strengthen
The purpose of this argument is to disagree with a claim. The journalist thinks that the pharmaceutical companies are not justified in selling a drug in rich nations at one price and in poor nations at another price. The journalist’s premise is that many individuals in poorer nations might be better able to pay for new drugs than poorer individuals in nations with higher overall wealth.
A. No. The argument doesn’t compare ill people to healthy people.
B. No. This answer choice supports the position that the argument is designed to disagree with.
C. Yes. This answer choice points out that special consideration should be provided to individuals when individuals within a society might not have the same amount of resources as the society does, on average.
D. No. This answer choice is not relevant to the argument.
E. No. The argument does not discuss the fairness of unequal distribution of wealth.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #9 9. Robert: The school board is considering adopting a
year-round academic schedule that eliminates
the traditional three-month summer vacation.
This schedule should be adopted, since
teachers need to cover more new material
during the school year than they do now.
Samantha: The proposed schedule will not permit
teachers to cover more new material. Even
though the schedule eliminates summer
vacation, it adds six new two-week breaks, so
the total number of school days will be about
the same as before.
Which one of the following, if true, is a response
Robert could make that would counter Samantha’s
argument?
(A) Teachers would be willing to accept
elimination of the traditional three-month
summer vacation as long as the total vacation
time they are entitled to each year is not
reduced.
(B) Most parents who work outside the home find
it difficult to arrange adequate supervision
for their school-age children over the
traditional three-month summer vacation.
(C) In school districts that have adopted a yearround schedule that increases the number of
school days per year, students show a deeper
understanding and better retention of new
material.
(D) Teachers spend no more than a day of class
time reviewing old material when students
have been away from school for only a few
weeks, but have to spend up to a month of
class time reviewing after a three-month
summer vacation.
(E) Students prefer taking a long vacation from
school during the summer to taking more
frequent but shorter vacations spread
throughout the year.
Correct Answer: D
D Weaken
Robert is trying to solve a problem and Samantha claims that he hasn’t solved it. Robert concludes that the school board should adopt a year-round academic schedule because teachers need to cover more new material during the school year than they do now. Samantha claims that the new school schedule won’t permit the teachers to cover any more new material because the amount of vacation will be the same as before, just in a different configuration. The students will have six two-week breaks, instead of one three-month break.
A. No. This doesn’t address the problem of needing to cover more new material.
B. No. This answer choice does not address the problem of needing to cover more new material.
C. No. It’s nice that students show a deeper understanding of the material in year-round schools, but the answer choice does not address the issue at hand: needing to cover more new material.
D. Yes. If the teachers have to spend significantly less class time reviewing material after the short breaks in the year-round schedule than after the long break in the traditional schedule, then teachers will have more class days to cover new material.
E. No. Student preference is not relevant. The disagreement is about the amount of new material that could be covered.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #10 In order to reduce traffic congestion and raise
revenue for the city, the mayor plans to implement a
charge of $10 per day for driving in the downtown
area. Payment of this charge will be enforced using a
highly sophisticated system that employs digital
cameras and computerized automobile registration.
This system will not be ready until the end of next
year. Without this system, however, mass evasion of
the charge will result. Therefore, when the mayor’s
plan is first implemented, payment of the charge will
not be effectively enforced.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends for its conclusion to be
properly drawn?
(A) The mayor’s plan to charge for driving
downtown will be implemented before the
end of next year.
(B) The city will incur a budget deficit if it does
not receive the revenue it expects to raise
from the charge for driving downtown.
(C) The plan to charge for driving downtown
should be implemented as soon as payment of
the charge can be effectively enforced.
(D) Raising revenue is a more important
consideration for the city than is reducing
traffic congestion.
(E) A daily charge for driving downtown is the
most effective way to reduce traffic
congestion.
Correct Answer: A
A Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that the mayor’s plan to reduce congestion and raise revenue by charging $10 per day for driving in the downtown area will not be effectively enforced when it is first implemented. The premises are that payment will be enforced by a highly sophisticated system that will not be ready until the end of next year, and that many people will avoid paying the charge without this system in place.
A. Yes. It is essential to the argument that the plan be in place before the system is ready at the end of next year.
B. No. The argument does not discuss the possibility of a budget deficit.
C. No. The argument is concerned with whether the plan will be effectively enforced when it is first implemented, not when it should be implemented.
D. No. The argument does not compare the importance of raising revenue versus reducing traffic congestion.
E. No. Too strong. The argument doesn’t need to say that a daily charge is the most effective way to reduce traffic congestion.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #11 A recent study revealed that the percentage of people
treated at large, urban hospitals who recover from
their illnesses is lower than the percentage for people
treated at smaller, rural hospitals.
Each of the following, if true, contributes to an
explanation of the difference in recovery rates
EXCEPT:
(A) Because there are fewer patients to feed,
nutritionists at small hospitals are better able
to tailor meals to the dietary needs of each
patient.
(B) The less friendly, more impersonal atmosphere
of large hospitals can be a source of stress for
patients at those hospitals.
(C) Although large hospitals tend to draw doctors
trained at the more prestigious schools, no
correlation has been found between the
prestige of a doctor’s school and patients’
recovery rate.
(D) Because space is relatively scarce in large
hospitals, doctors are encouraged to minimize
the length of time that patients are held for
observation following a medical procedure.
(E) Doctors at large hospitals tend to have a
greater number of patients and consequently
less time to explain to staff and to patients
how medications are to be administered.
Correct Answer: C
C Resolve/Explain
There is a discrepancy in recovery rates between people treated at large, urban hospitals and people treated at smaller, rural hospitals. People treated at smaller, rural hospitals have a higher rate of recovery. Eliminate any answer choices that help resolve the discrepancy.
A. No. If the patients at smaller hospitals are more likely to get fed according to their dietary needs, they might be more likely to recover from their illnesses.
B. No. If patients at larger hospitals are more stressed than patients at smaller hospitals, that might adversely affect their recovery rate.
C. Yes. This answer choice states that there has been no correlation found between the prestige of a doctor’s school and patients’ recovery rates. In no way is this relevant to explaining the differing recovery rates of patients treated at larger or smaller hospitals.
D. No. If patients are not observed for as long, there is a greater chance that an unobserved complication might occur, thus adversely affecting the recovery rate for patients treated at larger hospitals.
E. No. If the staff and patients do not get explanations about the administration of their medications, improper administration of these medications is more likely to occur. This would adversely affect the recovery rates of patients treated at larger hospitals.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #12 12. Perry: Worker-owned businesses require workers to
spend time on management decision-making
and investment strategy, tasks that are not
directly productive. Also, such businesses have
less extensive divisions of labor than do
investor-owned businesses. Such inefficiencies
can lead to low profitability, and thus increase
the risk for lenders. Therefore, lenders seeking
to reduce their risk should not make loans to
worker-owned businesses.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens Perry’s argument?
(A) Businesses with the most extensive divisions of
labor sometimes fail to make the fullest use of
their most versatile employees’ potential.
(B) Lenders who specialize in high-risk loans are
the largest source of loans for worker-owned
businesses.
(C) Investor-owned businesses are more likely
than worker-owned businesses are to receive
start-up loans.
(D) Worker-owned businesses have traditionally
obtained loans from cooperative lending
institutions established by coalitions of
worker-owned businesses.
(E) In most worker-owned businesses, workers
compensate for inefficiencies by working
longer hours than do workers in investorowned businesses.
Correct Answer: E
E Weaken
Perry concludes that lenders who are seeking to reduce their risk should not make loans to worker-owned businesses. This is because worker-owned businesses require workers to spend time on management and investment, which are not directly productive. Worker-owned businesses also have less extensive divisions of labor than do investor-owned businesses. These inefficiencies can lead to low profitability, which would increase risk for lenders. An issue with Perry’s argument is that, just because inefficiencies can lead to low profitability, it doesn’t mean that they will. Maybe there is something unique about worker-owned businesses that will overcome this problem.
A. No. Businesses with the most extensive divisions of labor can sometimes fail to make the fullest use of their most versatile employees’ potential and still be more efficient, on average, than the worker-owned businesses and still be, on average, the safer investment.
B. No. This answer choice is a description of the lenders who do make loans to worker-owned businesses. It does not address the warning against lending to worker-owned businesses.
C. No. The argument is not concerned with start-up loans, nor is it concerned with who actually gets loans.
D. No. This answer choice does not give a reason as to why worker-owned businesses might be a less risky investment than the argument claims.
E. Yes. If the workers work longer hours, the inefficiencies might be compensated for, which means that the inefficiencies won’t necessarily lead to low profitability. If they don’t lead to low profitability, then the risk will not necessarily increase for lenders.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #13 13. Some paleontologists believe that certain species of
dinosaurs guarded their young in protective nests
long after the young hatched. As evidence, they cite
the discovery of fossilized hadrosaur babies and
adolescents in carefully designed nests. But similar
nests for hatchlings and adolescents are constructed
by modern crocodiles, even though crocodiles guard
their young only for a very brief time after they
hatch. Hence, .
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) paleontologists who believe that hadrosaurs
guarded their young long after the young
hatched have no evidence to support this
belief
(B) we will never be able to know the extent to
which hadrosaurs guarded their young
(C) hadrosaurs guarded their young for at most
very brief periods after hatching
(D) it is unclear whether what we learn about
hadrosaurs from their fossilized remains tells
us anything about other dinosaurs
(E) the construction of nests for hatchlings and
adolescents is not strong evidence for the
paleontologists’ belief
Correct Answer: E
E Main Point
This argument is designed to disagree with a claim. The argument disagrees with some paleontologists, who believe that certain dinosaurs guarded their young in protective nests long after the young hatched. The evidence cited for the paleontologists’ claim is the discovery of fossilized hadrosaur babies and adolescents in carefully designed nests. In disagreeing with these paleontologists, the argument notes that modern crocodiles construct similar nests, even though these crocodiles don’t guard their young for long. The argument seems to be leading to the conclusion that the evidence of fossilized nests is not enough to claim that the dinosaurs guarded their young long after the young hatched.
A. No. This answer choice is too strong. The paleontologists do have some evidence, just not enough to fully support their conclusion.
B. No. This answer choice is too strong. The evidence cited is not strong enough for the paleontologists’ conclusion. That’s not to say that we will never know the extent to which hadrosaurs guarded their young.
C. No. This answer choice is too strong. There is not enough evidence to know that they guarded their young for large periods of time. That’s not to say that hadrosaurs couldn’t have actually guarded their young for large periods of time.
D. No. This is not the disagreement. The paleontologists are making a claim about a certain species of dinosaurs, not all dinosaurs.
E. Yes. The argument disagrees with the paleontologists as to the strength of the evidence that supports their belief.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #14 14. For one academic year all the students at a high
school were observed. The aim was to test the
hypothesis that studying more increased a student’s
chances of earning a higher grade. It turned out that
the students who spent the most time studying did
not earn grades as high as did many students who
studied less. Nonetheless, the researchers concluded
that the results of the observation supported the
initial hypothesis.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain why the researchers drew the conclusion
described above?
(A) The students who spent the most time
studying earned higher grades than did some
students who studied for less time than the
average.
(B) The students tended to get slightly lower
grades as the academic year progressed.
(C) In each course, the more a student studied, the
better his or her grade was in that course.
(D) The students who spent the least time studying
tended to be students with no more than
average involvement in extracurricular
activities.
(E) Students who spent more time studying
understood the course material better than
other students did.
Correct Answer: C
C Resolve/Explain
The apparent paradox is that when researchers tested the hypothesis that studying more increased a student’s chances of earning a higher grade, the students who spent the most time studying did not earn grades as high as did many students who studied less. Yet, the researchers concluded that the results supported their hypothesis.
A. No. This doesn’t resolve the apparent paradox. The passage says that many students who studied less earned higher grades. This still leaves room for some students who studied less to get lower grades, while still maintaining the seeming paradox.
B. No. If all the students tended to get slightly lower grades as the year progressed, the problem still remains that many students who studied less will have higher grades than the students who spent the most time studying.
C. Yes. This resolves the apparent paradox. If each individual student does better in a given class if he or she studies, then it looks like studying more will increase a student’s change of getting a higher grade, even if the students who study the most get lower grades than many who don’t study as much. The hypothesis was about an individual’s grades, while the statistics were about the students considered in groups.
D. No. This does not resolve the apparent paradox.
E. No. This does not resolve the apparent paradox as well as (C) because it doesn’t directly connect studying with an individual’s chances of getting a better grade in a given class.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #15 15. Researchers had three groups of professional cyclists
cycle for one hour at different levels of intensity.
Members of groups A, B, and C cycled at rates that
sustained, for an hour, pulses of about 60 percent, 70
percent, and 85 percent, respectively, of the
recommended maximum pulse rate for recreational
cyclists. Most members of Group A reported being
less depressed and angry afterward. Most members of
Group B did not report these benefits. Most
members of Group C reported feeling worse in these
respects than before the exercise.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) The higher the pulse rate attained in sustained
exercise, the less psychological benefit the
exercise tends to produce.
(B) The effect that a period of cycling has on the
mood of professional cyclists tends to depend
at least in part on how intense the cycling is.
(C) For professional cyclists, the best exercise from
the point of view of improving mood is
cycling that pushes the pulse no higher than
60 percent of the maximum pulse rate.
(D) Physical factors, including pulse rate,
contribute as much to depression as do
psychological factors.
(E) Moderate cycling tends to benefit professional
cyclists physically as much or more than
intense cycling
Correct Answer: B
B Inference
Find the answer choice supported by the passage.
A. No. This answer choice is too strong. The argument talks only about cycling, not about exercise in general. In addition, you can’t prove that in every instance the higher the pulse rate, the less psychological benefit produced. What if having a pulse rate of 60 percent of the recommended maximum pulse rate leads to greater benefits than having a pulse rate of 40 percent of the maximum?
B. Yes. The argument demonstrates a correlation between the mood of professional cyclists and how intense the cycling is. When the cycling is at 60 percent of the recommended maximum pulse rate for recreational bikers, the professional cyclists reported being less depressed and angry. Those cycling at 85 percent, on the other hand, reported feeling more depressed and angry.
C. No. This answer choice is too strong. You can’t prove anything about pulse rates higher than 85 percent so it is possible that something higher could also improve mood.
D. No. This answer choice is too strong. You can’t prove that physical factors contribute as much as psychological factors contribute. The passage does not include information about any psychological factors that may have been at play so you can’t make that comparison.
E. No. You can’t prove whether moderate cycling benefits professional cyclists physically as much or more than intense cycling.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #16 16. Anyone who believes in extraterrestrials believes in
UFOs. But the existence of UFOs has been
conclusively refuted. Therefore a belief in
extraterrestrials is false as well.
Which one of the following arguments contains
flawed reasoning most similar to that in the
argument above?
(A) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But it has been demonstrated that
there are no centaurs, so there are no
unicorns either.
(B) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But you do not believe in centaurs,
so you do not believe in unicorns either.
(C) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But you do not believe in unicorns,
so you do not believe in centaurs either.
(D) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But there is no good reason to
believe in centaurs, so a belief in unicorns is
unjustified as well.
(E) Anyone who believes in unicorns believes in
centaurs. But it has been conclusively proven
that there is no such thing as a unicorn, so a
belief in centaurs is mistaken as well.
Correct Answer: A
A Parallel Flaw
This argument is diagrammable: Believe in existence of ETs → believe in existence of UFOs. UFOs don’t exist → ETs don’t exist. The argument does not support the assumption that the existence of ETs depends on the existence of UFOs.
A. Yes. Believe in existence of unicorns → believe in existence of centaurs. Centaurs don’t exist → unicorns can’t exist. This is the same argument structure and the same flaw.
B. No. This argument is not flawed. Believe in unicorns → believe in centaurs. Don’t believe in centaurs → don’t believe in unicorns. The second conditional is the contrapositive of the first.
C. No. This answer choice does not make the switch from belief to actual existence.
D. No. This answer choice does not make the switch from belief to actual existence.
E. No. This answer choice does make the switch from belief to actual existence but its second premise starts with the non-existence of unicorns, which were, in fact, the sufficient condition in the first premise. This does not match the structure of the original argument.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #17 17. People want to be instantly and intuitively liked.
Those persons who are perceived as forming
opinions of others only after cautiously gathering
and weighing the evidence are generally resented.
Thus, it is imprudent to appear prudent.
Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
argument’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
(A) People who act spontaneously are well liked.
(B) Imprudent people act instantly and intuitively.
(C) People resent those less prudent than
themselves.
(D) People who are intuitive know instantly when
they like someone.
(E) It is imprudent to cause people to resent you.
Correct Answer: E
E Suffiicient Assumption
The conclusion of the argument is that it is imprudent to appear prudent. The first premise is that people want to be instantly and intuitively liked. The second premise is that people who are perceived to form opinions about others non-spontaneously are generally resented. The argument shifts language from the premise, which discusses behavior that causes resentment, to the conclusion, which discusses prudence. You need an answer that proves the conclusion by tying it to resentment.
A. No. The conclusion isn’t about how people need to act in order to be well liked. It is a judgment about appearing prudent, not about spontaneity.
B. No. You need to know why it is imprudent to appear prudent, not how imprudent people generally act.
C. No. If anything, this argument seems to claim that people resent those more prudent than themselves.
D. No. The conclusion is concerned with prudence and imprudence, not about intuitive people.
E. Yes. This gives the argument the connection it needs between imprudence and resentment.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #18 18. Journalist: Recent studies have demonstrated that a
regular smoker who has just smoked a
cigarette will typically display significantly
better short-term memory skills than a
nonsmoker, whether or not the nonsmoker has
also just smoked a cigarette for the purposes of
the study. Moreover, the majority of those
smokers who exhibit this superiority in shortterm memory skills will do so for at least eight
hours after having last smoked.
If the journalist’s statements are true, then each of
the following could be true EXCEPT:
(A) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
nonsmoker who has just smoked a cigarette
are usually substantially worse than the shortterm memory skills exhibited by a nonsmoker
who has not recently smoked a cigarette.
(B) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
nonsmoker who has just smoked a cigarette
are typically superior to those exhibited by a
regular smoker who has just smoked a
cigarette.
(C) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
nonsmoker who has just smoked a cigarette
are typically superior to those exhibited by a
regular smoker who has not smoked for more
than eight hours.
(D) A regular smoker who, immediately after
smoking a cigarette, exhibits short-term
memory skills no better than those typically
exhibited by a nonsmoker is nevertheless
likely to exhibit superior short-term memory
skills in the hours following a period of heavy
smoking.
(E) The short-term memory skills exhibited by a
regular smoker who last smoked a cigarette
five hours ago are typically superior to those
exhibited by a regular smoker who has just
smoked a cigarette.
Correct Answer: B
B Inference
Find the answer choice that contradicts evidence in the argument.
A. No. This answer choice could be true. The argument doesn’t compare the difference in memory between nonsmokers who have just smoked a cigarette and nonsmokers who haven’t recently smoked a cigarette.
B. Yes. The argument states that the short-term memory skills of a nonsmoker who has just smoked are typically significantly worse than those of a smoker who has just smoked. So, this answer choice directly contradicts the argument.
C. No. The argument doesn’t compare the memory skills of nonsmokers who have just smoked and smokers who haven’t smoked in over eight hours. This answer choice could be true.
D. No. This answer choice could be true. The argument doesn’t say anything about periods of heavy smoking. The answer choice is also comparing two individuals, not the typical results.
E. No. The argument doesn’t compare the memory skills of smokers who last smoked five hours ago and smokers who have just smoked. This answer choice could be true.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #19 19. Educator: It has been argued that our professional
organization should make decisions about
important issues—such as raising dues and
taking political stands—by a direct vote of all
members rather than by having members vote
for officers who in turn make the decisions.
This would not, however, be the right way to
decide these matters, for the vote of any given
individual is much more likely to determine
organizational policy by influencing the
election of an officer than by influencing the
result of a direct vote on a single issue.
Which one of the following principles would, if valid,
most help to justify the educator’s reasoning?
(A) No procedure for making organizational
decisions should allow one individual’s vote
to weigh more than that of another.
(B) Outcomes of organizational elections should
be evaluated according to their benefit to the
organization as a whole, not according to the
fairness of the methods by which they are
produced.
(C) Important issues facing organizations should
be decided by people who can devote their
full time to mastering the information
relevant to the issues.
(D) An officer of an organization should not make
a particular decision on an issue unless a
majority of the organization’s members
would approve of that decision.
(E) An organization’s procedures for making
organizational decisions should maximize the
power of each member of the org
Correct Answer: E
E Principle Strengthen
This argument is designed to disagree with a claim. The educator is against deciding matters in his professional organization by a direct vote instead of having matter decided by officers who are elected by direct vote. The premise is that organizational policy will be more influenced by individuals voting for officers rather than individuals directly voting on issues. A principle that would strengthen it would connect procedures for making organizational decisions with the amount of influence each member has on these decisions.
A. No. This principle would weaken the argument, if anything.
B. No. This principle does not connect the procedures for making decisions with the amount of influence of each member on these decisions.
C. No. This answer choice does not tell us that it would be the officers that would have this time, so it doesn’t help the argument.
D. No. This might be true but it does not strengthen the educator’s claim that voting to elect officers will give each individual more influence in organizational policy.
E. Yes. This principle strengthens the argument by relating procedures for making decisions and the maximization of the power of each individual to influence the decisions.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #20 20. Neural connections carrying signals from the cortex
(the brain region responsible for thought) down to
the amygdala (a brain region crucial for emotions)
are less well developed than connections carrying
signals from the amygdala up to the cortex. Thus, the
amygdala exerts a greater influence on the cortex
than vice versa.
The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) The influence that the amygdala exerts on the
rest of the brain is dependent on the influence
that the cortex exerts on the rest of the brain.
(B) No other brain region exerts more influence
on the cortex than does the amygdala.
(C) The region of the brain that has the most
influence on the cortex is the one that has the
most highly developed neural connections to
the cortex.
(D) The amygdala is not itself controlled by one or
more other regions of the brain.
(E) The degree of development of a set of neural
connections is directly proportional to the
influence transmitted across those
connections.
Correct Answer: E
E Sufficient Assumption
The conclusion of the argument is that the amygdala exerts a greater influence on the cortex than vice versa. The premise for this conclusion is that the neural connections that carry signals from the cortex to the amygdala are less well developed than the connections carrying signals the other way around. The argument equates how developed the connections carrying signals from one part of the brain to the other are to the amount of influence one part of the brain has on the other.
A. No. The argument is concerned only with the influence the amygdala exerts on the cortex, not the rest of the brain.
B. No. Other brain regions are not relevant and the assumption needs to equate how developed the connections are to the amount of influence.
C. No. This answer choice is too general. The region of the brain that has the most highly developed neural connections to the cortex might be something other than the amygdala.
D. No. The argument is concerned with the influence that the amygdala has on the cortex. It doesn’t matter whether some other region controls it.
E. Yes. This connects the degree of development of neural connections with the degree of influence one part of the brain has on another.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #21 21. The Iliad and the Odyssey were both attributed to
Homer in ancient times. But these two poems differ
greatly in tone and vocabulary and in certain details
of the fictional world they depict. So they are almost
certainly not the work of the same poet.
Which one of the following statements, if true, most
weakens the reasoning above?
(A) Several hymns that were also attributed to
Homer in ancient times differ more from the
Iliad in the respects mentioned than does the
Odyssey.
(B) Both the Iliad and the Odyssey have come
down to us in manuscripts that have suffered
from minor copying errors and other textual
corruptions.
(C) Works known to have been written by the
same modern writer are as different from
each other in the respects mentioned as are
the Iliad and the Odyssey.
(D) Neither the Iliad nor the Odyssey taken by
itself is completely consistent in all of the
respects mentioned.
(E) Both the Iliad and the Odyssey were the result
of an extended process of oral composition in
which many poets were involved.
Correct Answer: C
C Weaken
This argument disagrees with the claim that the difference in vocabulary, tone, and details of the fictional world depicted in the Iliad and the Odyssey imply that they could almost certainly not be the work of the same poet. A good answer choice will demonstrate how even if two works are different in many ways, the same person may have written both of them.
A. No. Homer might not have actually written the hymns either.
B. No. This doesn’t go far enough. If the manuscripts have suffered only minor copying errors and other textual corruptions, the corruptions won’t explain away all of the stylistic differences between the two.
C. Yes. You know that the modern writer actually wrote the works described. This counterexample lends plausibility to the possibility that Homer wrote both the Iliad and the Odyssey despite their many differences.
D. No. The argument rests on comparing the Iliad with the Odyssey, not looking at each by itself.
E. No. This would support the claim that Homer didn’t write both.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #22 22. Moralist: A statement is wholly truthful only if it is
true and made without intended deception. A
statement is a lie if it is intended to deceive or
if its speaker, upon learning that the statement
was misinterpreted, refrains from clarifying it.
Which one of the following judgments most closely
conforms to the principles stated by the moralist?
(A) Ted’s statement to the investigator that he had
been abducted by extraterrestrial beings was
wholly truthful even though no one has ever
been abducted by extraterrestrial beings.
After all, Ted was not trying to deceive the
investigator.
(B) Tony was not lying when he told his
granddaughter that he did not wear dentures,
for even though Tony meant to deceive his
granddaughter, she made it clear to Tony that
she did not believe him.
(C) Siobhan did not tell a lie when she told her
supervisor that she was ill and hence would
not be able to come to work for an important
presentation. However, even though her
statement was true, it was not wholly truthful.
(D) Walter’s claim to a potential employer that he
had done volunteer work was a lie. Even
though Walter had worked without pay in his
father’s factory, he used the phrase “volunteer
work” in an attempt to deceive the interviewer
into thinking he had worked for a socially
beneficial cause.
(E) The tour guide intended to deceive the tourists
when he told them that the cabin they were
looking at was centuries old. Still, his
statement about the cabin’s age was not a lie,
for if he thought that this statement had been
misinterpreted, he would have tried to
clarify it.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Match
Diagram the moralist’s two principles. 1. Statement wholly truthful → it’s true and made without intended deception. Contrapositive: ~true or made with intended deception → ~not wholly truthful. 2. Intended to deceive or doesn’t clarify misinterpretation → lie. Contrapositive: ~lie → ~intended to deceive and clarifies misinterpretation. The best answer choice will provide an example in which at least one of the two principles is fulfilled.
A. No. Neither principle gives criteria to determine that a statement is wholly truthful.
B. No. Neither principle gives criteria to determine that a statement is not a lie, only when it is a lie.
C. No. You don’t know whether Siobhan intended to deceive, nor do you know whether she is actually sick. This doesn’t fit either principle.
D. Yes. If a statement is intended to deceive, it is a lie. Walter intended to deceive, so he lied.
E. No. If the statement is intended to deceive OR the person doesn’t clarify a misinterpretation, the statement is a lie. So the tour guide DID lie, according to the second principle.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #23 23. Principle: It is healthy for children to engage in an
activity that promotes their intellectual
development only if engaging in that activity
does not detract from their social
development.
Application: Although Megan’s frequent reading
stimulates her intellectually, it reduces the
amount of time she spends interacting with
other people. Therefore, it is not healthy for
her to read as much as she does.
The application of the principle is most vulnerable to
criticism on which one of the following grounds?
(A) It misinterprets the principle as a universal
claim intended to hold in all cases without
exception, rather than as a mere
generalization.
(B) It overlooks the possibility that the benefits of
a given activity may sometimes be important
enough to outweigh the adverse health effects.
(C) It misinterprets the principle to be, at least in
part, a claim about what is unhealthy, rather
than solely a claim about what is healthy.
(D) It takes for granted that any decrease in the
amount of time a child spends interacting
with others detracts from that child’s social
development.
(E) It takes a necessary condition for an activity’s
being healthy as a sufficient condition for its
being so.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Match
This argument contains a principle that states the following: healthy to engage in intellectual development → engaging in that activity does not detract from social development. The argument then presents an application in the evidence about Megan. It draws the conclusion that Megan’s amount of reading is not healthy because it reduces the amount of time she spends interacting with other people. The flaw is that the argument equates interacting with others with social development.
A. No. The principle is a universal claim.
B. No. The argument does not discuss health effects.
C. No. As the principle is a conditional statement, it has a contrapositive. The contrapositive does make a claim about what is unhealthy.
D. Yes. The argument equates interacting with other people and social development. It might well be that the plot lines in the books that she reads help with her social development.
E. No. This argument does not contain a necessary/sufficient flaw.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #24 In response to several bacterial infections traced to
its apple juice, McElligott now flash pasteurizes its
apple juice by quickly heating and immediately
rechilling it. Intensive pasteurization, in which juice
is heated for an hour, eliminates bacteria more
effectively than does any other method, but is likely
to destroy the original flavor. However, because
McElligott’s citrus juices have not been linked to any
bacterial infections, they remain unpasteurized.
The statements above, if true, provide the most
support for which one of the following claims?
(A) McElligott’s citrus juices contain fewer
infectious bacteria than do citrus juices
produced by other companies.
(B) McElligott’s apple juice is less likely to contain
infectious bacteria than are McElligott’s citrus
juices.
(C) McElligott’s citrus juices retain more of the
juices’ original flavor than do any pasteurized
citrus juices.
(D) The most effective method for eliminating
bacteria from juice is also the method most
likely to destroy flavor.
(E) Apple juice that undergoes intensive
pasteurization is less likely than McElligott’s
apple juice is to contain bacteria.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
Find the answer choice supported by the passage.
A. No. The passage does not provide information about the amount of bacteria in other companies’ juices.
B. No. The passage doesn’t have any comparison between the amounts of bacteria in the apple juice versus the citrus juices. You can’t prove which juice is less likely to contain infectious bacteria.
C. No. Intensive pasteurization is likely to destroy the original flavor, but whether other types of pasteurization do this is not discussed in the passage. So there is not enough information to determine whether McElligott’s unpasteurized citrus juices retain more of the original flavor than do any pasteurized citrus juices.
D. No. This answer choice sounds good but is too strong. Intensive pasteurization is the most effective method for eliminating bacteria from juice. Intensive pasteurization is also likely to destroy the original flavor of the juice. The passage does not support, however, that intensive pasteurization is the method most likely to destroy flavor. Another method of eliminating bacteria might be even more likely to destroy the flavor.
E. Yes. McElligott’s juice did not undergo intensive pasteurization because it was flash pasteurized. It is also stated that intensive pasteurization is the most effective way to eliminate bacteria from the juice, so a juice that undergoes intensive pasteurization is less likely to contain bacteria than McElligott’s apple juice.
LSAT Logical Reasoning Prep Test 52 Question #25 25. Sociologist: Widespread acceptance of the idea that
individuals are incapable of looking after their
own welfare is injurious to a democracy. So
legislators who value democracy should not
propose any law prohibiting behavior that is
not harmful to anyone besides the person
engaging in it. After all, the assumptions that
appear to guide legislators will often become
widely accepted.
The sociologist’s argument requires the assumption
that
(A) democratically elected legislators invariably
have favorable attitudes toward the
preservation of democracy
(B) people tend to believe what is believed by
those who are prominent and powerful
(C) legislators often seem to be guided by the
assumption that individuals are incapable of
looking after their own welfare, even though
these legislators also seem to value democracy
(D) in most cases, behavior that is harmful to the
person who engages in it is harmful to no one
else
(E) a legislator proposing a law prohibiting an act
that can harm only the person performing the
act will seem to be assuming that individuals
are incapable of looking after their own
welfare
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The sociologist is solving a problem. The problem is that widespread acceptance of the idea that individuals are incapable of looking after their own welfare is injurious to a democracy. The sociologist concludes that legislators who value democracy should not propose any law that prohibits behavior harmful only to the person engaging in that behavior. The premise is that the assumptions that appear to guide legislators will often become widely accepted. There is a gap between discouraging the proposal of laws prohibiting actions harmful only to the person engaging in them and the assumptions that appear to guide these legislators. For the argument to work, the assumptions that appear to guide the legislators must involve the idea that individuals are incapable of looking after themselves.
A. No. The argument explicitly discusses legislators who value democracy, not all democratically elected legislators.
B. No. The sociologist doesn’t care about what the legislators actually believe about whether people are capable of looking after themselves. He/she is concerned with what the legislators appear to believe about this subject.
C. No. This is a description of how legislators often seem to be guided. The argument is a prescription for how legislators who value democracy often seem to be guided.
D. No. This might be true. However, it doesn’t give you the connection you need between what laws legislators should propose and what their underlying assumptions appear to be.
E. Yes. This connects the sociologist’s prescription for proposing laws and the perceived assumptions of the legislators.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #1. Any museum that owns the rare stamp that features
an airplane printed upside down should not display
it. Ultraviolet light causes red ink to fade, and a
substantial portion of the stamp is red. If the stamp
is displayed, it will be damaged. It should be kept
safely locked away, even though this will deny the
public the chance to see it.
The reasoning above most closely conforms to which
one of the following principles?
(A) The public should judge the quality of a
museum by the rarity of the objects in its
collection.
(B) Museum display cases should protect their
contents from damage caused by ultraviolet
light.
(C) Red ink should not be used on items that will
not be exposed to ultraviolet light.
(D) A museum piece that would be damaged by
display should not be displayed.
(E) The primary purpose of a museum is to
educate the public.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Match
The passage claims that any museum that owns the rare stamp that features an airplane printed upside down should not display it. This is because a substantial portion of the stamp is red, and ultraviolet light causes red ink to fade. The most important criterion for the conclusion seems to be that if the stamp is displayed, it will be damaged. The author acknowledges that the public will be denied the chance to see the stamp but maintains that the stamp ought to be kept safely locked away.
A. No. The passage does not mention whether the rare objects that a museum possesses should be displayed or not.
B. No. The passage states that if the stamp is displayed, it will be damaged. So, the stamp shouldn’t be displayed. It doesn’t address what features the museum display cases should have.
C. No. Red ink WAS used on this stamp and the stamp WILL be exposed to ultraviolet light if displayed. This principle doesn’t apply.
D. Yes. According to the passage, the stamp would be damaged by display and, therefore, should not be displayed.
E. No. If the primary purpose of a museum is to educate the public, it might be thought that the stamp should be displayed. Yet the passage states that it shouldn’t be, as it would be damaged.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #2 Dietitian: Many diet-conscious consumers are excited
about new “fake fat” products designed to give
food the flavor and consistency of fatty foods,
yet without fat’s harmful effects. Consumers
who expect the new fat substitute to help them
lose weight are likely to be disappointed,
however. Research has shown that when people
knowingly or unknowingly eat foods
containing “fake fat,” they tend to take in at
least as many additional calories as are saved
by eating “fake fat.”
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion of the dietitian’s argument?
(A) People tend to take in a certain number of
daily calories, no matter what types of food
they eat
(B) Most consumers who think that foods with
“fake fat” are more nutritious than fatty foods
are destined to be disappointed.
(C) “Fake fat” products are likely to contribute to
obesity more than do other foods.
(D) “Fake fat” in foods is probably not going to
help consumers meet weight loss goals.
(E) “Fake fat” in foods is indistinguishable from
genuine fat by most consumers on the basis of
taste alone.
Correct Answer: D
D Main Point
The dietician warns that consumers who see a solution to their weight-loss problems in “fake fat” products are likely to be disappointed. This is because the people who either knowingly or unknowingly eat foods containing “fake fat” tend to take in at least as many additional calories as are saved by eating “fake fat” by eating more of the food.
A. No. This is too general. The dietician does not talk about the number of calories people consume, no matter what type of food they eat. The dietician is concerned primarily with fatty foods and their “fake fat” alternatives.
B. No. The dietician addresses only the number of calories consumed, not overall nutrition.
C. No. This is too strong. The dietician claims only that “fake fat” products are unlikely to help in weight loss, not that they will be more likely to contribute to obesity.
D. Yes. Since consumers of “fake fat” products tend to take in at least as many additional calories as are saved when eating these foods, it is unlikely that these foods will help them lose weight.
E. No. The dietician explains that “fake fat” products are designed to give food the flavor and consistency of fatty foods, but the dietician doesn’t explain whether or not they are successful in doing so.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #3 Banking analyst: Banks often offer various services to
new customers at no charge. But this is not an
ideal business practice, since regular, long-term
customers, who make up the bulk of the
business for most banks, are excluded from
these special offers.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the banking analyst’s argument’?
(A) Most banks have similar charges for most
services and pay similar interest rates on
deposits.
(B) Banks do best when offering special privileges
only to their most loyal customers.
(C) Offering services at no charge to all of its
current customers would be prohibitively
expensive for a bank.
(D) Once they have chosen a bank, people tend to
remain loyal to that bank.
(E) Some banks that offer services at no charge to
new customers are very successful.
Correct Answer: B
B Strengthen
The banking analyst concludes that offering no-charge services to new customers is not an ideal business practice. The premise is that regular, long-term customers are excluded from these special offers and it is these customers who make up the bulk of business for most banks.
A. No. This argument is claiming that a no-fee service for new customers is not an ideal business practice. It does not discuss how much the banks charge for the services, normally.
B. Yes. If this is true, banks would do better to give their best offers and services to their long-term customers instead of focusing on new customers.
C. No. The banking analyst discourages offering no-fee services to new customers but does not discuss what banks should do instead.
D. No. If this were true, it would weaken the conclusion.
E. No. If this were true, it would weaken the conclusion.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #4 Panelist: Medical research articles cited in popular
newspapers or magazines are more likely than
other medical research articles to be cited in
subsequent medical research. Thus, it appears
that medical researchers’ judgments of the
importance of prior research are strongly
influenced by the publicity received by that
research and do not strongly correspond to the
research’s true importance.
The panelist’s argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it
(A) presents counterarguments to a view that is
not actually held by any medical researcher
(B) fails to consider the possibility that popular
newspapers and magazines do a good job of
identifying the most important medical
research articles
(C) takes for granted that coverage of medical
research in the popular press is more
concerned with the eminence of the scientists
involved than with the content of their
research
(D) fails to consider the possibility that popular
newspapers and magazines are able to review
only a minuscule percentage of medical
research articles
(E) draws a conclusion that is logically equivalent
to its premise
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
The panelist concludes that medical researchers’ judgments of the importance of prior research are strongly influenced by the research appearing in popular magazines and newspapers, and, therefore, the judgments do not strongly correspond to the research’s true importance. The premise is that medical research that is cited in popular magazines or newspapers is more likely to be cited in later medical research. The panelist fails to consider that there might be a good reason, common to both the citations in popular media and to later medical research, that these medical research articles are cited. Maybe it’s the most cutting edge and important medical research that gets cited in popular media, for example.
A. No. There is no view cited in the premises.
B. Yes. This would demonstrate that both the later medical research and the popular media have a good reason to cite this research.
C. No. The argument doesn’t talk about how esteemed or well-known the scientists are who completed the medical research that was cited in popular media.
D. No. The problem isn’t the percentage of medical research articles that the popular media are able to review; it is that the panelist doesn’t see that there might be a good reason that both the popular media and the later medical research are likely to cite the same research.
E. No. This is not a circular argument.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #5 Lahar: We must now settle on a procedure for
deciding on meeting agendas. Our club’s
constitution allows three options: unanimous
consent, majority vote, or assigning the task to
a committee. Unanimous consent is unlikely.
Forming a committee has usually led to
factionalism and secret deals. Clearly, we
should subject meeting agendas to majority
vote.
Lahar’s argument does which one of the following?
(A) rejects suggested procedures on constitutional
grounds
(B) claims that one procedure is the appropriate
method for reaching every decision in the
club
(C) suggests a change to a constitution on the basis
of practical considerations
(D) recommends a choice based on the elimination
of alternative options
(E) supports one preference by arguing against
those who have advocated alternatives
Correct Answer: D
D Reasoning
Lahar concludes that his club should subject meeting agendas to majority vote. He does this through process of elimination. The club’s constitution allows three ways to decide on meeting agendas. Lahar claims that unanimous consent is unlikely and that forming a committee to decide this has usually led to groups of people pitted against each other and secret deals. The best option, then, is the one that remains: majority vote.
A. No. Lahar considers only the options that are allowed under the club’s constitution.
B. No. This is almost right. However, it’s not the credited response because the answer choice is too strong. He claims that one procedure is the appropriate method for reaching decisions on meeting agendas, not for reaching every decision.
C. No. Lahar does acknowledge practical considerations. However, he does not suggest a change to the constitution.
D. Yes. Lahar eliminates the other two options, leaving only the one that he recommends.
E. No. Lahar argues against alternatives but he does not argue against the people who have advocated alternatives.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #6 Mayor: Local antitobacco activists are calling for
expanded antismoking education programs
paid for by revenue from heavily increased
taxes on cigarettes sold in the city. Although
the effectiveness of such education programs is
debatable, there is strong evidence that the
taxes themselves would produce the soughtafter reduction in smoking. Surveys show that
cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that
impose stiff tax increases on cigarettes.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines
the reasoning in the argument above?
(A) A city-imposed tax on cigarettes will
substantially reduce the amount of smoking
in the city if the tax is burdensome to the
average cigarette consumer.
(B) Consumers are more likely to continue buying
a product if its price increases due to higher
taxes than if its price increases for some other
reason.
(C) Usually, cigarette sales will increase
substantially in the areas surrounding a city
after that city imposes stiff taxes on cigarettes.
(D) People who are well informed about the effects
of long-term tobacco use are significantly less
likely to smoke than are people who are not
informed.
(E) Antismoking education programs that are
funded by taxes on cigarettes will tend to lose
their funding if they are successful.
Correct Answer: C
C Weaken
This argument is designed to disagree with a position. The mayor disagrees with local activists calling for expanded antismoking educations programs, which would be paid for by revenue from greatly increased taxes on cigarettes sold in the city. The mayor thinks that these programs are unnecessary, as there is strong evidence that the taxes by themselves would produce the reduction in smoking that the antitobacco activists are seeking. He bases his conclusion on surveys showing that cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that impose these high tax increases on cigarettes.
A. No. This strengthens the argument because it makes a link between high taxes and substantially reduced smoking.
B. No. Consumers might be more likely to continue buying cigarettes if the price increase is due to higher taxes, but as long as less people actually buy and smoke the cigarettes, the mayor’s argument might still be valid.
C. Yes. If people are buying a lot more cigarettes outside of the city, the rate of smoking in that city might not decrease substantially. This answer choice exploits the language shift from cigarette sales to smoking rates.
D. No. This does not address the tax increase issue that is the crux of the mayor’s argument.
E. No. This does not address the mayor’s argument.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #8 Caldwell: The government recently demolished a
former naval base. Among the complex’s
facilities were a gymnasium, a swimming pool,
office buildings, gardens, and housing for
hundreds of people. Of course the government
was legally permitted to use these facilities as it
wished. But clearly, using them for the good of
the community would have benefited
everyone, and thus the government’s actions
were not only inefficient but immoral.
Caldwell’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism
on the grounds that it
(A) fails to consider that an action may be morally
permissible even if an alternative course of
action is to everyone’s advantage
(B) presumes, without providing justification, that
the actual consequences of an action are
irrelevant to the action’s moral permissibility
(C) presumes, without providing justification, that
the government never acts in the most
efficient manner
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that
any action that is efficient is also moral
(E) inappropriately treats two possible courses of
action as if they were the only options
Correct Answer: A
A Flaw
Caldwell concludes that the government’s actions in tearing down a former naval base were not only inefficient but also immoral. Caldwell concludes this because the former naval base had a large number of facilities, such as a swimming pool, housing, etc., that might have been used for the good of the community, benefitting everyone. Thus, Caldwell equates what is moral with benefiting everyone.
A. Yes. Caldwell doesn’t allow for the possibility that the action of tearing down the base might still be morally permissible even if it doesn’t benefit everyone.
B. No. In fact, Caldwell thinks that the actual consequences are incredibly important to the action’s moral permissibility.
C. No. This is too strong. Caldwell is talking about the demolition of a single base, not the actions of the government in general.
D. No. This one is close. However, Caldwell says that the action was not only inefficient but also immoral. Caldwell isn’t equating being inefficient with being immoral. So Caldwell is also not presuming that any efficient action is also moral.
E. No. This one is tempting, as well. However, Caldwell doesn’t ever claim that tearing down the base or using it for the community are the only options. Other courses of action don’t happen to be relevant to Caldwell’s point.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #7 Gotera: Infants lack the motor ability required to
voluntarily produce particular sounds, but
produce various babbling sounds randomly.
Most children are several years old before they
can voluntarily produce most of the vowel and
consonant sounds of their language. We can
conclude that speech acquisition is entirely a
motor control process rather than a process
that is abstract or mental.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by Gotera’s argument?
(A) Speech acquisition is a function only of one’s
ability to produce the sounds of spoken
language.
(B) During the entire initial babbling stage, infants
cannot intentionally move their tongues while
they are babbling.
(C) The initial babbling stage is completed during
infancy.
(D) The initial babbling stage is the first stage of
the speech acquisition process.
(E) Control of tongue and mouth movements
requires a sophisticated level of mental
development.
Correct Answer: A
A Necessary Assumption
Gotera concludes that speech acquisition is entirely a motor control process, not one that is abstract or mental. Gotera bases this conclusion on two facts about infants and children. Infants don’t have the motor control required to voluntarily produce particular sounds. Instead, they produce random babbling sounds. Most children cannot voluntarily produce most of the vowel and consonant sounds of their language until they are several years old. Therefore, if children can’t voluntarily produce the sounds of their language, they can’t really talk. However, that doesn’t mean that motor control is the only process involved in speech acquisition. The conclusion is too strong for the evidence that supports it, so it requires an assumption to fill in the gap.
A. Yes. This eliminates the possibility that there might be some additional process that affects speech acquisition that does not involve motor control. This closes the gap.
B. No. It wouldn’t matter if infants could intentionally move their tongues, as long as they lack the motor ability to intentionally produce particular sounds. The evidence states that they do lack this ability.
C. No. It wouldn’t matter if children babbled until they were 7, as long as they also developed the motor abilities discussed in the argument.
D. No. This might be true. However, it doesn’t address the gap between the evidence and the claim that speech acquisition is entirely a motor control process.
E. No. This would weaken the argument. If this were true, then mental development would factor in to speech acquisition, against Gotera’s argument.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #9 Reducing stress lessens a person’s sensitivity to pain.
This is the conclusion reached by researchers who
played extended audiotapes to patients before they
underwent surgery and afterward while they were
recovering. One tape consisted of conversation; the
other consisted of music. Those who listened only to
the latter tape required less anesthesia during surgery
and fewer painkillers afterward than those who
listened only to the former tape.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the researchers’ reasoning depends?
(A) All of the patients in the study listened to the
same tape before surgery as they listened to
after surgery.
(B) Anticipating surgery is no less stressful than
recovering from surgery.
(C) Listening to music reduces stress.
(D) The psychological effects of music are not
changed by anesthesia or painkillers.
(E) Both anesthesia and painkillers tend to reduce
stress.
Correct Answer: C
C Necessary Assumption
The researchers concluded that reducing stress lessens a person’s sensitivity to pain, based on an experiment where they played audiotapes to patients before and after surgery. The patients who listened only to music required less anesthesia and fewer painkillers as compared to the patients who listened only to conversation. The gap is between reducing stress and music. The music might have caused the patients to require less anesthesia and fewer painkillers for some other reason than because the music reduced stress.
A. No. It is not essential that the patients listened to the same tape before and after surgery, as long as one group listened to conversation and the other group listened to music.
B. No. This is not essential to the argument.
C. Yes. This makes the connection between music and stress reduction. It eliminates other possible reasons as to why the patients listening to music might have required less anesthesia and fewer painkillers.
D. No. This is not essential to the argument.
E. No. This might be true, but it doesn’t give us the connection between music and reducing stress that the argument requires.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #10 Samuel: Because communication via computer is
usually conducted privately and anonymously
between people who would otherwise interact in
person, it contributes to the dissolution, not the
creation, of lasting communal bonds.
Tova: You assume that communication via computer
replaces more intimate forms of communication
and interaction, when more often it replaces
asocial or even antisocial behavior.
On the basis of their statements, Samuel and Tova
are committed to disagreeing about which one of the
following?
(A) A general trend of modern life is to dissolve
the social bonds that formerly connected
people.
(B) All purely private behavior contributes to the
dissolution of social bonds.
(C) Face-to-face communication is more likely to
contribute to the creation of social bonds
than is anonymous communication.
(D) It is desirable that new social bonds be created
to replace the ones that have dissolved.
(E) If people were not communicating via
computer, they would most likely be engaged
in activities that create stronger social bonds.
Correct Answer: E
E Point at Issue
Samuel concludes that communication via computer contributes to the dissolution of lasting communal bonds. His premise is that communication via computer is usually conducted privately and anonymously between people who would otherwise have conducted the communication in person. Tova disagrees with Samuel’s conclusion because she disagrees with his claim that communication via computer replaces other forms of interaction and communication. She claims, instead, that it replaces asocial or antisocial behavior.
A. No. Neither discusses the dissolution of social bonds as a general trend of modern life.
B. No. This is too strong. Neither talks about all purely private behavior. They are talking about a specific private behavior: communication via computer.
C. No. Tova doesn’t discuss whether face-to-face communication is more likely to contribute to the creation of social bonds.
D. No. Tova doesn’t discuss whether it is desirable to replace social bonds that have dissolved with new ones.
E. Yes. Samuel thinks that communicating via computer replaces social behavior, whereas Tova thinks that communicating via computer doesn’t because it replaces asocial/antisocial behavior.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #11 Spreading iron particles over the surface of the
earth’s oceans would lead to an increase in
phytoplankton, decreasing the amount of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere and thereby counteracting
the greenhouse effect. But while counteracting the
greenhouse effect is important, the side effects of an
iron-seeding strategy have yet to be studied. Since the
oceans represent such an important resource, this
response to the greenhouse effect should not be
implemented immediately.
The reasoning above most closely conforms to which
one of the following principles?
(A) A problem-solving strategy should be
implemented if the side effects of the strategy
are known.
(B) Implementing a problem-solving strategy that
alters an important resource is impermissible
if the consequences are not adequately
understood.
(C) We should not implement a problem-solving
strategy if the consequences of doing so are
more serious than the problem itself.
(D) We should not implement a problem-solving
strategy if that strategy requires altering an
important resource.
(E) As long as there is a possibility that a strategy
for solving a problem may instead exacerbate
that problem, such a solution should not be
adopted.
Correct Answer: B
B Principle Match
The passage concludes that we should not immediately spread iron particles over the surface of the ocean in response to the greenhouse effect. Spreading the iron particles would counteract the greenhouse effect by increasing the number of phytoplankton, which would, in turn, decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. However, the side effects of this strategy haven’t been studied yet, so the author of the argument thinks we should hold off on messing with such an important resource as the ocean.
A. No. The passage doesn’t address strategies with known side effects.
B. Yes. According to the passage, the iron-seeding strategy should not be used yet because the consequences to the ocean, an important resource, are unknown.
C. No. The passage states that the consequences of the iron-seeding strategy are not known, so there is no way to know if those consequences are more serious than the problem of the greenhouse effect.
D. No. This is close, but it states that we should not implement a strategy if it requires altering an important resource. The passage doesn’t go that far. It just says that research into the side effects should be done before implementing the strategy.
E. No. The passage doesn’t concern itself with whether the iron-seeding strategy has a possibility of exacerbating the greenhouse effect. The worry is in how this strategy might alter the oceans.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #12 No matter how conscientious they are, historians
always have biases that affect their work. Hence,
rather than trying to interpret historical events,
historians should instead interpret what the people
who participated in historical events thought about
those events.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument fails to
consider the possibility that
(A) historians who have different biases often
agree about many aspects of some historical
events
(B) scholars in disciplines other than history also
risk having their biases affect their work
(C) many of the ways in which historians’ biases
affect their work have been identified
(D) not all historians are aware of the effect that
their particular biases have on their work
(E) the proposed shift in focus is unlikely to
eliminate the effect that historians’ biases
have on their work
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
The problem that this argument tries to solve is that historians always have biases that affect their work, which is the interpretation of historical events. The solution that is proposed is that historians should instead interpret what the people who participated in historical events thought about those events. The flaw is that the solution still requires an interpretation that is susceptible to bias.
A. No. This might be true. However, the important point is that historians have biases that affect their work, which is what the proposal claims to avoid.
B. No. Scholars in other disciplines are not relevant to the flaw of this argument.
C. No. The argument is trying to eliminate the biases. It doesn’t matter whether or not these biases have been identified.
D. No. It doesn’t matter, for the purposes of this argument, whether the historians are aware of the effect of their biases. The argument proposes a solution to eliminate the biases whether the historians are aware of them or not.
E. Yes. If historians still have to interpret what the participants thought about the events, there is still the possibility of biased interpretations.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #13 Humanitarian considerations aside, sheer economics
dictates that country X should institute, as country Y
has done, a nationwide system of air and ground
transportation for conveying seriously injured
persons to specialized trauma centers. Timely access
to the kind of medical care that only specialized
centers can provide could save the lives of many
people. The earnings of these people would result in
a substantial increase in country X’s gross national
product, and the taxes paid on those earnings would
substantially augment government revenues.
The argument depends on the assumption that
(A) lifetime per-capita income is roughly the same
in country X as it is in country Y
(B) there are no specialized trauma centers in
country X at present
(C) the treatment of seriously injured persons in
trauma centers is not more costly than
treatment elsewhere
(D) there would be a net increase in employment
in country X if more persons survived serious
injury
(E) most people seriously injured in automobile
accidents in country X do not now receive
treatment in specialized trauma centers
Correct Answer: D
D Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that economic considerations dictate that country X should institute a nationwide system of air and ground transportation for conveying the seriously injured to specialized trauma centers. The evidence presented for this conclusion is that timely access to the medical care that can be provided only at trauma centers will save many people’s lives. These people, who are alive as a result of timely access to trauma centers, would be earning money. That these people are earning money is a twofold benefit to country X: The earnings would result in a large increase in X’s GNP, and taxes paid on the earnings would greatly augment government revenues. The argument shifts language from people’s lives being saved to the total increase in X’s GNP and tax revenues. An increase in X’s GNP and tax revenues would require that, as a result of saving these people’s lives, there would be more people working in country X than there are right now. If not, the added cost of instituting the nationwide system might not be economically beneficial.
A. No. Country Y is irrelevant. The argument concentrates on country X.
B. No. The argument is concerned with making sure that people have timely access to specialized trauma centers, wherever they may be located.
C. No. It could be more costly, and yet the people would be alive and working, which would increase country X’s GNP.
D. Yes. The argument assumes that if more people survived serious injury, they would be adding to the workforce, thereby boosting country X’s GNP. If the survivors weren’t able to work, or if they replaced other people when they went back to work, the GNP wouldn’t increase and neither would tax revenue.
E. No. The issue is whether country X should enable people to get timely treatment in specialized trauma centers, not whether more people should go to specialized trauma centers.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #14 Early urban societies could not have been
maintained without large-scale farming nearby. This
is because other methods of food acquisition, such as
foraging, cannot support populations as dense as
urban ones. Large-scale farming requires irrigation,
which remained unfeasible in areas far from rivers or
lakes until more recent times.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) Most peoples who lived in early times lived in
areas near rivers or lakes.
(B) Only if farming is possible in the absence of
irrigation can societies be maintained in areas
far from rivers or lakes.
(C) In early times it was not possible to maintain
urban societies in areas far from rivers or
lakes.
(D) Urban societies with farms near rivers or lakes
do not have to rely upon irrigation to meet
their farming needs.
(E) Early rural societies relied more on foraging
than on agriculture for food.
Correct Answer: C
C Inference
Early urban societies → large-scale farming nearby → irrigation → rivers or lakes. The contrapositive is as follows: ~rivers and ~lakes → ~irrigation → ~large-scale farming → ~early urban society.
A. No. The passage talks about early urban societies, but does not say how many peoples lived in them.
B. No. This answer choice can be diagrammed as follows: societies far from rivers or lakes → farming possible in the absence of irrigation. The passage talks only about early urban societies. Also, it doesn’t talk about the possibility of farming without irrigation.
C. Yes. See the contrapositive in the explanation above.
D. No. Even though the passage does not say that urban societies with farms near rivers or lakes necessarily rely upon irrigation, it doesn’t say that they don’t.
E. No. The passage doesn’t mention early rural societies.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #15 Economist: A country’s rapid emergence from an
economic recession requires substantial new
investment in that country’s economy. Since
people’s confidence in the economic policies of
their country is a precondition for any new
investment, countries that put collective goals
before individuals’ goals cannot emerge
quickly from an economic recession.
Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
economist’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
(A) No new investment occurs in any country that
does not emerge quickly from an economic
recession.
(B) Recessions in countries that put collective
goals before individuals’ goals tend not to
affect the country’s people’s support for their
government’s policies.
(C) If the people in a country that puts
individuals’ goals first are willing to make
new investments in their country’s economy,
their country will emerge quickly from an
economic recession.
(D) People in countries that put collective goals
before individuals’ goals lack confidence in
the economic policies of their countries.
(E) A country’s economic policies are the most
significant factor determining whether that
country’s economy will experience a
recession.
Correct Answer: D
D Sufficient Assumption
The economist concludes that countries that put collective goals before individual goals cannot emerge quickly from an economic recession because people’s confidence in the economic policies of their country is a precondition for any new investment. This new investment is important because substantial new investment in that country’s economy is required for a country’s rapid emergence from an economic recession. The gap in the argument is between people’s confidence in a country’s economic policies and whether the country puts collective goals before individuals’ goals.
A. No. This is too strong. There might be some new investment, yet a country might still not emerge quickly from a recession. Emerging quickly from an economic recession requires substantial new investment.
B. No. The economist doesn’t discuss whether the recessions themselves affect people’s support for their government’s policies. Also, this answer choice is talking about the government’s policies in general, while the argument focuses on economic policies.
C. No. The economist never claims what would be sufficient for a country to emerge quickly from an economic recession. The economist, instead, tells us that substantial new investments are necessary for a country to emerge from an economic recession and that countries that put collective goals first will fail this necessary condition.
D. Yes. This connects people’s confidence, or lack thereof, in their country’s economic policies and whether the country puts collective goals before individuals’ goals.
E. No. The economist is concerned only with countries that have experienced a recession, not whether they are more likely to experience a recession.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #16 The average length of stay for patients at Edgewater
Hospital is four days, compared to six days at
University Hospital. Since studies show that recovery
rates at the two hospitals are similar for patients with
similar illnesses, University Hospital could decrease
its average length of stay without affecting quality of
care.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) equates the quality of care at a hospital with
patients’ average length of stay
(B) treats a condition that will ensure the
preservation of quality of care as a condition
that is required to preserve quality of care
(C) fails to take into account the possibility that
patients at Edgewater Hospital tend to be
treated for different illnesses than patients at
University Hospital
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that
the length of time patients stay in the hospital
is never relevant to the recovery rates of these
patients
(E) fails to take into account the possibility that
patients at University Hospital generally
prefer longer hospital stays
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The argument concludes that University Hospital could decrease its average length of stay without affecting quality of care. This conclusion is based on a comparison between the average length of stay for patients at Edgewater Hospital and at University Hospital. Studies show that recovery rates for both are similar for patients with similar illnesses. The argument is problematic because similar recovery rates for patients with similar illnesses at these hospitals does not mean that most patients at both hospitals have similar illnesses. University Hospital might specialize in heart attack patients, while Edgewater might specialize in minor injuries and ailments, for example.
A. No. The argument does not say that quality of care and length of stay are the same thing. Based on the evidence concerning recovery rates at both hospitals, it claims that length of stay can be reduced without affecting the quality of care.
B. No. Wrong flaw. This argument does not confuse something sufficient with something necessary.
C. Yes. If the patients at Edgewater tend to be treated for different illnesses, then the recovery rate information does not support the claim that the average length of stay could be reduced.
D. No. The argument allows for the idea that length of stay might be relevant to recovery rates.
E. No. The connection is between average length of stay, recovery rates, and quality of care. Patients’ preferences are irrelevant.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #17 Philosopher: Graham argues that since a person is
truly happy only when doing something, the
best life is a life that is full of activity. But we
should not be persuaded by Graham’s
argument. People sleep, and at least sometimes
when sleeping, they are truly happy, even
though they are not doing anything.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
the role played in the philosopher’s argument by the
claim that at least sometimes when sleeping, people
are truly happy, even though they are not doing
anything?
(A) It is a premise of Graham’s argument.
(B) It is an example intended to show that a
premise of Graham’s argument is false.
(C) It is an analogy appealed to by Graham but
that the philosopher rejects.
(D) It is an example intended to disprove the
conclusion of Graham’s argument.
(E) It is the main conclusion of the philosopher’s
argument.
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
The philosopher disagrees with Graham’s position that the best life is a life that is full of activity because a person is truly happy only when doing something. The philosopher gives the example of people sleeping, during which they are not doing anything but are sometimes truly happy. The role of the example is to speak against Graham’s reason for his conclusion by undermining the claim that a person is truly happy only when doing something.
A. No. It is a premise of the philosopher’s argument.
B. Yes. If the statement is true, Graham cannot claim, as support for his conclusion, that a person is truly happy only when doing something.
C. No. It is not part of Graham’s argument.
D. No. This is close, but the claim is an example intended to disprove a premise of Graham’s argument, not its conclusion. The best life might still be a life that is full of activity; the philosopher just wants to show that Graham’s premise doesn’t actually support his conclusion.
E. No. It is a premise of the philosopher’s argument, not the conclusion.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #18 Historian: In rebuttal of my claim that West
influenced Stuart, some people point out that
West’s work is mentioned only once in Stuart’s
diaries. But Stuart’s diaries mention several
meetings with West, and Stuart’s close friend,
Abella, studied under West. Furthermore,
Stuart’s work often uses West’s terminology
which, though now commonplace, none of
Stuart’s contemporaries used.
Which one of the following propositions is most
supported by the historian’s statements, if those
statements are true?
(A) Stuart’s discussions with Abella were one of
the means by which West influenced Stuart.
(B) It is more likely that Stuart influenced West
than that West influenced Stuart.
(C) Stuart’s contemporaries were not influenced
by West.
(D) Stuart’s work was not entirely free from West’s
influence
(E) Because of Stuart’s influence on other people,
West’s terminology is now commonplace.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Match
Find the answer choice supported by the passage.
A. No. The passage does not provide proof whether Stuart had discussions with Abella about West, only that he was friends with Abella, who studied under West.
B. No. The historian is concerned with defending his claim that West influenced Stuart, not the other way around.
C. No. Stuart’s contemporaries didn’t use West’s terminology but there is no proof in the passage that West did or did not otherwise influence them.
D. Yes. Stuart used West’s terminology, which he couldn’t have gotten from his own contemporaries since they did not use the same terminology.
E. No. The passage does not provide any information on why West’s terminology is now commonplace, just that it is.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #19 One theory to explain the sudden extinction of all
dinosaurs points to “drug overdoses” as the cause.
Angiosperms, a certain class of plants, first appeared
at the time that dinosaurs became extinct. These
plants produce amino-acid-based alkaloids that are
psychoactive agents. Most plant-eating mammals
avoid these potentially lethal poisons because they
taste bitter. Moreover, mammals have livers that help
detoxify such drugs. However, dinosaurs could
neither taste the bitterness nor detoxify the substance
once it was ingested. This theory receives its strongest
support from the fact that it helps explain why so
many dinosaur fossils are found in unusual and
contorted positions.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
undermine the theory presented above?
(A) Many fossils of large mammals are found in
contorted positions.
(B) Angiosperms provide a great deal of nutrition.
(C) Carnivorous dinosaurs mostly ate other,
vegetarian, dinosaurs that fed on
angiosperms.
(D) Some poisonous plants do not produce aminoacid-based alkaloids.
(E) Mammals sometimes die of drug overdoses
from eating angiosperms.
Correct Answer: A
A Weaken
The theory claims that “drug overdoses” were the cause of the sudden extinction of the dinosaurs. This helps explain why so many dinosaur fossils are found in unusual and contorted positions. The evidence is that angiosperms, which contain psychoactive agents, first appeared at the same time that the dinosaurs became extinct. Most plant-eating mammals avoid eating these agents, which are potentially lethal, because they taste bitter. Also, mammals have livers that help detoxify these agents. Dinosaurs couldn’t taste the bitterness, nor could they detoxify the substance. The argument claims that the theory’s strongest support comes from the fact that it helps explain the positions of dinosaur fossils. How does it explain the positions of dinosaur fossils? Might there be other reasons as to why the dinosaur fossils were in these positions?
A. Yes. This widens the gap. If fossils of large mammals are also found in these positions, and mammals were less likely to be poisoned by the psychoactive agents, then a key premise is compromised.
B. No. The argument is about whether dinosaurs were poisoned by angiosperms, not how nutritious angiosperms are.
C. No. This would strengthen the argument. If vegetarian dinosaurs fed on angiosperms and then other dinosaurs ate their angiosperm-polluted bodies, then a lot of dinosaurs would have been in contact with the potentially lethal psychoactive agents in the angiosperms.
D. No. The argument is about whether angiosperms poisoned the dinosaurs, not about other poisonous plants.
E. No. The argument allowed for this possibility. It just implied that it was less likely for them to die from eating angiosperms.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #20 There are two ways to manage an existing
transportation infrastructure: continuous
maintenance at adequate levels, and periodic radical
reconstruction. Continuous maintenance dispenses
with the need for radical reconstruction, and radical
reconstruction is necessitated by failing to perform
continuous maintenance. Over the long run,
continuous maintenance is far less expensive;
nevertheless, it almost never happens.
Which one of the following, if true, most contributes
to an explanation of why the first alternative
mentioned is almost never adopted?
(A) Since different parts of the transportation
infrastructure are the responsibility of
different levels of government, radical
reconstruction projects are very difficult to
coordinate efficiently.
(B) When funds for transportation infrastructure
maintenance are scarce, they are typically
distributed in proportion to the amount of
traffic that is borne by different elements of
the infrastructure.
(C) If continuous maintenance is performed at
less-than-adequate levels, the need for radical
reconstruction will often arise later than if
maintenance had been restricted to
responding to emergencies.
(D) Radical reconstruction projects are, in general,
too costly to be paid for from current
revenue.
(E) For long periods, the task of regular
maintenance lacks urgency, since the
consequences of neglecting it are very slow to
manifest themselves.
Correct Answer: E
E Resolve/Explain
The discrepancy is that continuous maintenance, which dispenses with the need for radical reconstruction, is far less expensive a way to manage an existing transportation infrastructure in the long run. However, continuous maintenance almost never happens; rather, radical reconstruction, which is necessitated by failing to perform continuous maintenance, is usually the way that an existing transportation infrastructure is managed.
A. No. This would make it more, not less, likely that continuous maintenance would be performed.
B. No. This doesn’t address why continuous maintenance isn’t usually performed, even though it is less expensive in the long run.
C. No. This doesn’t address why continuous adequate maintenance isn’t usually performed.
D. No. This would make it more, not less, likely that continuous maintenance would be performed.
E. Yes. People feel that they can skip maintenance because the problems don’t show up immediately. When they do show up, they are more serious and necessitate radical reconstruction.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #21 A good way to get over one’s fear of an activity one
finds terrifying is to do it repeatedly. For instance,
over half of people who have parachuted only once
report being extremely frightened by the experience,
while less than 1 percent of those who have
parachuted ten times or more report being
frightened by it.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) takes for granted that the greater the number
of dangerous activities one engages in the less
one is frightened by any one of them
(B) neglects to consider those people who have
parachuted more than once but fewer than
ten times
(C) takes for granted that people do not know how
frightening something is unless they have
tried it
(D) fails to take into account the possibility that
people would be better off if they did not do
things that terrify them
(E) overlooks the possibility that most people who
have parachuted many times did not find it
frightening initially
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
This argument is designed to solve a problem. The solution proposed for getting over one’s fear of an activity is to do it repeatedly. This is supported by the fact that over 50 percent of the people who have parachuted only once reported being extremely frightened by the experience, while less than 1 percent of people who have parachuted 10 times or more reported being frightened by it. This argument has a sampling problem. Who willingly throws themselves out of an airplane 10 times or more? It could be a higher percentage of people who never found it frightening in the first place.
A. No. The argument addresses overcoming the fear of some particular activity by repeating that same activity, not overcoming the fear of many activities by engaging in lots of frightening activities.
B. No. It’s true that the argument does not address this sample but this is not a flaw of the argument.
C. No. The argument addresses how to get over fears that people already have, no matter how they have acquired this fear.
D. No. What does it mean to be better off? If it means to be less frightened, then the argument does take this into account by saying that, in fact, repeating the activity will make them less frightened of it.
E. Yes. The sample might not be representative because it might include a higher percentage of people who never found it frightening to jump out of a plane in the first place.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #22 Most economists believe that reducing the price of
any product generally stimulates demand for it.
However, most wine merchants have found that
reducing the price of domestic wines to make them
more competitive with imported wines with which
they were previously comparably priced is frequently
followed by an increase in sales of those imported
wines.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
reconcile the belief of most economists with the
consequences observed by most wine merchants?
(A) Economists’ studies of the prices of grocery
items and their rates of sales rarely cover
alcoholic beverages.
(B) Few merchants of any kind have detailed
knowledge of economic theories about the
relationship between item prices and sales
rates.
(C) Consumers are generally willing to forgo
purchasing other items they desire in order to
purchase a superior wine.
(D) Imported wines in all price ranges are
comparable in quality to domestic wines that
cost less.
(E) An increase in the demand for a consumer
product is compatible with an increase in
demand for a competing product.
Correct Answer: E
E Resolve/Explain
The seeming paradox is that although most economists believe that reducing the price of any product generally stimulates demand for it, when most wine merchants reduce the price of domestic wines to make them more competitive with imported wines with which they were previously comparably priced, the sales of the imported wines will increase.
A. No. This still doesn’t explain why, when the general rule is that reducing price stimulates demand, the competing wines sales increased when the prices on the domestic wine were reduced.
B. No. The merchants aren’t the ones making the economic predictions. They are the observers of what actually happened.
C. No. There is no information about which wine is superior. It doesn’t explain why the sales of imported wines increased when domestic wine prices were reduced.
D. No. This does not explain why, if the domestic wines’ prices were reduced, the sales of the imported wines increased.
E. Yes. The argument didn’t say whether the domestic wines’ sales also increased. This allows for the sales of both types of wines to increase, which reconciles the observations with the economists’ beliefs.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #23 Certain bacteria that produce hydrogen sulfide as a
waste product would die if directly exposed to
oxygen. The hydrogen sulfide reacts with oxygen,
removing it and so preventing it from harming the
bacteria. Furthermore, the hydrogen sulfide tends to
kill other organisms in the area, thereby providing
the bacteria with a source of food. As a result, a dense
colony of these bacteria produces for itself an
environment in which it can continue to thrive
indefinitely.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) A dense colony of the bacteria can indefinitely
continue to produce enough hydrogen sulfide
to kill other organisms in the area and to
prevent oxygen from harming the bacteria.
(B) The hydrogen sulfide produced by the bacteria
kills other organisms in the area by reacting
with and removing oxygen.
(C) Most organisms, if killed by the hydrogen
sulfide produced by the bacteria, can provide
a source of food for the bacteria.
(D) The bacteria can continue to thrive indefinitely
only in an environment in which the
hydrogen sulfide they produce has removed
all oxygen and killed other organisms in the
area.
(E) If any colony of bacteria produces hydrogen
sulfide as a waste product, it thereby ensures
that it is both provided with a source of food
and protected from harm by oxygen.
Correct Answer: A
A Inference
Find the answer choice supported by the passage.
A. Yes. From the last sentence, a dense colony of these bacteria produces for itself an environment in which it can continue to thrive indefinitely. From the second and third sentence, the hydrogen sulfide produced by these bacteria reacts with oxygen, preventing it from harming the bacteria. It provides the bacteria with a source of food because it tends to kill other organisms in the area.
B. No. The passage states that the hydrogen sulfide reacts with and removes oxygen and that it tends to kill other organisms in the area. There is no proof that these two facts are related.
C. No. There is no proof in the passage that most organisms, if killed, can provide a source of food for the bacteria. All you know is that, with a dense colony, enough will be killed to sustain the colony. They could be light eaters.
D. No. There is no proof that, if they have this environment, the bacteria can thrive indefinitely or that it’s the only way that they can thrive indefinitely.
E. No. There is no information provided about all colonies of bacteria that might produce hydrogen sulfide as a waste product, just about these particular bacteria.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #24 Books that present a utopian future in which the
inequities and sufferings of the present are replaced
by more harmonious and rational social
arrangements will always find enthusiastic buyers.
Since gloomy books predicting that even more
terrifying times await us are clearly not of this genre,
they are unlikely to be very popular.
The questionable pattern of reasoning in which one
of the following arguments is most similar to that in
the argument above?
(A) Art that portrays people as happy and
contented has a tranquilizing effect on the
viewer, an effect that is appealing to those
who are tense or anxious. Thus, people who
dislike such art are neither tense nor anxious.
(B) People who enjoy participating in activities
such as fishing or hiking may nevertheless
enjoy watching such spectator sports as
boxing or football. Thus, one cannot infer
from someone’s participating in vigorous
contact sports that he or she is not also fond
of less violent forms of recreation.
(C) Action movies that involve complicated and
dangerous special-effects scenes are
enormously expensive to produce. Hence,
since traditional dramatic or comedic films
contain no such scenes, it is probable that
they are relatively inexpensive to produce.
(D) Adults usually feel a pleasant nostalgia when
hearing the music they listened to as
adolescents, but since adolescents often like
music specifically because they think it
annoys their parents, adults rarely appreciate
the music that their children will later listen
to with nostalgia.
(E) All self-employed businesspeople have salaries
that fluctuate with the fortunes of the general
economy, but government bureaucrats are not
self-employed. Therefore, not everyone with
an income that fluctuates with the fortunes of
the general economy is a government
bureaucrat.
Correct Answer: C
C Parallel
The argument concludes that gloomy books are unlikely to be very popular. This is because they are not a genre that presents a utopian future, and books of the utopian future genre will always find enthusiastic buyers. Utopian future → popular; contrapositive: ~popular → ~Utopian future. Conclusion: ~Utopian future → ~(likely) popular. This argument has a necessary/sufficient problem. Being of the utopian future genre is sufficient for being popular but we don’t know that it is necessary. There might well be a group of angst-filled people that like nothing better than to curl up with a gloomy book.
A. No. This argument does not contain the necessary/sufficient switch.
B. No. This argument shifts from people who participate in less violent forms of recreation and enjoy watching more violent sports to people who participate in more violent sports. This is not the same as a necessary/sufficient flaw.
C. Yes. Complicated and dangerous special effects → enormously expensive; ~enormously expensive → ~complicated and dangerous special effects. Conclusion: ~complicated and dangerous special effects → (probably) ~enormously expensive.
D. No. This argument is not flawed.
E. No. This argument is not flawed.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #3 Question #25 Some people mistakenly believe that since we do not
have direct access to the distant past we cannot learn
much about it. Contemporary historians and
archaeologists find current geography, geology, and
climate to be rich in clues about a given region’s
distant history. However, the more distant the period
we are studying is, the less useful the study of the
present becomes.
Of the following, which one most closely conforms to
the principle that the passage illustrates?
(A) Astronomers often draw inferences about the
earlier years of our solar system on the basis
of recently collected data. Unfortunately, they
have been able to infer comparatively little
about the origin of our solar system.
(B) Much can be learned about the perpetrator of
a crime by applying scientific methods of
investigation to the crime scene. But the more
the crime scene has been studied the less
likely anything will be learned from further
study.
(C) To understand a literary text one needs to
understand the author’s world view. However,
the farther that world view gets from one’s
own the less one will be able to appreciate the
text.
(D) We often extrapolate from ordinary sensory
experience to things beyond such experience
and form a rash judgment, such as the claim
that the earth is the center of the universe
because it appears that way to us.
(E) One crucial clue to the extent of the ancient
Egyptians’ mathematical knowledge came
from studying the pyramids. The more we
studied such structures, the more impressed
we were by how much the Egyptians knew.
Correct Answer: A
A Parallel
The passage claims that we can learn about the past, even though we do not have direct access to it. We can do this by looking at current geology, geography, etc., to find clues about a region’s distant history. However, the study of the present becomes less useful the more distant the period we are studying is.
A. Yes. The astronomers are able to use present data about the solar system to find out about the earlier years of the solar system. However, because the origin of the solar system is much more distant, the present data is not very useful in learning about this origin.
B. No. The passage tells us that less will be learned from the present the more distant the period is that we are studying. The oft-studied crime scene is not from a much more distant period.
C. No. This doesn’t talk about time relations.
D. No. This doesn’t talk about time relations.
E. No. This doesn’t relate the pyramids to a much more distant time than the ancient Egyptians.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #1 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.
- Which one of the following most accurately states the
main point of the passage?
(A) Sembène’s originality as a filmmaker lies in his
adaptation of traditional archetypal
predicaments and open-ended plots, both of
which are derived from West African oral
tales.
(B) Many of the characters in Sembène’s films are
variations on character types common to
traditional West African storytelling.
(C) Sembène’s films derive their distinctive
characteristics from oral narrative traditions
that had not previously been considered
suitable subject matter for films.
(D) Sembène’s films give vivid expression to the
social and political beliefs held by most of the
Senegalese people.
(E) Sembène’s films are notable in that they use
elements derived from traditional West
African storytelling to comment critically on
contemporary social and political issues.
Correct Answer: E
Passage Analysis
E Big Picture
A. No. This choice starts well but it claims that Sembène’s originality lies in his adaptation of traditional archetypal predicaments and open-ended plots, which were discussed only in the last two paragraphs.
B. No. This choice talks about Sembène’s characters being variations on types common to traditional West African storytelling, which is discussed only in the second paragraph.
C. No. We are never told whether oral narrative traditions were previously considered suitable.
D. No. We don’t know what social and political beliefs are held by most of the Senegalese people.
E. Yes. This choice mentions why Sembène’s films are notable, that they derive elements from traditional West African storytelling, and that these films use these elements to comment critically on contemporary social and political issues.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #2 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.
- The author says that Sembène does which one of the
following in at least some of his films?
(A) uses animals as symbols
(B) uses slow motion for artistic effect
(C) provides oral narration of the film’s story
(D) juxtaposes West African images and Marxist
symbols
(E) leaves part of the story to be filled in by
audiences
Correct Answer: E
Passage Analysis
E Extract Fact
A. No. The author does not say that Sembène uses animals as symbols in any of his films.
B. No. This is close but the author claims that Sembène uses freeze-frames, which suggest continued action. The author does not claim that Sembène uses slow motion.
C. No. The author does not say that Sembène provides oral narration in any of his films.
D. No. The author does not claim that Sembène places West African images and Marxist symbols side by side in any of his films.
E. Yes. This answer choice is supported by the third paragraph.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #3 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.
Which one of the following would, if true, most
strengthen the claim made by the author in the last
sentence of the passage (lines 54–58)?
(A) Several African novelists who draw upon the
oral traditions of West Africa use binary
oppositions as fundamental structures in
their narratives, even though they have not
read Marxist theory.
(B) Folklorists who have analyzed oral storytelling
traditions from across the world have found
that the use of binary oppositions to
structure narratives is common to many of
these traditions.
(C) When he trained in Moscow, Sembène read
extensively in Marxist political theory and
worked to devise ways of synthesizing
Marxist theory and the collective ideas
expressed in West African storytelling.
(D) Very few filmmakers in Europe or North
America make use of binary oppositions to
structure their narratives.
(E) Binary oppositions do not play an essential
structuring role in the narratives of some
films produced by other filmmakers who
subscribe to Marxist principles.
Correct Answer: A
Passage Analysis
A RC Reasoning
The answer choice should support the author’s reading of the dialectical elements as being related to African oral storytelling rather than to the Marxist components of Sembène’s ideology.
A. Yes. This choice demonstrates that other people who draw upon the oral traditions of West Africa do use these dialectical elements, and these people haven’t read Marxist theory. It lends credence to the author’s claim.
B. No. This is too general. The author claims that the binary oppositions are more likely to have come from African oral storytelling, not just some tradition from around the world.
C. No. This weakens the argument. If this were true, then the binary elements would be likely to come equally from his Marxist ideology.
D. No. This is not strong enough. There are other continents besides Europe, North America, and Africa. Also, he still could have gotten the binary oppositions from his Marxist ideology, even if few North American and European filmmakers use binary opposition.
E. No. This is not strong enough. It just says that some films produced by Marxist-principled filmmakers don’t essentially use binary opposition. They could still produce a lot of films that do.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #4 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.
Which one of the following inferences about
Sembène is most strongly supported by the passage?
(A) His films have become popular both in parts of
Africa and elsewhere.
(B) He has not received support from government
agencies for his film production.
(C) His films are widely misunderstood by critics
in Senegal.
(D) His characters are drawn from a broad range
of social strata.
(E) His work has been subjected to government
censorship
Correct Answer: D
Passage Analysis
D Extract Infer
A. No. The passage doesn’t mention how popular Sembène’s films are.
B. No. The passage doesn’t mention the support of government agencies.
C. No. The passage doesn’t mention how the critics in Senegal interpret Sembène’s films.
D. Yes. This is discussed in the second paragraph.
E. No. The passage doesn’t mention government censorship.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #5 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.
Which one of the following most closely expresses
the author’s intended meaning in using the word
“initiatory” (line 45)?
(A) beginning a series
(B) experimental
(C) transformative
(D) unprecedented
(E) prefatory
Correct Answer: C
Passage Analysis
C Structure
The author uses the phrase “initiatory journeys” to mean journeys that start or bring a basic change, which supports (C).
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #6 Many critics agree that the primary characteristic
of Senegalese filmmaker Ousmane Sembène’s work is
its sociopolitical commitment. Sembène was trained
in Moscow in the cinematic methods of socialist
realism, and he asserts that his films are not meant to
entertain his compatriots, but rather to raise their
awareness of the past and present realities of their
society. But his originality as a filmmaker lies most
strikingly in his having successfully adapted film,
originally a Western cultural medium, to the needs,
pace, and structures of West African culture. In
particular, Sembène has found within African oral
culture techniques and strategies that enable him to
express his views and to reach both literate and
nonliterate Senegalese viewers.
A number of Sembène’s characters and motifs can
be traced to those found in traditional West African
storytelling. The tree, for instance, which in countless
West African tales symbolizes knowledge, life, death,
and rebirth, is a salient motif in Emitaï. The trickster,
usually a dishonest individual who personifies
antisocial traits, appears in Borom Sarret, Mandabi,
and Xala as a thief, a corrupted civil servant, and a
member of the elite, respectively. In fact, most of
Sembène’s characters, like those of many oral West
African narratives, are types embodying collective
ideas or attitudes. And in the oral tradition, these
types face archetypal predicaments, as is true, for
example, of the protagonist of Borom Sarret, who has
no name and is recognizable instead by his trade—he
is a street merchant—and by the difficulties he
encounters but is unable to overcome.
Moreover, many of Sembène’s films derive their
structure from West African dilemma tales, the
outcomes of which are debated and decided by their
audiences. The open-endedness of most of his plots
reveals that Sembène similarly leaves it to his
viewers to complete his narratives: in such films as
Borom Sarret, Mandabi, and Ceddo, for example, he
provides his spectators with several alternatives as the
films end. The openness of his narratives is also
evidenced by his frequent use of freeze-frames, which
carry the suggestion of continued action.
Finally, like many West African oral tales,
Sembène’s narratives take the form of initiatory
journeys that bring about a basic change in the
worldview of the protagonist and ultimately, Sembène
hopes, in that of the viewer. His films denounce
social and political injustice. and his protagonists’
social consciousness emerges from an acute selfconsciousness brought about by the juxtaposition of
opposites within the films’ social context: good versus
evil, powerlessness versus power, or poverty versus
wealth. Such binary oppositions are used analogously
in West African tales, and it seems likely that these
dialectical elements are related to African oral
storytelling more than, as many critics have supposed,
to the Marxist components of his ideology.
The passage does NOT provide evidence that
Sembène exhibits which one of the following
attitudes in one or more of his films?
(A) disenchantment with attempts to reform
Senegalese government
(B) confidence in the aptness of using traditional
motifs to comment on contemporary issues
(C) concern with social justice
(D) interest in the vicissitudes of ordinary people’s
lives
(E) desire to educate his audience
Correct Answer: A
Passage Analysis
A Extract Fact
A. Yes. The passage never says that one of his films exhibits disenchantment with attempts to reform Senegalese government.
B. No. Paragraph two says that he does this a lot, which provides evidence that Sembène exhibits confidence in the aptness of it.
C. No. Paragraph four discusses this.
D. No. The example of the street merchant in the second paragraph shows this.
E. No. The first paragraph talks about his desire to raise awareness.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #7 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.
- Which one of the following does each of the passages
display?
(A) a concern with the question of what teaching
methods are most effective in developing
writing skills
(B) a concern with how a particular discipline
tends to represent points of view it does not
typically deal with
(C) a conviction that writing in specialized
professional disciplines cannot be creatively
crafted
(D) a belief that the writing in a particular
profession could benefit from more attention
to storytelling
(E) a desire to see writing in a particular field
purged of elements from other disciplines
Correct Answer: D
Passage Analysis
D Extract Fact
A. No. Passage A does not discuss teaching methods to develop writing skills.
B. No. Passage A does not concern itself with points of view; rather, it is concerned with changing the way history is presented.
C. No. Passage A claims that historic writing can and should be creatively crafted; passage B at least raises the possibility that legal writing might be creatively crafted.
D. Yes. Both passages think that more attention to storytelling would benefit the writing in the respective professions that they discuss.
E. No. Both are entertaining the idea that elements from other disciplines would benefit writing in historical and legal writing, respectively.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #8 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.
- The passages most strongly support which one of the
following inferences regarding the authors’
relationships to the professions they discuss?
(A) Neither author is an active member of the
profession that he or she discusses.
(B) Each author is an active member of the
profession he or she discusses.
(C) The author of passage A is a member of the
profession discussed in that passage, but the
author of passage B is not a member of either
of the professions discussed in the passages.
(D) Both authors are active members of the
profession discussed in passage B.
(E) The author of passage B, but not the author of
passage A, is an active member of both of the
professions discussed in the passages.
Correct Answer: B
Passage Analysis
B Extract Infer
A. No. The author of passage A is an active member of the history profession (line 5). The author of passage B is an active member of the legal profession (line 30).
B. Yes. See the explanation for (A).
C. No. The author of passage B is a member of the legal profession.
D. No. We don’t know whether or not the author of passage A is also a lawyer.
E. No. We don’t know whether or not the author of passage B is also a historian.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #9
Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.
- Which one of the following does each passage
indicate is typical of writing in the respective
professions discussed in the passages?
(A) abstraction
(B) hyperbole
(C) subversion
(D) narrative
(E) imagination
Correct Answer: A
Passage Analysis
A Extract Fact
A. Yes. Passage A mentions this in line 10 and passage B mentions this in line 49.
B. No. Both passages seem to indicate that writing in the respective professions is the opposite of hyperbolic.
C. No. Neither passage mentions that the writing in the respective professions is subversive.
D. No. This is the opposite of what both passages claim is typical for the writing in their respective professions.
E. No. This is the opposite of what both passages claim is typical for the writing in their respective professions.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #10 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.
In which one of the following ways are the passages
NOT parallel?
(A) Passage A presents and rejects arguments for
an opposing position, whereas passage B does
not.
(B) Passage A makes evaluative claims, whereas
passage B does not.
(C) Passage A describes specific examples of a
phenomenon it criticizes, whereas passage B
does not.
(D) Passage B offers criticism, whereas passage A
does not.
(E) Passage B outlines a theory, whereas passage A
does not.
Correct Answer: C
Passage Analysis
C Structure
A. No. Passage A does not present arguments for an opposing position.
B. No. This is close. However, passage B does make some evaluative claims, albeit weaker than the ones in passage A. It claims, for example, that mere awareness of the value of narrative could perhaps serve as an important corrective.
C. Yes. Passage A notes the titles of papers from the American Historical Association, which are all historiographs. Passage B does not give specific arguments.
D. No. Both offer criticism.
E. No. Passage B does not outline a theory.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #11 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.
The phrase “scholarly monographs that sap the
vitality of history” in passage A (lines 6–7) plays a
role in that passage’s overall argument that is most
analogous to the role played in passage B by which
one of the following phrases?
(A) “Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft”
(line 29)
(B) “Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect,
humor forbidden, and voice mute” (lines
37–38)
(C) “Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write”
(line 39)
(D) “every case has at its heart a story” (line 46)
(E) “Still, even mere awareness of the value of
narrative could perhaps serve as an important
corrective” (lines 57–59)
Correct Answer: B
Passage Analysis
B Structure
The phrase “scholarly monographs that sap the vitality of history” is being used to describe the typical writing that the author sees as making history books not stimulating for the students who read them, discouraging the students from connecting emotionally. In passage B, the phrases “conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor forbidden, and voice mute” plays the most similar role, as it shows that the writing style of lawyers makes legal writing abstract and disconnected from the human narrative content. This supports (B).
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #12 Passage A
Readers, like writers, need to search for answers.
Part of the joy of reading is in being surprised, but
academic historians leave little to the imagination. The
perniciousness of the historiographic approach became
fully evident to me when I started teaching. Historians
require undergraduates to read scholarly monographs
that sap the vitality of history; they visit on students
what was visited on them in graduate school. They
assign books with formulaic arguments that transform
history into an abstract debate that would have been
unfathomable to those who lived in the past. Aimed so
squarely at the head, such books cannot stimulate
students who yearn to connect to history emotionally as
well as intellectually.
In an effort to address this problem, some historians
have begun to rediscover stories. It has even become
something of a fad within the profession. This year, the
American Historical Association chose as the theme
for its annual conference some putative connection to
storytelling: “Practices of Historical Narrative.”
Predictably, historians responded by adding the word
“narrative” to their titles and presenting papers at
sessions on “Oral History and the Narrative of Class
Identity,” and “Meaning and Time: The Problem of
Historical Narrative.” But it was still historiography.
intended only for other academics. At meetings of
historians, we still encounter very few historians telling
stories or moving audiences to smiles, chills, or tears.
Passage B
Writing is at the heart of the lawyer’s craft, and so,
like it or not, we who teach the law inevitably teach
aspiring lawyers how lawyers write. We do this in a few
stand-alone courses and, to a greater extent, through the
constraints that we impose on their writing throughout
the curriculum. Legal writing, because of the purposes
it serves, is necessarily ruled by linear logic, creating a
path without diversions, surprises, or reversals.
Conformity is a virtue, creativity suspect, humor
forbidden, and voice mute.
Lawyers write as they see other lawyers write, and,
influenced by education, profession, economic
constraints, and perceived self-interest, they too often
write badly. Perhaps the currently fashionable call for
attention to narrative in legal education could have an
effect on this. It is not yet exactly clear what role
narrative should play in the law, but it is nonetheless
true that every case has at its heart a story—of real
events and people, of concerns, misfortunes, conflicts,
feelings. But because legal analysis strips the human
narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal
form of the case, law students learn to act as if there is
no such story.
It may well turn out that some of the terminology
and public rhetoric of this potentially subversive
movement toward attention to narrative will find its
way into the law curriculum, but without producing
corresponding changes in how legal writing is actually
taught or in how our future colleagues will write. Still,
even mere awareness of the value of narrative could
perhaps serve as an important corrective.
Suppose that a lawyer is writing a legal document
describing the facts that are at issue in a case. The
author of passage B would be most likely to expect
which one of the following to be true of the
document?
(A) It will be poorly written because the lawyer
who is writing it was not given explicit advice
by law professors on how lawyers should
write.
(B) It will be crafted to function like a piece of
fiction in its description of the characters and
motivations of the people involved in the
case.
(C) It will be a concise, well-crafted piece of
writing that summarizes most, if not all, of
the facts that are important in the case.
(D) It will not genuinely convey the human
dimension of the case, regardless of how
accurate the document may be in its details.
(E) It will neglect to make appropriate connections
between the details of the case and relevant
legal doctrines.
Correct Answer: D
Passage Analysis
D Extract Infer
A. No. This is too strong. The author says that lawyers too often write badly (lines 41–42). This doesn’t mean that legal documents are always written poorly.
B. No. The author claims that legal analysis strips the human narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal form of the case (lines 48–50).
C. No. The author claims that lawyers too often write poorly (lines 41–42).
D. Yes. The author claims that legal analysis strips the human narrative content from the abstract, canonical legal form of the case (lines 48–50).
E. No. The author doesn’t discuss whether legal writing makes the right connections between the details and relevant legal doctrines.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #13 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
Which one of the following best states the main idea
of the passage?
(A) Evolutionary game theory and classical game
theory can be used to analyze the process of
decision-making used by humans and
animals in settling disputes.
(B) A. aperta in grassland habitats and riparian
habitats exhibit an unusually wide variety of
fighting behaviors in territorial disputes.
(C) Evolutionary game theory may be useful in
explaining the behavior of certain spiders
during territorial disputes.
(D) The traditional theory of animal behavior in
conflict situations cannot be used to explain
the fighting behavior of most species.
(E) Evolutionary game theory, adapted from
classical game theory, is currently used by
scientists to predict the behavior of spiders in
site selection.
Correct Answer: C
Passage Analysis
C Big Picture
A. No. This is too general. The passage discusses only evolutionary game theory in terms of its success in analyzing the process of decision making, and only in regards to Agelenopsis apertas.
B. No. This was discussed only in the third paragraph. Also, we don’t know that they exhibit an unusually wide variety of behaviors.
C. Yes. This mentions evolutionary game theory and how it might be used to explain the behavior of Agelenopsis apertas in intra-species disputes.
D. No. This is too strong. The author suggests that the traditional theory might not be as good as evolutionary game theory to explain the fighting behavior of Agelenopsis apertas, but doesn’t address most species.
E. No. This is too general. We don’t know that scientists in general use evolutionary game theory to predict the behavior of spiders in site selection.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #14 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
The author of the passage mentions Galápagos
tortoises in the first paragraph most likely in order to
(A) describe a kind of fighting behavior that is
used by only a few species
(B) suggest that repetitive use of the same visual
and vocal displays is a kind of fighting
behavior used by some but not all species
(C) provide evidence to support the claim that
fighting behavior does not vary greatly from
contest to contest for most species
(D) provide an example of a fighting behavior that
is unique to a particular species
(E) provide an example of a ritualized fighting
behavior of the kind that traditional theorists
assume is the norm for most species
Correct Answer: E
Passage Analysis
E Structure
The author mentions Galapagos tortoises as an example of the traditional theory, which claims that intra-species conflict is highly ritualized. This supports (E).
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #15 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
N/A
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #16 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
Which one of the following, if true, is LEAST
consistent with Riechert’s theory about fighting
behavior in spiders?
(A) Spiders in the grassland habitat engage in
escalated fighting when a disputed site is
highly desirable.
(B) Spiders in the riparian habitat are not willing
to engage in escalated fighting for less-thansuitable sites.
(C) Spiders in the riparian habitat confine their
fighting to displays more regularly than do
spiders in the grassland habitat.
(D) Spiders in the riparian habitat are as willing to
engage in escalated fighting as are spiders in
the grassland habitat.
(E) Spiders in the riparian habitat are more likely
to withdraw when faced with a larger
opponent in territorial disputes than are
spiders in the grassland habitat.
Correct Answer: D
Passage Analysis
D Extract Infer
A. No. This is consistent with the predictions concerning the grassland in paragraph three.
B. No. This is consistent with the predictions concerning the riparian habitat in paragraph three, as the riparian habitat is 90 percent habitable.
C. No. The third paragraph predicts that spiders in the riparian habitat, which is 90 percent habitable, will be less likely to escalate fighting than spiders in the grassland habitat, which is 12 percent habitable.
D. Yes. The third paragraph predicts that spiders in the riparian habitat will be less willing to engage in escalated fighting, not as willing.
E. No. This is consistent with the predictions in the third paragraph.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #17 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
- Which one of the following best states the function
of the third paragraph of the passage?
(A) It develops a comparison of the two theories
that were introduced in the preceding
paragraph.
(B) It continues a discussion of a controversial
theory described in the first two paragraphs
of the passage.
(C) It describes an experiment that provides
support for the theory described in the
preceding paragraph.
(D) It describes a rare phenomenon that cannot be
accounted for by the theory described in the
first paragraph.
(E) It describes predictions that can be used to test
the validity of a theory described in a
preceding paragraph.
Correct Answer: E
Passage Analysis
E Structure
The third paragraph gives predictions concerning the behavior of spiders in different habitats, based on Riechert’s claim that Agelenopsis apertas’ territorial disputes are better described using evolutionary game theory.
A. No. The passage does not compare evolutionary game theory and classical game theory.
B. No. We don’t know that evolutionary game theory is controversial, and it isn’t discussed in the first paragraph.
C. No. This is close. However, it makes predictions. The experiment hasn’t been done yet.
D. No. It makes predictions. It does not describe rare phenomena.
E. Yes. It describes predictions that are based on evolutionary game theory.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #18 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
The passage suggests which one of the following
about the behavior of A. aperta in conflict situations?
(A) They exhibit variations in fighting behavior
from contest to contest primarily because of
the different levels of competition for suitable
sites in different habitats.
(B) They may confine their fighting behavior to
displays if the value of a disputed resource is
too low and the risk of physical injury is too
great.
(C) They exhibit variations in fighting behavior
that are similar to those exhibited by
members of most other species of animals.
(D) They are more likely to engage in escalated
fighting during disputes than to limit their
fighting behavior to visual and vocal displays.
(E) They are more willing to engage in escalated
fighting during conflict situations than are
members of most other species of animals
Correct Answer: B
Passage Analysis
B Extract Infer
A. No. The second paragraph says that variations in conflict behavior may result from a variety of things, not primarily because of the different levels of competition in different habitats.
B. Yes. The passage states that a spider may engage in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the risk of physical injury (lines 30–33).
C. No. Agelenopsis apertas’ variations in fighting behavior are not compared to those of most other species.
D. No. The passage never says that Agelenopsis apertas are more likely to engage in escalated fighting, just that they may engage in escalated fighting.
E. No. Agelenopsis apertas’ proclivities concerning escalated fighting are not compared to those of most other species
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #19 Traditional theories of animal behavior assert that
animal conflict within a species is highly ritualized
and does not vary from contest to contest. This
species-specific model assumes that repetitive use of
the same visual and vocal displays and an absence of
escalated fighting evolved to prevent injury. The
contestant that exhibits the “best” display wins the
contested resource. Galápagos tortoises, for instance,
settle contests on the basis of height: the ritualized
display consists of two tortoises facing one another
and stretching their necks skyward; the tortoise
perceived as being “taller” wins.
In populations of the spider Agelenopsis aperta,
however, fighting behavior varies greatly from contest
to contest. In addition, fighting is not limited to
displays: biting and shoving are common. Susan
Riechert argues that a recently developed model,
evolutionary game theory, provides a closer fit to
A. aperta territorial disputes than does the speciesspecific model, because it explains variations in
conflict behavior that may result from varying
conditions, such as differences in size, age, and
experience of combatants. Evolutionary game theory
was adapted from the classical game theory that was
developed by von Neumann and Morganstern to
explain human behavior in conflict situations. In both
classical and evolutionary game theory, strategies are
weighed in terms of maximizing the average payoff
against contestants employing both the same and
different strategies. For example, a spider may engage
in escalated fighting during a dispute only if the
disputed resource is valuable enough to warrant the
risk of physical injury. There are, however, two major
differences between the classical and evolutionary
theories. First, whereas in classical game theory it is
assumed that rational thought is used to determine
which action to take, evolutionary game theory
assumes that instinct and long-term species advantage
ultimately determine the strategies that are exhibited.
The other difference is in the payoffs: in classical
game theory, the payoffs are determined by an
individual’s personal judgment of what constitutes
winning; in evolutionary game theory, the payoffs are
defined in terms of reproductive success.
In studying populations of A. aperta in a
grassland habitat and a riparian habitat, Riechert
predicts that such factors as the size of the opponents,
the potential rate of predation in a habitat, and the
probability of winning a subsequent site if the dispute
is lost will all affect the behavior of spiders in
territorial disputes. In addition, she predicts that the
markedly different levels of competition for web sites
in the two habitats will affect the spiders’ willingness
to engage in escalated fighting. In the grassland,
where 12 percent of the habitat is available for
occupation by A. aperta, Riechert predicts that
spiders will be more willing to engage in escalated
fighting than in the riparian habitat, where 90 percent
of the habitat is suitable for occupation.
The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present an alternative to a traditional
approach
(B) describe a phenomenon and provide specific
examples
(C) evaluate evidence used to support an
argument
(D) present data that refutes a controversial theory
(E) suggest that a new theory may be based on
inadequate research
Correct Answer: A
Passage Analysis
A Big Picture
A. Yes. The author presents evolutionary game theory as an alternative to the traditional theories of animal behavior.
B. No. This doesn’t address the first paragraph and its discussion of traditional theories.
C. No. The passage doesn’t evaluate the evidence either for the traditional theories or for evolutionary game theory.
D. No. This is too strong. The data on Agelenopsis apertas doesn’t refute the traditional theory. And, the only theory that might be considered controversial would be evolutionary game theory.
E. No. The passage seems to support the new theory.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #20 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main point of the passage?
(A) Some views that certain commentators
consider to be implications of philosophical
anarchism are highly counterintuitive.
(B) Contrary to what philosophical anarchists
claim, some governments are morally
superior to others, and citizens under
legitimate governments have moral
obligations to one another.
(C) It does not follow logically from philosophical
anarchism that no government is morally
better than any other or that people have no
moral duties toward one another.
(D) Even if, as certain philosophical anarchists
claim, governmental laws lack moral force,
people still have a moral obligation to refrain
from harming one another.
(E) Contrary to what some of its opponents have
claimed, philosophical anarchism does not
conflict with the ordinary view that one
should obey the law because it is the law.
Correct Answer: C
Passage Analysis
C Big Picture
A. No. This is discussed only in the first paragraph.
B. No. The author argues in the second paragraph that it is consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that some governments may be morally better than others.
C. Yes. The author presents some supposed implications of philosophical anarchism and then shows that these claims do not logically follow from philosophical anarchism.
D. No. The author speaks about philosophical anarchism in general, not about certain philosophical anarchists.
E. No. Philosophical anarchism does not hold that one should obey the law because it is the law.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #21 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
The author identifies which one of the following as a
commonly held belief?
(A) In most cases we are morally obligated to obey
the law simply because it is the law.
(B) All governments are in essence morally equal.
(C) We are morally bound to obey only those laws
we participate in establishing.
(D) Most crimes are morally neutral, even though
they are illegal.
(E) The majority of existing laws are intended to
protect others from harm.
Correct Answer: A
Passage Analysis
A Extract Fact
A. Yes. The author states this in the first paragraph.
B. No. The first paragraph says that most people acknowledge that not all governments have a moral right to govern.
C. No. The first paragraph doesn’t discuss the connection between being morally bound to obey the law and participating in establishing the law.
D. No. The first paragraph says that most people believe that we generally have a moral duty to obey the law. This would make most crimes morally bad.
E. No. This was discussed in the third paragraph in reference to what philosophical anarchists believe. Also, there is no discussion about whether the majority of existing laws are to protect others.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #22 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
- The author’s stance regarding the theory of
philosophical anarchism can most accurately be
described as one of
(A) ardent approval of most aspects of the theory
(B) apparent acceptance of some of the basic
positions of the theory
(C) concerned pessimism about the theory’s ability
to avoid certain extreme views
(D) hesitant rejection of some of the central
features of the theory
(E) resolute antipathy toward both the theory and
certain of its logical consequences
Correct Answer: B
Passage Analysis
B Extract Infer
The author defends philosophical anarchists against their critics but does not explicitly endorse this position. This supports (B). Choice (A) is the next best answer but is too strong.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #24 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
- Which one of the following scenarios most
completely conforms to the views attributed to
philosophical anarchists in lines 37–44?
(A) A member of a political party that is illegal in
a particular country divulges the names of
other members because he fears legal
penalties.
(B) A corporate executive chooses to discontinue
her company’s practice of dumping chemicals
illegally when she learns that the chemicals
are contaminating the water supply.
(C) A person who knows that a coworker has
stolen funds from their employer decides to
do nothing because the coworker is widely
admired.
(D) A person neglects to pay her taxes, even
though it is likely that she will suffer severe
legal penalties as a consequence, because she
wants to use the money to finance a new
business.
(E) A driver determines that it is safe to exceed the
posted speed limit, in spite of poor visibility,
because there are apparently no other vehicles
on the road
Correct Answer: B
Passage Analysis
B Extract Infer
A. No. The last part of the analogy discusses legal penalties, which the anarchists don’t recognize as being pertinent to morality.
B. Yes. The corporate executive refrains from a practice because she finds out it might be hurting others.
C. No. The coworker has hurt someone else but the person does nothing.
D. No. This doesn’t discuss the possibility of hurting others.
E. No. This action does not discuss the reasons for refraining from an action.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #23 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
- By attributing to commentators the view that
philosophical anarchism has implications that are
“counterintuitive” (line 17), the author most likely
means that the commentators believe that
(A) the implications conflict with some commonly
held beliefs
(B) there is little empirical evidence that the
implications are actually true
(C) common sense indicates that philosophical
anarchism does not have such implications
(D) the implications appear to be incompatible
with each other
(E) each of the implications contains an internal
logical inconsistency
Correct Answer: A
Passage Analysis
A Structure
The author uses the word “counterintuitive” to point out that some commentators think that the implications of philosophical anarchism are “against our intuitions,” which supports (A).
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #25 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
- It can be inferred that the author would be most
likely to agree that
(A) people are subject to more moral obligations
than is generally held to be the case
(B) governments that are morally superior
recognize that their citizens are not morally
bound to obey their laws
(C) one may have good reason to support the
efforts of one’s government even if one has no
moral duty to obey its laws
(D) there are some sound arguments for claiming
that most governments have a moral right to
require obedience to their laws
(E) the theory of philosophical anarchism entails
certain fundamental principles regarding how
laws should be enacted and enforced
Correct Answer: C
Passage Analysis
C Extract Infer
A. No. The author never claims that philosophical anarchism attributes more moral obligations to people than is commonly held.
B. No. The author doesn’t discuss what morally superior governments recognize.
C. Yes. The author discusses this in the third paragraph.
D. No. The author defends philosophical anarchism, which states that there is no moral obligation to obey laws, simply because they are the laws.
E. No. Philosophical anarchism doesn’t recognize laws as such.
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #26 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
- The author’s discussion of people’s positive moral
duty to care for one another (lines 44–49) functions
primarily to
(A) demonstrate that governmental efforts to help
those in need are superfluous
(B) suggest that philosophical anarchists maintain
that laws that foster the common good are
extremely rare
(C) imply that the theoretical underpinnings of
philosophical anarchism are inconsistent with
certain widely held moral truths
(D) indicate that philosophical anarchists
recognize that people are subject to
substantial moral obligations
(E) illustrate that people are morally obligated to
refrain from those actions that arc crimes in
most legal systems
Correct Answer: D
Passage Analysis
D Structure
The author discusses people’s positive moral duty to care for one another to demonstrate that philosophical anarchists think that people have a lot of moral obligations, which supports (D).
LSAT PrepTest 52 Section #4 Question #27 Most people acknowledge that not all
governments have a moral right to govern and that
there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for
disobeying the law, as when a particular law
prescribes behavior that is clearly immoral. It is also
commonly supposed that such cases are special
exceptions and that, in general, the fact that
something is against the law counts as a moral, as
well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we
generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply
because it is the law. But the theory known as
philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing
instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of
governments have no moral duty to those
governments to obey their laws. Some commentators
have rejected this position because of what they take
to be its highly counterintuitive implications: (1) that
no existing government is morally better than any
other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate),
and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any
laws, people may do as they please without scruple.
In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not
entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is
morally better than any other does not follow from
the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any
government. Even if one denies that there is a moral
obligation to follow the laws of any government, one
can still evaluate the morality of the policies and
actions of various governments. Some governments
do more good than harm, and others more harm than
good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights
of individuals more regularly, systematically, and
seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly
consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that
governments vary widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all
individuals have basic, nonlegal moral duties to one
another—duties not to harm others in their lives,
liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws
have no moral force, individuals still have duties to
refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault,
theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to
care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting
cooperative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established
laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions,
individuals are morally bound not to violate those
laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if
others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the
right, one must not endanger them by driving on the
left, for, even though driving on the left is not
inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately
harm the innocent.
- In the passage, the author seeks primarily to
(A) describe the development and theoretical
underpinnings of a particular theory
(B) establish that a particular theory conforms to
the dictates of common sense
(C) argue that two necessary implications of a
particular theory are morally acceptable
(D) defend a particular theory against its critics by
showing that their arguments are mistaken
(E) demonstrate that proponents of a particular
theory are aware of the theory’s defects
Correct Answer: D
Passage Analysis
D Big Picture
A. No. The author doesn’t describe the development of philosophical anarchism.
B. No. This is close. However, this doesn’t talk about the claims of the critics of philosophical anarchism.
C. No. The author tries to show that these supposed implications are not necessary implications of philosophical anarchism.
D. Yes. The author tries to show that the critics are wrong in thinking that philosophical anarchism has, as its implications, two counterintuitive claims.
E. No. The author argues that the supposedly counterintuitive implications are not actual implications of philosophical anarchism and, therefore, are not defects of philosophical anarchism.
- Consumer advocate: Businesses are typically
motivated primarily by the desire to make as
great a profit as possible, and advertising helps
businesses to achieve this goal. But it is clear
that the motive of maximizing profits does not
impel businesses to present accurate
information in their advertisements. It follows
that consumers should be skeptical of the
claims made in advertisements.
Each of the following, if true, would strengthen the
consumer advocate’s argument EXCEPT:
(A) Businesses know that they can usually
maximize their profits by using inaccurate
information in their advertisements.
(B) Businesses have often included inaccurate
information in their advertisements.
(C) Many consumers have a cynical attitude
toward advertising.
(D) Those who create advertisements are less
concerned with the accuracy than with the
creativity of advertisements.
(E) The laws regulating truth in advertising are
not applicable to many of the most common
forms of inaccurate advertising
Correct Answer: C
C Strengthen
The consumer advocate concludes that consumers ought to be skeptical of the claims made in advertisements. The evidence is that, typically, businesses are chiefly motivated by profits, and this motive does not make businesses think that they should present accurate information in their advertisements. The consumer advocate is neglecting to consider other reasons that businesses might not make misleading claims in advertisements, despite their interests in making a profit.
A. No. This strengthens the connection between maximizing profits and using inaccurate information.
B. No. This indicates a past history of businesses making inaccurate statements, thus strengthening the conclusion.
C. Yes. The conclusion claims that consumers OUGHT to be skeptical. It doesn’t address whether they actually ARE skeptical or not.
D. No. This strengthens the claim that advertisements are likely to contain inaccurate information.
E. No. This eliminates another reason as to why businesses might give accurate information, even though they want to increase profits.
Elaine: The purpose of art museums is to preserve
artworks and make them available to the
public. Museums, therefore, should seek to
acquire and display the best examples of
artworks from each artistic period and genre,
even if some of these works are not recognized
by experts as masterpieces.
Frederick: Art museums ought to devote their limited
resources to acquiring the works of recognized
masters in order to ensure the preservation of
the greatest artworks.
Elaine’s and Frederick’s statements provide the most
support for the claim that they would disagree about
whether
(A) many artistic masterpieces are not recognized
as such by art experts
(B) museums should seek to represent all genres of
art in their collections
(C) art museums should seek to preserve works of art
(D) an art museum ought to acquire an unusual
example of a period or genre if more
characteristic examples are prohibitively
expensive
(E) all of the artworks that experts identify as
masterpieces are actually masterpieces
Correct Answer: B
B Point at Issue
Elaine concludes that museums ought to seek to acquire the best examples of artworks from each period and genre, even if some of the works are not recognized as masterpieces. Her premise is that the purpose of museums is to preserve artworks and make them available to all. Frederick disagrees, claiming that art museums ought to acquire the works of recognized masters, as museums have limited resources and a museum’s purpose is to ensure the preservation of the greatest artworks.
A. No. Frederick does not make any connection between greatest artworks and who deems them as such.
B. Yes. Elaine claims that they should, while Frederick thinks that museums have a different purpose.
C. No. Both Elaine and Frederick agree on this.
D. No. Neither is concerned with the expense of a single piece of art.
E. No. Neither questions the status of artwork identified as masterpieces.
- Science columnist: It is clear why humans have so
many diseases in common with cats. Many
human diseases are genetically based, and cats
are genetically closer to humans than are any
other mammals except nonhuman primates.
Each of the genes identified so far in cats has
an exact counterpart in humans.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
science columnist’s explanation for the claim that
humans have so many diseases in common with cats?
(A) Cats have built up resistance to many of the
diseases they have in common with humans.
(B) Most diseases that humans have in common
with cats have no genetic basis.
(C) Cats have more diseases in common with
nonhuman primates than with humans.
(D) Many of the diseases humans have in common
with cats are mild and are rarely diagnosed.
(E) Humans have more genes in common with
nonhuman primates than with cats.
Correct Answer: B
B Weaken
The science columnist presents the following evidence: Many human diseases are genetically based, and cats are genetically closer to humans than are any other mammals save nonhuman primates. The columnist claims that this evidence makes is clear why humans and cats have so many diseases in common.
A. No. The argument doesn’t make claims about how many cats (as opposed to humans) actually get the diseases.
B. Yes. The argument claims only that many human diseases are genetically based, not all. And it doesn’t tell us whether the diseases we share with cats are among those. If they are not, the fact that cats are genetically close to humans still doesn’t explain why cats and humans share a lot of diseases.
C. No. The argument doesn’t address the diseases cats and nonhuman primates have in common.
D. No. The argument doesn’t address the severity of the diseases shared by humans and cats.
E. No. The argument already states this.
This region must find new ways to help business
grow. After all, shoe manufacturing used to be a
major local industry, but recently has experienced
severe setbacks due to overseas competition, so there
is a need for expansion into new manufacturing
areas. Moreover, our outdated public policy generally
inhibits business growth.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion drawn in the argument?
(A) The region needs to find new ways to enhance
business growth.
(B) Shoe manufacturing is no longer a major
source of income in the region.
(C) Shoe manufacturing in the region has
dramatically declined due to overseas
competition.
(D) Business in the region must expand into new
areas of manufacturing.
(E) Outdated public policy inhibits business
growth in the region.
Correct Answer: A
A Main Point
Because shoe manufacturing, which used to be a major local industry, has experienced severe setbacks and because outdated public policy generally prevents business growth, the argument concludes that this region must find new ways to help business grow.
A. Yes. This is a restatement of the conclusion.
B. No. We don’t know whether it is still a major source of income or not.
C. No. This is a premise.
D. No. This is a premise.
E. No. This is a premise.
As a result of modern medicine, more people have
been able to enjoy long and pain-free lives. But the
resulting increase in life expectancy has contributed
to a steady increase in the proportion of the
population that is of advanced age. This population
shift is creating potentially devastating financial
problems for some social welfare programs.
Which one of the following propositions is most
precisely exemplified by the situation presented above?
(A) Technical or scientific innovation cannot be
the solution to all problems.
(B) Implementing technological innovations
should be delayed until the resulting social
changes can be managed.
(C) Every enhancement of the quality of life has
unavoidable negative consequences.
(D) All social institutions are affected by a
preoccupation with prolonging life.
(E) Solving one set of problems can create a
different set of problems.
Correct Answer: E
E Principle Match
Modern medicine has enabled more people to live longer and pain-free lives. However, the benefits created by modern medicine have resulted in more and more of the population being older, which gives rise to financial problems for some social welfare programs.
A. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t discuss all problems.
B. No. The passage does not make a recommendation as to what should be done. It describes a situation.
C. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t discuss every enhancement of the quality of life.
D. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t discuss all social institutions, just some.
E. Yes. Modern medicine solved the short and painful life-span problem, but in the process it created a financial problem.
Since Jackie is such a big fan of Moral Vacuum’s
music, she will probably like The Cruel Herd’s new
album. Like Moral Vacuum, The Cruel Herd on this
album plays complex rock music that employs the
acoustic instrumentation and harmonic
sophistication of early sixties jazz. The Cruel Herd
also has very witty lyrics, full of puns and sardonic
humor, like some of Moral Vacuum’s best lyrics.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?
(A) Jackie has not previously cared for The Cruel
Herd, but on the new album The Cruel Herd’s
previous musical arranger has been replaced
by Moral Vacuum’s musical arranger.
(B) Though The Cruel Herd’s previous albums’
production quality was not great, the new
album is produced by one of the most widely
employed producers in the music industry.
(C) Like Moral Vacuum, The Cruel Herd regularly
performs in clubs popular with many
students at the university that Jackie attends.
(D) All of the music that Jackie prefers to listen to
on a regular basis is rock music.
(E) Jackie’s favorite Moral Vacuum songs have
lyrics that are somber and marked by a strong
political awareness.
Correct Answer: A
A Strengthen
The argument concludes that Jackie will probably like The Cruel Herd’s new album. Jackie is a fan of Moral Vacuum’s music and, on this album, The Cruel Herd plays a type of music similar to Moral Vacuum’s. Also, the witty lyrics are similar to those of some of Moral Vacuum’s best. This is an analogy and the answer choice should make the two bands’ music even more similar.
A. Yes. If The Cruel Herd’s new musical arranger is Moral Vacuum’s musical arranger, the two bands’ music should be even more similar.
B. No. This doesn’t make The Cruel Herd sound more like Moral Vacuum.
C. No. This is too general. We don’t know that these clubs are popular with Jackie.
D. No. This doesn’t make The Cruel Herd sound more like Moral Vacuum.
E. No. This weakens the argument. If Jackie likes the somber and political Moral Vacuum lyrics, then she might not like the witty lyrics of The Cruel Herd
Doctor: In three separate studies, researchers
compared children who had slept with nightlights in their rooms as infants to children who
had not. In the first study, the children who
had slept with night-lights proved more likely
to be nearsighted, but the later studies found
no correlation between night-lights and
nearsightedness. However, the children in the
first study were younger than those in the later
studies. This suggests that if night-lights cause
nearsightedness, the effect disappears with age.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
weaken the doctor’s argument?
(A) A fourth study comparing infants who were
currently sleeping with night-lights to infants
who were not did not find any correlation
between night-lights and nearsightedness.
(B) On average, young children who are already
very nearsighted are no more likely to sleep
with night-lights than young children who are
not already nearsighted.
(C) In a study involving children who had not
slept with night-lights as infants but had slept
with night-lights when they were older, most
of the children studied were not nearsighted.
(D) The two studies in which no correlation was
found did not examine enough children to
provide significant support for any
conclusion regarding a causal relationship
between night-lights and nearsightedness.
(E) In a fourth study involving 100 children who
were older than those in any of the first three
studies, several of the children who had slept
with night-lights as infants were nearsighted.
Correct Answer: D
D Weaken
The doctor concludes that the evidence suggests that, if it’s true that night-lights cause nearsightedness, the effect disappears with age. He cites as evidence the results of three separate studies concerning children who had or had not slept with night-lights as infants. The first study involved children who were younger than those in the other studies, and it was only in the first study that a correlation between sleeping with a night-light and nearsightedness was observed. The doctor’s language is very tentative, even in his conclusion, so the weakness of the argument must lie in the studies themselves.
A. No. The doctor doesn’t claim that sleeping with a night-light definitely causes nearsightedness.
B. No. The doctor doesn’t claim that sleeping with a night-light definitely causes nearsightedness, so this is irrelevant.
C. No. The evidence and conclusion concern the possible correlation between infants sleeping with night-lights and nearsightedness, not older children.
D. Yes. This answer choice attacks the studies themselves. If the sample size is not large enough, the studies can’t give enough support to the doctor’s claim that, if there is a causal relationship, the effect disappears with time.
E. No. There needs to be more than a few children who are still nearsighted to show anything definitively. These few might be nearsighted for other reasons.
- Superconductors are substances that conduct electricity
without resistance at low temperatures.Their use,
however,will never be economically feasible, unless there
is a substance that superconducts at a temperature above
minus 148 degrees Celsius.If there is such a substance,
that substance must be an alloy of niobium and
germanium. Unfortunately,such alloys superconduct at
temperatures no higher than minus 160 degrees Celsius.
If the statements above are true, which one of the
following must also be true?
(A) The use of superconductors will never be
economically feasible.
(B) If the alloys of niobium and germanium do
not superconduct at temperatures above
minus 148 degrees Celsius, then there are
other substances that will do so.
(C) The use of superconductors could be
economically feasible if there is a substance
that superconducts at temperatures below
minus 148 degrees Celsius.
(D) Alloys of niobium and germanium do not
superconduct at temperatures below minus
160 degrees Celsius.
(E) No use of alloys of niobium and germanium
will ever be economically feasible.
Correct Answer: A
A Inference
Connect the facts. Economically feasible → superconducts above –148°C; ~superconduct above –148°C → ~economically feasible. Superconducts above –148°C → alloy of niobium and germanium; ~ alloy of niobium and germanium → ~superconduct above –148°C. Alloys of niobium and germanium superconduct at –160°C or lower. Therefore, ~superconduct above –148°C → ~economically feasible.
A. Yes. Given the information above, this must be true.
B. No. According to the passage, if anything will superconduct above –148°C, it would have to be an alloy of niobium and germanium.
C. No. We know that, if they are going to be economically feasible at all, they must superconduct above –148°C.
D. No. We don’t know this.
E. No. This is too strong. Their use might be economically feasible in other areas besides superconducting.
Public health experts have waged a long-standing
educational campaign to get people to eat more
vegetables, which are known to help prevent cancer.
Unfortunately, the campaign has had little impact on
people’s diets. The reason is probably that many
people simply dislike the taste of most vegetables.
Thus, the campaign would probably be more
effective if it included information on ways to make
vegetables more appetizing.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?
(A) The campaign to get people to eat more
vegetables has had little impact on the diets of
most people who love the taste of vegetables.
(B) Some ways of making vegetables more
appetizing diminish vegetables’ ability to help
prevent cancer.
(C) People who find a few vegetables appetizing
typically do not eat substantially more
vegetables than do people who dislike the
taste of most vegetables.
(D) People who dislike the taste of most vegetables
would eat many more vegetables if they knew
how to make them more appetizing.
(E) The only way to make the campaign to get
people to eat more vegetables more effective
would be to ensure that anyone who at
present dislikes the taste of certain vegetables
learns to find those vegetables appetizing
Correct Answer: D
D Strengthen
There has been a long-standing campaign to get people to eat more vegetables. However, this campaign has had little impact on what people eat. The offered solution to make the campaign more effective is to include information on ways to make vegetables more appetizing, as the argument claims that the probable reason for the campaign’s ineffectiveness is that many people dislike the taste of most vegetables. The answer will strengthen the connection between the campaign’s ineffectiveness and people’s dislike of most vegetables as they now prepare them.
A. No. This weakens the argument. If it doesn’t make people who love vegetables eat more of them, then giving people information about how to make veggies tastier won’t make people eat more of them.
B. No. This weakens the argument. The campaign urges people to eat more vegetables in order to help prevent cancer. If eating the vegetables once they have been made more appetizing is less likely to prevent cancer, then the campaign will fail in its ultimate goal.
C. No. This weakens the argument.
D. Yes. If knowing how to make the vegetables more appetizing will cause people to eat more vegetables, then the campaign would likely be more effective if it gave out that information.
E. No. The campaign wants people to eat vegetables in general, not specific kinds of vegetables. If the people who disliked broccoli started to eat more Brussels sprouts and green beans, the campaign would still be more effective than it is now, even if these people never learned to like broccoli.
. Global surveys estimate the earth’s population of
nesting female leatherback turtles has fallen by more
than two-thirds in the past 15 years. Any species
whose population declines by more than two-thirds
in 15 years is in grave danger of extinction, so the
leatherback turtle is clearly in danger of extinction.
Which one of the following is an assumption that the
argument requires?
(A) The decline in the population of nesting
female leatherback turtles is proportional to
the decline in the leatherback turtle
population as a whole.
(B) If the global population of leatherback turtles
falls by more than two-thirds over the next 15
years, the species will eventually become
extinct.
(C) The global population of leatherback turtles
consists in roughly equal numbers of females
and males.
(D) Very few leatherback turtles exist in captivity.
(E) The only way to ensure the continued survival
of leatherback turtles in the wild is to breed
them in captivity
Correct Answer: A
A Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that the leatherback turtle is in danger of extinction, based on evidence about nesting female leatherback turtles. This population of turtles has fallen by more than two-thirds in the past 15 years. Any species whose population declines by that amount in that amount of time is in grave danger of extinction. There needs to be a connection between the statistics for nesting female leatherback turtles and the leatherback turtle population as a whole.
A. Yes. This connects the decline of nesting female leatherback turtles to a similar decline in the leatherback turtle population as a whole.
B. No. This is too strong. The argument never claims that the turtles will actually become extinct.
C. No. This is too general. The argument needs a connection between the numbers of nesting female leatherbacks and the leatherback population as a whole. This compares the numbers of females in general with the number of males.
D. No. The argument doesn’t address turtles in captivity.
E. No. The argument doesn’t attempt to solve the problem; it just points out the problem.
Pure science—research with no immediate
commercial or technological application—is a public
good. Such research requires a great amount of
financial support and does not yield profits in the
short term. Since private corporations will not
undertake to support activities that do not yield
short-term profits, a society that wants to reap the
benefits of pure science ought to use public funds to
support such research.
The claim about private corporations serves which
one of the following functions in the argument?
(A) It expresses the conclusion of the argument.
(B) It explains what is meant by the expression
“pure research” in the context of the
argument.
(C) It distracts attention from the point at issue by
introducing a different but related goal.
(D) It supports the conclusion by ruling out an
alternative way of achieving the benefits
mentioned.
(E) It illustrates a case where unfortunate
consequences result from a failure to accept
the recommendation offered.
Correct Answer: D
D Reasoning
The argument concludes that a society that wants to reap the benefits of pure science ought to use public funds to support such research. The argument defines pure science as research with no immediate commercial or technological application and claims that it is a public good. Because of its nature, pure science needs a lot of monetary support and doesn’t make profits in the short term. The argument then eliminates another possible funding avenue for pure science by claiming that private corporations will not fund activities that do not yield short-term profits.
A. No. The claim about private corporations is not the conclusion.
B. No. The claim about private corporations does not help define “pure research.”
C. No. The claim about private corporations does not address a different goal.
D. Yes. This claim eliminates another possible funding source for pure science, which benefits the public.
E. No. This claim is not an example, so it doesn’t illustrate a case.
- Some doctors believe that a certain drug reduces the
duration of episodes of vertigo, claiming that the
average duration of vertigo for people who suffer
from it has decreased since the drug was introduced.
However, during a recent three-month shortage of
the drug, there was no significant change in the
average duration of vertigo. Thus, we can conclude
that the drug has no effect on the duration of vertigo.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the argument?
(A) If a drug made a difference in the duration of
vertigo, a three-month shortage of that drug
would have caused a significant change in the
average duration of vertigo.
(B) If there were any change in the average
duration of vertigo since the introduction of
the drug, it would have demonstrated that the
drug has an effect on the duration of vertigo.
(C) A period of time greater than three months
would not have been better to use in judging
whether the drug has an effect on the
duration of vertigo.
(D) Changes in diet and smoking habits are not
responsible for any change in the average
duration of vertigo since the introduction of
the drug.
(E) There are various significant factors other than
drugs that decrease the duration of vertigo
for many people who suffer from it.
Correct Answer: A
A Necessary Assumption
The author disagrees with the doctors who believe that a specific drug reduces the duration of episodes of vertigo, concluding that the drug has no effect on the duration of vertigo. The author cites the three-month shortage of the drug, during which there was no significant change in the average duration of vertigo, as evidence. The answer choice will indicate the drug’s effects would have worn off within three months.
A. Yes. This states that the reduction of duration of vertigo supposedly brought about by the drug would have been at least somewhat reversed in three month’s time.
B. No. Some doctors claim that there has been a reduction in the duration of vertigo. This weakens the argument.
C. No. This is close but it doesn’t go far enough. If no amount of time would have been good to use in judging whether the drug has an effect on the duration of vertigo, then three months would have been just as ineffective as five years to use in judging this.
D. No. This doesn’t address the time period wherein some people had to stop taking the drug.
E. No. This weakens the argument, if anything. If there were other significant factors that decrease the duration of vertigo, then stopping the drug for three months wouldn’t necessarily cause an increase in the duration of one’s vertigo.
Melinda: Hazard insurance decreases an individual’s
risk by judiciously spreading the risk among
many policyholders.
Jack: I disagree. It makes sense for me to buy fire
insurance for my house, but I don’t see how
doing so lessens the chances that my house will
burn down.
Jack’s response most clearly trades on an ambiguity
in which one of the following expressions used by
Melinda?
(A) judiciously spreading
(B) many policyholders
(C) risk
(D) decreases
(E) hazard insurance
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
Melinda concludes that hazard insurance decreases an individual’s risk. Her evidence is that the risk is judiciously spread among many policyholders. Jack disagrees with Melinda’s conclusion. Jack concludes that hazard insurance makes sense but that having, say, fire insurance doesn’t seem to decrease the risk of his house burning down. Melinda and Jack are talking about different kinds of risk. Melinda is referring to monetary risk and Jack is referring to the risk of some specific event occurring.
A. No. Jack doesn’t address this part of Melinda’s argument.
B. No. Jack doesn’t address other policyholders. He’s just interested in one policyholder: himself.
C. Yes. Jack claims that the risk of his own house burning down won’t decrease if he has insurance, while Melinda speaks of the monetary risk that such events tend to bring about.
D. No. Both use this term in the same way.
E. No. Both use this expression in the same way.
- It has been suggested that a television set should be
thought of as nothing more than “a toaster with
pictures” and that since we let market forces
determine the design of kitchen appliances we can let
them determine what is seen on television. But that
approach is too simple. Some governmental control
is needed, since television is so important politically
and culturally. It is a major source of commercial
entertainment. It plays an important political role
because it is the primary medium through which
many voters obtain information about current
affairs. It is a significant cultural force in that in the
average home it is on for more than five hours a day.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the role played in the argument by the claim that
television is so important politically and culturally?
(A) It states a view that the argument as a whole is
designed to discredit.
(B) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
in support of the claim that a television set
should be thought of as nothing more than “a
toaster with pictures” and for which the claim
that we can let market forces determine what
is seen on television is offered as support.
(C) It is a premise that is offered in support of the
claim that we let market forces determine the
design of kitchen appliances.
(D) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
in support of the claim that some
governmental control of television is needed
and for which the claim that the television is
on for more than five hours a day in the
average home is offered as partial support.
(E) It is a premise that is offered in support of the
claim that television is the primary medium
through which many voters obtain
information about current affairs.
Correct Answer: D
D Reasoning
Some people make an analogy between a television and other kitchen appliances. These people suggest that, since we let market forces determine the design of kitchen appliances, we can let market forces determine what appears on television. The argument disagrees with this conclusion, claiming that this view is too simple, and that some government control is needed. It is too simple because television is a major source of political information and it is also a significant cultural force, as it is on for more than five hours a day in most households.
A. No. This claim supports the argument’s conclusion.
B. No. This claim is meant to discredit the claim that a television should be thought of as a “toaster with pictures.”
C. No. It does not support the claim about kitchen appliances.
D. Yes. This claim helps support the argument’s conclusion against those who think there shouldn’t be any governmental control. The claim that the television is on for more than five hours a day in the average home is meant to show that the television is so culturally important.
E. No. The claim that television is the primary medium through which many voters obtain information about current affairs partially supports the claim that television is so politically and culturally important, not the other way around.
. Earthworms, vital to the health of soil, prefer soil that
is approximately neutral on the acid-to-alkaline scale.
Since decomposition of dead plants makes the top layer
of soil highly acidic, application of crushed limestone,
which is highly alkaline, to the soil’s surface should
make the soil more attractive to earthworms.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) As far as soil health is concerned, aiding the
decomposition of dead plants is the most
important function performed by earthworms.
(B) After its application to the soil’s surface,
crushed limestone stays in the soil’s top layer
long enough to neutralize some of the top
layer’s acidity.
(C) Crushed limestone contains available calcium
and magnesium, both of which are just as
vital as earthworms to healthy soil.
(D) By itself, acidity of soil does nothing to hasten
decomposition of dead plants.
(E) Alkaline soil is significantly more likely to
benefit from an increased earthworm
population than is highly acidic soil.
Correct Answer: B
B Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that application of highly alkaline crushed limestone to the soil’s surface should make the soil more attractive to earthworms. Decomposition of dead plants makes the top layer of soil highly acidic and earthworms, which are vital to soil’s heath, prefer soil that is approximately neutral on the acid-to-alkaline scale.
A. No. This is too strong. Aiding the decomposition of dead plants doesn’t have to be the most important function performed by earthworms in order for the conclusion to follow.
B. Yes. If the limestone immediately washed off, it wouldn’t have a chance to neutralize the top layer’s acidity and so limestone application wouldn’t make the soil’s surface more attractive to earthworms.
C. No. The argument is focused on the interaction between earthworms and the soil.
D. No. The argument is focused on the interaction between earthworms and the soil.
E. No. The argument is focused on a method to make the soil more neutral, in order to make it more attractive to earthworms. It doesn’t discuss which type of non-neutral soil is more likely to benefit from earthworms.
Salesperson: When a salesperson is successful, it is
certain that that person has been in sales for at
least three years. This is because to succeed as
a salesperson, one must first establish a strong
client base, and studies have shown that
anyone who spends at least three years
developing a client base can eventually make a
comfortable living in sales.
The reasoning in the salesperson’s argument is
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it fails to
consider the possibility that
(A) salespeople who have spent three years
developing a client base might not yet be
successful in sales
(B) some salespeople require fewer than three
years in which to develop a strong client base
(C) a salesperson who has not spent three years
developing a client base may not succeed in
sales
(D) it takes longer than three years for a
salesperson to develop a strong client base
(E) few salespeople can afford to spend three years
building a client base
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
This is diagrammable. Conclusion: successful salesperson → been in sales for at least three years. Evidence: successful salesperson → establish a strong client base; at least three years developing a client base → eventually make a comfortable living in sales. The argument is confusing something that is sufficient for being a successful salesperson with something that is necessary for being a successful salesperson.
A. No. The evidence states that they will eventually be successful in sales.
B. Yes. The argument claims that successful salespeople must have spent at least three years in sales, while the evidence states that, if salespeople spend at least three years in sales, they will eventually make a comfortable living in sales. It is confusing something that is sufficient for being successful in sales with something that is necessary for being successful in sales.
C. No. This is the contrapositive of the conclusion.
D. No. The argument claims that salespeople need to spend at least three years in sales, so it allows for the fact that it might take longer than three years to develop a strong client base.
E. No. The argument doesn’t make any claims as to how many salespeople are able to do this.
Jurist: A nation’s laws must be viewed as expressions
of a moral code that transcends those laws and
serves as a measure of their adequacy.
Otherwise, a society can have no sound basis
for preferring any given set of laws to all
others. Thus, any moral prohibition against
the violation of statutes must leave room for
exceptions.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred
from the jurist’s statements?
(A) Those who formulate statutes are not primarily
concerned with morality when they do so.
(B) Sometimes criteria other than the criteria
derived from a moral code should be used in
choosing one set of laws over another.
(C) Unless it is legally forbidden ever to violate
some moral rules, moral behavior and
compliance with laws are indistinguishable.
(D) There is no statute that a nation’s citizens have
a moral obligation to obey.
(E) A nation’s laws can sometimes come into
conflict with the moral code they express.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. The passage doesn’t mention the motivations of the statute-makers.
B. No. The passage claims that, in order to have a sound basis for preferring a given set of laws to any others, laws must be viewed as expressions of a transcendental moral code.
C. No. The passage suggests that the moral rules have the preferred status, not the laws. Also, the last sentence suggests that moral behavior and compliance with laws are at least sometimes distinguishable.
D. No. This is too strong. The passage doesn’t say that there is no stature that the citizens have a moral obligation to obey.
E. Yes. If the laws are to be seen as expression of a moral code that has precedence over these laws, and that measures the adequacy of these laws, then there shouldn’t be an absolute moral prohibition against the violation of statutes. What if, for example, there was a statute that wasn’t in accord with the moral code?
- An association between two types of conditions does
not establish that conditions of one type cause
conditions of the other type. Even persistent and
inviolable association is inconclusive; such
association is often due to conditions of both types
being effects of the same kind of cause.
Which one of the following judgments most closely
conforms to the principle stated above?
(A) Some people claim that rapid growth of the
money supply is what causes inflation. But
this is a naive view. What these people do
not realize is that growth in the money supply
and inflation are actually one and the same
phenomenon.
(B) People who have high blood pressure tend to
be overweight. But before we draw any
inferences, we should consider that an
unhealthy lifestyle can cause high blood
pressure, and weight gain can result from
living unhealthily.
(C) In some areas, there is a high correlation
between ice cream consumption and the
crime rate. Some researchers have proposed
related third factors, but we cannot rule out
that the correlation is purely coincidental.
(D) People’s moods seem to vary with the color of
the clothes they wear. Dark colors are
associated with gloomy moods, and bright
colors are associated with cheerful moods.
This correlation resolves nothing, however.
We cannot say whether it is the colors that
cause the moods or the converse.
(E) Linguists propose that the similarities between
Greek and Latin are due to their common
descent from an earlier language. But how are
we to know that the similarities are not
actually due to the two languages having
borrowed structures from one another, as
with the languages Marathi and Telegu?
Correct Answer: B
B Principle Match
The principle concerns correlation versus causation: that is, that persistent correlation does not conclusively prove a causal relationship because this correlation is often due to a common cause. The answer choice will be an example of this.
A. No. Supply and inflation are the same phenomenon, which is different from them having a common cause.
B. Yes. The unhealthy lifestyle is likely the common cause for both high blood pressure and being overweight, so we shouldn’t necessarily think that being overweight causes high blood pressure. This is an example of the principle in the passage.
C. No. This doesn’t propose a common cause for ice cream consumption and high crime rates.
D. No. This doesn’t propose a common cause for mood and colors worn.
E. No. This questions a proposed common cause, claiming that the two languages borrowed from each other instead.
- People who have habitually slept less than six hours a
night and then begin sleeping eight or more hours a
night typically begin to feel much less anxious.
Therefore, most people who sleep less than six hours
a night can probably cause their anxiety levels to fall
by beginning to sleep at least eight hours a night.
The reasoning in which one of the following arguments
is most similar to that in the argument above?
(A) When a small company first begins to
advertise on the Internet, its financial
situation generally improves. This shows that
most small companies that have never
advertised on the Internet can probably
improve their financial situation by doing so.
(B) Certain small companies that had never
previously advertised on the Internet have
found that their financial situations began to
improve after they started to do so. So most
small companies can probably improve their
financial situations by starting to advertise on
the Internet.
(C) It must be true that any small company that
increases its Internet advertising will improve
its financial situation, since most small
companies that advertise on the Internet
improved their financial situations soon after
they first began to do so.
(D) Usually, the financial situation of a small
company that has never advertised on the
Internet will improve only if that company
starts to advertise on the Internet. Therefore,
a typical small company that has never
advertised on the Internet can probably
improve its financial situation by doing so.
(E) A small company’s financial situation usually
improves soon after that company first
begins to advertise on the Internet. Thus,
most small companies that have never
advertised on the Internet could probably
become financially strong.
Correct Answer: A
A Parallel
The argument concludes that most people who sleep less than six hours a night can probably cause their anxiety levels to fall by beginning to sleep at least eight hours a night. The evidence is a correlation between a drop in anxiety levels of people who have habitually slept less than six hours a night but who start sleeping eight or more hours a night.
A. Yes. This concludes that most small companies that have never advertised on the Internet can probably improve their financial situation by advertising on it. The evidence is a correlation between an improvement in finances and small companies who haven’t previously advertised on the Internet starting to do so.
B. No. This is too strong. This concludes that most small companies can probably improve their financial situations by advertising on the Internet, on the basis of evidence that certain small companies improved their financial situations by doing so.
C. No. This is too strong. This concludes that it must be true that any small company that increases Internet advertising will improve its financial situation. The above argument doesn’t claim that all people will decrease their anxiety.
D. No. This claims that it is necessary for a small company to start to advertise on the Internet in order to improve their financial situation. The above argument claims that starting to sleep more than eight hours a night is sufficient for a reduction in anxiety.
E. No. This is too strong. This concludes that most small companies that have never advertised on the Internet but start doing so could probably become financially strong. The above argument claims that people’s anxiety levels might drop, not that they will become anxiety-free.
Biologist: Lions and tigers are so similar to each
other anatomically that their skeletons are
virtually indistinguishable. But their behaviors
are known to be quite different: tigers hunt
only as solitary individuals, whereas lions hunt
in packs. Thus, paleontologists cannot
reasonably infer solely on the basis of skeletal
anatomy that extinct predatory animals, such
as certain dinosaurs, hunted in packs.
The conclusion is properly drawn if which one of the
following is assumed?
(A) The skeletons of lions and tigers are at least
somewhat similar in structure in certain key
respects to the skeletons of at least some
extinct predatory animals.
(B) There have existed at least two species of
extinct predatory dinosaurs that were so
similar to each other that their skeletal
anatomy is virtually indistinguishable.
(C) If skeletal anatomy alone is ever an inadequate
basis for inferring a particular species’
hunting behavior, then it is never reasonable
to infer, based on skeletal anatomy alone, that
a species of animals hunted in packs.
(D) If any two animal species with virtually
indistinguishable skeletal anatomy exhibit
quite different hunting behaviors, then it is
never reasonable to infer, based solely on the
hunting behavior of those species, that the
two species have the same skeletal anatomy.
(E) If it is unreasonable to infer, solely on the basis
of differences in skeletal anatomy, that extinct
animals of two distinct species differed in
their hunting behavior, then the skeletal
remains of those two species are virtually
indistinguishable.
Correct Answer: C
C Assumption Sufficient
The biologist concludes that paleontologists cannot reasonably infer that extinct predatory animals hunted in packs, solely on the basis of skeletal anatomy. The biologist cites the differences between the hunting patterns of lions and tigers, whose skeletons are virtually indistinguishable. Tigers hunt alone, while lions hunt in packs. The credited response will strengthen the analogy between tigers and lions, on the one hand, and the skeletons of extinct predatory animals, on the other.
A. No. The skeletons themselves don’t need to be similar. The important part of the analogy is the similarity in the skeletons of creatures and their difference in hunting habits.
B. No. This doesn’t address the difference in hunting habits.
C. Yes. The biologist claims that skeletal anatomy alone is an inadequate basis for inferring the hunting behavior of tigers and lions. So, given this answer choice, it is not reasonable to infer that extinct predatory animals hunted in packs, based on skeletal anatomy alone.
D. No. According to the argument, lions and tigers have virtually indistinguishable anatomy. Plus, the argument makes a claim about hunting behaviors based on skeletal anatomy, not the other way around.
E. No. Lions and tigers are not extinct. Also, the argument makes a claim about hunting behaviors based on skeletal anatomy, not the other way around.
- Doctor: Being overweight has long been linked with a
variety of health problems, such as high blood
pressure and heart disease. But recent research
conclusively shows that people who are slightly
overweight are healthier than those who are
considerably underweight. Therefore, to be
healthy, it suffices to be slightly overweight.
The argument’s reasoning is flawed because the
argument
(A) ignores medical opinions that tend to lead to a
conclusion contrary to the one drawn
(B) never adequately defines what is meant by
“healthy”
(C) does not take into account the fact that
appropriate weight varies greatly from person
to person
(D) holds that if a person lacks a property that
would suffice to make the person unhealthy,
then that person must be healthy
(E) mistakes a merely relative property for one
that is absolute
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
The doctor concludes that being slightly overweight is sufficient to be healthy. The doctor cites recent research that conclusively shows that people who are slightly overweight are healthier than those who are considerably underweight. He bases an absolute—being healthy—on a comparison: which of two groups of people is healthier.
A. No. The doctor acknowledges the previous medical opinions to the contrary but thinks that the new evidence supports his own conclusion.
B. No. This is never the credited response.
C. No. The doctor never discusses absolute numbers in terms of people’s weights.
D. No. The doctor never discusses a property that would be sufficient to make people unhealthy.
E. Yes. Being healthier is a merely relative property, while being healthy is an absolute property.
The trees always blossom in May if April rainfall
exceeds 5 centimeters. If April rainfall exceeds 5
centimeters, then the reservoirs are always full on
May 1. The reservoirs were not full this May 1 and
thus the trees will not blossom this May.
Which one of the following exhibits a flawed pattern
of reasoning most similar to the flawed pattern of
reasoning in the argument above?
(A) If the garlic is in the pantry, then it is still
fresh. And the potatoes are on the basement
stairs if the garlic is in the pantry. The
potatoes are not on the basement stairs, so
the garlic is not still fresh.
(B) The jar reaches optimal temperature if it is
held over the burner for 2 minutes. The
contents of the jar liquefy immediately if the
jar is at optimal temperature. The jar was held
over the burner for 2 minutes, so the contents
of the jar must have liquefied immediately.
(C) A book is classified “special” if it is more than
200 years old. If a book was set with wooden
type, then it is more than 200 years old. This
book is not classified “special,” so it is not
printed with wooden type.
(D) The mower will operate only if the engine is
not flooded. The engine is flooded if the foot
pedal is depressed. The foot pedal is not
depressed, so the mower will operate.
(E) If the kiln is too hot, then the plates will crack.
If the plates crack, then the artisan must redo
the order. The artisan need not redo the
order. Thus, the kiln was not too hot.
Correct Answer: A
A Parallel Flaw
This argument is diagrammable. April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters → trees blossom in May; ~trees blossom in May → ~April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters. April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters → reservoirs full on May 1; ~reservoirs full on May 1 → ~April rainfall exceeds 5 centimeters. Conclusion: ~reservoirs full on May 1 → ~trees blossom in May. The conclusion claims that the reservoirs not being full on May 1 is sufficient to know that the trees will not blossom in May, while the evidence does not support this claim. The argument doesn’t flip the terms in the contrapositive of the first premise.
A. Yes. Garlic in pantry → still fresh; → ~still fresh ~garlic in pantry. Garlic in pantry → potatoes on basement stairs; ~potatoes on stairs → ~garlic in pantry. Conclusion: ~potatoes on stairs → ~garlic still fresh.
B. No. Held over burner for two minutes → optimal temperature; ~optimal temperature → ~held over burner for two minutes. Optimal temperature contents liquefy immediately; ~liquefy immediately → ~optimal temperature. Conclusion: held over burner for two minutes → liquefied immediately. This argument is not flawed.
C. No. More than 200 years old → classified “special”; ~classified “special” → ~more than 200 years old. Set with wooden type → more than 200 years old; ~more than 200 years old → ~set with wooden type. Conclusion: ~classified “special” → ~printed with wooden type. This argument is not flawed.
D. No. Mower operates → ~engine flooded; engine flooded → ~mower operates. Foot pedal depressed → engine flooded; → ~engine flooded ~foot pedal depressed. Conclusion: ~foot pedal depressed mower operates. This argument is flawed, but not in the same manner as the original argument.
E. No. Kiln too hot → plates crack; ~plates crack → ~kiln too hot. Plates crack → redo; → ~redo ~plates crack. Conclusion: ~redo → ~kiln too hot. This argument is not flawed.
Robust crops not only withstand insect attacks more
successfully than other crops, they are also less likely
to be attacked in the first place, since insects tend to
feed on weaker plants. Killing insects with pesticides
does not address the underlying problem of inherent
vulnerability to damage caused by insect attacks.
Thus, a better way to reduce the vulnerability of
agricultural crops to insect pest damage is to grow
those crops in good soil—soil with adequate
nutrients, organic matter, and microbial activity.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) The application of nutrients and organic
matter to farmland improves the soil’s
microbial activity.
(B) Insects never attack crops grown in soil
containing adequate nutrients, organic
matter, and microbial activity.
(C) The application of pesticides to weak crops
fails to reduce the extent to which they are
damaged by insect pests.
(D) Crops that are grown in good soil tend to be
more robust than other crops.
(E) Growing crops without the use of pesticides
generally produces less robust plants than
when pesticides are used.
Correct Answer: D
D Necessary Assumption
The argument solves a problem with killing insects with pesticides. Using pesticides does not address the underlying problem of weaker plants being more vulnerable to damage caused by insect attacks. This is because insects tend to feed on weaker plants, while more robust plants are less likely to be attacked in the first place. More robust plants are also more likely to withstand insects’ attacks more successfully. Instead of using pesticides, the argument concludes that a better way to reduce the vulnerability of crops to insect damage is to grow the crops in good soil. The credited response will close the gap between robust plants and growing plants in good soil.
A. No. This doesn’t address the robustness of the plants.
B. No. This is too strong. The argument claims that growing crops in good soil will reduce the damage, not eliminate it.
C. No. This is too strong. The argument claims that growing crops in good soil is a better way to reduce the damage. The pesticides just need to be less effective than growing crops in good soil.
D. Yes. This connects growing crops in good soil to their increased robustness.
E. No. This would weaken the argument, as the argument advocates growing crops in good soil as opposed to using pesticides.
People perceive color by means of certain
photopigments in the retina that are sensitive to
certain wavelengths of light. People who are colorblind are unable to distinguish between red and
green, for example, due to an absence of certain
photopigments. What is difficult to explain, however,
is that in a study of people who easily distinguish red
from green, 10 to 20 percent failed to report
distinctions between many shades of red that the
majority of the subjects were able to distinguish.
Each of the following, if true, helps to explain the
result of the study cited above EXCEPT:
(A) People with abnormally low concentrations of
the photopigments for perceiving red can
perceive fewer shades of red than people with
normal concentrations.
(B) Questions that ask subjects to distinguish
between different shades of the same color are
difficult to phrase with complete clarity.
(C) Some people are uninterested in fine
gradations of color and fail to notice or
report differences they do not care about.
(D) Some people are unable to distinguish red
from green due to an absence in the retina of
the photopigment sensitive to green.
(E) Some people fail to report distinctions
between certain shades of red because they
lack the names for those shades.
Correct Answer: D
D Resolve/Explain
Fact 1: People perceive color by means of certain photopigments in the retina that are sensitive to certain wavelengths of light. Fact 2: Of people who easily distinguish between red and green, 10 to 20 percent in a certain study failed to report distinctions between many shades of red that most subjects were able to distinguish.
A. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent could distinguish between red and green, but didn’t report distinctions between many shades of red.
B. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent failed to report distinctions. They might not have understood the questions.
C. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent failed to report distinctions. They could potentially see them but they just failed to notice them because they don’t care.
D. Yes. The people in the study were easily able to distinguish red from green, so this evidence doesn’t help explain the result of the study.
E. No. This would explain why 10 to 20 percent failed to report distinctions. They might not have had the vocabulary to report such distinctions.
Occultist: The issue of whether astrology is a science
is easily settled: it is both an art and a science.
The scientific components are the complicated
mathematics and the astronomical knowledge
needed to create an astrological chart. The art
is in the synthesis of a multitude of factors and
symbols into a coherent statement of their
relevance to an individual.
The reasoning in the occultist’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
any science must involve complicated
mathematics
(B) incorrectly infers that a practice is a science
merely from the fact that the practice has
some scientific components
(C) denies the possibility that astrology involves
components that are neither artistic nor
scientific
(D) incorrectly infers that astronomical knowledge
is scientific merely from the fact that such
knowledge is needed to create an astrological
chart
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
any art must involve the synthesis of a
multitude of factors and symbols
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
The occultist concludes that astrology is both an art and a science. To create an astrological chart, complicated mathematics and astronomical knowledge are needed, which are scientific components. The synthesis of a multitude of factors and symbols into a coherent statement is the art component. The occultist is making a part-whole mistake. That the parts have certain qualities does not mean that the whole has these qualities.
A. No. The occultist doesn’t address all sciences.
B. Yes. The occultist claims that astrology is a science because it has scientific components.
C. No. The occultist doesn’t claim that the components cited are the only components of astrology.
D. No. The occultist doesn’t claim that astronomical knowledge is scientific just because it is used to create an astrological chart. The occultist states from the onset that astronomical knowledge is scientific.
E. No. The occultist doesn’t address all arts.
At many electronics retail stores, the consumer has
the option of purchasing product warranties that
extend beyond the manufacturer’s warranty.
However, consumers are generally better off not
buying extended warranties. Most problems with
electronic goods occur within the period covered by
the manufacturer’s warranty.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument?
(A) Problems with electronic goods that occur
after the manufacturer’s warranty expires are
generally inexpensive to fix in comparison
with the cost of an extended warranty.
(B) Because problems are so infrequent after the
manufacturer’s warranty expires, extended
warranties on electronic goods are generally
inexpensive.
(C) Most of those who buy extended warranties on
electronic goods do so because special
circumstances make their item more likely to
break than is usually the case.
(D) Some extended warranties on electronic goods
cover the product for the period covered by
the manufacturer’s warranty as well as
subsequent years.
(E) Retail stores sell extended warranties in part
because consumers who purchase them are
likely to purchase other products from the
same store.
Correct Answer: A
A Strengthen
The argument concludes that consumers are generally better off not buying the extended warranties that are offered for sale at many electronics stores. While these warranties extend beyond the manufacturer’s warranty, most problems with electronic goods occur within the span of time covered by the manufacturer’s warranty. The credited response will eliminate any other reasons—such as cost—that would make the warranties worthwhile for customers.
A. Yes. If the extended warranty is more expensive than the cost to fix the problems the electronic goods are likely to have, then there seems to be no good reason to buy the warranty.
B. No. This weakens the argument, if anything. If the warranties are generally inexpensive, they might be worthwhile to buy, just in case your electronics do have a problem after the manufacturer’s warranty expires.
C. No. This is irrelevant.
D. No. This is irrelevant.
E. No. The reason that retail stores sell the warranties doesn’t matter.
- Since the 1970s, environmentalists have largely
succeeded in convincing legislators to enact extensive
environmental regulations. Yet, as environmentalists
themselves not only admit but insist, the condition of
the environment is worsening, not improving.
Clearly, more environmental regulations are not the
solution to the environment’s problems.
The argument’s reasoning is flawed because the
argument
(A) attacks the environmentalists themselves
instead of their positions
(B) presumes, without providing warrant, that
only an absence of environmental regulations
could prevent environmental degradation
(C) fails to consider the possibility that the
condition of the environment would have
worsened even more without environmental
regulations
(D) fails to justify its presumption that reducing
excessive regulations is more important than
preserving the environment
(E) fails to consider the views of the
environmentalists’ opponents
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The argument concludes that more environmental regulations are not the solution to the environment’s problems. This is because, as environmentalists insist, the condition of the environment is worsening, even though environmentalists have been successful in convincing legislators to enact extensive environmental regulations. However, there is no evidence to suggest that these regulations have had no effect; perhaps the condition of the environment is not as bad as it would have been had there been no environmental regulations.
A. No. There is no personal attack.
B. No. This is too strong. The argument maintains that the environmental regulations are not the solution to the problem, but it never claims that the prevention of environmental degradation requires the absence of environmental regulations.
C. Yes. It is certainly possible that the environment would have worsened even more than it did without environmental regulations.
D. No. The importance of reducing regulations versus the importance of the environment is not discussed.
E. No. The argument’s author is an opponent of the environmentalists.
Although it is unwise to take a developmental view of
an art like music—as if Beethoven were an advance
over Josquin, or Miles Davis an advance over Louis
Armstrong—there are ways in which it makes sense
to talk about musical knowledge growing over time.
We certainly know more about certain sounds than
was known five centuries ago; that is, we understand
how sounds that earlier composers avoided can be
used effectively in musical compositions. For
example, we now know how the interval of the third,
which is considered dissonant, can be used in
compositions to create consonant musical phrases.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the argument?
(A) Sounds that were never used in past musical
compositions are used today.
(B) Sounds that were once considered dissonant
are more pleasing to modern listeners.
(C) It is inappropriate to take a developmental
view of music.
(D) It is unwise to say that one composer is better
than another.
(E) Our understanding of music can improve over
the course of time.
Correct Answer: E
E Main Point
The argument concludes that there are ways in which it makes sense to talk about musical knowledge growing over time. While it is not advocating a developmental view of music, the argument claims that we certainly know more about how to effectively use certain sounds that earlier composers avoided in musical compositions. An example is the interval of the third.
A. No. There were sounds that were avoided, but the argument doesn’t discuss sounds that were never used.
B. No. The argument doesn’t claim anything about what is more pleasing to modern listeners.
C. No. This is a qualifier to the conclusion but not the conclusion itself.
D. No. The argument doesn’t discuss all value judgments in music.
E. Yes. This is a restatement of the main point.
A recent test of an electric insect control device
discovered that, of the more than 300 insects killed
during one 24-hour period, only 12 were mosquitoes.
Thus this type of device may kill many insects, but
will not significantly aid in controlling the
potentially dangerous mosquito population.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) A careful search discovered no live mosquitoes
in the vicinity of the device after the test.
(B) A very large proportion of the insects that
were attracted to the device were not
mosquitoes.
(C) The device is more likely to kill beneficial
insects than it is to kill harmful insects.
(D) Many of the insects that were killed by the
device are mosquito-eating insects.
(E) The device does not succeed in killing all of the
insects that it attracts.
Correct Answer: A
A Weaken
The argument interprets the evidence concerning the electric insect control device to indicate that this type of electric insect control device may kill many insects but will not significantly aid in controlling the potentially dangerous mosquito population. The evidence is that, during a 24-hour period, the device killed more than 300 insects but killed only 12 mosquitoes. The argument is overlooking the fact that the actual number of mosquitoes killed might not indicate effectiveness against mosquitoes as well as the percentage of mosquitoes killed. The credited response will widen this gap.
A. Yes. If the device killed all of the mosquitoes present in the area, then it is highly effective at killing mosquitoes. The small number killed just means that there weren’t many mosquitoes in the area during that 24-hour period.
B. No. The proportion of insects attracted to the device is not relevant.
C. No. This strengthens the argument, if anything. If it is less likely to kill harmful insects, then it will be less likely to kill the potentially harmful mosquitoes.
D. No. This strengthens the argument. If the device kills a lot of mosquito-eating insects, then there will be less of them to help control the mosquitoes.
E. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned specifically with the mosquitoes.
- Brain-scanning technology provides information about
processes occurring in the brain. For this information
to help researchers understand how the brain enables
us to think, however, researchers must be able to rely
on the accuracy of the verbal reports given by subjects
while their brains are being scanned. Otherwise brainscan data gathered at a given moment might not
contain information about what the subject reports
thinking about at that moment, but instead about
some different set of thoughts.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the argument?
(A) It is unlikely that brain-scanning technology
will ever enable researchers to understand
how the brain enables us to think.
(B) There is no way that researchers can know for
certain that subjects whose brains are being
scanned are accurately reporting what they
are thinking.
(C) Because subjects whose brains are being
scanned may not accurately report what they
are thinking, the results of brain-scanning
research should be regarded with great
skepticism.
(D) Brain scans can provide information about the
accuracy of the verbal reports of subjects
whose brains are being scanned.
(E) Information from brain scans can help
researchers understand how the brain enables
us to think only if the verbal reports of those
whose brains are being scanned are accurate.
Correct Answer: E
E Main Point
Connecting the first two sentences of the argument results in the main point. Brain-scanning technology provides information about brain processes but only if researchers can rely on the accuracy of the verbal reports given by the subjects while the scan is going on. If the reports are inaccurate, the data might not contain information about the thoughts reported.
A. No. The argument does not make claims about the likelihood of the technology enabling researchers to understand how the brain enables us to think.
B. No. This raises a potential problem concerning the accuracy of the reports, but it is not the conclusion of the argument.
C. No. The argument does not make claims about how skeptically we should regard the results of brain-scanning research.
D. No. The argument never states this.
E. Yes. This is a restatement of the first two sentences of the argument, where the point of the argument is located.
- Ornithologist: This bird species is widely thought to
subsist primarily on vegetation, but my research
shows that this belief is erroneous. While
concealed in a well-camouflaged blind, I have
observed hundreds of these birds every morning
over a period of months, and I estimate that
over half of what they ate consisted of insects
and other animal food sources.
The reasoning in the ornithologist’s argument is
most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) assumes, without providing justification, that
the feeding behavior of the birds observed
was not affected by the ornithologist’s act of
observation
(B) fails to specify the nature of the animal food
sources, other than insects, that were
consumed by the birds
(C) adopts a widespread belief about the birds’
feeding habits without considering the
evidence that led to the belief
(D) neglects the possibility that the birds have
different patterns of food consumption
during different parts of the day and night
(E) fails to consider the possibility that the birds’
diet has changed since the earlier belief about
their diet was formed
Correct Answer: D
D Flaw
The ornithologist disagrees with those who think that a certain bird species subsists primarily on vegetation. The ornithologist estimates that over half of what these birds eat consists of insects and other animal food sources. The ornithologist bases this claim on the observation of hundreds of these birds every morning while concealed in a well-camouflaged blind. The ornithologist has observed the birds at the same time every day. If someone did that to humans, isn’t it likely that they would conclude that humans primarily subsist on breakfast cereal and orange juice?
A. No. The ornithologist mentions that he/she was concealed in a well-camouflaged blind.
B. No. This doesn’t matter. As long as they were animal food sources, they support the ornithologist’s conclusion.
C. No. The ornithologist does not adopt a widespread belief; he actually looks to counter one with his own research.
D. Yes. The ornithologist observed the birds only in the morning. The birds might eat a lot of animals in the morning and then eat exclusively vegetation throughout the rest of the day.
E. No. The belief cited is about what the birds do eat, not what they have eaten in the past.
- Educator: Only those students who are genuinely
curious about a topic can successfully learn
about that topic. They find the satisfaction of
their curiosity intrinsically gratifying, and
appreciate the inherent rewards of the learning
process itself. However, almost no child enters
the classroom with sufficient curiosity to learn
successfully all that the teacher must instill. A
teacher’s job, therefore, _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the educator’s argument?
(A) requires for the fulfillment of its goals the
stimulation as well as the satisfaction of
curiosity
(B) necessitates the creative use of rewards that are
not inherent in the learning process itself
(C) is to focus primarily on those topics that do
not initially interest the students
(D) is facilitated by students’ taking responsibility
for their own learning
(E) becomes easier if students realize that some
learning is not necessarily enjoyable
Correct Answer: A
A Main Point
The first statement is diagrammable. Students can successfully learn a topic genuinely → curious about the topic; ~genuinely curious → ~successfully learn. Almost no child starts out curious enough about all the topics that a teacher must instill. The argument is structured to conclude something about teachers needing to make students genuinely curious about all of the topics that the students need to successfully learn.
A. Yes. In order to ensure that students will successfully learn all of the topics that they need to learn, a teacher must make students genuinely curious about those topics for which they hadn’t previously developed a sufficient level of curiosity.
B. No. The evidence does not discuss how rewards relate to curiosity.
C. No. The argument is making a connection between the teacher’s job and the students’ curiosity. Focusing on these topics won’t ensure that they’ll become curious enough to successfully learn these topics.
D. No. The evidence does not discuss what the students’ responsibilities are.
E. No. The argument connects genuine curiosity and enjoyment of learning.
- Environmentalist: When bacteria degrade household
cleaning products, vapors that are toxic to
humans are produced. Unfortunately,
household cleaning products are often found
in landfills. Thus, the common practice of
converting landfills into public parks is
damaging human health.
Which one of the following is an assumption the
environmentalist’s argument requires?
(A) In at least some landfills that have been
converted into public parks there are bacteria
that degrade household cleaning products.
(B) Converting a landfill into a public park will
cause no damage to human health unless
toxic vapors are produced in that landfill and
humans are exposed to them.
(C) If a practice involves the exposure of humans
to vapors from household cleaning products,
then it causes at least some damage to human
health.
(D) When landfills are converted to public parks,
measures could be taken that would prevent
people using the parks from being exposed to
toxic vapors.
(E) If vapors toxic to humans are produced by the
degradation of household cleaning products
by bacteria in any landfill, then the health of
at least some humans will suffer.
Correct Answer: A
A Necessary Assumption
The environmentalist argues that the common practice of converting landfills into public parks is damaging human health. The environmentalist cites the fact that household cleaning products are often found in landfills; when bacteria degrade these cleaning products, toxic vapors are produced. There is a gap between damaging human health by converting landfills to public parks and whether, in these landfills, bacteria are actually degrading the cleaning products.
A. Yes. This makes a connection between the converted landfills and the bacteria that degrade the products, thereby causing toxic vapors to be emitted.
B. No. This doesn’t state that there are bacteria in these converted landfills that will degrade the cleaning products.
C. No. This doesn’t state that there are bacteria in these converted landfills that will degrade the cleaning products.
D. No. This would weaken the argument. If people weren’t exposed to these vapors, the converted landfills wouldn’t necessarily be damaging to human health.
E. No. This is too general. The environmentalist is arguing specifically about the practice of converting landfills into public parks, not about landfills in general.
- Tea made from camellia leaves is a popular beverage.
However, studies show that regular drinkers of
camellia tea usually suffer withdrawal symptoms if
they discontinue drinking the tea. Furthermore,
regular drinkers of camellia tea are more likely than
people in general to develop kidney damage. Regular
consumption of this tea, therefore, can result in a
heightened risk of kidney damage.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) Several other popular beverages contain the
same addictive chemical that is found in
camellia tea.
(B) Addictive chemicals are unlikely to cause
kidney damage solely by virtue of their
addictive qualities.
(C) Some people claim that regular consumption
of camellia tea helps alleviate their stress.
(D) Most people who regularly drink camellia tea
do not develop kidney damage.
(E) Many people who regularly consume camellia
tea also regularly consume other beverages
suspected of causing kidney damage.
Correct Answer: E
E Weaken
The argument concludes that regular consumption of camellia tea can result in a heightened risk of kidney damage. This is because studies show that regular drinkers of camellia tea are more likely than people in general to develop kidney damage. The argument is treating a correlation as if one event causes the other. It is overlooking another possible cause for the increased risk of kidney damage.
A. No. The argument is concerned with camellia tea and the risk of kidney damage associated with drinking it, not other popular beverages.
B. No. This is too general. The argument is concerned with the chemicals in camellia tea, not addictive chemicals in general.
C. No. The argument doesn’t mention stress levels.
D. No. This doesn’t go far enough. As long as more people who regularly drink camellia tea develop kidney damage than those who do not, the conclusion may still hold.
E. Yes. This presents another possible cause for the kidney damage, which makes it less probable that it is the tea that is causing the greater incidence of kidney damage.
Artist: Avant-garde artists intend their work to
challenge a society’s mainstream beliefs and
initiate change. And some art collectors claim
that an avant-garde work that becomes
popular in its own time is successful. However,
a society’s mainstream beliefs do not generally
show any significant changes over a short
period of time. Therefore, when an avantgarde work becomes popular it is a sign that
the work is not successful, since it does not
fulfil the intentions of its creator.
The reference to the claim of certain art collectors
plays which one of the following roles in the artist’s
argument?
(A) It serves to bolster the argument’s main
conclusion.
(B) It identifies a view that is ultimately disputed
by the argument.
(C) It identifies a position supported by the initial
premise in the argument.
(D) It provides support for the initial premise in
the argument.
(E) It provides support for a counterargument to
the initial premise.
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
The artist disagrees with those art collectors who claim that an avant-garde work that becomes popular in its own time is successful. Instead, the artist argues that when an avant-garde work becomes popular, it is a sign that the work is not successful. This is because avant-garde artists intend their work to challenge a society’s mainstream beliefs and initiate change, and a society’s mainstream beliefs do not generally show any significant change over a short period of time.
A. No. The artist argues against these art collectors.
B. Yes. The artist brings up the claims of these art collectors in order to dispute them.
C. No. The premise about the avant-garde artists’ intentions does not support the claims of these art collectors.
D. No. The claims of these art collectors do not provide support for the premise about the avant-garde artists’ intentions.
E. No. The claims of the art collectors are not part of a counterargument.
A recent epidemiological study found that
businesspeople who travel internationally on
business are much more likely to suffer from chronic
insomnia than are businesspeople who do not travel
on business. International travelers experience the
stresses of dramatic changes in climate, frequent
disruption of daily routines, and immersion in
cultures other than their own, stresses not commonly
felt by those who do not travel. Thus, it is likely that
these stresses cause the insomnia.
Which one of the following would, if true, most
strengthen the reasoning above?
(A) Most international travel for the sake of
business occurs between countries with
contiguous borders.
(B) Some businesspeople who travel
internationally greatly enjoy the changes in
climate and immersion in another culture.
(C) Businesspeople who already suffer from
chronic insomnia are no more likely than
businesspeople who do not to accept
assignments from their employers that
require international travel.
(D) Experiencing dramatic changes in climate and
disruption of daily routines through
international travel can be beneficial to some
people who suffer from chronic insomnia.
(E) Some businesspeople who once traveled
internationally but no longer do so complain
of various sleep-related ailments.
Correct Answer: C
C Strengthen
The argument concludes that it is likely that the stresses felt more commonly while traveling cause the insomnia of businesspeople who travel internationally on business. These businesspeople are much more likely to suffer from chronic insomnia than are the businesspeople who don’t travel for business. The businesspeople who travel internationally on business frequently experience stresses that are not commonly felt by those who do not travel.
A. No. The argument discusses international travel in general. It doesn’t matter whether the borders of the countries visited are contiguous or not.
B. No. This would weaken the argument, if anything. If some businesspeople who travel greatly enjoy the changes in climate and immersion in another culture, then these are not stresses for them.
C. Yes. This eliminates the possibility that there is another reason for the increased insomnia in businesspeople who must travel internationally.
D. No. This would weaken the argument, as it suggests that the changes and disruptions may ameliorate insomnia instead of cause it.
E. No. The argument is concerned with businesspeople who are currently traveling internationally, not those who once did.
Each of the smallest particles in the universe has an
elegantly simple structure. Since these particles
compose the universe, we can conclude that the
universe itself has an elegantly simple structure.
Each of the following arguments exhibits flawed
reasoning similar to that in the argument above
EXCEPT:
(A) Each part of this car is nearly perfectly
engineered. Therefore this car is nearly
perfect, from an engineering point of view.
(B) Each part of this desk is made of metal.
Therefore this desk is made of metal.
(C) Each brick in this wall is rectangular. Therefore
this wall is rectangular.
(D) Each piece of wood in this chair is sturdy.
Therefore this chair is sturdy.
(E) Each sentence in this novel is well constructed.
Therefore this is a well-constructed novel.
Correct Answer: B
B Parallel Flaw
The argument concludes that the universe has an elegantly simple structure, on the basis of evidence that each of the smallest particles in the universe has an elegantly simple structure and that these particles compose the universe. The argument exhibits a part-whole flaw.
A. No. This argument claims that the car is nearly perfectly engineered, on the basis of a characteristic of its parts. This does exhibit the same flaw.
B. Yes. While this argument makes a claim about the desk as a whole on the basis of its parts, it is warranted to do so. If all the parts of the desk are made of metal, then the desk must be made of metal.
C. No. This argument claims that the wall is rectangular because its parts are. However, bricks can make walls of all shapes. So, this exhibits the same flaw.
D. No. This argument claims that the chair is sturdy because all of its parts are. Yet, the chair could be poorly glued or poorly constructed in some other way. So, this exhibits the same flaw.
E. No. The novel might consist of well-constructed sentences but the sentences might not form good prose. So, this exhibits the same flaw.
Many mountain climbers regard climbing Mount
Everest as the ultimate achievement. But climbers
should not attempt this climb since the risk of death
or serious injury in an Everest expedition is very
high. Moreover, the romantic notion of gaining
“spiritual discovery” atop Everest is dispelled by
climbers’ reports that the only profound experiences
they had at the top were of exhaustion and fear.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning above?
(A) Projects undertaken primarily for spiritual
reasons ought to be abandoned if the risks are
great.
(B) Dangerous activities that are unlikely to result
in significant spiritual benefits for those
undertaking them should be avoided.
(C) Activities that are extremely dangerous ought
to be legally prohibited unless they are
necessary to produce spiritual enlightenment.
(D) Profound spiritual experiences can be achieved
without undergoing the serious danger
involved in mountain climbing.
(E) Mountain climbers and other athletes should
carefully examine the underlying reasons they
have for participating in their sports.
Correct Answer: B
B Principle Strengthen
The argument advocates against climbers trying to climb Mount Everest because the risk of death or injury is very high, and the climb does not seem to actually enable one to gain “spiritual discovery.”
A. No. The argument doesn’t state that climbing Mount Everest is undertaken primarily for spiritual reasons.
B. Yes. The argument highlights the fact that climbing Mount Everest is dangerous and that climbing Mount Everest is unlikely to result in significant spiritual benefits. This principle would thereby help justify the conclusion that climbers should not attempt the climb.
C. No. The argument doesn’t claim that climbing Mount Everest should be legally prohibited.
D. No. The argument doesn’t claim that there are other ways to achieve profound spiritual experiences.
E. No. This isn’t strong enough. The principle needs to justify the conclusion that mountain climbers should not try to climb Mount Everest.
Criminologist: A judicial system that tries and
punishes criminals without delay is an
effective deterrent to violent crime. Long,
drawn-out trials and successful legal
maneuvering may add to criminals’ feelings of
invulnerability. But if potential violent
criminals know that being caught means
prompt punishment, they will hesitate to break
the law.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the criminologist’s argument?
(A) It is in the nature of violent crime that it is not
premeditated.
(B) About one-fourth of all suspects first arrested
for a crime are actually innocent.
(C) Many violent crimes are committed by firsttime offenders.
(D) Everyone accused of a crime has the right to a
trial.
(E) Countries that promptly punish suspected
lawbreakers have lower crime rates than
countries that allow long trials.
Correct Answer: A
A Weaken
The criminologist concludes that a judicial system that tries and punishes criminals without delay is an effective deterrent to violent crime. If potential violent criminals know that being caught means quick punishment, they will hesitate to break the law, whereas long, drawn-out trials may add to criminals’ feelings of invulnerability.
A. Yes. If potential violent criminals don’t think about their crimes, then they won’t be deterred by the prompt punishment.
B. No. This doesn’t claim that innocent people actually get convicted, just that some innocent people get arrested for a crime.
C. No. The number of offenses committed by violent criminals doesn’t matter.
D. No. This is too general. The argument is allowing for trials.
E. No. This strengthens the argument, as it shows a correlation between prompt punishment and a relatively lower crime rate.
. Editorial: Contrary to popular belief, teaching
preschoolers is not especially difficult, for they
develop strict systems (e.g., for sorting toys by
shape), which help them to learn, and they are
always intensely curious about something new
in their world.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the editorial’s argument?
(A) Preschoolers have a tendency to imitate adults,
and most adults follow strict routines.
(B) Children intensely curious about new things
have very short attention spans.
(C) Some older children also develop strict systems
that help them learn.
(D) Preschoolers ask as many creative questions as
do older children.
(E) Preschool teachers generally report lower
levels of stress than do other teachers.
Correct Answer: B
B Weaken
The editorial concludes that teaching preschoolers is not especially difficult. The evidence is that preschoolers develop strict systems that help them to learn and that preschoolers are always intensely curious about new things. The credited response will give another reason to think that, as a result of their tendencies, preschoolers are difficult to teach.
A. No. This strengthens the argument. If preschoolers follow strict routines, they might well be easier to teach.
B. Yes. Since preschoolers are intensely curious about new things, they will have short attention spans. This is a reason to think that teaching preschoolers is difficult.
C. No. The editorial addresses preschoolers, not older children.
D. No. This isn’t strong enough. If they ask as many creative questions as do older children, and this doesn’t make older children particularly difficult to teach, then the argument’s conclusion would still hold.
E. No. This answer choice strengthens the argument. If preschool teachers are reporting lower stress levels, that gives us a reason to think that teaching preschoolers isn’t especially difficult.
Journalist: Many people object to mandatory
retirement at age 65 as being arbitrary, arguing
that people over 65 make useful contributions.
However, if those who reach 65 are permitted to
continue working indefinitely, we will face
unacceptable outcomes. First, young people
entering the job market will not be able to
obtain decent jobs in the professions for which
they were trained, resulting in widespread
dissatisfaction among the young. Second, it is
not fair for those who have worked 40 or more
years to deprive others of opportunities.
Therefore, mandatory retirement should be
retained.
The journalist’s argument depends on assuming
which one of the following?
(A) Anyone who has worked 40 years is at least 65
years old.
(B) All young people entering the job market are
highly trained professionals.
(C) It is unfair for a person not to get a job in the
profession for which that person was trained.
(D) If people are forced to retire at age 65, there
will be much dissatisfaction among at least
some older people.
(E) If retirement ceases to be mandatory at age 65,
at least some people will choose to work past
age 65.
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The journalist argues against those people who object to mandatory retirement at age 65. The journalist gives two reasons for this. First, the young will become dissatisfied because they won’t be able to get decent jobs in the professions for which they were trained. Second, the people over 65 will be depriving others of opportunities and this is not fair.
A. No. The second claim concerns people who have worked 40 or more years.
B. No. The journalist never claims that all young people are highly trained.
C. No. The unfairness that the journalist points out is found in the second reason, while the training was referenced in the first reason.
D. No. The journalist isn’t concerned with the feelings of older people.
E. Yes. People might want to retire at 65 anyway. The reasons that the journalist cites for retaining mandatory retirement apply only if at least some people over 65 would still want to work.
Lawyer: A body of circumstantial evidence is like a
rope, and each item of evidence is like a strand
of that rope. Just as additional pieces of
circumstantial evidence strengthen the body of
evidence, adding strands to the rope
strengthens the rope. And if one strand breaks,
the rope is not broken nor is its strength much
diminished. Thus, even if a few items of a body
of circumstantial evidence are discredited, the
overall body of evidence retains its basic
strength.
The reasoning in the lawyer’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) takes for granted that no items in a body of
circumstantial evidence are significantly more
critical to the strength of the evidence than
other items in that body
(B) presumes, without providing justification, that
the strength of a body of evidence is less than
the sum of the strengths of the parts of that
body
(C) fails to consider the possibility that if many
items in a body of circumstantial evidence
were discredited, the overall body of evidence
would be discredited
(D) offers an analogy in support of a conclusion
without indicating whether the two types of
things compared share any similarities
(E) draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim
presented in support of that conclusion
Correct Answer: A
A Flaw
The lawyer concludes that, even if a few items of a body of circumstantial evidence are discredited, the overall body of evidence retains its basic strength. This conclusion is based on the analogy the lawyer makes between a body of circumstantial evidence and a rope. This is a bad analogy because while every strand of the rope is similar, different pieces of a body of circumstantial evidence might be more or less essential to its strength, depending.
A. Yes. This points out the problem with the lawyer’s analogy.
B. No. This is the wrong common flaw. The problem in the argument is not a part-whole problem.
C. No. The argument never claims that many items could be discredited and the overall body of evidence would remain strong.
D. No. This is close but the lawyer does indicate similarities between a body of circumstantial evidence and a rope.
E. No. The argument isn’t circular.
People who object to the proposed hazardous waste
storage site by appealing to extremely implausible
scenarios in which the site fails to contain the waste
safely are overlooking the significant risks associated
with delays in moving the waste from its present
unsafe location. If we wait to remove the waste until
we find a site certain to contain it safely, the waste
will remain in its current location for many years,
since it is currently impossible to guarantee that any
site can meet that criterion. Yet keeping the waste at
the current location for that long clearly poses
unacceptable risks.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support
which one of the following?
(A) The waste should never have been stored in its
current location.
(B) The waste should be placed in the most secure
location that can ever be found.
(C) Moving the waste to the proposed site would
reduce the threat posed by the waste.
(D) Whenever waste must be moved, one should
limit the amount of time allotted to locating
alternative waste storage sites.
(E) Any site to which the waste could be moved
will be safer than its present site.
Correct Answer: C
C Inference
Choose the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. The passage does not make any claims about whether the waste should have been initially stored in its current location.
B. No. The passage claims that the waste should be placed somewhere more secure. It doesn’t claim that it should be placed in the most secure location ever.
C. Yes. The passage claims that keeping the waste at the current location for as long as it takes to find a site certain to contain it safely would pose an unacceptable risk. So, moving the waste would reduce the threat posed.
D. No. This is too general. The passage discusses a specific instance of moving waste, not all waste moving.
E. No. This is too strong. The passage does not claim that any site would be safer.
Ethicist: Many environmentalists hold that the
natural environment is morally valuable for its
own sake, regardless of any benefits it provides
us. However, even if nature has no moral
value, nature can be regarded as worth
preserving simply on the grounds that people
find it beautiful. Moreover, because it is
philosophically disputable whether nature is
morally valuable but undeniable that it is
beautiful, an argument for preserving nature
that emphasizes nature’s beauty will be less
vulnerable to logical objections than one that
emphasizes its moral value.
The ethicist’s reasoning most closely conforms to
which one of the following principles?
(A) An argument in favor of preserving nature will
be less open to logical objections if it avoids
the issue of what makes nature worth
preserving.
(B) If an argument for preserving nature
emphasizes a specific characteristic of nature
and is vulnerable to logical objections, then
that characteristic does not provide a
sufficient reason for preserving nature.
(C) If it is philosophically disputable whether
nature has a certain characteristic, then
nature would be more clearly worth
preserving if it did not have that
characteristic.
(D) Anything that has moral value is worth
preserving regardless of whether people
consider it to be beautiful.
(E) An argument for preserving nature will be less
open to logical objections if it appeals to a
characteristic that can be regarded as a basis
for preserving nature and that philosophically
indisputably belongs to nature.
Correct Answer: E
E Principle Match
The ethicist concludes that an argument for preserving nature emphasizing nature’s beauty will be less vulnerable to logical objections than one that emphasizes its moral value. This is because it is philosophically disputable whether nature is morally valuable but not disputable that it is beautiful.
A. No. The ethicist wants to change focus as to what makes nature worth preserving. She doesn’t want to avoid the issue of what makes nature worth preserving.
B. No. The ethicist does not judge whether the argument that emphasizes the moral value of nature provides a sufficient reason for preserving it.
C. No. The ethicist makes no judgment as to whether nature would be more clearly worth preserving if it didn’t have the characteristic of moral worth.
D. No. The ethicist’s argument concentrates on the beauty of nature, so this would weaken the thrust of the ethicist’s argument.
E. Yes. The ethicist argues that the argument based on natural beauty will be less open to logical objections because everyone agrees that beauty is a characteristic of nature and nature’s beauty can be regarded as a basis for preserving nature.
An editor is compiling a textbook containing essays
by several different authors. The book will contain
essays by Lind, Knight, or Jones, but it will not
contain essays by all three. If the textbook contains
an essay by Knight, then it will also contain an essay
by Jones.
If the statements above are true, which one of the
following must be true?
(A) If the textbook contains an essay by Lind, then
it will not contain an essay by Knight.
(B) The textbook will contain an essay by only one
of Lind, Knight, and Jones.
(C) The textbook will not contain an essay by
Knight.
(D) If the textbook contains an essay by Lind, then
it will also contain an essay by Jones.
(E) The textbook will contain an essay by Lind.
Correct Answer: A
A Inference
This is diagrammable. The book will contain essays by Lind, Knight, or Jones but not all three. Contains essay by Knight → contains an essay by Jones. Connecting this with the previous information, contains essay by Knight → contains an essay by Jones and ~contains an essay by Lind. The contrapositive is as follows: contains an essay by Lind or ~contains an essay by Jones → ~contains an essay by Knight.
A. Yes. This is the contrapositive of the information given in the passage.
B. No. We know that if it contains one by Knight, it will contain an essay by Jones.
C. No. We don’t know this.
D. No. We don’t know about essays by Jones if the book contains an essay by Lind. The only thing that we know if the book contains an essay by Lind is that it won’t contain an essay by Knight.
E. No. We don’t know for sure which essays will be in the book.
The ability of mammals to control their internal
body temperatures is a factor in the development of
their brains and intelligence. This can be seen from
the following facts: the brain is a chemical machine,
all chemical reactions are temperature dependent,
and any organism that can control its body
temperature can assure that these reactions occur at
the proper temperatures.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) Organisms unable to control their body
temperatures do not have the capacity to
generate internal body heat without relying
on external factors.
(B) Mammals are the only animals that have the
ability to control their internal body
temperatures.
(C) The brain cannot support intelligence if the
chemical reactions within it are subject to
uncontrolled temperatures.
(D) The development of intelligence in mammals
is not independent of the chemical reactions
in their brains taking place at the proper
temperatures.
(E) Organisms incapable of controlling their
internal body temperatures are subject to
unpredictable chemical processes.
Correct Answer: D
D Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that the ability of mammals to control their internal body temperatures is a factor in the development of their brains and intelligence. This conclusion is derived from the facts that the brain is a chemical machine, all chemical reactions are temperature dependent, and any organism that can control this can assure that the reactions occur at the proper temperatures. There is a gap between the evidence, which discusses elements and processes of the brain, and the conclusion, which talks about brains and intelligence.
A. No. The argument is about organisms that are able to control their body temperatures.
B. No. This is too strong. Mammals don’t have to be the only animals that have the ability to control their internal body temperatures for the conclusion to follow.
C. No. This is too strong. The argument claims that the ability to control internal body temperatures is a factor; it doesn’t need to be the only factor.
D. Yes. This closes the gap between the proper temperatures of brain processes and intelligence.
E. No. The argument is about organisms that can control their body temperatures.
. A recent survey indicates that the average number of
books read annually per capita has declined in each
of the last three years. However, it also found that
most bookstores reported increased profits during
the same period.
Each of the following, if true, helps to resolve the
survey’s apparently paradoxical results EXCEPT:
(A) Recent cutbacks in government spending have
forced public libraries to purchase fewer
popular contemporary novels.
(B) Due to the installation of sophisticated new
antitheft equipment, the recent increase in
shoplifting that has hit most retail businesses
has left bookstores largely unaffected.
(C) Over the past few years many bookstores have
capitalized on the lucrative coffee industry by
installing coffee bars.
(D) Bookstore owners reported a general shift
away from the sale of inexpensive paperback
novels and toward the sale of lucrative
hardback books.
(E) Citing a lack of free time, many survey
respondents indicated that they had canceled
magazine subscriptions in favor of
purchasing individual issues at bookstores
when time permits.
Correct Answer: B
B Resolve/Explain
Fact 1: The average number of books read annually per capita has declined in each of the last three years. Fact 2: Most bookstores reported increased profits during this period.
A. No. This would explain why bookstores reported increased profits while the amount read has declined; more people may now buy popular contemporary novels since they can no longer borrow them for free from public libraries.
B. Yes. This does not explain why bookstores reported increased profits during the three-year period. The profits are higher than their own previous profits, not the profits of other stores.
C. No. This would explain where the increase in revenue came from, given that the average amount read has declined.
D. No. If bookstores were making more money per purchase, they could have an increase in profits even though they weren’t selling as many books.
E. No. The additional sales from magazines would help explain the bookstores’ increased profits, even though the average number of books read by each individual has declined.
Naturalist: A species can survive a change in
environment, as long as the change is not too
rapid. Therefore, the threats we are creating to
woodland species arise not from the fact that
we are cutting down trees, but rather from the
rate at which we are doing so.
The reasoning in which one of the following is most
similar to that in the naturalist’s argument?
(A) The problem with burning fossil fuels is that
the supply is limited; so, the faster we expend
these resources, the sooner we will be left
without an energy source.
(B) Many people gain more satisfaction from
performing a job well—regardless of whether
they like the job—than from doing merely
adequately a job they like; thus, people who
want to be happy should choose jobs they can
do well.
(C) Some students who study thoroughly do well
in school. Thus, what is most important for
success in school is not how much time a
student puts into studying, but rather how
thoroughly the student studies.
(D) People do not fear change if they know what
the change will bring; so, our employees’ fear
stems not from our company’s undergoing
change, but from our failing to inform them
of what the changes entail.
(E) Until ten years ago, we had good soil and our
agriculture flourished. Therefore, the recent
decline of our agriculture is a result of our
soil rapidly eroding and there being nothing
that can replace the good soil we lost.
Correct Answer: D
D Parallel
The naturalist concludes that the threats we are creating to woodland species arise from the rate at which we are cutting down trees. Species can survive a change in environment as long as the change is slow enough. So, the change in environment caused by cutting down trees is not by itself causing the threats to woodland species.
A. No. This does not amend the cause of the problem.
B. No. The threat in the first still involved the cutting down of the trees. This argument discards one possibility for another, unrelated one.
C. No. This argument makes a claim about some students. The argument above makes a claim about all species.
D. Yes. This argument claims that the problem isn’t from the company’s undergoing change, per se, but from the failure to inform employees of what the changes entail.
E. No. This doesn’t present an alternative but related reason for the problem.
Professor: A person who can select a beverage from
among 50 varieties of cola is less free than one
who has only these 5 choices: wine, coffee,
apple juice, milk, and water. It is clear, then,
that meaningful freedom cannot be measured
simply by the number of alternatives available;
the extent of the differences among the
alternatives is also a relevant factor.
The professor’s argument proceeds by
(A) supporting a general principle by means of an
example
(B) drawing a conclusion about a particular case
on the basis of a general principle
(C) supporting its conclusion by means of an
analogy
(D) claiming that whatever holds for each member
of a group must hold for the whole group
(E) inferring one general principle from another,
more general, principle
Correct Answer: A
A Reasoning
The professor argues that meaningful freedom cannot be measured simply by the number of alternatives available; rather, the extent of the differences among the alternatives is also a relevant factor. He supports his conclusion by the use of an example, in which he compares choosing one of 50 types of cola to choosing from among 5 different types of beverage—wine, coffee, apple juice, milk, and water.
A. Yes. The professor’s conclusion is a general principle and the cola versus milk, etc, example supports this principle.
B. No. The conclusion is the general principle.
C. No. There is no analogy. There is an example.
D. No. The professor’s argument does not use part-whole reasoning.
E. No. There is only one general principle.
Principle: Meetings should be kept short, addressing
only those issues relevant to a majority of
those attending. A person should not be
required to attend a meeting if none of the
issues to be addressed at the meeting are
relevant to that person.
Application: Terry should not be required to attend
today’s two o’clock meeting.
Which one of the following, if true, most justifies the
stated application of the principle?
(A) The only issues on which Terry could make a
presentation at the meeting are issues
irrelevant to at least a majority of those who
could attend.
(B) If Terry makes a presentation at the meeting,
the meeting will not be kept short.
(C) No issue relevant to Terry could be relevant to
a majority of those attending the meeting.
(D) If Terry attends the meeting a different set of
issues will be relevant to a majority of those
attending than if Terry does not attend.
(E) The majority of the issues to be addressed at
the meeting are not relevant to Terry.
Correct Answer: C
C Strengthen
The principle claims that meetings should be kept short and should address only the issues that are relevant to the majority of the people attending. Moreover, people to whom none of the issues to be addressed are relevant should not have to attend the meeting. The application is that Terry should not be required to attend today’s meeting. The credited response will make it clear that none of the issues to be addressed are relevant to Terry, or that the issues that are relevant to Terry won’t be relevant to the majority of the attendees.
A. No. The principle doesn’t claim that people should come only if they are also presenting.
B. No. This doesn’t go far enough. The meetings should be kept short, in the sense that topics not relevant to the majority should not be discussed. But Terry wouldn’t necessarily have to make a presentation if he/she attended the meeting.
C. Yes. This supports the application of the principle because, if none of the issues relevant to Terry could be relevant to a majority of those attending the meeting, then the issues relevant to Terry will not be addressed at the meeting. So, Terry should not be required to attend.
D. No. This doesn’t make it clear that Terry shouldn’t have to go to the meeting. If any of the issues to be addressed are relevant to Terry, he/she might still have to go to the meeting.
E. No. The principle claims that if none of the issues to be addressed are relevant, then a person should not have to attend. If at least one of the issues to be addressed is relevant to Terry, even if the majority of them are not, Terry might still be required to attend.
- This region’s swimmers generally swim during the
day because they are too afraid of sharks to swim
after dark but feel safe swimming during daylight
hours. Yet all recent shark attacks on swimmers in
the area have occurred during the day, indicating
that, contrary to popular opinion, it is not more
dangerous to swim here at night than during the day.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it
(A) overlooks the possibility that some sharks are
primarily nocturnal hunters
(B) bases its conclusion on evidence from an
unreliable source
(C) overlooks the possibility that swimmers might
feel anxiety caused by not being able to see
one’s surroundings in the dark
(D) presumes, without providing justification, that
swimmers cannot be the most knowledgeable
about which times of day are safest for
swimming
(E) fails to take into account the possibility that
the number of shark attacks at night would
increase dramatically if more people swam at
night
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
The argument concludes that it is not more dangerous to swim in the area at night than during the day based on the fact that all recent shark attacks on swimmers have occurred during the day. However, the argument doesn’t consider that there could be another explanation for why the recent shark attacks occur during the day—if swimmers are generally too afraid to swim after dark, there may not be any swimmers in the water for sharks to attack at night.
A. No. This information isn’t really relevant. If some sharks are primarily nocturnal hunters, there could still be others that aren’t, such as those responsible for the daytime shark attacks.
B. No. There is no reference to any type of source in the argument.
C. No. Anxiety is irrelevant to whether swimmers are actually attacked, so while the argument doesn’t take this into consideration, it’s not a flaw in its logic.
D. No. The argument makes no assumptions as to whether swimmers are the most knowledgeable about the safest times of day for swimming; it merely contradicts popular opinion.
E. Yes. The reason for the dearth of shark attacks at night could be the absence of night swimmers, which means it could be more dangerous to swim at night than during the day.
- Denise: Crime will be reduced only when
punishment is certain and is sufficiently severe
to give anyone considering committing a crime
reason to decide against doing so.
Reshmi: No, crime will be most effectively reduced if
educational opportunities are made readily
available to everyone, so that those who once
viewed criminal activity as the only means of
securing a comfortable lifestyle will choose a
different path.
Their dialogue provides the most support for the
claim that Denise and Reshmi agree that
(A) people are capable of choosing whether or not
to commit crimes
(B) crime is the most important issue facing
modern society
(C) reducing crime requires fair and consistent
responses to criminal behavior
(D) crimes are committed in response to economic
need
(E) reducing crime requires focusing on assured
punishments
Correct Answer: A
A Point at Issue
Denise believes that reducing crime depends on the certainty of a punishment that is sufficiently severe to act as a deterrent to anyone considering committing a crime. Reshmi believes that ensuring that educational opportunities are readily available to all will most effectively reduce crime by presenting alternatives to those who see criminal activity as the sole means to a comfortable lifestyle.
A. Yes. Both Denise and Reshmi suggest ways to reduce crime that imply that a person has a choice as to whether to commit a crime. Denise offers a deterrent while Reshmi offers an incentive, yet both rely on the idea that someone can choose not to commit a crime.
B. No. Neither of them discusses how important an issue crime is in modern society.
C. No. Denise does mention the idea that punishment should be certain, but Reshmi never addresses any of this, so you don’t know whether they would indeed agree.
D. No. Reshmi would likely agree with this statement, but Denise does not address economic factors, so you don’t know whether they would indeed agree.
E. No. Denise states that punishment should be certain, but Reshmi never addresses this, so you don’t know whether they would indeed agree.
- Acme Corporation offers unskilled workers excellent
opportunities for advancement. As evidence, consider
the fact that the president of the company, Ms.
Garon, worked as an assembly line worker, an entrylevel position requiring no special skills, when she
first started at Acme.
Which one of the following statements, if true, most
weakens the reasoning above?
(A) Acme’s vice president of operations also
worked as an assembly line worker when he
first started at Acme.
(B) Acme regularly hires top graduates of business
schools and employs them briefly in each of a
succession of entry-level positions before
promoting them to management.
(C) Acme promotes its own employees to senior
management positions much more frequently
than it hires senior managers from other
companies.
(D) Ms. Garon worked at Acme for more than 20
years before she was promoted to president.
(E) Acme pays entry-level employees slightly
higher wages than most other businesses in
the same industry.
Correct Answer: B
B Weaken
The argument concludes that Acme Corporation offers unskilled workers excellent opportunities for advancement based on the example of Ms. Garon, who started as an assembly line worker, a position that requires no special skills, and is now the president of the company. However, you don’t actually know that Ms. Garon had no special skills when she started. You need to find an answer choice that offers another explanation for how she attained her position as president even though she began as an assembly line worker.
A. No. If anything, this strengthens the argument by implying that Ms. Garon’s career is representative of the path Acme employees take.
B. Yes. This suggests that she advanced to her position by virtue of her business degree; therefore, this casts doubt on the argument that unskilled workers have excelled opportunities for advancement at Acme.
C. No. This doesn’t tell you whether unskilled workers are among those getting promoted, so it doesn’t really impact the argument.
D. No. This is irrelevant. How long she worked at Acme is not important; the reason behind her promotion is, but this choice doesn’t address that.
E. No. This is out of scope; there’s no link between wages and skills here.
- The song of the yellow warbler signals to other
yellow warblers that a particular area has been
appropriated by the singer as its own feeding
territory. Although the singing deters other yellow
warblers from taking over the feeding territory of the
singer, other yellow warblers may range for food
within a portion of the singer’s territory. However, a
warbler sings a special song when it molts (sheds its
feathers). Other yellow warblers will not enter the
smaller core territory of a yellow warbler singing its
molting song. Therefore yellow warblers, which can
only fly short distances during molting, have no
competition for the food supply within the range of
their restricted flying.
The argument makes which one of the following
assumptions?
(A) The core areas contain just enough food to
sustain one yellow warbler while it molts.
(B) Warblers are the only molting birds that lay
claim to core areas of feeding territories by
singing.
(C) There are no birds other than yellow warblers
that compete with yellow warblers for food.
(D) Warblers often share their feeding areas with
other kinds of birds, which often do not eat
the same insects or seeds as warblers do.
(E) The core areas of each feeding territory are the
same size for each molting warbler.
Correct Answer: C
C Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that during molting, yellow warblers have no competition for the food supply located within the range of their restricted flying. The evidence for this conclusion is that when a warbler molts, which limits its flying distance, its song changes; this in turn affects the behavior of other yellow warblers, who will not enter the smaller core territory of a molting warbler, although they might at other times. The argument assumes that the only competition for the food supply within a warbler’s range comes from other yellow warblers and not from anything else.
A. No. Even if the core areas contain enough food to sustain more than one molting warbler, this choice doesn’t address the issue of competition for that food.
B. No. This is irrelevant; it doesn’t matter whether other birds act in the same fashion when molting.
C. Yes. If you negate this choice, then it invalidates the argument’s conclusion by suggesting that yellow warblers do indeed have competition even when molting.
D. No. This weakens the argument somewhat by suggesting that competition would be minimal but not absent entirely.
E. No. This is irrelevant; negating this choice would have no impact on the argument’s conclusion.
- Chinh: Television producers should not pay attention
to the preferences of the viewing public when
making creative decisions. Great painters do
not consider what the museum-going public
wants to see.
Lana: But television is expressly for the viewing
public. So a producer is more like a CEO than
like an artist. Just as a company would be
foolhardy not to consider consumers’ tastes
when developing products, the TV producer
must consider viewers’ preferences.
According to Lana, Chinh’s argument is flawed in
that it
(A) is circular
(B) relies on a sample of consumers that is
unrepresentative of consumers in general
(C) infers from the effect produced by an action
that the action is intended to produce that
effect
(D) fails to consider the possibility that painters
may in fact try to please the museum-going
public
(E) offers a faulty analogy
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
Chinh concludes that television producers should not pay attention to what the viewing public prefers when making creative decisions; he reasons that great painters do not consider what the museum-going public prefers to see. Lana points out that because television is expressly for the viewing public, Chinh’s analogy misses the mark; a television producer is more comparable to a CEO than to an artist.
A. No. Chinh’s conclusion is not a restatement of his premise.
B. No. Chinh does not discuss any sample of consumers.
C. No. Chinh does not reverse cause and effect in his argument.
D. No. This isn’t the flaw in Chinh’s argument. Furthermore, Chinh’s premise specifically refers to great painters, not painters in general.
E. Yes. Lana believes the analogy Chinh relies on is problematic, as noted above.
- Dietitian: High consumption of sodium increases
some people’s chances of developing heart
disease. To maintain cardiac health without
lowering sodium consumption, therefore, these
people should eat fresh, rather than canned or
frozen, fruit and vegetables, since the
potassium in plant foods helps to prevent
sodium’s malign effects.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the dietitian’s argument?
(A) Fresh fruits and vegetables contain more
potassium than sodium.
(B) Food processing businesses often add sodium
to foods being canned or frozen.
(C) Potassium is the only mineral that helps to
prevent sodium’s malign effects.
(D) Potassium in fruits and vegetables has few
negative side effects.
(E) Fresh fruits and vegetables contain more
potassium than do canned or frozen ones
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The dietitian concludes that people looking to maintain cardiac health without lowering sodium consumption should eat fresh, as opposed to canned or frozen, fruit and vegetables. Why? High sodium intake increases the risk of heart disease in some people, and the potassium in plant foods helps to prevent the negative effects of sodium. The dietitian assumes that fresh fruit and vegetables are a better source of potassium than are canned or frozen forms.
A. No. The amounts of sodium and potassium relative to each other in a given type of fruit or vegetable aren’t essential to the argument.
B. No. This is out of scope; the conclusion is directed at those who do not wish to lower sodium consumption.
C. No. This isn’t necessary to the argument. Even if potassium weren’t the only mineral that helps to prevent sodium’s malign effects, the conclusion would still be valid.
D. No. The side effects of potassium are out of scope so long as it has the desired effect of countering sodium’s negative effects.
E. Yes. If you negate this choice, the conclusion would no longer hold true; there would be no reason to recommend fresh over canned or frozen fruit and vegetables.
- Dana intentionally watered the plant every other day.
But since the plant was a succulent, and needed dry
soil, the frequent watering killed the plant. Therefore
Dana intentionally killed the plant.
Which one of the following arguments exhibits a
flawed pattern of reasoning most similar to the
flawed pattern of reasoning exhibited in the
argument above?
(A) Jack stole $10 from Kelly and bet it on a race.
The bet returned $100 to Jack. Therefore Jack
really stole $100 from Kelly.
(B) Celeste knows that coffee is grown in the
mountains in Peru and that Peru is in South
America. Therefore Celeste should know that
coffee is grown in South America.
(C) The restaurant owner decided to take an item
off her restaurant’s menu. This decision
disappointed Jerry because that item was his
favorite dish. Therefore the restaurant owner
decided to disappoint Jerry.
(D) The heavy rain caused the dam to break, and
the breaking of the dam caused the fields
downstream to be flooded. Therefore the
heavy rain caused the flooding of the fields.
(E) The power plant raised the water temperature,
and whatever raised the water temperature is
responsible for the decrease in fish. Therefore
the power plant is responsible for the decrease
in fish.
Correct Answer: C
C Parallel Flaw
The argument concludes that Dana intentionally killed the plant because she intentionally watered it every other day. As the plant needed dry soil, the frequent watering killed it. However, the argument misapplies the word “intentionally”—there is nothing to suggest that Dana knew frequent watering would kill the plant.
A. No. There is no issue of intent in this argument.
B. No. The conclusion focuses on what Celeste should know, not on what she intended, so this doesn’t match the original argument.
C. Yes. This contains the same flaw as the original argument. There is no evidence that the restaurant owner knew that removing that item would disappoint Jerry.
D. No. This argument is not flawed.
E. No. This argument is also not flawed.
- This boulder is volcanic in origin and yet the rest of
the rock in this area is sedimentary. Since this area
was covered by southward-moving glaciers during
the last ice age, this boulder was probably deposited
here, hundreds of miles from its geological
birthplace, by a glacier.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
undermines the conclusion drawn in the argument
above?
(A) Most boulders that have been moved by
glaciers have not been moved more than 100
miles.
(B) The closest geological source of volcanic rock
is 50 miles south of this boulder.
(C) The closest geological source of volcanic rock
is 50 miles north of this boulder.
(D) There are no geological sources of volcanic
rock north of this boulder.
(E) No other boulders of volcanic origin exist
within 50 miles of this boulder.
Correct Answer: D
D Weaken
The argument concludes that a boulder in a given area was probably deposited hundreds of miles away from its geological birthplace by a glacier. Why? The boulder is volcanic in origin, unlike the rest of the rock in the area, and the area in question was covered by southward-moving glaciers during the last Ice Age. To weaken this argument, you need to show either that a glacier couldn’t have been responsible for transporting the boulder or that some other explanation can account for the boulder’s differing makeup.
A. No. This isn’t strong enough to weaken the argument. The fact that most boulders haven’t been moved that far still allows for the possibility that at least one was moved farther than 100 miles.
B. No. Since the glaciers that supposedly moved the boulder were moving from north to south, knowing that the closest source of volcanic rock is south of the boulder doesn’t do anything to weaken the argument.
C. No. This would strengthen the argument by implying that a southward-moving glacier would have passed through a source of volcanic rock, from which the boulder could have originated.
D. Yes. This weakens the argument. If there is no source of volcanic rock north of the boulder, then it doesn’t make sense to claim that the boulder was deposited there in the manner described by the argument.
E. No. This is irrelevant. You are concerned only with this particular boulder, and the boulder could certainly have traveled more than 50 miles according to the argument itself.
- Rifka: We do not need to stop and ask for directions.
We would not need to do that unless, of
course, we were lost.
Craig: The fact that we are lost is precisely why we
need to stop.
In the exchange above, the function of Craig’s
comment is to
(A) contradict the conclusion of Rifka’s argument
without offering any reason to reject any of
Rifka’s implicit premises
(B) deny one of Rifka’s implicit premises and
thereby arrive at a different conclusion
(C) imply that Rifka’s argument is invalid by
accepting the truth of its premises while
rejecting its conclusion
(D) provide a counterexample to Rifka’s
generalization
(E) affirm the truth of the stated premise of Rifka’s
argument while remaining noncommittal
about its conclusion
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
Rifka concludes that they do not need to stop and ask for directions because they would only need to stop if they were lost. Craig, however, disagrees, saying that because they are lost, they need to stop. Craig contradicts one of Rifka’s unstated premises—that they are not lost—and draws the opposite conclusion—that they need to stop.
A. No. Craig does reject Rifka’s implicit premise that they are not lost.
B. Yes. Craig denies Rifka’s implicit premise that they are not lost and arrives at the conclusion that they should stop, contrary to Rifka’s conclusion.
C. No. Craig does not accept the truth of Rifka’s premises because unlike her, he believes that they are lost.
D. No. Craig doesn’t provide a counterexample; he simply disagrees with one of Rifka’s premises and conclusion.
E. No. Craig clearly draws a conclusion that contradicts Rifka’s conclusion, so he does not remain noncommittal.
- Critic: The idealized world portrayed in romance
literature is diametrically opposed to the
debased world portrayed in satirical literature.
Nevertheless, the major characters in both
types of works have moral qualities that reflect
the worlds in which they are presented.
Comedy and tragedy, meanwhile, require that
the moral qualities of major characters change
during the course of the action. Therefore,
neither tragedy nor comedy can be classified as
satirical literature or romance literature.
The critic’s conclusion follows logically if which one
of the following is assumed?
(A) Some characters in comedies and tragedies are
neither debased nor idealized.
(B) The visions of the world portrayed in works of
tragedy and works of comedy change during
the course of the action.
(C) If a character in a tragedy is idealized at the
beginning of the action depicted in the
tragedy, he or she must be debased at the end.
(D) In romance literature and satirical literature,
characters’ moral qualities do not change
during the course of the action.
(E) Both comedy and tragedy require that the
moral qualities of minor characters change
during the course of the action.
Correct Answer: D
D Sufficient Assumption
The critic concludes that neither tragedy nor comedy can be classified as either satirical or romance literature. Why? Major characters in both romance and satirical literature have moral qualities that reflect the worlds in which they are portrayed. But comedy and tragedy require that the moral qualities of major characters change during the course of the action. The critic assumes that characters in both romance and satirical literature do not undergo changes in moral qualities akin to those of characters in tragedies or comedies.
A. No. The nature of the characters is not relevant to the argument; you need to know whether their moral qualities change.
B. No. This is out of scope. The critic is specifically concerned with changes to characters’ moral qualities, not changes in the vision of the world depicted in a given work.
C. No. While the critic says that tragedy requires the moral qualities of a character to change throughout the course of the action, you are never told how or to what extent these qualities must change, so this goes too far.
D. Yes. If in romance and satirical literature characters’ moral qualities do not change during the course of the action, the critic’s conclusion regarding the classification of comedy and tragedy would be valid.
E. No. The critic’s premises focus specifically on major characters, so this is out of scope.
- Lance: If experience teaches us nothing else, it
teaches us that every general rule has at least
one exception.
Frank: What you conclude is itself a general rule. If
we assume that it is true, then there is at least
one general rule that has no exceptions.
Therefore, you must withdraw your
conclusion.
Frank’s argument is an attempt to counter Lance’s
conclusion by
(A) demonstrating that Lance assumes the very
thing he sets out to prove
(B) showing that Lance’s conclusion involves him
in a contradiction
(C) showing that no general rule can have
exceptions
(D) establishing that experience teaches us the
opposite of what Lance concludes
(E) showing that it has no implications for any
real cases
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
Lance claims that every general rule has at least one exception. Frank concludes that Lance must withdraw that conclusion, because if Lance’s claim, itself a general rule, is taken as true, then there would exist at least one general rule that has no exceptions, which contradicts Lance’s conclusion.
A. No. This choice describes circular reasoning, which Lance’s conclusion does not rely on.
B. Yes. Frank demonstrates that by accepting Lance’s conclusion as true, a situation then arises that yields a contradiction.
C. No. Frank does not show anything this absolute; this is too extreme.
D. No. Frank’s argument does not address the issue of what experience teaches us.
E. No. Frank does not give any examples of real cases; he counters Lance’s argument in a theoretical fashion.
- Throughout a certain nation, electricity has actually
become increasingly available to people in urban
areas while energy production has been subsidized to
help residents of rural areas gain access to electricity.
However, even with the subsidy, many of the most
isolated rural populations still have no access to
electricity. Thus, the energy subsidy has failed to
achieve its intended purpose.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) takes for granted that the subsidy’s intended
purpose could have been achieved if the
subsidy had not existed
(B) takes for granted that if a subsidy has any
benefit for those whom it was not intended to
benefit, then that subsidy has failed to achieve
its intended purpose
(C) presumes, without providing justification, that
the intended purpose of the subsidy was to
benefit not only rural populations in the
nation who have no electricity, but other
people in the nation as well
(D) overlooks the possibility that even many of the
people in the nation who live in urban areas
would have difficulty gaining access to
electricity without the subsidy
(E) fails to take into account that the subsidy
could have helped many of the rural residents
in the nation gain access to electricity even if
many other rural residents in the nation were
not helped in this way
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
The argument concludes that the energy subsidy has failed to achieve its intended purpose. Why? Even with subsidized energy production, which was intended to help residents of rural areas gain access to electricity, many of the most isolated rural populations still have no access to electricity. Yet the argument doesn’t seem to take into account the fact that the subsidy’s intended purpose might still be achieved even if only some, not all, rural populations now have access to electricity.
A. No. The argument never claims the subsidy’s intended purpose could have been arrived at by other means, only that it has not been fulfilled thus far.
B. No. There is no discussion in the argument of the subsidy benefiting those for whom it was not intended.
C. No. The argument never claims that the subsidy was meant to help other people aside from those in rural areas.
D. No. While the argument doesn’t address the possibility raised by this choice, it’s not a logical flaw in its reasoning.
E. Yes. The argument incorrectly assumes that for the subsidy to achieve its intended purpose, it would have had to help everyone to whom it was applicable, not just some populations.
- Heart attacks are most likely to occur on Mondays.
The accepted explanation is that because Monday is
the first day of the workweek, people feel more stress
on Mondays than on other days. However, research
shows that even unemployed retired people are more
likely to have heart attacks on Mondays than on
other days.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the increased likelihood that an unemployed
retiree will have a heart attack on a Monday?
(A) Because they associate Monday with work,
retired people are more likely to begin large
projects on Mondays.
(B) Many retired people take up part-time jobs
after they retire from their careers.
(C) People seldom change their dietary and other
health habits after retirement.
(D) Stress is the major factor influencing the risk
of heart attack.
(E) Unemployed retired people are even more
likely to have heart attacks than are people
who have jobs
Correct Answer: A
A Resolve/Explain
It is commonly accepted that heart attacks are most likely to occur on Mondays because, as Monday is the start of the workweek, people feel more stress that day than on other days of the week. However, even unemployed retired people are more likely to have heart attacks on Mondays than on other days. Why is this the case if someone is retired and not tied to a traditional workweek schedule?
A. Yes. This would explain why retirees are just as likely as employed individuals to have a heart attack on a Monday; they keep to the same sort of work schedule even though they are no longer employed.
B. No. This doesn’t tell you about either their stress levels or their schedules, so this doesn’t help explain the situation.
C. No. This doesn’t explain why they would still be most likely to have a heart attack on a Monday.
D. No. This explains why heart attacks are more likely to occur on Mondays for people who are employed; however, it doesn’t explain the second part of the argument concerning retirees.
E. No. This makes the paradox worse.
- Psychologist: We asked 100 entrepreneurs and
100 business managers to answer various
questions and rate how confident they were
that their responses were correct. While
members of each group were overconfident, in
general the entrepreneurs were much more so
than the business managers. This indicates that
people who are especially overconfident are
more likely to attempt to start a business in
spite of the enormous odds against success
than people who are less confident.
Which one of the following, if true, lends the most
support to the psychologist’s conclusion?
(A) The questions asked of the entrepreneurs and
business managers included personal,
political, and business questions.
(B) At least some of the entrepreneurs surveyed
had accurately determined before attempting
to start their businesses what the odds were
against their attempts being successful.
(C) Another survey showed that degree of
confidence was highly correlated with success
in business.
(D) The business managers who were most
overconfident were found to have attempted
to start businesses in the past.
(E) How confident each person surveyed was that
his or her answers to the questions asked were
correct corresponded closely to that person’s
confidence in his or her business acumen.
Correct Answer: D
D Strengthen
The psychologist concludes that people who are especially overconfident are more likely to attempt to start a business in spite of the odds against success than are people who are less confident. The evidence the psychologist cites comes from a survey in which an equal number of entrepreneurs and business managers were asked to answer a bunch of questions and rate how confident they were that their answers were correct. In general, the entrepreneurs were more overconfident than the business managers. You want to find an answer that strengthens the link between being overconfident and trying to start a business.
A. No. This is irrelevant. The subject matter of the questions doesn’t tell you anything about the relationship between overconfidence and starting a business.
B. No. You don’t know whether these entrepreneurs were the ones that were overconfident; if they weren’t, then this information isn’t applicable to the psychologist’s argument.
C. No. This doesn’t strengthen the psychologist’s argument, which deals with the relationship between overconfidence and starting a business, not having success in business.
D. Yes. If what is true of the entrepreneurs in terms of their overconfidence is also found in some of the business managers, it makes it more likely that the psychologist’s conclusion about the link between overconfidence and starting a business is valid.
E. No. Confidence in one’s own business acumen is out of scope, since that doesn’t tell you whether a person is overconfident or more likely to start a business.
- If Agnes’s research proposal is approved, the fourthfloor lab must be cleaned out for her use. Immanuel’s
proposal, on the other hand, requires less space. So if
his proposal is approved, he will continue to work in
the second-floor lab. Only those proposals the
director supports will be approved. So since the
director will support both proposals, the fourth-floor
lab must be cleaned out.
The argument’s reasoning is flawed because the
argument
(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
the fourth-floor lab is bigger than the secondfloor lab
(B) fails to consider the possibility that a proposal
will be rejected even with the director’s
support
(C) presumes, without providing justification, that
the director will support both proposals with
equal enthusiasm
(D) fails to consider the possibility that Immanuel
will want to move to a bigger lab once his
proposal is approved
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
no lab other than the fourth-floor lab would
be adequate for Agnes’s research
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
If Agnes’s proposal is approved, the fourth-floor lab must be cleaned out. If Immanuel’s proposal is approved, he will continue to work in the second-floor lab because he requires less space. Only if the director supports a proposal will it be approved, which you can diagram as proposal approved director supports proposal, and the director supports both proposals. The argument therefore concludes that the fourth-floor lab must be cleaned out. However, having the director support a proposal doesn’t guarantee that it will be approved; that would entail reading in the opposite direction of the arrow, so there’s the flaw.
A. No. There is no discussion of the relative size of the two labs.
B. Yes. Having the director’s support is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for any proposal that is approved.
C. No. The amount of enthusiasm the director expresses for each proposal is not relevant, since the premises require only the director’s support and nothing more.
D. No. This is irrelevant. Even if Immanuel does want to move, Agnes’s proposal is the one that requires the fourth-floor lab. The argument doesn’t address the possibility raised in this choice, but this isn’t the flaw in the argument’s logic.
E. No. The premises state that if Agnes’s proposal is approved, the fourth-floor lab must be cleaned out for her use. You have to take that information as a given. Whether there are other labs that are also suitable is out of scope.
- In order to expand its mailing lists for e-mail
advertising, the Outdoor Sports Company has been
offering its customers financial incentives if they
provide the e-mail addresses of their friends.
However, offering such incentives is an unethical
business practice, because it encourages people to
exploit their personal relationships for profit, which
risks damaging the integrity of those relationships.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning in the argument?
(A) It is unethical for people to exploit their
personal relationships for profit if in doing so
they risk damaging the integrity of those
relationships.
(B) If it would be unethical to use information
that was gathered in a particular way, then it
is unethical to gather that information in the
first place.
(C) It is an unethical business practice for a
company to deliberately damage the integrity
of its customers’ personal relationships in any
way.
(D) It is unethical to encourage people to engage in
behavior that could damage the integrity of
their personal relationships.
(E) Providing a friend’s personal information to a
company in exchange for a financial reward
will almost certainly damage the integrity of
one’s personal relationship with that friend.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Strengthen
The argument concludes that the Outdoor Sports Company’s policy of offering its customers financial incentives to provide the E-mail addresses of their friends is an unethical business practice. Why? It encourages people to exploit their personal relationships for profit, which risks damaging the integrity of those relationships. You need an answer choice that supports this line of reasoning.
A. No. This choice focuses on what is unethical for people to do, but the argument specifically discusses an unethical business practice, so this is out of scope.
B. No. This is too broad. The argument never says that it is unethical to use the information, only that it is an unethical business practice to offer such incentives to gain it.
C. No. This is too strong. The argument says that people risk damaging their relationships, not that a company seeks to deliberately damage those relationships. Also, it is an individual’s choice whether to provide E-mail addresses of friends, so a choice that ascribes blame to a company for an individual’s willful actions doesn’t match the argument.
D. Yes. This matches the language of the argument, which is not extreme. Plus, this choice clearly states that what is unethical is that the company is encouraging behavior that could have damaging effects.
E. No. This doesn’t uphold the notion that the company’s business practice is unethical; it only addresses the effect an individual’s action might have.
- Glen: An emphasis on law’s purely procedural side
produces a concern with personal rights that
leads to the individual’s indifference to
society’s welfare. Law’s primary role should be
to create virtuous citizens.
Sara: But such a role would encourage government to
decide which modes of life are truly virtuous;
that would be more dangerous than
government’s being overprotective of
individuals’ rights.
The dialogue provides the most support for the claim
that Glen and Sara disagree about whether
(A) citizens can be assumed to be capable of
making good choices without governmental
interference
(B) virtuousness on the part of citizens is more
important than the protection of citizens’
rights
(C) there is an inherent danger in allowing
government to decide what constitutes
virtuous behavior among citizens
(D) an emphasis on law’s purely procedural side
results in government’s being overprotective
of citizens’ rights
(E) the cultivation of virtue among citizens should
be the primary role of law
Correct Answer: E
E Point at Issue
Glen concludes that law’s primary role should be to create virtuous citizens because an emphasis on law’s purely procedural side produces a concern with personal rights that leads to the individual’s indifference to society’s welfare. Sara, on the other hand, disagrees with Glen’s conclusion, arguing that his outlook would encourage government to decide which modes of life are truly virtuous, which would be more dangerous than the government’s being overprotective of individuals’ rights.
A. No. The issue of whether citizens are capable of making good choices is never raised in Sara’s argument.
B. No. While Glen might agree with this statement, you don’t know for certain that Sara would disagree, as she disagrees only with Glen’s conclusion, not his premise.
C. No. While Sara might agree with this statement, you don’t have enough information to know how Glen would react to it.
D. No. Sara never addresses law’s purely procedural side, so you don’t know whether she would agree with this statement. She only claims that if law’s primary role were to be the creation of virtuous citizens, the result would be a government that is overprotective of individuals’ rights.
E. Yes. Glen would agree with this, while Sara would disagree.
- Some credit card companies allow cardholders to
skip payments for up to six months under certain
circumstances, but it is almost never in a cardholder’s
interest to do so. Finance charges accumulate during
the skipped-payment period, and the cost to the
cardholder is much greater in the long run.
Which one of the following arguments illustrates a
principle most similar to the principle underlying the
argument above?
(A) Although insecticides are effective in ridding
the environment of insect pests, they often
kill beneficial insects at the same time. Since
these beneficial insects are so important, we
must find other ways to combat insect pests.
(B) Increasing the base salary of new employees is
good for a company. Although the company’s
payroll will increase, it will be easier for the
company to recruit new employees.
(C) It is unwise to use highway maintenance funds
for construction of new roads. There is some
immediate benefit from new roads, but if
these funds are not used for maintenance, the
total maintenance cost will be greater in the
long run.
(D) It is better to invest in a used piece of
equipment than to purchase a new one.
Although used equipment requires more
repairs and is sometimes more costly in the
long run, buying a new machine requires a far
greater initial outlay of capital.
(E) Sports cars are impractical for most drivers.
While there is undoubtedly a certain thrill
associated with driving these cars, their small
size makes them incapable of transporting
any but the smallest amounts of cargo
Correct Answer: C
C Principle Match
The argument concludes that it is almost never in a cardholder’s interest to skip payments on a credit card because the cost of doing so is much greater to the cardholder in the long run. You need to find an answer choice that similarly shows that the long-term cost of an action is much greater than its short-term benefit.
A. No. This discusses finding other ways to combat pests, which doesn’t match the original argument.
B. No. This suggests the costs are balanced out or overridden by the benefit, which doesn’t match the original argument.
C. Yes. Constructing new roads, while beneficial in the short term, will result in greater maintenance costs in the long run.
D. No. Here the costs are only sometimes greater in the long run, which doesn’t match the original argument.
E. No. There is no discussion of short- versus long-term costs or benefits in this choice.
- None of the students taking literature are taking
physics, but several of the students taking physics are
taking art. In addition, none of the students taking
rhetoric are taking physics.
Which one of the following statements follows
logically from the statements above?
(A) There are students who are taking art but not
literature.
(B) None of the students taking literature are
taking art.
(C) There are students who are taking rhetoric but
not literature.
(D) None of the students taking rhetoric are taking
literature.
(E) There are students who are taking both art and
literature.
Correct Answer: A
A Inference
Diagram the two pieces of information that start with “none.” Taking literature not taking physics; taking physics not taking literature. Taking rhetoric not taking physics; taking physics not taking rhetoric. You also know that some students taking physics are also taking art.
A. Yes. Several of the students taking physics are also taking art. Since taking physics not taking literature, this choice follows from the information given.
B. No. There is no direct connection made between taking literature and taking art. This is possible, but you’re looking for something that the information in the passage directly supports.
C. No. There is no direct connection made between taking literature and taking rhetoric. This is possible, but you’re looking for something that the information in the passage directly supports.
D. No. This choice has the same problem as (C).
E. No. There is no direct connection made between taking literature and taking art. This is possible, but you’re looking for something that the information in the passage directly supports.
- Psychologist: Psychotherapists who attempt to
provide psychotherapy on radio or television
talk shows are expected to do so in ways that
entertain a broad audience. However,
satisfying this demand is nearly always
incompatible with providing high-quality
psychological help. For this reason,
psychotherapists should never provide
psychotherapy on talk shows.
Which one of the following principles must be
assumed in order for the psychologist’s conclusion to
be properly drawn?
(A) It is never appropriate for psychotherapists to
attempt to entertain a broad audience.
(B) The context in which psychological help is
presented has a greater impact on its quality
than the nature of the advice that is given.
(C) Psychotherapy should never be provided in a
context in which there is any chance that the
therapy might be of less than high quality.
(D) Most members of radio and television talk
show audiences are seeking entertainment
rather than high-quality psychological help.
(E) Psychotherapists should never attempt to
provide psychological help in a manner that
makes it unlikely to be of high quality
Correct Answer: E
E Principle Strengthen
The psychologist concludes that psychotherapists should never provide psychotherapy on talk shows. Why? It is expected that psychotherapists who provide psychotherapy on radio or television talks show do so in a manner that is entertaining; however, satisfying this demand is almost always incompatible with providing psychological help that is of high quality.
A. No. This is out of scope. A psychotherapist could potentially be entertaining as long as he or she isn’t providing psychotherapy, and there’s no discussion of what is “appropriate” in the argument.
B. No. The psychologist doesn’t address what is responsible for the quality of the advice; she only states that something is usually incompatible with providing high-quality help.
C. No. The psychologist states that the demand for entertainment in this case is “nearly always incompatible” with providing high-quality care, but this choice creates a lower threshold by stating that psychotherapy should not be provided if there is “any chance” that it is less than high quality.
D. No. This is out of scope; what audiences are seeking isn’t relevant to the psychologist’s argument, which is concerned with what psychotherapists shouldn’t do.
E. Yes. This would support the psychologist’s decision, and it matches the strength of the language in the argument.
- Tania: A good art critic is not fair in the ordinary
sense; it is only about things that do not
interest one that one can give a truly unbiased
opinion. Since art is a passion, good criticism
of art cannot be separated from emotion.
Monique: Art is not simply a passion. The best art
critics passionately engage with the artwork,
but render their criticism only after shedding
all of their biases and consulting general
principles of aesthetics.
The dialogue most strongly supports the claim that
Tania and Monique disagree about whether
(A) art is not simply a passion
(B) good art criticism is sometimes unbiased
(C) art critics should not feel emotion toward
artworks
(D) fairness generally requires minimizing the
influence of bias
(E) the passionate engagement of the art critic
with the artwork is the most important aspect
of art criticism
Correct Answer: B
B Point at Issue
Tania claims that good art criticism cannot be separated from emotion because art is a passion and a person can be unbiased only about things that are of no interest to him or her. Although Monique’s conclusion is implied and not directly stated in the argument, she disagrees with Tania, noting that art is not just a passion and that the best art critics engage with artwork only after shedding all their biases and consulting general principles of aesthetics.
A. No. You don’t know whether Tania would agree with this; she only states that art is a passion, but her statement leaves open the possibility that she too thinks it is more than just that.
B. Yes. Tania would disagree with this statement, while Monique would agree with it.
C. No. Neither person makes claims about what art critics should or should not feel toward artworks.
D. No. Monique never addresses the issue of fairness, so you don’t know whether she would agree with this choice.
E. No. Neither individual makes any claims about what the most important aspect of art criticism is.
- The writing styles in works of high literary quality
are not well suited to the avoidance of
misinterpretation. For this reason, the writing in
judicial decisions, which are primarily intended as
determinations of law, is rarely of high literary
quality. However, it is not uncommon to find writing
of high literary quality in dissenting opinions, which
are sometimes included in written decisions in cases
heard by a panel of judges.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
resolve the apparent discrepancy in the statements
above?
(A) It is not uncommon for more than one judge
to have an influence on the way a dissenting
opinion is written.
(B) Unlike literary works, legal opinions rely
heavily on the use of technical terminology.
(C) The law is not to any great extent determined
by dissenting opinions.
(D) Judges spend much more time reading judicial
decisions than reading works of high literary
quality.
(E) Judicial decisions issued by panels of judges
are likely to be more widely read than are
judicial decisions issued by a single judge who
hears a case alone.
Correct Answer: C
C Resolve/Explain
Judicial writing is rarely of high literary quality, since the writing styles of works of such quality are more subject to misinterpretation, which would defeat the purpose of judicial decisions. Yet some dissenting opinions have writing of high literary quality even though they are sometimes included in written decisions.
A. No. This doesn’t explain why dissenting opinions would have a higher literary quality.
B. No. This doesn’t help explain anything because this would seemingly apply to both decisions and dissenting opinions.
C. Yes. If dissenting opinions aren’t used to determine laws, then it wouldn’t be a problem for them to be written in a style that might allow them to be subject to misinterpretation.
D. No. This is irrelevant. You’re not concerned with what judges read, and this doesn’t explain why dissenting opinions would have a higher literary quality.
E. No. This wouldn’t explain why, if these judicial decisions are more widely read, it would be acceptable for the dissenting opinions contained therein to be written in a style that leaves them more open to misinterpretation.
- Ecologist: Without the intervention of
conservationists, squirrel monkeys will become
extinct. But they will survive if large tracts of
second-growth forest habitat are preserved for
them. Squirrel monkeys flourish in second growth forest because of the plentiful supply
of their favorite insects and fruit.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred
from the ecologist’s statements?
(A) No habitat other than second-growth forest
contains plentiful supplies of squirrel
monkeys’ favorite insects and fruit.
(B) At least some of the conservationists who
intervene to help the squirrel monkeys
survive will do so by preserving secondgrowth forest habitat for the monkeys.
(C) Without plentiful supplies of their favorite
insects and fruit, squirrel monkeys will
become extinct.
(D) If conservationists intervene to help squirrel
monkeys survive, then the squirrel monkeys
will not become extinct.
(E) Without the intervention of conservationists,
large tracts of second-growth forest habitat
will not be preserved for squirrel monkeys.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
Diagram the first two statements in the argument. No intervention → squirrel monkeys become extinct; squirrel monkeys do not become extinct → intervention. Tracts of forest preserved → monkeys survive; monkeys do not survive → tracts of forest not preserved.
A. No. This is irrelevant; the argument doesn’t discuss habitats other than second-growth forest.
B. No. You don’t know what form an intervention by conservationists would take, so this choice goes too far.
C. No. You are told that second-growth forest furnishes squirrel monkeys’ favorite insects and fruit; however, it is possible that they could survive on other sources of food that aren’t their favorites. The argument never states that their favorite insects and fruit are the only kinds squirrel monkeys eat.
D. No. Intervention by conservationists is a necessary but not sufficient condition for squirrel monkeys to survive. Even if an intervention takes place, they could still become extinct for other reasons.
E. Yes. Combine the first and last diagrammed statements. No intervention → squirrel monkeys become extinct/do not survive → tracts of forest not preserved.
- Over 40,000 lead seals from the early Byzantine
Empire remain today. Apart from the rare cases
where the seal authenticated a document of special
importance, most seals had served their purpose
when the document was opened. Lead was not
expensive, but it was not free: most lead seals would
have been recast once they had served their purpose.
Thus the number of early Byzantine documents
sealed in such a fashion must have been many times
the number of remaining lead seals.
Which one of the following statements, if true, most
strengthens the argument?
(A) Most of the lead seals produced during the
early Byzantine Empire were affixed to
documents that were then opened during that
period.
(B) Most of the lead seals produced during the
early Byzantine Empire were affixed to
documents that have since been destroyed.
(C) The amount of lead available for seals in the
early Byzantine Empire was much greater
than the amount of lead that remains in the
seals today.
(D) During the time of the early Byzantine Empire
there were at most 40,000 documents of
enough importance to prevent the removing
and recycling of the seal.
(E) During the time of the early Byzantine Empire
there were fewer than 40,000 seals affixed to
documents at any given time.
Correct Answer: A
A Strengthen
The argument concludes that the number of early Byzantine documents sealed with lead seals must have been many times the number of remaining lead seals. Why? Most documents of the era that were sealed with lead remained that way only until the seal was broken, at which point the lead would have been recast and used again. The only way this conclusion could be true would be if most documents of the period that were sealed with lead were actually opened during that time and not kept sealed until much later.
A. Yes. If this is true, then it makes sense to say that there would have been far more documents with lead seals during the early Byzantine era than the number of lead seals that remain today.
B. No. The fact that the documents have been destroyed is irrelevant, but since this choice doesn’t tell you whether the documents were opened and when, it doesn’t strengthen the argument.
C. No. The amount of lead available is not relevant, since the argument says lead seals tended to be recast.
D. No. This focuses on the documents whose seals would not have been broken; it doesn’t matter whether there were at most or more than 40,000 such documents.
E. No. This focuses on how many seals there might have been at any given point during the early Byzantine Empire, but the conclusion focuses on how many documents would have used such seals, so this choice has no bearing on the argument.
- Farmer: In the long run, it is counterproductive for
farmers to use insecticides. Because insects’
resistance to insecticides increases with
insecticide use, farmers have to use greater and
greater amounts of costly insecticides to
control insect pests.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
the role played in the farmer’s argument by the
proposition that farmers have to use greater and
greater amounts of costly insecticides to control
insect pests?
(A) It is the argument’s main conclusion, but not
its only conclusion.
(B) It is a claim for which a causal explanation is
provided and which itself is used as direct
support for the argument’s only conclusion.
(C) It is the argument’s only conclusion.
(D) It is a claim that is used as direct support for
an intermediary conclusion, which in turn is
used as direct support for the argument’s
main conclusion.
(E) It identifies a phenomenon for which the
argument’s main conclusion offers a causal
explanation.
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
The farmer concludes that it is counterproductive in the long run for farmers to use insecticides. He bases his conclusion on the premise that since insects’ resistance to insecticides increases with insecticide use, farmers have to use increasingly greater amounts of costly insecticides to control pests. The proposition asked about in the question stem functions as part of the support for the farmer’s conclusion.
A. No. The statement is not the argument’s conclusion.
B. Yes. The statement supports the farmer’s conclusion and is itself supported by the part of the argument that talks about insects’ resistance to insecticides increasing with insecticide use.
C. No. The statement is not the argument’s conclusion.
D. No. There is no intermediary conclusion in the argument.
E. No. The argument’s conclusion does not offer an explanation for the phenomenon described in the statement.
- Anna: Did you know that rainbows always occur
opposite the sun, appearing high in the sky
when the sun is low, and low in the sky when
the sun is high? The Roman scholar Pliny the
Elder claimed that this was so, in the first
century A.D.
William: His claim cannot be correct. After all, Pliny
the Elder wrote that there are tribes of dog headed people and beings with no heads or
necks but with eyes on their shoulders, and
said that smearing snails on your forehead
cures headaches!
William’s argument against Anna’s claims about
rainbows is most vulnerable to criticism because it
(A) inappropriately distorts Anna’s conclusion,
making it appear more extreme than it really
is
(B) takes for granted that Pliny the Elder was in
bad faith when he reported about unheard-of
creatures
(C) illicitly infers that, because Pliny the Elder
made some incorrect assertions, Pliny the
Elder’s assertions about rainbows are also
incorrect
(D) accepts the assertions of an ancient scholar
without presenting contemporary verification
of that scholar’s views
(E) implies that Pliny the Elder’s writings are too
outdated to be of any value
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
William concludes that Pliny the Elder could not have been correct in claiming that rainbows always occur opposite the sun. He bases this conclusion on the fact that Pliny made some fairly ridiculous and untrue claims in his writings. William fails to consider that Pliny could still be right about rainbows even if a lot of the other stuff he claimed was incorrect.
A. No. William doesn’t distort anything that Anna says.
B. No. If anything, William appears to assume that Pliny was sincere in his claims, not that he was in bad faith.
C. Yes. Pliny could have had a few correct assertions, but William discounts this possibility based on the fact that other things Pliny claimed were false.
D. No. William does not accept Pliny’s assertions.
E. No. William states that Pliny’s writings are incorrect, not that they are outdated.
- Shareholder: The company’s current operations are
time-proven successes. The move into food
services may siphon off funds needed by these
other operations. Also, the food service
industry is volatile, with a higher inherent risk
than with, for instance, pharmaceuticals,
another area into which the company has
considered expanding.
If the shareholder’s statements are true, which one of
the following is most strongly supported by them?
(A) The company’s present operations require
increased funding.
(B) Investment into pharmaceuticals would not
siphon off money from other operations.
(C) The company will lose money as it expands
into the food service industry.
(D) Only if the company expands its operations
into pharmaceuticals are increased profits
possible.
(E) The company has a greater chance of losing
money in food services than in
pharmaceuticals.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. No mention is made of a need for increased funding.
B. No. There is no discussion of whether investment in pharmaceuticals would siphon off money from other operations.
C. No. The food service industry carries greater risk and might siphon off funds from other operations, but there is no indication that the company will lose money if it chooses to move into this area.
D. No. There is no mention of increasing profits in the argument.
E. Yes. The last sentence of the argument supports this; the food service industry has a higher inherent risk than the pharmaceuticals industry.
- Mariah: Joanna has argued that Adam should not
judge the essay contest because several of his
classmates have entered the contest. However,
the essays are not identified by author to the
judge and, moreover, none of Adam’s friends
are classmates of his. Still, Adam has no
experience in critiquing essays. Therefore, I
agree with Joanna that Adam should not judge
the contest.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify Mariah’s argument?
(A) A suspicion of bias is insufficient grounds on
which to disqualify someone from judging a
contest.
(B) Expertise should be the primary prerequisite
for serving as a contest judge.
(C) The ability of a judge to make objective
decisions is more important than that judge’s
content expertise.
(D) In selecting a contest judge, fairness concerns
should override concern for the appropriate
expertise.
(E) A contest judge, no matter how well qualified,
cannot judge properly if the possibility of bias
exists.
Correct Answer: B
B Principle Strengthen
Mariah concludes that Adam should not judge the essay contest. Her reasons for this, however, are different from those of Joanna, who thinks Adam would be biased because several of his classmates have entered the contest. Mariah believes that Adam should not judge the contest because he has no experience in critiquing essays.
A. No. Mariah discounts Joanna’s suspicion of bias, so this choice is not relevant.
B. Yes. Mariah’s conclusion that Adam should not be a judge is based on his lack of expertise.
C. No. Mariah is concerned about expertise, and since she seems to believe that Adam would not have a bias, you don’t know whether she would consider objectivity more important than expertise.
D. No. Again, Mariah favors expertise, and since she seems to believe that Adam would not have a bias, you don’t know whether she would weigh fairness over expertise.
E. No. Since Mariah dismisses the idea that Adam would be biased, this isn’t relevant to her conclusion.
- The manufacturers of NoSmoke claim that their
product reduces smokers’ cravings for cigarettes.
However, in a recent study, smokers given the main
ingredient in NoSmoke reported no decrease in
cravings for cigarettes. Thus, since NoSmoke has only
two ingredients, if similar results are found for the
second ingredient, we can conclude that NoSmoke
does not reduce smokers’ cravings.
The argument above is flawed in that it
(A) illicitly presumes that a whole must lack a
certain quality if all of its parts lack that
quality
(B) confuses a mere correlation with a cause
(C) relies on a sample that is likely to be
unrepresentative
(D) overlooks the possibility that NoSmoke helps
people to quit smoking in ways other than by
reducing smokers’ cravings for cigarettes
(E) illicitly presumes that a claim must be false
because the people making the claim are
biased
Correct Answer: A
A Flaw
In a recent study, the main ingredient in NoSmoke was shown not to decrease smokers’ cravings for cigarettes. NoSmoke has only two ingredients. The argument concludes that if similar results are found for the other ingredient, NoSmoke does not reduce smokers’ cravings. However, the argument doesn’t consider the fact that it could be the combination of the two ingredients that reduces smokers’ cravings.
A. Yes. The argument assumes that if both ingredients individually are unable to reduce smokers’ cravings, then NoSmoke as a whole must also be unable to do so.
B. No. The argument does not confuse correlation and cause.
C. No. The sample consists of smokers, so this isn’t the flaw in the argument.
D. No. This is out of scope. The manufacturers specifically claim that NoSmoke reduces smokers’ cravings for cigarettes.
E. No. The argument makes no allegations of bias.
- Gardener: Researchers encourage us to allow certain
kinds of weeds to grow among garden
vegetables because they can repel caterpillars
from the garden. While it is wise to avoid
unnecessary use of insecticides, the
researchers’ advice is premature. For all we
know, those kinds of weeds can deplete the soil
of nutrients and moisture that garden crops
depend on, and might even attract other kinds
of damaging pests.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the gardener’s argument?
(A) To the extent that it is possible to do so, we
should eliminate the use of insecticides in
gardening.
(B) Allowing certain kinds of weeds to grow in
vegetable gardens may contribute to a net
increase in unwanted garden pests.
(C) Allowing the right kinds of weeds to grow in
vegetable gardens can help toward controlling
caterpillars without the use of insecticides.
(D) We should be cautious about the practice of
allowing certain kinds of weeds to grow
among garden vegetables.
(E) We should be skeptical about the extent to
which certain kinds of weeds can reduce the
presence of caterpillars in gardens.
Correct Answer: D
D Main Point
The gardener concludes that the researchers’ advice—allow certain kinds of weeds to grow among garden vegetables so as to repel caterpillars—is premature. Why? Those kinds of weeds could deplete the soil of nutrients and moisture that garden crops depend on and might attract other kinds of damaging pests.
A. No. This is not the issue; the gardener doesn’t say that the use of insecticides should be eliminated.
B. No. This is a premise.
C. No. This is part of the researchers’ advice, with which the gardener disagrees.
D. Yes. This matches the tone of the gardener’s conclusion, which is that the researchers’ advice is premature.
E. No. The gardener doesn’t dispute the fact that certain weeds could have the effect of reducing the presence of caterpillars; he is more concerned about what other unforeseen effects these weeds might have.
- Executive: We recently ran a set of advertisements in
the print version of a travel magazine and on
that magazine’s website. We were unable to get
any direct information about consumer
response to the print ads. However, we found
that consumer response to the ads on the
website was much more limited than is typical
for website ads. We concluded that consumer
response to the print ads was probably below
par as well.
The executive’s reasoning does which one of the
following?
(A) bases a prediction of the intensity of a
phenomenon on information about the
intensity of that phenomenon’s cause
(B) uses information about the typical frequency
of events of a general kind to draw a
conclusion about the probability of a
particular event of that kind
(C) infers a statistical generalization from claims
about a large number of specific instances
(D) uses a case in which direct evidence is available
to draw a conclusion about an analogous case
in which direct evidence is unavailable
(E) bases a prediction about future events on facts
about recent comparable events
Correct Answer: D
D Reasoning
The executive concludes that consumer response to the set of advertisements run in the print version of a travel magazine was probably below par. He bases this conclusion on the fact that consumer response to the same set of ads run on the magazine’s website was more limited than is typical for website ads.
A. No. The executive bases his prediction of consumer response to the print ads on the response garnered from the website ads, so this choice, especially the part about the cause of the phenomenon, doesn’t match the argument.
B. No. The executive uses information about consumer response to ads run on a website to draw a conclusion about the probable consumer response to ads run in print, an event of a different kind.
C. No. The executive does not make a statistical generalization; he is referring only to a specific set of ads.
D. Yes. He uses the evidence from the website ads to draw a conclusion about the results of the print ads, for which no direct information is available.
E. No. Future events are never referred to in the argument.
- Conservation officers justified their decision to
remove a pack of ten coyotes from a small island by
claiming that the coyotes, which preyed on wild cats
and plover, were decimating the plover population
and would soon wipe it out. After the coyotes were
removed, however, the plover population plummeted
dramatically, and within two years plover could no
longer be found on the island.
Which one of the following would, if true, most help
explain the phenomenon described above?
(A) Plover are ground-nesting birds, which makes
them easy prey for coyotes.
(B) Wild cat and plover populations tend to
fluctuate together.
(C) Coyotes are not susceptible to any of the
diseases that commonly infect plover or wild
cats.
(D) The wild cat population on the island was once
significantly larger than it is currently.
(E) The coyotes preyed mainly on wild cats, and
wild cats prey on plover.
Correct Answer: E
E Resolve/Explain
A pack of ten coyotes, which are known to prey on wild cats and plover, was removed from a small island because the coyotes were supposedly decimating the plover population. However, once they were removed, the plover population decreased significantly, and within two years no plover could be found on the island. Why did the plover population shrink after the coyotes were removed?
A. No. This suggests that the plover population should have recovered after the coyotes were removed.
B. No. This is irrelevant; it doesn’t explain why the plover population plummeted.
C. No. By itself, this choice isn’t enough to explain why the plover disappeared; you don’t know that a disease that commonly infects plover would result in its decimation.
D. No. This is irrelevant and doesn’t tell you why the plover population decreased.
E. Yes. If the coyotes were removed, then the number of wild cats would no longer be held in check; a greater number of wild cats preying on plover would result in the elimination of the plover population.
- Economist: During a recession, a company can cut
personnel costs either by laying off some
employees without reducing the wages of
remaining employees or by reducing the wages
of all employees without laying off anyone.
Both damage morale, but layoffs damage it
less, since the aggrieved have, after all, left.
Thus, when companies must reduce personnel
costs during recessions, they are likely to lay
off employees.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the economist’s reasoning?
(A) Employee morale is usually the primary
concern driving companies’ decisions about
whether to lay off employees or to reduce
their wages.
(B) In general, companies increase wages only
when they are unable to find enough qualified
employees.
(C) Some companies will be unable to make a
profit during recessions no matter how much
they reduce personnel costs.
(D) When companies cut personnel costs during
recessions by reducing wages, some
employees usually resign.
(E) Some companies that have laid off employees
during recessions have had difficulty finding
enough qualified employees once economic
growth resumed.
Correct Answer: A
A Strengthen
The economist states that companies have two means by which they can cut personnel costs during a recession—laying off some employees without reducing the wages of remaining employees or reducing the wages of all employees without laying anyone off. While both damage morale, layoffs damage it less since those who are aggrieved have left. From all this the economist concludes that when companies must reduce personnel costs during recessions, they are likely to lay off employees. To strengthen this argument, you need to show that morale is a significant factor in companies’ decision making during a recession.
A. Yes. If employee morale is the primary concern, this would strengthen the economist’s conclusion that companies will choose the option that damages morale less—laying off employees.
B. No. Increasing wages is outside the scope of the argument.
C. No. Making a profit is outside the scope of the argument, which is concerned with cutting personnel costs.
D. No. The fact that some employees resign when companies resort to reducing wages to cut personnel costs doesn’t tie in to the idea of employee morale, as others may not choose to resign.
E. No. Finding qualified employees after a recession is irrelevant to the economist’s argument.
- There are far fewer independent bookstores than
there were 20 years ago, largely because chain
bookstores prospered and multiplied during that
time. Thus, chain bookstores’ success has been to the
detriment of book consumers, for the shortage of
independent bookstores has prevented the variety of
readily available books from growing as much as it
otherwise would have.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument relies?
(A) Book consumers would be better off if there
were a greater variety of readily available
books than there currently is.
(B) Independent bookstores typically do not sell
the kinds of books that are available in chain
bookstores.
(C) The average bookstore today is larger than the
average bookstore of 20 years ago.
(D) The average bookstore today is smaller than
the average bookstore of 20 years ago.
(E) Some book consumers value low prices more
highly than wide selection.
Correct Answer: A
A Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that chain bookstores’ success has been to the detriment of book consumers. Why? The shortage of independent bookstores has prevented the variety of readily available books from growing as much as it otherwise would have. The premises discuss the reduced growth in the variety of available books while the conclusion refers to a detriment to book consumers; this is the gap you need to bridge.
A. Yes. This bridges the gap between detriment and selection; if you negate this statement, the argument is no longer valid.
B. No. If you negate this choice, the argument’s conclusion could still be valid, so it’s not necessary to the argument.
C. No. The size of the bookstore is out of scope; you want to know about the variety of books available.
D. No. The size of the bookstore is out of scope; you want to know about the variety of books available.
E. No. Whether some consumers prize price over selection is irrelevant to the conclusion.
- Concert promoter: Some critics claim that our
concert series lacks popular appeal. But our
income from the sales of t-shirts and other
memorabilia at the concerts is equal to or
greater than that for similar sales at
comparable series. So those critics are
mistaken.
The concert promoter’s argument is flawed in that it
(A) attacks the critics on the basis of emotional
considerations rather than factual ones
(B) takes for granted that income from sales of
memorabilia is the sole indicator of popular
appeal
(C) takes for granted that the comparable series
possess popular appeal
(D) draws a conclusion about the popularity of a
series based on a comparison with other,
dissimilar events
(E) fails to adequately distinguish the series as a
whole from individual concerts in it
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The concert promoter notes that some critics claim that his concert series lacks popular appeal. But the income from the sales of t-shirts and other memorabilia at the concerts is equal to or greater than that for similar sales at comparable series, so the concert promoter concludes that those critics are mistaken. However, the concert promoter compares sales at his concert series to those of comparable series, which doesn’t actually address the critics’ concerns since the comparable series could also lack popular appeal.
A. No. The concert promoter does not “attack” the critics based on emotional considerations.
B. No. The concert promoter never claims that income from sales of memorabilia is the only indicator of popular appeal; such sales are presented as one means of assessing that appeal.
C. Yes. The concert promoter never provides any evidence to suggest that the comparable series have popular appeal.
D. No. The series is compared to other comparable series, so this doesn’t match the argument.
E. No. The concert promoter doesn’t make this distinction, but this isn’t a flaw in the argument’s logic.
- The sun emits two types of ultraviolet radiation that
damage skin: UV-A, which causes premature
wrinkles, and UV-B, which causes sunburn. Until
about ten years ago, sunscreens protected against
UV-B radiation but not against UV-A radiation.
Which one of the following is best supported by the
information above?
(A) Since about ten years ago, the percentage of
people who wear sunscreen every time they
spend time in the sun has increased.
(B) Most people whose skin is prematurely
wrinkled have spent a large amount of time in
the sun without wearing sunscreen.
(C) The specific cause of premature skin wrinkling
was not known until about ten years ago.
(D) People who wear sunscreen now are less likely
to become sunburned than were people who
spent the same amount of time in the sun
wearing sunscreen ten years ago.
(E) Until about ten years ago, people who wore
sunscreen were no less likely to have
premature wrinkles than were people who
spent the same amount of time in the sun
without wearing sunscreen.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. There is no information provided about the percentage of people who wear sunscreen.
B. No. There could be reasons other than sun exposure for people having skin that is prematurely wrinkled.
C. No. No mention is made of when the cause of premature skin wrinkling became known.
D. No. The argument states that sunscreen has protected against UV-B radiation, which causes sunburn, since before ten years ago, so there shouldn’t be any lessened risk of sunburn for people now as compared to ten years ago.
E. Yes. Until about ten years ago, sunscreen provided no protection against premature skin wrinkling, so the likelihood of having premature wrinkles would have been the same for both those who wore sunscreen and those who didn’t.
- Advice columnist: Several scientific studies have
shown that, when participating in competitive
sports, those people who have recently been
experiencing major stress in their lives are
several times more likely to suffer serious
injuries than are other participants in
competitive sports. Since risking serious injury
is unwise, no sports activity should be used as
a method for coping with stress.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning in the advice
columnist’s argument?
(A) If people recently under stress should avoid a
subset of activities of a certain type, they
should avoid all activities of that type.
(B) A method for coping with stress should be
used only if it has been subjected to scientific
study.
(C) People who have not been experiencing major
stress in their lives should participate in
competitive sports.
(D) When people have been under considerable
stress, they should engage in competitive
activities in order to relieve the stress.
(E) People with a history of sports injuries should
not engage in sports activities if they have
recently been under stress.
Correct Answer: A
A Principle Strengthen
The advice columnist concludes that sports activity should not be used as a method for coping with stress. She bases this advice on several scientific studies that showed that people who have recently been experiencing major stress in their lives are more prone to suffer serious injuries when playing competitive sports than are other participants. Since risking serious injury is unwise, she advises people to avoid sports activity when under stress. You may have noticed that the argument jumped from competitive sports to sports activity in general; you want to bolster that shift with one of the answer choices.
A. Yes. This supports the advice columnist’s conclusion that people recently under stress should avoid engaging in all sports activity on the basis of the idea that they should avoid engaging in competitive sports.
B. No. The advice columnist never states that a method for coping with stress must be subjected to scientific study first.
C. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is specifically concerned with people who have recently been experiencing major stress.
D. No. The advice columnist’s argument seems to be going in the opposite direction.
E. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is not focused on people with a history of sports injuries.
- Tent caterpillars’ routes between their nests and
potential food sources are marked with chemical
traces called pheromones that the caterpillars leave
behind. Moreover, routes from food sources back to
the nest are marked more heavily than are merely
exploratory routes that have failed to turn up a food
source. Thus, tent caterpillars are apparently among
the insect species that engage in communal foraging,
which consists in the conveying of information
concerning the location of food to other members of
the colony, nest, or hive.
Which one of the following, if true, adds the most
support to the argument?
(A) A hungry tent caterpillar is more likely to
follow heavily marked routes than lightly
marked routes.
(B) Tent caterpillars can detect the presence but
not the concentration of pheromones.
(C) Sometimes individual tent caterpillars will not
return to the nest until a food source is
located.
(D) The pheromones left by tent caterpillars are
different from the pheromones left by other
animals.
(E) The pheromones that tent caterpillars leave
behind are detectable by certain other species
of caterpillars.
Correct Answer: A
A Strengthen
The argument concludes that tent caterpillars are among the insect species that engage in communal foraging. Why? Tent caterpillars chemically mark the routes between their nests and potential food sources with pheromones, and routes from food sources back to the nest are marked more heavily than are exploratory routes that have not yielded a food source. To strengthen the argument, you need an answer that suggests that these markers are used by other tent caterpillars to find food, thereby supporting the idea that these caterpillars engage in communal foraging.
A. Yes. If hungry tent caterpillars follow these routes to find food, then the actions of some tent caterpillars serve to aid the whole community, supporting the idea that these insects engage in communal foraging.
B. No. This would weaken the argument, if anything, as it casts doubt on the idea that the heavily marked routes help convey the location of food to other members of the insect group.
C. No. This is irrelevant; the argument is concerned with how the paths to these food sources are indicated to others.
D. No. This doesn’t strengthen the argument because it doesn’t suggest that tent caterpillars engage in communal foraging, only that their markers aren’t useful to other foraging animals.
E. No. Again, this doesn’t tell you anything about tent caterpillars in particular with regard to communal foraging, so it’s irrelevant.
- Many movies starring top actors will do well at the
box office because the actors are already well known
and have a loyal following. Movies starring unknown
actors are therefore unlikely to do well.
The flawed reasoning in the argument above is most
similar to that in which one of the following?
(A) Many animals must devote most of their
energy to locating food, or they will not get
enough food to maintain optimal energy
levels. Thus, if immediate survival requires
such an animal to devote most of its energy to
some other purpose, optimal energy levels
generally will not be maintained.
(B) Often the presence of the flower bee balm in a
garden will attract bumblebees that pollinate
the plants and enable the garden to produce
an abundant crop. So, gardens that lack bee
balm usually do not produce abundant crops.
(C) A person’s ability to keep confidences is a large
part of being a friend, since frequently such
an ability enables a high degree of openness
in communication. Thus, a high degree of
openness in communication is an essential
feature of friendship.
(D) Visual aids can be very useful in effectively
teaching math skills, because they generally
allow vivid conceptualization of math
principles. If such visual aids were never
employed, therefore, teaching math skills
might sometimes be more difficult.
(E) An understanding of the rules of perspective is
necessary for achieving success as a painter,
since it is the understanding of these most
basic rules that allows the painter to paint
realistically. Thus, painters with an
understanding of the rules of perspective will
achieve success.
Correct Answer: B
B Parallel Flaw
Movies starring top actors do well at the box office because of their fame and following. The argument thus concludes that movies with unknown actors are unlikely to do well at the box office. However, you can’t conclude that having the opposite quality (unknown vs. well-known) will likely generate an opposite result (bad box office vs. good box office).
A. No. This argument doesn’t involve an opposite quality in the same way that the original argument does.
B. Yes. This argument mistakenly assumes that because the presence of flower bee balm results in abundant crops, the lack of it will likely produce the opposite effect, meaning crops will not be abundant.
C. No. There is no opposite aspect to this argument, so it doesn’t match the original one.
D. No. There is nothing in this argument that functions in the way well known/unknown function in the original argument, so this doesn’t match.
E. No. The conclusion of this choice is too extreme—”will achieve success”—when compared to the original argument’s conclusion—”are therefore unlikely to do well.”
- As part of a new trend in the writing of history, an
emphasis on the details of historical events and
motivations has replaced the previous emphasis on
overarching historical trends and movements, with
the result that the latter are often overlooked. In
consequence, the ominous parallels that may exist
between historical trends and current trends are also
overlooked, which lessens our ability to learn from
history.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support
which one of the following?
(A) Studying the details of historical events and
motivations lessens our ability to learn from
history.
(B) Overarching historical trends and movements
can be discerned only when details of
historical events and motivations are not
emphasized.
(C) Those who attend to overall trends and
movements in history and not to details are
the best able to learn from history.
(D) A change in emphasis in the interpretation of
history has lessened our ability to learn from
history.
(E) History should be interpreted in a way that
gives equal emphasis to overarching historical
trends and movements and to the details of
historical events and motivations.
Correct Answer: D
D Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. Studying details in and of itself isn’t what leads to a lessening of our ability to learn from history. A lack of attention to overarching historical trends and movements lessens our ability to learn from history.
B. No. The argument never links these two ideas together in such a mutually exclusive fashion.
C. No. The argument never claims that people should not attend to details at all; this is too extreme.
D. Yes. The shift away from an emphasis on overarching historical trends and movements and toward an emphasis on details of historical events and motivations has lessened our ability to learn from history.
E. No. The argument never states that both approaches should be given equal emphasis; this choice goes too far.
- Therapist: The ability to trust other people is
essential to happiness, for without trust there
can be no meaningful emotional connection to
another human being, and without meaningful
emotional connections to others we feel
isolated.
Which one of the following, if assumed, allows the
conclusion of the therapist’s argument to be properly
inferred?
(A) No one who is feeling isolated can feel happy.
(B) Anyone who has a meaningful emotional
connection to another human being can be
happy.
(C) To avoid feeling isolated, it is essential to trust
other people.
(D) At least some people who do not feel isolated
are happy.
(E) Anyone who is able to trust other people has a
meaningful emotional connection to at least
one other human being.
Correct Answer: A
A Sufficient Assumption
Diagram the pieces of the argument. No trust → no meaningful emotional connection to another; meaningful emotional connection to another → trust. No meaningful emotional connection to another → isolation; no isolation → meaningful connection to another. Therefore, happiness → trust; no trust → no happiness. If you try to combine this information, you get one longer statement—no isolation → meaningful connection to another → trust—and then the conclusion—happiness → trust. In order for the conclusion to be valid, you need to connect happiness to the longer chain so that you have happiness → no isolation.
A. Yes. If you diagram this, you get isolated → not happy and happy → not isolated.
B. No. This restates information you already know. Meaningful emotional connection to another → trust, but trust is a necessary, not sufficient, condition for happiness. Therefore, this doesn’t fully connect the conclusion to the premises.
C. No. This doesn’t connect the premises to the idea of happiness in the conclusion.
D. No. The “at least some” part of this choice is weaker than what is needed for the argument.
E. No. This doesn’t connect the premises to the idea of happiness in the conclusion.
- Of all the Arabic epic poems that have been popular
at various times, only Sirat Bani Hilal is still publicly
performed. Furthermore, while most other epics were
only recited, Sirat Bani Hilal has usually been sung.
The musical character of the performance, therefore,
is the main reason for its longevity.
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the
grounds that it
(A) relies on evidence that is in principle
impossible to corroborate
(B) relies on a source of evidence that may be
biased
(C) takes for granted that a particular correlation
is causal
(D) takes what may be mere popular opinion to be
an established fact
(E) takes a sufficient condition to be a necessary
condition
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
Sirat Bani Hilal is the only Arabic epic poem that is still publicly performed, and unlike most other epics, it is usually sung, not recited. The argument therefore concludes that it is the musical character of the performance that is the main reason for its longevity. However, the fact that Sirat Bani Hilal is still performed and is usually sung doesn’t mean that the two aspects are necessarily connected; one does not necessarily cause the other.
A. No. The evidence cited here seems possible to corroborate; you can confirm that it is still performed and that it is usually sung.
B. No. There doesn’t appear to be any bias with respect to the evidence.
C. Yes. The musical character and its longevity are correlated; you don’t know for sure that the musical character of Sirat Bani Hilal is the actual reason for its longevity.
D. No. This isn’t something the argument does; both pieces of information are factual.
E. No. The argument doesn’t confuse necessary and sufficient conditions; there’s nothing to diagram here.
- Fund-raiser: A charitable organization rarely gives its
donors the right to vote on its policies. The
inability to directly influence how charities
spend contributions makes potential donors
feel less of an emotional connection to the
charity. Thus, most charities could probably
increase the amount of money they raise
through donations by giving donors the right
to vote.
Which one of the following is an assumption that the
fund-raiser’s argument depends on?
(A) The most effective way for a charity to give
potential donors the ability to directly
influence what that charity does is by giving
donors the right to vote on the charity’s
policies.
(B) Most charities that have increased the amount
of money they raise through donations have
done so by making potential donors feel a
greater emotional connection to the charity.
(C) Every charity that has given donors the right
to vote on its policies has seen a marked
increase in the emotional connection donors
have to that charity.
(D) Most potential donors to a charity are
unwilling to give that charity any money if
there is no possible way for them to have any
influence on that charity’s policies.
(E) The emotional connection potential donors
feel to a charity can affect the amount of
money that charity raises through donations.
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The fund-raiser concludes that most charities could probably increase the amount of money they raise through donations by giving donors the right to vote. Why? Charities rarely give their donors the right to vote on their policies, and the inability to directly influence how charities spend contributions makes potential donors feel less of an emotional connection to a given charity. The fund-raiser’s conclusion talks about raising more money through donations while the premises discuss donors having an emotional connection to the charity. You need an answer choice that bridges the two.
A. No. The fund-raiser never claims that this is the most effective way to accomplish this goal.
B. No. The fund-raiser offers this as a solution, so charities that have already increased donations are out of scope. Whether other charities have done this before isn’t relevant to the argument here.
C. No. This doesn’t connect the idea of raising more money through donations; if you negate this, you’ll see that the argument’s conclusion isn’t really affected.
D. No. This leaves out the emotional connection part, so it isn’t necessary to the argument.
E. Yes. Try negating this statement and you’ll see that the argument becomes invalid. This ties together both the idea of raising more money through donations and fostering an emotional connection between a donor and a given charity.
- Leslie: I’ll show you that your quest for the treasure
is irrational. Suppose you found a tablet
inscribed, “Whoever touches this tablet will
lose a hand, yet will possess the world.” Would
you touch it?
Erich: Certainly not.
Leslie: Just as I expected! It is clear from your answer
that your hands are more important to you
than possessing the world. But your entire
body is necessarily more important to you
than your hands. Yet you are ruining your
health and harming your body in your quest
for a treasure that is much less valuable than
the whole world. I rest my case.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion drawn in Leslie’s argument?
(A) Erich would not sacrifice one of his hands in
order to possess the world.
(B) Erich should not risk his physical well-being
regardless of the possible gains that such risks
might bring.
(C) Erich is irrationally risking something that is
precious to him for something that is of no
value.
(D) Erich can be convinced that his quest for the
treasure is irrational.
(E) Erich is engaging in irrational behavior by
pursuing his quest for the treasure.
Correct Answer: E
E Main Point
Leslie concludes that Erich’s quest for the treasure is irrational. The basis for this is an analogy that she draws between Erich’s quest for this treasure, which is harming his health, and the hypothetical situation she poses to him, in which she asks whether he would risk losing a hand to possess the world, to which his response is no.
A. No. This is a part of the analogy that serves as a premise.
B. No. This idea is part of the support for her conclusion.
C. No. Leslie never says the treasure is of no value, only of lesser value when compared to Erich’s health and body.
D. No. Her conclusion isn’t that he can be convinced; it’s that he’s acting in an irrational manner whether he believes it or not.
E. Yes. This is a paraphrase of Leslie’s first statement.
- Newspaper article: People who take vitamin C
supplements tend to be healthier than average.
This was shown by a study investigating the
relationship between high doses of vitamin C
and heart disease, which showed that people
who regularly consume high doses of vitamin
C supplements have a significantly lower than
average risk of heart disease.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
weaken the argument in the newspaper article?
(A) Vitamin C taken in the form of supplements
has a different effect on the body than does
vitamin C taken in food.
(B) The reduction in risk of heart disease due to
the consumption of vitamin C is no greater
than the reduction due to certain other
dietary changes.
(C) Taking both vitamin C supplements and
vitamin E supplements lowers one’s risk of
heart disease far more than does taking either
one alone.
(D) High doses of vitamin C supplements tend to
reduce slightly one’s resistance to certain
common infectious diseases.
(E) Taking vitamin C supplements has been found
to lower one’s risk of developing cancer.
Correct Answer: D
D Weaken
The newspaper article concludes that people who take vitamin C supplements tend to be healthier than average. The support for this conclusion is a study that showed that those who regularly consume high doses of vitamin C supplements have a significantly lower-than-average risk of heart disease. To weaken this argument, you need to find a reason other than the vitamin C supplements that could account for the reduced risk of heart disease or show that taking vitamin C supplements doesn’t cause one to be healthier than average.
A. No. This is irrelevant; the argument focuses specifically on vitamin C supplements.
B. No. This doesn’t weaken the causal relationship that the argument established.
C. No. This doesn’t suggest that vitamin C wasn’t responsible for the reduction in risk of heart disease.
D. Yes. This introduces a negative effect of high doses of vitamin C supplements, which casts doubt on the argument’s conclusion that these supplements are the reason some people are healthier than average.
E. No. This would strengthen the newspaper article’s conclusion.
- George: Throughout the 1980s and early 1990s,
hardly anyone learned ballroom dancing. Why
is it that a large number of people now take
ballroom dancing lessons?
Boris: It’s because, beginning in 1995, many people
learned the merengue and several related
ballroom dances. Because these dances are so
popular, other ballroom dances are now
catching on.
Boris’s response to George is most vulnerable to
criticism because it fails to
(A) show that the people who learned the
merengue are the same people who are now
interested in other ballroom dances
(B) explain why ballroom dancing was so
unpopular before 1995
(C) relate the merengue to the forms of dancing
that were more prevalent before 1995
(D) account for the beginning of the revival of
interest in ballroom dancing
(E) demonstrate that all types of ballroom dancing
are currently popular
Correct Answer: D
D Flaw
George asks why a large number of people now take ballroom dancing lessons when throughout the 1980s and early 1990s, few people did. Boris responds that beginning in 1995, people started to learn the merengue and several related ballroom dances, and the popularity of those sparked interest in learning other ballroom dances. However, Boris doesn’t actually address George’s question of why people suddenly had a renewed interest in ballroom dancing; Boris merely provides some history from the moment that interest was renewed without stating what triggered that renewal.
A. No. Boris doesn’t show this, but that’s not the flaw in his reasoning.
B. No. George asks why ballroom dancing became popular again in the mid-1990s, so it is not necessary for Boris to explain why it was unpopular before 1995.
C. No. Boris doesn’t do this, but that’s not the flaw in his reasoning.
D. Yes. Boris doesn’t address George’s question as to what led to the renewed interest in ballroom dancing.
E. No. The argument isn’t concerned with whether all types of ballroom dancing are currently popular; this is irrelevant.
- On the basis of relatively minor morphological
differences, some scientists suggest that Neanderthals
should be considered a species distinct from CroMagnons, the forerunners of modern humans. Yet
the fact that the tools used by these two groups of
hominids living in different environments were of
exactly the same type indicates uncanny behavioral
similarities, for only if they faced the same daily
challenges and met them in the same way would they
have used such similar tools. This suggests that they
were members of the same species, and that the
morphological differences are due merely to their
having lived in different environments.
If the statements above are true, then each of the
following could be true EXCEPT:
(A) Morphological differences between the
members of two populations do not
guarantee that the two populations do not
belong to the same species.
(B) The daily challenges with which an
environment confronts its inhabitants are
unique to that environment.
(C) There are greater morphological differences
between Cro-Magnons and modern humans
than there are between Cro-Magnons and
Neanderthals.
(D) Use of similar tools is required if members of
two distinct groups of tool-making hominids
are to be considered members of the same
species.
(E) Through much of their coexistence, CroMagnons and Neanderthals were
geographically isolated from one another.
Correct Answer: B
B Inference
You’re looking for an answer that directly contradicts information in the paragraph. Four of the answer choices will be consistent with the information provided, even if they contain ideas that are not directly expressed in the argument.
A. No. This is consistent with the last sentence of the paragraph.
B. Yes. This cannot be true. The second sentences suggests that it is possible for two groups living in different environments to face the same daily challenges, so those challenges cannot be unique to those environments.
C. No. This could be true, as it doesn’t contradict anything stated in the passage.
D. No. This could be true, as it is in line with the information found in the second and third sentences.
E. No. This could be true, as you know from the argument that they lived in different environments.
- A summer day is “pleasant” if there are intermittent
periods of wind and the temperature stays below
84°F (29°C) all afternoon. A summer day with high
humidity levels is “oppressive” either if the
temperature stays above 84°F (29°C) all afternoon or
if there is no wind.
Which one of the following summer weather reports
most closely conforms to the principles stated above?
(A) The temperature on Friday stayed below 82°F
(28°C) all day, and there was no wind at all. It
was a day of low humidity, and it was a
pleasant day.
(B) On Monday, the temperature ranged from
85°F to 90°F (30°C to 32°C) from early
morning until night. It was an oppressive day
even though the humidity levels were low.
(C) On Tuesday, the temperature neither rose
above nor fell below 84°F (29°C) throughout
late morning and all afternoon. It was a
pleasant day because there were occasional
periods of wind.
(D) On Wednesday, a refreshing breeze in the early
morning became intermittent by late
morning, and the day’s humidity levels were
constantly high. It was an oppressive day,
even though the temperature did not rise
above 84°F (29°C) all day.
(E) On Thursday morning, the air was very still,
and it remained windless for the whole day.
Humidity levels for the day were high, and
even though the temperature fell below 84°F
(29°C) between early and late afternoon, it
was an oppressive day
Correct Answer: E
E Principle Match
Diagram the two pieces of information you have. Intermittent wind and temperature below 84 degrees → pleasant. Not pleasant → not intermittent wind or temperatures at 84 degrees or higher. High humidity with either no wind or temperatures above 84 degrees → oppressive. Not oppressive → not high humidity and some wind and temperatures at 84 degrees or lower.
A. No. To be pleasant, there must be intermittent wind; however, this says there was no wind.
B. No. To be oppressive, there must be high humidity; however, this says humidity levels were low.
C. No. To be pleasant, the temperature must be below 84 degrees; however, this says the temperature stayed at 84 degrees.
D. No. To be oppressive, the temperature must rise above 84 degrees; however, this says the temperature did not do so.
E. Yes. High humidity and no wind → oppressive.
- The local radio station will not win the regional
ratings race this year. In the past ten years the station
has never finished better than fifth place in the
ratings. The station’s manager has not responded to
its dismal ratings by changing its musical format or
any key personnel, while the competition has often
sought to respond to changing tastes in music and
has aggressively recruited the region’s top radio
personalities.
The reasoning in which one of the following is most
similar to that in the argument above?
(A) Every swan I have seen was white. Therefore all
swans are probably white.
(B) A fair coin was fairly flipped six times and was
heads every time. The next flip will probably
be heads too.
(C) All lions are mammals. Therefore Leo, the local
zoo’s oldest lion, is a mammal too.
(D) Recently stock prices have always been lower
on Mondays. Therefore they will be lower this
coming Monday too.
(E) Only trained swimmers are lifeguards, so it
follows that the next lifeguard at the local
pool will be a trained swimmer.
Correct Answer: D
D Parallel
The argument concludes that the local radio station will not win the regional ratings race this year because the station has never finished better than fifth over the past ten years and the station’s manager has made no changes in response to the poor ratings. You need to find an argument the conclusion of which is similarly based on trends in the past.
A. No. The conclusion of the argument is stronger than the conclusion here, which uses the word “probably.”
B. No. The conclusion of the argument is stronger than the conclusion here, which uses the word “probably.”
C. No. This conclusion is based on a conditional requirement (lion → mammal), not on prior trends, so this doesn’t match the original argument.
D. Yes. The conclusion about stock prices this coming Monday is based on stock prices from prior Mondays.
E. No. This conclusion is based on a conditional requirement (lifeguard → trained swimmer), not on prior trends, so this doesn’t match the original argument.
- Chef: This mussel recipe’s first step is to sprinkle the
live mussels with cornmeal. The cornmeal is
used to clean them out: they take the cornmeal
in and eject the sand that they contain. But I
can skip this step, because the mussels
available at seafood markets are farm raised
and therefore do not contain sand.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the chef’s argument?
(A) Cornmeal is not used to clean out farm-raised
mussels before they reach seafood markets.
(B) Mussels contain no contaminants other than
sand.
(C) Sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal does not
affect their taste.
(D) The chef’s mussel recipe was written before
farm-raised mussels became available.
(E) The mussels the chef is using for the mussel
recipe came from a seafood market.
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The chef concludes that she can skip the step of sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal, which is usually done to clean out the sand they may contain. The chef’s reason for skipping this step is that the mussels available at seafood markets are farm raised and therefore don’t contain sand. In order for the chef’s argument to be valid, though, you need to know that the mussels the chef is using are indeed farm raised or from a seafood market; otherwise, skipping the step can’t be justified.
A. No. This is irrelevant; as long as any sand is cleaned out before the mussels get to the chef, it doesn’t matter.
B. No. This is out of scope; the only contaminant the argument is concerned with is sand.
C. No. The issue of taste is irrelevant to the chef’s argument.
D. No. This isn’t essential to the argument; if you negate this statement, the chef’s conclusion is still valid.
E. Yes. If this isn’t true, then the chef isn’t justified in skipping the step of sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal based on the information you have in the argument.
- Many doctors cater to patients’ demands that they be
prescribed antibiotics for their colds. However, colds
are caused by viruses, and antibiotics have no effect on
viruses, and so antibiotics have no effect on colds.
Such treatments are also problematic because
antibiotics can have dangerous side effects. So doctors
should never prescribe antibiotics to treat colds.
The reasoning above most closely conforms to which
one of the following principles?
(A) A doctor should not prescribe a drug for a
condition if it cannot improve that condition
and if the drug potentially has adverse side
effects.
(B) A doctor should not prescribe any drug that
might have harmful effects on the patient
even if the drug might have a positive effect
on the patient.
(C) A doctor should attempt to prescribe every
drug that is likely to affect the patient’s health
positively.
(D) A doctor should withhold treatment from a
patient if the doctor is uncertain whether the
treatment will benefit the patient.
(E) A doctor should never base the decision to
prescribe a certain medication for a patient
on the patient’s claims about the effectiveness
of that medication.
Correct Answer: A
A Principle Match
The argument concludes that although patients may demand them, doctors should never prescribe antibiotics to treat colds. The reasons behind this conclusion are that colds are caused by viruses, on which antibiotics have no effect, and that antibiotics can have dangerous side effects. You need an answer choice that supports this line of reasoning.
A. Yes. This matches up well with both of the stated premises above.
B. No. There is no mention in the argument of a potential positive effect of antibiotic treatment for colds, so this doesn’t match.
C. No. The conclusion argues against prescribing antibiotics because they won’t help patients with colds, whereas this choice is concerned with drugs that might have a positive effect.
D. No. There is no mention of uncertainty in the argument.
E. No. No mention is made in the argument of the patient’s claims about the effectiveness of antibiotics.
- Long-distance runners use two different kinds of
cognitive strategies: “associative” and “dissociative.”
Associative strategies involve attending closely to
physical sensations, while dissociative strategies
involve mostly ignoring physical sensations.
Associative strategies, unlike dissociative ones,
require so much concentration that they result in
mental exhaustion lasting more than a day. Since it is
important for long-distance runners to enter a race
mentally refreshed, ________.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) long-distance runners should not rely heavily
on associative strategies during training the
day before they run in a race
(B) unless they regularly train using associative
strategies, long-distance runners should use
dissociative strategies during races
(C) maximizing the benefits of training for
long-distance running involves frequently
alternating associative and dissociative
strategies
(D) long-distance runners are about evenly divided
between those who use dissociative strategies
during races and those who use associative
strategies during races
(E) in long-distance running, dissociative strategies
are generally more effective for a day’s training
run than are associative strategies
Correct Answer: A
A Main Point
You need to determine what the main point of the argument is. The argument states that there are two kinds of cognitive strategies, “associative” and “dissociative,” and that associative strategies, which involve attending closely to physical sensations, require so much concentration that they leave one mentally exhausted for more than a day. Long-distance runners need to enter a race mentally refreshed. It follows, then, that long-distance runners shouldn’t make use of associative strategies the day prior to a given race.
A. Yes. This matches what was stated above.
B. No. The evidence presented by the argument doesn’t suggest that regular training would eliminate the exhaustion caused by using associative strategies.
C. No. This is irrelevant. Maximizing the benefits of training is not addressed in the argument.
D. No. This is irrelevant. There is no support for the claim that long-distance runners are about evenly divided with respect to which type of strategy they employ during races.
E. No. The argument supports only the idea that dissociative strategies are better than associative ones for the day before a race, not in general.
- MetroBank made loans to ten small companies, in
amounts ranging from $1,000 to $100,000. These ten
loans all had graduated payment plans, i.e., the
scheduled monthly loan payment increased slightly
each month over the five-year term of the loan.
Nonetheless, the average payment received by
MetroBank for these ten loans had decreased by the
end of the five-year term.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
resolve the apparent discrepancy in the statements
above?
(A) The number of small companies receiving new
loans from MetroBank increased over the
five-year term.
(B) Several of the ten small companies also
borrowed money from other banks.
(C) Most banks offer a greater number of loans for
under $100,000 than for over $100,000.
(D) Of the ten small companies, the three that had
borrowed the largest amounts paid off their
loans within three years.
(E) For some loans made by MetroBank, the
monthly payment decreases slightly over the
term of the loan.
Correct Answer: D
D Resolve/Explain
MetroBank made loans to ten small companies in amounts of anywhere from $1,000 to $100,000, and all of these loans had graduated payment plans so that the monthly loan payment increased slightly each month over the five-year term of the loan. However, the average payment that MetroBank received for these ten loans had decreased by the end of the loan period. Why did the average payment received by MetroBank decline when the monthly loan payment amounts were slightly increasing over the five-year term?
A. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is specifically focused on only the ten loans noted above.
B. No. Loans from other banks are not relevant to the argument.
C. No. You are concerned only with MetroBank and its loans, not other banks and their loans, so this doesn’t help.
D. Yes. This would explain why, even though the monthly payment amounts were increasing, the average payment received by MetroBank declined: The loans with the biggest monthly payment amounts were paid off sooner, leaving only the smaller monthly amounts and thereby lowering the average payment amount.
E. No. Because the argument is focused only on these ten specific loans, the nature of other loans made by MetroBank is irrelevant to the argument.
- Professor: A guest speaker recently delivered a talk
entitled “The Functions of Democratic
Governments” to a Political Ideologies class at
this university. The talk was carefully
researched and theoretical in nature. But two
students who disagreed with the theory hurled
vicious taunts at the speaker. Several others
applauded their attempt to humiliate the
speaker. This incident shows that universities
these days do not foster fair-minded and
tolerant intellectual debate.
The professor’s reasoning is flawed in that it
(A) draws a conclusion based on the professor’s
own opinion rather than on that of the
majority of the students present at the talk
(B) is inconsistent in advocating tolerance while
showing intolerance of the dissenting
students’ views
(C) relies primarily on an emotional appeal
(D) draws a general conclusion based on too small
a sample
(E) incorrectly focuses on the behavior of the
dissenting students rather than relating the
reasons for that behavior
Correct Answer: D
D Flaw
The professor concludes that universities these days do not foster fair-minded and tolerant intellectual debate because two students insulted a recent guest speaker and several others applauded those students’ attempts to humiliate the speaker. However, the professor is making a very broad generalization about universities based on the behavior of a few students at a single university, so look for an answer choice that describes this flaw.
A. No. The conclusion is the professor’s opinion, but the pieces of evidence offered are actual events, so this doesn’t match.
B. No. The professor is not advocating tolerance, so there is no inconsistency.
C. No. The professor’s argument does not rest on an emotional appeal.
D. Yes. The professor draws his conclusion about universities in general based on the actions of only a few students.
E. No. The flaw isn’t that he focuses on the students’ behavior; it’s that he takes that behavior as being representative of all or most students.
- Studies reveal that most people select the foods they
eat primarily on the basis of flavor, and that
nutrition is usually a secondary concern at best. This
suggests that health experts would have more success
in encouraging people to eat wholesome foods if they
emphasized how flavorful those foods truly are
rather than how nutritious they are.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the argument above?
(A) Most people currently believe that wholesome
foods are more flavorful, on average, than
unwholesome foods are.
(B) Few people, when given a choice between foods
that are flavorful but not nutritious and foods
that are nutritious but not flavorful, will choose
the foods that are nutritious but not flavorful.
(C) Health experts’ attempts to encourage people
to eat wholesome foods by emphasizing how
nutritious those foods are have been
moderately successful.
(D) The studies that revealed that people choose the
foods they eat primarily on the basis of flavor
also revealed that people rated as most flavorful
those foods that were least nutritious.
(E) In a study, subjects who were told that a given
food was very flavorful were more willing to
try the food and more likely to enjoy it than
were subjects who were told that the food was
nutritious.
Correct Answer: E
E Strengthen
The argument concludes that health experts might have more success in encouraging people to eat wholesome foods if they emphasized how flavorful those foods are rather than how nutritious they are. The evidence offered to support this conclusion is the fact that studies have shown that most people select which foods to eat primarily on the basis of flavor, with nutrition mostly a secondary concern at best. You want to find an answer that links up emphasizing a given food’s flavor with successfully encouraging people to eat that food.
A. No. If anything, this might weaken the argument by implying that health experts wouldn’t have greater success if they employed the strategy suggested because most people already think wholesome foods are more flavorful, so calling attention to this fact might not have the desired effect.
B. No. The argument isn’t concerned with people choosing between two opposing options.
C. No. This might weaken the argument by suggesting that you could accomplish the same goal by emphasizing nutrition over flavor, but it certainly doesn’t strengthen the argument’s conclusion.
D. No. This is irrelevant. How people rate foods doesn’t strengthen the connection between the suggestion offered to health experts and the studies.
E. Yes. If this is true, it suggests that health experts would be more successful in their quest to get people to eat more wholesome foods if they emphasized flavor as opposed to nutrition.
- Studies show that individuals with a high propensity
for taking risks tend to have fewer ethical principles
to which they consciously adhere in their business
interactions than do most people. On the other hand,
individuals with a strong desire to be accepted
socially tend to have more such principles than do
most people. And, in general, the more ethical
principles to which someone consciously adheres, the
more ethical is that person’s behavior. Therefore,
business schools can promote more ethical behavior
among future businesspeople by promoting among
their students the desire to be accepted socially and
discouraging the propensity for taking risks.
The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the
argument
(A) infers from the fact that something is usually
true that it is always true
(B) takes for granted that promoting ethical
behavior is more important than any other goal
(C) concludes merely from the fact that two things
are correlated that one causes the other
(D) takes for granted that certain actions are
morally wrong simply because most people
believe that they are morally wrong
(E) draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim
presented in support of that conclusion
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The argument concludes that business schools can promote more ethical behavior among future businesspeople by promoting among their students the desire to be accepted socially and discouraging the propensity for taking risks. The reasons given in support of this conclusion are that studies have found that people with a high propensity for risk taking tend to have fewer ethical principles to which they adhere in their business interactions than do others, while those individuals with a strong desire to be accepted socially tend to have more such principles than do others. Furthermore, it is generally the case that the more ethical principles to which an individual adheres, the more ethical is that individual’s behavior. The flaw here is that you don’t know whether anything else is a factor in making individuals more or less prone to ethical behavior. Just because certain elements (such as risk taking or a desire for social acceptance) seem linked to others (the number of ethical principles one consciously adheres to) doesn’t mean you can infer a cause-effect relationship.
A. No. This doesn’t describe the flaw in this particular argument; there is no jump from “usually” to “always” here.
B. No. The argument never compares this goal to any other in terms of importance.
C. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.
D. No. There is no mention in the argument of what is “morally wrong,” so this is irrelevant.
E. No. This choice describes circular reasoning, which is not the flaw in this particular argument.
- Essayist: Lessing contended that an art form’s medium
dictates the kind of representation the art form
must employ in order to be legitimate; painting,
for example, must represent simultaneous arrays
of colored shapes, while literature, consisting of
words read in succession, must represent events
or actions occurring in sequence. The claim
about literature must be rejected, however, if one
regards as legitimate the imagists’ poems, which
consist solely of amalgams of disparate images.
Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
essayist’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
(A) An amalgam of disparate images cannot
represent a sequence of events or actions.
(B) Poems whose subject matter is not appropriate
to their medium are illegitimate.
(C) Lessing was not aware that the imagists’ poetry
consists of an amalgam of disparate images.
(D) All art, even the imagists’ poetry, depicts or
represents some subject matter.
(E) All art represents something either as
simultaneous or as successive.
Correct Answer: A
A Sufficient Assumption
The essayist concludes that Lessing’s claim about literature must be rejected if one considers the imagists’ poems legitimate. Why? Lessing contended that an art form’s medium dictates the kind of representation the art form must employ in order to be legitimate; for literature, which consists of words read in succession, this entails representing events or actions occurring in sequence. Yet the imagists’ poems consist solely of amalgams of disparate images. In order for the conclusion to be valid, you need to know that amalgams of disparate images cannot be considered events or actions occurring in sequence.
A. Yes. This matches what was stated above.
B. No. This is irrelevant; subject matter is never discussed.
C. No. Whether Lessing was aware of the nature of the imagists’ poetry is irrelevant to the conclusion.
D. No. This is too broad; the conclusion is about literature, not all art.
E. No. This is too broad; the conclusion is about literature, not all art.
- A psychiatrist argued that there is no such thing as a
multiple personality disorder on the grounds that in
all her years of clinical practice, she had never
encountered one case of this type.
Which one of the following most closely parallels the
questionable reasoning cited above?
(A) Anton concluded that colds are seldom fatal on
the grounds that in all his years of clinical
practice, he never had a patient who died of
a cold.
(B) Lyla said that no one in the area has seen a
groundhog and so there are probably no
groundhogs in the area.
(C) Sauda argued that because therapy rarely had
an effect on her patient’s type of disorder,
therapy was not warranted.
(D) Thomas argued that because Natasha has
driven her car to work every day since she
bought it, she would probably continue to
drive her car to work.
(E) Jerod had never spotted a deer in his area and
concluded from this that there are no deer in
the area.
Correct Answer: E
E Parallel Flaw
The psychiatrist concluded that there is no such thing as a multiple personality disorder because in all her years of clinical practice, she had never encountered one instance of this type. The flaw is that this type of disorder could still exist even if the psychiatrist has never personally witnessed a case of it. Note the use of extreme language (“no such thing,” “never”) in both the conclusion and the premise; you want to be sure to find an answer choice that similarly makes use of strong language.
A. No. This isn’t the same flaw as the original argument because it doesn’t match in terms of language. The conclusion here is “seldom fatal,” which allows for the possibility that Anton might be wrong in his thinking. The original argument does not make this concession, which is why it is flawed to begin with.
B. No. This isn’t flawed; the conclusion that there are “probably no groundhogs in the area” is reasonable enough.
C. No. While this choice is flawed, it doesn’t match the flaw in the original argument. Sauda does not assume that because she has never witnessed a particular phenomenon, it doesn’t exist.
D. No. This isn’t flawed; Thomas’s conclusion is reasonable because the language, “probably continue,” allows room for contradiction.
E. Yes. This is the same flaw as in the original argument: Because Jerod has never seen a deer in his area, he assumes there are no deer in the area. However, it’s entirely possible that there could still be deer in his area without his having seen them.
- Even if many more people in the world excluded
meat from their diet, world hunger would not
thereby be significantly reduced.
Which one of the following, if true, most calls into
question the claim above?
(A) Hunger often results from natural disasters
like typhoons or hurricanes, which sweep
away everything in their path.
(B) Both herds and crops are susceptible to
devastating viral and other diseases.
(C) The amount of land needed to produce
enough meat to feed one person for a week
can grow enough grain to feed more than ten
people for a week.
(D) Often people go hungry because they live in
remote barren areas where there is no efficient
distribution for emergency food relief.
(E) Most historical cases of famine have been due
to bad social and economic policies or
catastrophes such as massive crop failure.
Correct Answer: C
C Weaken
The argument concludes that world hunger would not be significantly reduced even if many more people in the world excluded meat from their diet. Underlying this claim is an assumption that the causes of world hunger cannot be solved by greater numbers of people choosing not to eat meat. You want to find an answer choice that suggests that people’s decision not to include meat in their diet could somehow impact and help to reduce world hunger.
A. No. This might strengthen the argument by showing that hunger is not generally linked to people’s consumption choices.
B. No. This is irrelevant. If disease affects both herds and crops, then there isn’t a clear advantage to either, according to this choice.
C. Yes. This shows that not including meat in one’s diet has an effect equivalent to feeding more than ten people, suggesting that if more people excluded meat from their diet, a significant reduction in world hunger could be achieved, thereby weakening the argument.
D. No. This is irrelevant. This choice is concerned with people going hungry in times of emergency because they live in a remote area; this is not necessarily the same issue as world hunger, since the original argument isn’t limited to emergency situations.
E. No. This would strengthen the argument, if anything, by suggesting that factors other than people’s decision to eat meat impact world hunger. It certainly doesn’t weaken the argument, though.
- Dairy farmer: On our farm, we have great concern
for our cows’ environmental conditions. We
have recently made improvements that
increase their comfort, such as providing them
with special sleeping mattresses. These changes
are intended to increase blood flow to the
udder. This increased blood flow would boost
milk output and thus increase profits.
Of the following propositions, which one is best
illustrated by the dairy farmer’s statements?
(A) Dairy cows cannot have comfortable living
conditions unless farmers have some knowledge
about the physiology of milk production.
(B) Farming practices introduced for the sake of
maximizing profits can improve the living
conditions of farm animals.
(C) More than other farm animals, dairy cows
respond favorably to improvements in their
living environments.
(D) The productivity of dairy farms should be
increased only if the quality of the product is
not compromised.
(E) The key to maximizing profits on a dairy
farm is having a concern for dairy cows’
environment.
Correct Answer: B
B Principle Match
The dairy farmer states that on their farm, much concern is shown for cows’ environmental conditions in that they have recently made improvements to increase the cows’ comfort. These changes are intended to increase blood flow to the udder, thereby increasing milk output and thus profits. You need to find an answer choice that illustrates how the interests of both the farmer (profits) and the cows (comfort) coincide.
A. No. This is too extreme. The argument doesn’t support the idea that cows having comfortable living conditions depends on farmers having some knowledge about the physiology of milk production.
B. Yes. This choice is in line with the idea that the interests of the farmer—increased profits—can result in more comfortable conditions for the cows.
C. No. This is irrelevant. The argument doesn’t compare cows to other farm animals.
D. No. This is irrelevant. Quality is never mentioned in the argument.
E. No. This is too strong. While the farmer implies that having concern for dairy cows’ environment is a way to increase profits, there’s no support for the idea that it is the key to maximizing profits.
- Pat: E-mail fosters anonymity, which removes
barriers to self-revelation. This promotes a
degree of intimacy with strangers that would
otherwise take years of direct personal contact
to attain.
Amar: Frankness is not intimacy. Intimacy requires a
real social bond, and social bonds cannot be
formed without direct personal contact.
The dialogue most strongly supports the claim that Pat
and Amar disagree with each other about whether
(A) barriers to self-revelation hinder the initial
growth of intimacy
(B) E-mail can increase intimacy between friends
(C) intimacy between those who communicate
with each other solely by e-mail is possible
(D) real social bonds always lead to intimacy
(E) the use of e-mail removes barriers to
self-revelation
Correct Answer: C
C Point at Issue
Pat concludes that E-mail promotes a degree of intimacy with strangers that would otherwise take years of direct personal contact to attain because E-mail fosters anonymity, which removes barriers to self-revelation. Amar states that frankness and intimacy are not the same thing because intimacy requires a real social bond, which in turn requires direct personal contact; his implied conclusion is that E-mail therefore doesn’t really promote intimacy in the way Pat suggests.
A. No. Amar never mentions barriers to self-revelation, so you don’t know whether he would agree or disagree with this statement.
B. No. This is irrelevant. Neither person discusses whether E-mail can increase intimacy among friends.
C. Yes. Pat would seem to agree with this choice, while Amar would disagree.
D. No. Pat never discusses social bonds, so you don’t know whether he would agree with this choice.
E. No. Amar doesn’t mention either barriers to self-revelation or the use of E-mail, so you don’t have enough information to evaluate whether he would agree with this statement.
- Criminologist: The main purpose of most criminal
organizations is to generate profits. The
ongoing revolutions in biotechnology and
information technology promise to generate
enormous profits. Therefore, criminal
organizations will undoubtedly try to become
increasingly involved in these areas.
The conclusion of the criminologist’s argument is
properly inferred if which one of the following is
assumed?
(A) If an organization tries to become increasingly
involved in areas that promise to generate
enormous profits, then the main purpose of
that organization is to generate profits.
(B) At least some criminal organizations are or
will at some point become aware that the
ongoing revolutions in biotechnology and
information technology promise to generate
enormous profits.
(C) Criminal organizations are already heavily
involved in every activity that promises to
generate enormous profits.
(D) Any organization whose main purpose is to
generate profits will try to become
increasingly involved in any technological
revolution that promises to generate
enormous profits.
(E) Most criminal organizations are willing to
become involved in legal activities if those
activities are sufficiently profitable.
Correct Answer: D
D Sufficient Assumption
The criminologist concludes that criminal organizations will try to become increasingly involved in the areas of biotechnology and information technology. Why? The ongoing revolutions in these areas promise to generate enormous profits, and the main purpose of most criminal organizations is to generate profits. In order for the conclusion to be properly inferred, you need to know that criminal organizations tend to get involved in those areas where there is the potential for enormous profits.
A. No. You have already been told that the main purpose of most criminal organizations is to generate profits, so this choice doesn’t add anything to the argument.
B. No. This is close, but it doesn’t go far enough. It’s not enough to know that some criminal organizations are or may become aware of these potential profits; you need to know that these groups will try to become involved because of the potential for profits.
C. No. What criminal organizations have done up to now is not relevant to the argument, which is concerned about what they will do in the future.
D. Yes. This connects the conclusion to the premises as noted above.
E. No. The legality of the activities is irrelevant, as you’re talking about criminal organizations to begin with.
- Administrators of educational institutions are
enthusiastic about the educational use of computers
because they believe that it will enable schools to
teach far more courses with far fewer teachers than
traditional methods allow. Many teachers fear
computers for the same reason. But this reason is
mistaken. Computerized instruction requires more,
not less, time of instructors, which indicates that any
reduction in the number of teachers would require
an accompanying reduction in courses offered.
The statement that the educational use of computers
enables schools to teach far more courses with far
fewer teachers figures in the argument in which one
of the following ways?
(A) It is presented as a possible explanation for an
observation that follows it.
(B) It is a statement of the problem the argument
sets out to solve.
(C) It is a statement that the argument is designed
to refute.
(D) It is a statement offered in support of the
argument’s main conclusion.
(E) It is the argument’s main conclusion.
Correct Answer: C
C Reasoning
The argument concludes that, contrary to what administrators and teachers may think, the educational use of computers will not enable schools to teach far more courses with far fewer teachers than traditional methods allow. This is because computerized instruction requires more time of instructors, so reducing the number of teachers would likewise require reducing the number of courses offered. The statement asked about in the question stem, therefore, is a belief the argument aims to reject.
A. No. The statement presents the belief of administrators with regard to the educational use of computers as a matter of fact, so there is no “possible explanation” in the argument.
B. No. The argument is not attempting to solve anything.
C. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.
D. No. The argument’s conclusion rejects this statement.
E. No. The argument’s conclusion rejects this statement.
- Scientists have shown that older bees, which usually
forage outside the hive for food, tend to have larger
brains than do younger bees, which usually do not
forage but instead remain in the hive to tend to
newly hatched bees. Since foraging requires greater
cognitive ability than does tending to newly hatched
bees, it appears that foraging leads to the increased
brain size of older bees.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument above?
(A) Bees that have foraged for a long time do not
have significantly larger brains than do bees
that have foraged for a shorter time.
(B) The brains of older bees that stop foraging to
take on other responsibilities do not become
smaller after they stop foraging.
(C) Those bees that travel a long distance to find
food do not have significantly larger brains
than do bees that locate food nearer the hive.
(D) In some species of bees, the brains of older
bees are only marginally larger than those of
younger bees.
(E) The brains of older bees that never learn to
forage are the same size as those of their
foraging counterparts of the same age.
Correct Answer: E
E Weaken
The argument concludes that foraging leads to the increased brain size of older bees. Why? Older bees, which usually forage outside the hive for food, tend to have larger brains than do younger bees, which usually remain in the hive to tend to newly hatched bees instead of foraging. Foraging requires greater cognitive ability than does tending to newly hatched bees. The argument is assuming a causal relationship (foraging increases brain size) from a correlation (foraging and larger brain size happen to occur together in older bees). In order to weaken the argument, you need to show that this causality isn’t true or that some other factor accounts for the size of the brain.
A. No. This doesn’t weaken the argument; it could still be true that the act of foraging, regardless of the overall length of time a bee has foraged, contributes to increased brain size.
B. No. This is irrelevant and doesn’t provide an alternative explanation as to why the bees’ brains increased in size in the first place.
C. No. The distance traveled outside the hive while foraging is not relevant to whether the activity of foraging itself leads to the increased brain size of older bees.
D. No. This doesn’t weaken the argument, as this still doesn’t provide another explanation for the larger brain size of older bees.
E. Yes. This implies that larger brain size could be due to the age of the bees and not the activity that they engage in, thereby weakening the causal assumption of the argument.
- Carla: Professors at public universities should receive
paid leaves of absence to allow them to engage
in research. Research not only advances
human knowledge, but also improves
professors’ teaching by keeping them abreast of
the latest information in their fields.
David: But even if you are right about the beneficial
effects of research, why should our limited
resources be devoted to supporting professors
taking time off from teaching?
David’s response to Carla is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it
(A) ignores the part of Carla’s remarks that could
provide an answer to David’s question
(B) takes for granted that the only function of a
university professor is teaching
(C) incorrectly takes Carla’s remarks as claiming
that all funding for professors comes from
tax money
(D) takes for granted that providing the
opportunity for research is the only function
of paid leaves of absence
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
professors do not need vacations
Correct Answer: A
A Flaw
Carla concludes that professors at public universities should receive paid leaves of absence to allow them to engage in research because research will both advance human knowledge and improve professors’ teaching by keeping them up to speed on the latest developments in their field. David responds by first acknowledging Carla’s mention of the possible benefits of research, but then asks why limited resources should be devoted to supporting professors taking time off from teaching. His question indicates that he has missed part of Carla’s initial reasoning, in which she explained that engaging in research improves professors’ teaching.
A. Yes. This accurately states the flaw as noted above.
B. No. This is extreme. David never claims that the sole function of a professor is teaching.
C. No. David never directly addresses the source of funding for professors; he merely says that there are “limited resources.”
D. No. David never claims that paid leave has only one function.
E. No. This is irrelevant. Neither person discusses the issue of vacations.
- Software reviewer: Dictation software allows a
computer to produce a written version of
sentences that are spoken to it. Although
dictation software has been promoted as a
labor-saving invention, it fails to live up to its
billing. The laborious part of writing is in the
thinking and the editing, not in the typing. And
proofreading the software’s error-filled output
generally squanders any time saved in typing.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
the role played in the software reviewer’s argument
by the claim that dictation software fails to live up to
its billing?
(A) It is the argument’s main conclusion but not
its only conclusion.
(B) It is the argument’s only conclusion.
(C) It is an intermediate conclusion that is offered
as direct support for the argument’s main
conclusion.
(D) It is a premise offered in support of the
argument’s conclusion.
(E) It is a premise offered as direct support for an
intermediate conclusion of the argument.
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
The software reviewer concludes that, despite the fact that dictation software has been promoted as a labor-saving device, it in fact fails to live up to its billing. The evidence offered by the software reviewer for this opinion is that the laborious part of writing is in the thinking and editing, not in the typing. Furthermore, the time spent proofreading the software’s error-filled output generally squanders any time saved in typing. The statement asked about in the question stem, therefore, is the argument’s conclusion.
A. No. There are no other conclusions in this argument.
B. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.
C. No. There are no other conclusions in this argument.
D. No. The statement is the conclusion, not a premise.
E. No. The statement is the conclusion, not a premise, and there are no other conclusions in this argument.
- Poetry journal patron: Everybody who publishes in
The Brick Wall Review has to agree in advance
that if a poem is printed in one of its regular
issues, the magazine also has the right to
reprint it, without monetary compensation, in
its annual anthology. The Brick Wall Review
makes enough money from sales of its
anthologies to cover most operating expenses.
So, if your magazine also published an
anthology of poems first printed in your
magazine, you could depend less on donations.
After all, most poems published in your
magazine are very similar to those published
in The Brick Wall Review.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
patron’s argument?
(A) Neither The Brick Wall Review nor the other
magazine under discussion depends on
donations to cover most operating expenses.
(B) Many of the poets whose work appears in The
Brick Wall Review have had several poems
rejected for publication by the other
magazine under discussion.
(C) The only compensation poets receive for
publishing in the regular issues of the
magazines under discussion are free copies of
the issues in which their poems appear.
(D) The Brick Wall Review depends on donations
to cover most operating expenses not covered
by income from anthology sales.
(E) The Brick Wall Review’s annual poetry
anthology always contains a number of
poems by famous poets not published in the
regular issues of the magazine.
Correct Answer: E
E Weaken
The poetry journal patron concludes that if the magazine under discussion were to publish an anthology of poems first printed in its pages, it could depend less on donations. The patron cites as evidence The Brick Wall Review, which has an agreement with those who publish in it that any poem printed in one of its regular issues can be reprinted without monetary compensation in its annual anthology. The Brick Wall Review makes enough money from sales of its anthologies to cover most operating expenses. The patron also notes that most poems published in the magazine at issue are very similar to those published in The Brick Wall Review. To weaken the argument, you need to find a choice that attacks the legitimacy of the comparison between the magazine under discussion and The Brick Wall Review.
A. No. Whether either publication depends on donations to cover operating expenses is irrelevant.
B. No. While this might appear to suggest that the two publications are not in fact as similar as the patron claims, this still doesn’t weaken the argument. It could be that the poems that were rejected by the magazine under discussion were atypical of what the poets themselves normally write and have published in The Brick Wall Review.
C. No. The nature of the compensation received by the poets who publish in the magazine in question is not relevant.
D. No. How The Brick Wall Review covers operating expenses not covered by income from anthology sales is irrelevant.
E. Yes. This implies that there are other factors involved in the success of The Brick Wall Review’s anthology that could affect whether or how well the magazine in question could replicate The Brick Wall Review’s strategy.
- No one with a serious medical problem would rely
on the average person to prescribe treatment.
Similarly, since a good public servant has the interest
of the public at heart, ________.
Which one of the following statements would most
reasonably complete the argument?
(A) public servants should not be concerned about
the outcomes of public opinion surveys
(B) the average public servant knows more about
what is best for society than the average
person does
(C) public servants should be more knowledgeable
about the public good than they are
(D) public servants should base decisions on
something other than the average person’s
recommendations
(E) one is a good public servant if one is more
knowledgeable about the public good than is
the average person
Correct Answer: D
D Main Point
You need to supply the conclusion to this argument. You are told that no one with a serious medical problem would rely on the average person to prescribe treatment. Therefore, since a good public servant has the interest of the public at heart, a good public servant would also not rely on the average person to solve a given problem, in keeping with the reasoning underlying the premise above.
A. No. The outcomes of public opinion surveys are not relevant to the argument.
B. No. This is irrelevant. The argument isn’t concerned with what the average public servant knows.
C. No. The argument isn’t focused on whether public servants need a greater level of knowledge than they already have.
D. Yes. This is in keeping with the discussion above.
E. No. What constitutes being a good public servant is not relevant to the argument.
- Team captain: Winning requires the willingness to
cooperate, which in turn requires motivation.
So you will not win if you are not motivated.
The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following
is most similar to that in the argument above?
(A) Being healthy requires exercise. But exercising
involves risk of injury. So, paradoxically, anyone
who wants to be healthy will not exercise.
(B) Learning requires making some mistakes. And
you must learn if you are to improve. So you
will not make mistakes without there being a
noticeable improvement.
(C) Our political party will retain its status only if
it raises more money. But raising more money
requires increased campaigning. So our party
will not retain its status unless it increases its
campaigning.
(D) You can repair your own bicycle only if you are
enthusiastic. And if you are enthusiastic, you
will also have mechanical aptitude. So if you
are not able to repair your own bicycle, you
lack mechanical aptitude.
(E) Getting a ticket requires waiting in line.
Waiting in line requires patience. So if you do
not wait in line, you lack patience.
Correct Answer: C
C Parallel
Diagram the statements in the argument. Winning → willingness to cooperate → motivation. Therefore, not motivated → won’t win. The conclusion is the contrapositive; you need to find an answer choice that matches this structure.
A. No. The conclusion here involves a paradox, which does match the structure of the original argument.
B. No. Improvement → learning → making some mistakes. However, the conclusion states that you will not make mistakes without having some improvement, which isn’t the contrapositive of this sequence.
C. Yes. Retain status → raise more money → increased campaigning. Therefore, no increase in campaigning → won’t retain status. This matches the original argument.
D. No. Repair own bicycle → enthusiastic → mechanical aptitude. Therefore, unable to repair own bicycle → lack mechanical aptitude. This reasoning is flawed, so this choice doesn’t match the original argument.
E. No. Getting ticket → waiting in line → patience. Therefore, don’t wait in line → lack patience. This reasoning is flawed, so this choice doesn’t match the original argument.
- In the past, when there was no highway speed limit,
the highway accident rate increased yearly, peaking a
decade ago. At that time, the speed limit on highways
was set at 90 kilometers per hour (kph) (55 miles per
hour). Every year since the introduction of the
highway speed limit, the highway accident rate has
been at least 15 percent lower than that of its peak
rate. Thus, setting the highway speed limit at 90 kph
(55 mph) has reduced the highway accident rate by at
least 15 percent.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) In the years prior to the introduction of the
highway speed limit, many cars could go
faster than 90 kph (55 mph).
(B) Ten years ago, at least 95 percent of all
automobile accidents in the area occurred on
roads with a speed limit of under 80 kph
(50 mph).
(C) Although the speed limit on many highways is
officially set at 90 kph (55 mph), most people
typically drive faster than the speed limit.
(D) Thanks to changes in automobile design in the
past ten years, drivers are better able to
maintain control of their cars in dangerous
situations.
(E) It was not until shortly after the introduction
of the highway speed limit that most cars
were equipped with features such as seat belts
and airbags designed to prevent harm to
passengers.
Correct Answer: D
D Weaken
The argument concludes that setting the highway speed limit at 90 kph (55 mph) has reduced the highway accident rate by at least 15 percent. The evidence for this claim is that the highway accident rate peaked a decade ago, at which time the speed limit on highways was set to the current limit. For every year since that time, the highway accident rate has been at least 15 percent lower than that of its peak. The argument assumes that it’s the fixed speed limit that is responsible for the lower accident rate; to weaken the argument, then, you need to show that there is another possible explanation, outside of the set speed limit, for why the highway accident rate has decreased.
A. No. This does not provide an alternative explanation for why the highway accident rate has decreased.
B. No. This is not relevant to the argument, which is focused specifically on the highway accident rate. This choice addresses all automobile accidents, which goes beyond the scope of this argument.
C. No. This doesn’t go far enough to weaken the argument. Even if most people typically drive faster than the speed limit, that doesn’t mean the setting of the limit wasn’t responsible for the decreased accident rate.
D. Yes. This weakens the argument by suggesting that changes in automobile design and not the fixed speed limits are responsible for the reduced highway accident rate.
E. No. While this may appear to weaken the argument, it’s actually irrelevant. The measures discussed may reduce harm to passengers, but since the conclusion is concerned with the rate of accidents, not injuries or fatalities, this choice has no impact on the argument.
- Editorial: It is a travesty of justice, social critics say,
that we can launch rockets into outer space but
cannot solve social problems that have plagued
humanity. The assumption underlying this
assertion is that there are greater difficulties
involved in a space launch than are involved in
ending long-standing social problems, which
in turn suggests that a government’s failure to
achieve the latter is simply a case of misplaced
priorities. The criticism is misplaced, however,
for rocket technology is much simpler than the
human psyche, and until we adequately
understand the human psyche we cannot solve
the great social problems.
The statement that rocket technology is much
simpler than the human psyche plays which one of
the following roles in the editorial’s argument?
(A) It is cited as a possible objection to the
argument’s conclusion.
(B) According to the argument, it is a fact that has
misled some social critics.
(C) It is the argument’s conclusion.
(D) It is claimed to be a false assumption on which
the reasoning that the argument seeks to
undermine rests.
(E) It is used by the argument to attempt to
undermine the reasoning behind a viewpoint.
Correct Answer: E
E Reasoning
The editorial disagrees with those who believe that the government’s inability to solve long-standing social problems even though it has launched rockets into outer space stems from a case of misplaced priorities. The editorial concludes that such criticism is itself misplaced because rocket technology is much simpler than the human psyche and understanding the human psyche is necessary to solving the great social problems. The statement asked about in the question stem, therefore, is a premise used to support the argument’s conclusion.
A. No. It is a premise that supports the argument’s conclusion, not an objection to the conclusion.
B. No. The argument never says this fact has misled some social critics.
C. No. The statement is a premise, not the conclusion.
D. No. The statement is used to support the argument’s conclusion, which in turn undermines the social critics’ reasoning.
E. Yes. The statement is a premise used to support the argument’s conclusion undermining the viewpoint of the social critics.
- Archaeologist: After the last ice age, groups of
paleohumans left Siberia and crossed the
Bering land bridge, which no longer exists,
into North America. Archaeologists have
discovered in Siberia a cache of Clovis
points—the distinctive stone spear points
made by paleohumans. This shows that,
contrary to previous belief, the Clovis point
was not invented in North America.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
strengthen the archaeologist’s argument?
(A) The Clovis points found in Siberia are older
than any of those that have been found in
North America.
(B) The Bering land bridge disappeared before any
of the Clovis points found to date were made.
(C) Clovis points were more effective hunting
weapons than earlier spear points had been.
(D) Archaeologists have discovered in Siberia
artifacts that date from after the time
paleohumans left Siberia.
(E) Some paleohuman groups that migrated from
Siberia to North America via the Bering land
bridge eventually returned to Siberia.
Correct Answer: A
A Strengthen
The archaeologist concludes that, contrary to previous belief, the Clovis point was not invented in North America. The evidence offered for this conclusion is the discovery in Siberia of a cache of Clovis points and the fact that groups of paleohumans, who made Clovis points, left Siberia and crossed the Bering land bridge into North America after the last Ice Age. The archaeologist assumes that the Clovis points found in Siberia must have been made by paleohumans prior to their crossing; you want to find an answer choice that supports this interpretation of facts.
A. Yes. This strengthens the archaeologist’s argument that Clovis points were not invented in North America by confirming that those found in Siberia were made before any of those found in North America.
B. No. This doesn’t tell you anything further about when the Clovis points found on either side of the Bering land bridge were fabricated, so it’s irrelevant.
C. No. The relative effectiveness of Clovis points as hunting weapons is not relevant to the archaeologist’s argument.
D. No. Artifacts other than Clovis points are irrelevant, since the conclusion is specifically concerned with Clovis points.
E. No. This weakens the argument by suggesting that the Clovis points found in Siberia might have been made in North America and then brought back to Siberia when some paleohuman groups migrated back.
- Taxi drivers, whose income is based on the fares they
receive, usually decide when to finish work each day
by setting a daily income target; they stop when they
reach that target. This means that they typically work
fewer hours on a busy day than on a slow day.
The facts described above provide the strongest
evidence against which one of the following?
(A) The number of hours per day that a person is
willing to work depends on that person’s
financial needs.
(B) People work longer when their effective hourly
wage is high than when it is low.
(C) Workers will accept a lower hourly wage in
exchange for the freedom to set their own
schedules.
(D) People are willing to work many hours a day in
order to avoid a reduction in their standard of
living.
(E) People who are paid based on their production
work more efficiently than those who are paid
a fixed hourly wage.
Correct Answer: B
B Inference
Pick the answer that is contradicted by the passage.
A. No. This could be true. You know that each taxi driver sets a daily income target, which affects the number of hours a driver needs to work, so it’s conceivable that the income target is based on that driver’s financial needs.
B. Yes. This directly contrasts with the last sentence of the argument. Taxi drivers work fewer hours when they are busiest, which means they work fewer hours when their effective hourly wage is high. This goes against the idea presented by the answer choice.
C. No. This could be true. Nothing in the argument contradicts this idea.
D. No. This could be true. Nothing in the argument contradicts this idea.
E. No. This could be true. Nothing in the argument contradicts this idea.
- Sometimes one reads a poem and believes that the
poem expresses contradictory ideas, even if it is a
great poem. So it is wrong to think that the meaning
of a poem is whatever the author intends to
communicate to the reader by means of the poem.
No one who is writing a great poem intends it to
communicate contradictory ideas.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) Different readers will usually disagree about
what the author of a particular poem intends
to communicate by means of that poem.
(B) If someone writes a great poem, he or she
intends the poem to express one primary idea.
(C) Readers will not agree about the meaning of a
poem if they do not agree about what the
author of the poem intended the poem to mean.
(D) Anyone reading a great poem can discern
every idea that the author intended to express
in the poem.
(E) If a reader believes that a poem expresses a
particular idea, then that idea is part of the
meaning of the poem.
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that it is wrong to think that the meaning of a poem is whatever the author intends to communicate to the reader by means of the poem. Why? Sometimes one can read a poem and believe that it expresses contradictory ideas, even though it is a great poem. And no one who is writing a great poem intends the poem to communicate contradictory ideas. The missing link here is the assumption that what a reader believes a poem expresses is actually what the author intended the poem to mean. You need an answer choice that connects the poem’s meaning to what the reader perceives the poem to be expressing.
A. No. This is irrelevant. Whether readers agree about what the author intends to communicate in a poem is not relevant.
B. No. The notion that the writer of a great poem intends it to express one primary idea is irrelevant.
C. No. Whether readers agree on the meaning of a poem is irrelevant.
D. No. This doesn’t bring in the key element of the poem’s meaning.
E. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.
- The law of the city of Weston regarding contributions
to mayoral campaigns is as follows: all contributions to
these campaigns in excess of $100 made by nonresidents
of Weston who are not former residents of Weston
must be registered with the city council. Brimley’s
mayoral campaign clearly complied with this law since
it accepted contributions only from residents and
former residents of Weston.
If all the statements above are true, which one of the
following statements must be true?
(A) No nonresident of Weston contributed in
excess of $100 to Brimley’s campaign.
(B) Some contributions to Brimley’s campaign in
excess of $100 were registered with the city
council.
(C) No contributions to Brimley’s campaign
needed to be registered with the city council.
(D) All contributions to Brimley’s campaign that
were registered with the city council were in
excess of $100.
(E) Brimley’s campaign did not register any
contributions with the city council.
Correct Answer: C
C Inference
Pick the answer supported by the passage.
A. No. This doesn’t have to be true. It’s possible that a nonresident who is a former resident of Weston contributed in excess of $100 to Brimley’s campaign.
B. No. The only contributions that you know have to be registered are those made by nonresidents who are not former residents of Weston, and according to the last sentence of the argument, Brimley’s campaign did not accept any contributions made from those in this particular category.
C. Yes. This must be true. According to the law given in the argument, contributions in excess of $100 made by nonresidents who are not former residents need to be registered with the city council. Since you are told that it is true that Brimley’s campaign complied with the law, it must therefore also be true that none of the contributions needed to be registered, given that the campaign accepted contributions only from residents and former residents.
D. No. According to the argument, Brimley did not need to register any contributions with the city council because the campaign did not accept any from those to whom the law would apply. Therefore, you can’t know anything about the relative amounts that the campaign might have chosen to register of its own accord.
E. No. According to the argument, Brimley’s campaign did not need to register any of the contributions it accepted. However, that does not mean the campaign did not register any with the city council; there could be other reasons for the campaign to register some contributions of its own volition.
- Historian: Flavius, an ancient Roman governor who
believed deeply in the virtues of manual labor
and moral temperance, actively sought to
discourage the arts by removing state financial
support for them. Also, Flavius was widely
unpopular among his subjects, as we can
conclude from the large number of satirical
plays that were written about him during his
administration.
The historian’s argumentation is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it
(A) fails to consider the percentage of plays written
during Flavius’s administration that were not
explicitly about Flavius
(B) treats the satirical plays as a reliable indicator
of Flavius’s popularity despite potential bias
on the part of the playwrights
(C) presumes, without providing evidence, that
Flavius was unfavorably disposed toward the
arts
(D) takes for granted that Flavius’s attempt to
discourage the arts was successful
(E) fails to consider whether manual labor and
moral temperance were widely regarded as
virtues in ancient Rome
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
The historian concludes that Flavius was widely unpopular among his subjects based on the fact that a large number of satirical plays were written about him during his administration. However, you are also told that Flavius actively sought to discourage the arts and removed state financial support for them. This calls into question the historian’s assertion that Flavius was widely unpopular based merely on the fact that playwrights chose to satirize him; the sample population may not be representative of the larger population of his subjects.
A. No. While the argument does not consider this, this isn’t a problem with the historian’s logic.
B. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.
C. No. The historian does provide evidence to support the notion that Flavius was not a fan of the arts: You are told that Flavius removed state financial support for the arts.
D. No. The historian never mentions whether Flavius’s attempt to discourage the arts was actually successful, and the fact that a large number of satirical plays were written during his administration would seem to suggest that it was not.
E. No. The argument does not consider this; however, it’s neither relevant to the argument nor the problem with the historian’s logic.
- Educators studied the performance of 200 students
in a university’s history classes. They found that
those students who performed the best had either
part-time jobs or full-time jobs, had their history
classes early in the morning, and had a very limited
social life, whereas those students who performed the
worst had no jobs, had their history classes early in
the morning, and had a very active social life.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the educators’ findings?
(A) The students compensated for any study time
lost due to their jobs but they did not
compensate for any study time lost due to
their social lives.
(B) The students who had full-time jobs typically
worked late-night hours at those jobs.
(C) Better students tend to choose classes that are
scheduled to meet early in the morning.
(D) A larger percentage of those students
interested in majoring in history had
part-time jobs than had full-time jobs.
(E) Although having a job tends to provide a
release from stress, thus increasing academic
performance, having a full-time job, like
having an active social life, can distract a
student from studying.
Correct Answer: A
A Resolve/Explain
Students who performed the best in a university’s history classes had either part-time or full-time jobs, limited social lives, and history classes that met early in the morning. Those students who performed the worst lacked jobs, had very active social lives, and had their history classes early in the morning. You need an answer choice that accounts for the discrepancy in performance given that both the best and worst performers had their classes early in the morning.
A. Yes. This explains the disparity in terms of the differences among the students with respect to their jobs and social lives.
B. No. This doesn’t explain why those with full-time jobs performed better than those without jobs.
C. No. This makes the discrepancy worse, since both the best and worst performers had classes that met early in the morning.
D. No. This is irrelevant; you know only that the students in the study were taking history classes, not whether any of them were interested in majoring in history.
E. No. This makes the discrepancy worse, as it suggests that those with full-time jobs shouldn’t have performed better than those with active social lives.
- Politician: Most of those at the meeting were not
persuaded by Kuyler’s argument, nor should they
have been, for Kuyler’s argument implied that it
would be improper to enter into a contract with
the government; and yet—as many people
know— Kuyler’s company has had numerous
lucrative contracts with the government.
Which one of the following describes a flaw in the
politician’s argument?
(A) It concludes that an argument is defective
merely on the grounds that the argument has
failed to persuade anyone of the truth of its
conclusion.
(B) It relies on testimony that is likely to be biased.
(C) It rejects an argument merely on the grounds
that the arguer has not behaved in a way that
is consistent with the argument.
(D) It rejects a position merely on the grounds that
an inadequate argument has been given for it.
(E) It rejects an argument on the basis of an
appeal to popular opinion.
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The politician concludes that those who were not persuaded by Kuyler’s argument that it would be improper to enter into a contract with the government were right not to have been persuaded. As evidence, the politician states that Kuyler’s company has had numerous lucrative contracts with the government. The flaw is that Kuyler could still be correct in terms of the advice given even if Kuyler’s company has not followed that advice; there could be differing circumstances, for example. The politician dismisses Kuyler’s argument without evaluating its merit as it relates to the situation at hand.
A. No. The politician merely says that everyone was right not to have been persuaded by Kuyler’s argument, but this is not the reason the argument is rejected.
B. No. There is no testimony presented here.
C. Yes. This is consistent with the discussion above.
D. No. The politician never discusses Kuyler’s reasoning; Kuyler’s argument is dismissed because Kuyler’s company does not conform to the argument made.
E. No. There is no appeal to popular opinion in the politician’s argument.
- Although free international trade allows countries to
specialize, which in turn increases productivity, such
specialization carries risks. After all, small countries
often rely on one or two products for the bulk of
their exports. If those products are raw materials, the
supply is finite and can be used up. If they are
foodstuffs, a natural disaster can wipe out a season’s
production overnight.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion of the argument as a whole?
(A) Specialization within international trade
comes with risks.
(B) A natural disaster can destroy a whole season’s
production overnight, devastating a small
country’s economy.
(C) A small country’s supply of raw materials can
be used up in a short period.
(D) Some countries rely on a small number of
products for the export-based sectors of their
economies.
(E) When international trade is free, countries can
specialize in what they export.
Correct Answer: A
A Main Point
The argument concludes that specialization in international trade carries risks. This is because small countries often rely on one or two products for the bulk of their exports. If those products are raw materials, the risk is that the finite supply may be used up; if those products are foodstuffs, the risk is that a natural disaster could wipe out a season’s production overnight.
A. Yes. This is stated in the first sentence of the argument.
B. No. This is a premise.
C. No. This is a premise.
D. No. This is a premise.
E. No. This introduces the argument, but it is not its conclusion.
- Two randomly selected groups of 30 adults each were
asked to write short stories on a particular topic. One
group was told that the best stories would be awarded
cash prizes, while the other group was not told of any
prizes. Each story was evaluated by a team of judges
who were given no indication of the group from which
the story came. The stories submitted by those who
thought they were competing for prizes were ranked
on average significantly lower than the stories from
the other group.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the difference in average ranking between the
two groups’ stories?
(A) The cash prizes were too small to motivate an
average adult to make a significant effort to
produce stories of high quality.
(B) People writing to win prizes show a greater
than usual tendency to produce stereotypical
stories that show little creativity.
(C) Most adults show little originality in writing
stories on a topic suggested by someone else.
(D) The team of judges was biased in favor of
stories that they judged to be more realistic.
(E) No one explained clearly to either group what
standards would be used in judging their
stories.
Correct Answer: B
B Resolve/Explain
Two groups of adults were asked to write short stories on a particular topic. One group was told that the best stories would be awarded cash prizes, while the other was told no such thing. The stories submitted by those who had been told there would be prizes were ranked on average much lower than those from the other group. You need to find a choice that explains the difference in quality between the two groups.
A. No. This would make the paradox worse—why would one group have had significantly higher average ranking if this were true?
B. Yes. This would account for the lower average ranking of the stories written by those who thought they were competing for prizes.
C. No. This doesn’t explain the difference between the two groups; it seems to suggest that the rankings should have been comparable between the two.
D. No. This doesn’t account for the differences in average ranking, as both groups were given the same topic to write on and any bias would have been applied equally across the board.
E. No. Again, this doesn’t explain why one group’s stories were ranked significantly lower than the other’s stories, since both groups were treated equally in terms of information about judging standards.
- Hernandez: I recommend that staff cars be replaced
every four years instead of every three years.
Three-year-old cars are still in good condition
and this would result in big savings.
Green: I disagree. Some of our salespeople with big
territories wear out their cars in three years.
Hernandez: I meant three-year-old cars subjected to
normal use.
In the conversation, Hernandez responds to Green’s
objection in which one of the following ways?
(A) by explicitly qualifying a premise used earlier
(B) by criticizing salespeople who wear out their
cars in three years
(C) by disputing the accuracy of Green’s evidence
(D) by changing the subject to the size of sales
territories
(E) by indicating that Green used a phrase
ambiguously
Correct Answer: A
A Reasoning
Hernandez concludes that staff cars should be replaced every four years instead of every three years because three-year-old cars are still in good condition and this change would result in big savings. Green disagrees, noting that some salespeople with big territories wear out their cars in three years. Hernandez responds to Green’s objection by clarifying his reasoning, stating that he was referring to three-year-old cars subjected to normal use.
A. Yes. Hernandez qualifies his statement concerning the condition of three-year-old cars by saying that it applies to those three-year-old cars subjected to normal use.
B. No. Hernandez never criticizes anyone.
C. No. Hernandez does not challenge the accuracy of Green’s statement.
D. No. Hernandez does not discuss the size of sales territories.
E. No. Hernandez does not claim that Green used a phrase in an ambiguous manner.
- Economist: As should be obvious, raising the
minimum wage significantly would make it
more expensive for businesses to pay workers
for minimum-wage jobs. Therefore, businesses
could not afford to continue to employ as
many workers for such jobs. So raising the
minimum wage significantly will cause an
increase in unemployment.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
economist’s argument?
(A) Businesses typically pass the cost of increased
wages on to consumers without adversely
affecting profits.
(B) When the difference between minimum wage
and a skilled worker’s wage is small, a greater
percentage of a business’s employees will be
skilled workers.
(C) A modest increase in unemployment is
acceptable because the current minimum
wage is not a livable wage.
(D) Most workers are earning more than the
current minimum wage.
(E) The unemployment rate has been declining
steadily in recent years.
Correct Answer: A
A Weaken
The economist concludes that raising the minimum wage significantly will cause an increase in unemployment. This is because raising the minimum wage significantly makes it more expensive for businesses to pay workers for minimum-wage jobs. Hence businesses could not afford to continue to employ as many workers for such jobs. The economist assumes that there’s no way businesses could absorb this extra cost other than by laying off workers. You need to find an answer choice that contradicts this assumption.
A. Yes. This weakens the argument because it suggests that raising the minimum wage significantly does not have to result in an increase in unemployment; businesses simply pass the cost on to consumers.
B. No. This doesn’t weaken the argument, as you have no information about the current relationship between minimum wage and a skilled worker’s wage.
C. No. This is irrelevant; the argument isn’t concerned with what is acceptable in terms of increasing unemployment.
D. No. This comes close, but ultimately doesn’t weaken the argument. Even if most workers are earning more than the current minimum wage and would therefore be unaffected by the increase, it’s still possible that the economist’s prediction could come true if businesses can’t otherwise absorb the extra cost of paying their minimum-wage workers more money.
E. No. This is irrelevant; this doesn’t address the issue of whether businesses could absorb an increase in the minimum wage without laying off workers.
- Scientists removed all viruses from a seawater sample
and then measured the growth rate of the plankton
population in the water. They expected the rate to
increase dramatically, but the population actually got
smaller.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the unexpected result described above?
(A) Viruses in seawater help to keep the plankton
population below the maximum level that the
resources in the water will support.
(B) Plankton and viruses in seawater compete for
some of the same nutrients.
(C) Plankton utilize the nutrients released by the
death of organisms killed by viruses.
(D) The absence of viruses can facilitate the
flourishing of bacteria that sometimes
damage other organisms.
(E) At any given time, a considerable portion of
the plankton in seawater are already infected
by viruses.
Correct Answer: C
C Resolve/Explain
Scientists removed all viruses from a seawater sample and then measured the growth rate of the plankton population in the water, expecting that the rate would increase. However, they found that the population actually got smaller. What would explain this result?
A. No. This doesn’t explain why, upon removal of the viruses, the plankton population decreased; this seems to suggest that it should have increased as the scientists expected.
B. No. As in choice (A), this seems to suggest that removing the viruses would have allowed the plankton population to expand.
C. Yes. This tells you that removing the viruses actually interfered with the ability of plankton to get enough nutrients, thereby explaining the decrease in the size of the population.
D. No. This isn’t strong enough. It doesn’t actually state that these bacteria did in fact flourish and that they would have affected the plankton population.
E. No. This doesn’t explain why removal of the viruses resulted in a shrinking of the plankton population if it’s common for plankton to be infected by viruses.
- City council member: The Senior Guild has asked for
a temporary exception to the ordinance
prohibiting automobiles in municipal parks.
Their case does appear to deserve the
exception. However, if we grant this exception,
we will find ourselves granting many other
exceptions to this ordinance, some of which
will be undeserved. Before long, we will be
granting exceptions to all manner of other city
ordinances. If we are to prevent anarchy in our
city, we must deny the Senior Guild’s request.
The city council member’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it
(A) distorts an argument and then attacks this
distorted argument
(B) dismisses a claim because of its source rather
than because of its content
(C) presumes, without sufficient warrant, that one
event will lead to a particular causal sequence
of events
(D) contains premises that contradict one another
(E) fails to make a needed distinction between
deserved exceptions and undeserved ones
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The city council member concludes that in order to prevent anarchy in their city, they must deny the Senior Guild’s request for a temporary exception to the ordinance prohibiting automobiles in municipal parks. This is because, although the Senior Guild’s case has merit, the city council member believes that granting one exception will lead to granting many more exceptions to this particular ordinance, some of which will be undeserved, and will ultimately result in granting exceptions to all manner of other city ordinances as well. The flaw in the argument here is that the city council member assumes that granting this one exception will necessarily result in a downward spiral of all manner of other exceptions to city ordinances; however, there’s nothing provided to support this belief.
A. No. The city council member doesn’t distort an argument and then attack it.
B. No. The decision to deny the request is not based on the source of the request.
C. Yes. The city council member assumes that granting one exception will cause many other exceptions to be granted in the future.
D. No. The premises stated here do not contradict each other.
E. No. The argument does not provide a distinction between these two types of exceptions, but this is not the flaw in the city council member’s logic.
- Physician: In comparing our country with two other
countries of roughly the same population size,
I found that even though we face the same
dietary, bacterial, and stress-related causes of
ulcers as they do, prescriptions for ulcer
medicines in all socioeconomic strata are
much rarer here than in those two countries.
It’s clear that we suffer significantly fewer
ulcers, per capita, than they do.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens
the physician’s argument?
(A) The two countries that were compared with
the physician’s country had approximately the
same ulcer rates as each other.
(B) The people of the physician’s country have a
cultural tradition of stoicism that encourages
them to ignore physical ailments rather than
to seek remedies for them.
(C) Several other countries not covered in the
physician’s comparisons have more
prescriptions for ulcer medication than does
the physician’s country.
(D) A person in the physician’s country who is
suffering from ulcers is just as likely to obtain
a prescription for the ailment as is a person
suffering from ulcers in one of the other two
countries.
(E) The physician’s country has a much better
system for reporting the number of
prescriptions of a given type that are obtained
each year than is present in either of the other
two countries.
Correct Answer: D
D Strengthen
The physician concludes that his country suffers significantly fewer ulcers per capita than do two other countries of roughly the same population size. This conclusion is based on the physician’s findings that even though all three countries face the same dietary, bacterial, and stress-related causes of ulcers, prescriptions for ulcer medicines in all socioeconomic strata are much rarer in his country than in the other two. The physician assumes that there are no other factors that could account for the difference in prescription rates other than fewer instances of ulcers. To strengthen this argument, you need a choice that either further bolsters the physician’s logic or that eliminates a potential alternative explanation for the lower prescription rate.
A. No. Whether the ulcer rates for the two countries to which the physician’s country is compared are similar to each other is irrelevant.
B. No. This would weaken the physician’s argument by providing an alternative explanation for the lower rate of prescriptions in the physician’s country.
C. No. Other countries are not relevant to the physician’s conclusion, which is concerned only with the three countries referred to above.
D. Yes. This strengthens the physician’s argument by showing that it is equally likely that people in all countries would seek out a prescription if they were suffering from ulcers, supporting the conclusion that the lower rate of prescriptions in the physician’s country is due to fewer occurrences of ulcers in that country.
E. No. This is irrelevant. How good the system for reporting the number of prescriptions is doesn’t tell you anything about whether the physician’s conclusion is justified.
- Columnist: The failure of bicyclists to obey traffic
regulations is a causal factor in more than one
quarter of the traffic accidents involving
bicycles. Since inadequate bicycle safety
equipment is also a factor in more than a
quarter of such accidents, bicyclists are at least
partially responsible for more than half of the
traffic accidents involving bicycles.
The columnist’s reasoning is flawed in that it
(A) presumes, without providing justification, that
motorists are a factor in less than half of the
traffic accidents involving bicycles
(B) improperly infers the presence of a causal
connection on the basis of a correlation
(C) fails to consider the possibility that more than
one factor may contribute to a given accident
(D) fails to provide the source of the figures it cites
(E) fails to consider that the severity of injuries to
bicyclists from traffic accidents can vary
widely
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The columnist concludes that bicyclists are at least partially responsible for more than half of the traffic accidents involving bicycles. The columnist presents two pieces of evidence for this conclusion. First, the failure of bicyclists to obey traffic regulations is a causal factor in more than a quarter of traffic accidents involving bicycles. Second, inadequate bicycle safety equipment is also a factor in more than a quarter of such accidents. However, the two causes the columnist cites aren’t mutually exclusive; it is possible to have both a failure to obey traffic regulations and inadequate bicycle safety equipment as contributors to a given accident. Therefore, it’s incorrect to assume that these two factors account for more than half of all traffic accidents involving bicycles.
A. No. The columnist never states what factors are involved in those traffic accidents involving bicyclists in which responsibility is not assigned to the bicyclist.
B. No. The columnist states that each of the two factors is a causal factor in traffic accidents involving bicycles, so there’s no confusion here between correlation and causation.
C. Yes. This is in line with the discussion above.
D. No. While the columnist doesn’t cite the source of the figures, this isn’t the problem with the argument’s logic.
E. No. The varying severity of injuries to bicyclists is not relevant to the columnist’s argument.
- Many vaccines create immunity to viral diseases by
introducing a certain portion of the disease-causing
virus’s outer coating into the body. Exposure to that
part of a virus is as effective as exposure to the whole
virus in stimulating production of antibodies that
will subsequently recognize and kill the whole virus.
To create a successful vaccine of this type, doctors
must first isolate in the disease-causing virus a
portion that stimulates antibody production. Now
that a suitable portion of the virus that causes
hepatitis E has been isolated, doctors claim they can
produce a vaccine that will produce permanent
immunity to that disease.
Which one of the following, if true, most strongly
counters the doctors’ claim?
(A) Most of the people who contract hepatitis E
are young adults who were probably exposed
to the virus in childhood also.
(B) Some laboratory animals exposed to one strain
of the hepatitis virus developed immunity to
all strains of the virus.
(C) Researchers developed a successful vaccine for
another strain of hepatitis, hepatitis B, after
first isolating the virus that causes it.
(D) The virus that causes hepatitis E is very
common in some areas, so the number of
people exposed to that virus is likely to be
quite high in those areas.
(E) Many children who are exposed to viruses that
cause childhood diseases such as chicken pox
never develop those diseases.
Correct Answer: A
A Weaken
Doctors claim they can produce a vaccine that will produce permanent immunity to the viral disease hepatitis E. Why? Many vaccines create immunity by introducing a certain portion of the disease-causing virus’s outer coating into the body to stimulate the production of antibodies that will subsequently recognize and kill the whole virus. A suitable portion of the virus that causes hepatitis E has now been isolated. The doctors assume that this particular method of vaccination will work to create permanent immunity; to weaken their claim, you need to look for a reason that this method may not work as planned.
A. Yes. This weakens the argument because it suggests that most people who contract hepatitis E have usually already been exposed to the virus once before and yet still later contracted the disease, implying that exposure to the virus once does not necessarily confer permanent immunity. This suggests that the vaccine the doctors claim to be able to create may not produce permanent immunity.
B. No. The argument is concerned only with whether exposure to one strain can lead to immunity to that particular strain, not to all strains, so this is irrelevant.
C. No. This is irrelevant. While the choice says researchers first isolated the virus that causes hepatitis B before they created the vaccine, that doesn’t mean the vaccine was created using the method described in the argument.
D. No. This might appear at first to weaken the doctors’ claim, but it’s not strong enough. This choice suggests that in some areas the vaccine the doctors hope to produce might not be effective because some people will have already had exposure to the virus that causes hepatitis E, but it’s still possible that a vaccine could be produced that would confer permanent immunity on those who hadn’t previously been exposed to the virus.
E. No. If anything, this would strengthen the doctors’ claim by suggesting that the method described in the argument to create a vaccine (exposure to the virus that causes a given disease) could produce permanent immunity.
- Editorial: To qualify as an effective law, as opposed to
merely an impressive declaration, a command
must be backed up by an effective enforcement
mechanism. That is why societies have police.
The power of the police to enforce a society’s
laws makes those laws effective. But there is
currently no international police force. Hence,
what is called “international law” is not
effective law.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the editorial’s argument?
(A) No one obeys a command unless mechanisms
exist to compel obedience.
(B) If an international police force were
established, then so-called international law
would become effective law.
(C) The only difference between international law
and the law of an individual society is the
former’s lack of an effective enforcement
mechanism.
(D) The primary purpose of a police force is to
enforce the laws of the society.
(E) Only an international police force could
effectively enforce international law.
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The editorial concludes that what is called “international law” is not effective law. This is because to qualify as effective law, a command must be backed up by an effective enforcement mechanism. Police serve as this enforcement mechanism in any given society, thereby rendering that society’s laws effective. But there is no international police force at present. The assumption made by the editorial is that there is no other way to enforce international law other than by having an international police force.
A. No. This is too broad; you need something that specifically relates to international law.
B. No. This is backwards. The argument assumes that an international police force is necessary to making international law effective: international law effective → international police force. This choice, however, claims that an international police force is sufficient to render international law effective: international police force → international law effective.
C. No. The editorial is not focused on differences between international law and the laws of individual societies.
D. No. The editorial claims that police are necessary to enforce the laws of a society, but never assumes that enforcement is the primary purpose of a police force.
E. Yes. Try negating it if you’re not sure. If something other than an international police force could effectively enforce international law, then the editorial’s conclusion is no longer valid, which means this statement is necessary to the argument.
- Art historian: More than any other genre of
representational painting, still-life painting
lends itself naturally to art whose goal is the
artist’s self-expression, rather than merely the
reflection of a preexisting external reality. This
is because in still-life painting, the artist
invariably chooses, modifies, and arranges the
objects to be painted. Thus, the artist has
considerably more control over the
composition and subject of a still-life painting
than over those of a landscape painting or
portrait, for example.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the art historian’s statements?
(A) Landscape painting and portraiture are the
artistic genres that lend themselves most
naturally to the mere reflection of a
preexisting external reality.
(B) The only way in which artists control the
composition and subject of a painting is by
choosing, modifying, and arranging the
objects to be represented in that painting.
(C) Nonrepresentational painting does not lend
itself as naturally as still-life painting does to
the goal of the artist’s self-expression.
(D) In genres of representational painting other
than still-life painting, the artist does not
always choose, modify, and arrange the
objects to be painted.
(E) When painting a portrait, artists rarely
attempt to express themselves through the
choice, modification, or arrangement of the
background elements against which the
subject of the portrait is painted.
Correct Answer: D
D Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. This is too extreme. You don’t know that landscape painting and portraiture are the artistic genres that most naturally lend themselves to the mere reflection of a preexisting external reality.
B. No. The art historian presents this as one way in which an artist controls the composition and subject of a painting, but never claims this is the only way through which an artist can achieve that control.
C. No. Nonrepresentational painting is never mentioned.
D. Yes. The last sentence of the argument states that the artist has more control over the composition and subject of a still-life painting than over those of a landscape painting or portrait. Since you are also told that in a still-life painting, the artist invariably chooses, modifies, and arranges the objects to be painted, you can conclude that in at least landscape painting and portraiture the artist does not always choose, modify, and arrange the objects to be painted.
E. No. There is not enough information about what artists do when painting a portrait to support this claim.
- Food labeling regulation: Food of a type that does
not ordinarily contain fat cannot be labeled
“nonfat” unless most people mistakenly
believe the food ordinarily contains fat. If most
people mistakenly believe that a food
ordinarily contains fat, the food may be
labeled “nonfat” if the label also states that the
food ordinarily contains no fat.
Which one of the following situations violates the
food labeling regulation?
(A) Although most people know that bran flakes
do not normally contain fat, Lester’s Bran
Flakes are not labeled “nonfat.”
(B) Although most people are aware that lasagna
ordinarily contains fat, Lester’s Lasagna,
which contains no fat, is not labeled “nonfat.”
(C) Although most garlic baguettes contain fat,
Lester’s Garlic Baguettes are labeled “nonfat.”
(D) Although most people are aware that
applesauce does not ordinarily contain fat,
Lester’s Applesauce is labeled “nonfat.”
(E) Although most people mistakenly believe that
salsa ordinarily contains fat, the label on
Lester’s Zesty Salsa says “This product, like all
salsas, is nonfat.”
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Match
Food that does not ordinarily contain fat can be labeled “nonfat” only if most people mistakenly believe the food ordinarily contains fat. In that case, the food can be labeled “nonfat” if the label also states that the food ordinarily contains no fat. You need to find an answer choice that violates this food labeling regulation.
A. No. This is consistent with the food labeling regulation described above.
B. No. This is consistent with the food labeling regulation described above. There is no mandate for using the “nonfat” label, only restrictions on how and when it can be used, so the lack of a “nonfat” label on a nonfat food falls within the scope of the regulation.
C. No. This does not contradict the food labeling regulation, as the regulation applies to those foods that do not ordinarily contain fat and you are told that most garlic baguettes contain fat.
D. Yes. This violates the food labeling regulation. Most people are aware that applesauce does not ordinarily contain fat, so there is no need for the “nonfat” label on Lester’s Applesauce.
E. No. This is consistent with the food labeling regulation described above. The label indicates that salsa ordinarily is nonfat.
- Medical ethicist: Assuming there is a reasonable
chance for a cure, it is acceptable to offer
experimental treatments for a disease to
patients who suffer from extreme symptoms of
that disease. Such patients are best able to
weigh a treatment’s risks against the benefits of
a cure. Therefore, it is never acceptable to offer
experimental treatments to patients who
experience no extreme symptoms of the
relevant disease.
The flawed reasoning in which one of the following is
most similar to the flawed reasoning in the medical
ethicist’s argument?
(A) Even a geological engineer with a background
in economics can lose money investing in
mineral extraction. So, those who are less
knowledgeable about geology or economics
should not expect to make money in every
investment in mineral extraction.
(B) One is always in a better position to judge
whether an automobile would be worth its
cost if one has test-driven that automobile.
Therefore, if an automobile proves to be not
worth its cost, it is likely that it was not
test-driven.
(C) Someone born and raised in a country, who
has lived abroad and then returned, is
exceptionally qualified to judge the merits of
living in that country. That is why someone
who has not lived in that country should not
form judgments about the merits of living
there.
(D) One can never eliminate all of the risks of
daily life, and even trying to avoid every risk
in life is costly. Therefore, anyone who is
reasonable will accept some of the risks of
daily life.
(E) Almost any industrial development will have
unwelcome environmental side effects.
Therefore, it is not worthwhile to weigh the
costs of potential environmental side effects
since such side effects are unavoidable.
Correct Answer: C
C Parallel Flaw
The medical ethicist concludes that it is never acceptable to offer experimental treatments to patients who experience no extreme symptoms of the relevant disease. This is because patients who suffer from extreme symptoms of a disease are best able to weigh the risks of an experimental treatment against the benefits of a cure. The ethicist provides no evidence to support the claim that these patients are best able to judge the risks and benefits, nor does the ethicist consider that there could be other factors to support the idea of offering experimental treatments to patients who do not experience extreme symptoms of a given disease. Note also the use of extreme language here (“best able,” “never,” “no”); you’ll need to match that in the answer choices.
A. No. This choice is not flawed.
B. No. The conclusion that the automobile was “likely” not test-driven does not match the original argument.
C. Yes. This choice contains the same flawed reasoning and extreme use of language (“exceptionally qualified,” “not,” “not”) as the original argument.
D. No. The conclusion here uses softer language (“some”) than does the conclusion of the original argument, so this doesn’t match.
E. No. This choice is flawed, but not in the same way as the original argument. Here, the conclusion is more extreme (“not worthwhile,” “unavoidable”) than the premise warrants (“almost”), which is structurally different from the original argument.
- Critic: As modern methods of communication and
transportation have continued to improve, the
pace of life today has become faster than ever
before. This speed has created feelings of
impermanence and instability, making us feel
as if we never have enough time to achieve
what we want—or at least what we think we
want.
The critic’s statements most closely conform to
which one of the following assessments?
(A) The fast pace of modern life has made it
difficult for people to achieve their goals.
(B) The disadvantages of technological progress
often outweigh the advantages.
(C) Changes in people’s feelings about life can
result from technological changes.
(D) The perception of impermanence in
contemporary life makes it more difficult for
people to know what they want.
(E) Changes in people’s feelings fuel the need for
technological advancement.
Correct Answer: C
C Principle Match
The critic states that as modern methods of communication and transportation have improved, the pace of life has become faster than ever before. This in turn has fostered feelings of impermanence and instability, making people feel as if there is never enough time to achieve what they want or what they think they want. You need to find a principle in the answer choices that addresses the fact that improvements in communication and transportation have led people to feel less permanence and less stability than before.
A. No. You know that the fast pace of modern life has made people feel that there isn’t enough time to achieve their goals, but nothing is said about whether it has in fact made it more difficult for people to achieve their goals.
B. No. There is no discussion of whether improvements in communication and technology outweigh feelings of impermanence and instability.
C. Yes. This is in line with the analysis above.
D. No. The critic never addresses what makes it difficult for people to know what they want.
E. No. This is backwards. Technological change has created feelings of impermanence and instability in people, not the other way around.
- Consumer: If you buy a watch at a department store
and use it only in the way it was intended to be
used, but the watch stops working the next
day, then the department store will refund
your money. So by this very reasonable
standard, Bingham’s Jewelry Store should give
me a refund even though they themselves are
not a department store, since the watch I
bought from them stopped working the very
next day.
The consumer’s argument relies on the assumption
that
(A) one should not sell something unless one
expects that it will function in the way it was
originally designed to function
(B) a watch bought at a department store and a
watch bought at Bingham’s Jewelry Store can
both be expected to keep working for about
the same length of time if each is used only as
it was intended to be used
(C) a seller should refund the money that was paid
for a product if the product does not perform
as the purchaser expected it to perform
(D) the consumer did not use the watch in a way
contrary to the way it was intended to be used
(E) the watch that was purchased from Bingham’s
Jewelry Store was not a new watch
Correct Answer: D
D Necessary Assumption
The consumer concludes that Bingham’s Jewelry Store, even though it is not a department store, should provide a refund. Why? The watch the consumer purchased from Bingham’s stopped working the very next day. If you buy a watch at a department store and use it only in the way it was intended to be used, the department store will refund your money if the watch stops working the next day. The gap here is in how the watch purchased by the consumer was used: In order for the consumer’s argument to be valid, the watch must have been used only in the way it was intended to be used.
A. No. This is focused on the seller, whereas the consumer’s concern is for the purchaser, so this choice is not relevant.
B. No. How long either watch would work if used only as intended is beyond the scope of the argument, which is concerned only with what compensation there would be if either watch stopped working the day after it was purchased.
C. No. What expectations a purchaser may have of a watch are secondary to whether the watch was used only as it was intended to be used.
D. Yes. This is a paraphrase of the gap stated above.
E. No. This is irrelevant; the consumer never makes a distinction between new and old watches.
- A study found that patients referred by their doctors to
psychotherapists practicing a new experimental form
of therapy made more progress with respect to their
problems than those referred to psychotherapists
practicing traditional forms of therapy. Therapists
practicing the new form of therapy, therefore, are more
effective than therapists practicing traditional forms.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
a flaw in the argument?
(A) It ignores the possibility that therapists trained in
traditional forms of therapy use the same
techniques in treating their patients as therapists
trained in the new form of therapy do.
(B) It ignores the possibility that the patients
referred to therapists practicing the new form
of therapy had problems more amenable to
treatment than did those referred to
therapists practicing traditional forms.
(C) It presumes, without providing justification,
that any psychotherapist trained in
traditional forms of therapy is untrained in
the new form of therapy.
(D) It ignores the possibility that therapists
practicing the new form of therapy
systematically differ from therapists
practicing traditional forms of therapy with
regard to some personality attribute relevant
to effective treatment.
(E) It presumes, without providing justification, that
the personal rapport between therapist and
patient has no influence on the effectiveness of
the treatment the patient receives.
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
The argument concludes that therapists practicing a new experimental form of therapy are more effective than therapists practicing traditional forms. This is because a study found that patients who were referred to psychotherapists practicing the new form made more progress with respect to their problems than did those referred to psychotherapists practicing traditional forms. The flaw here is that there could be other reasons those patients made more progress than others. Those patients’ progress may not be the result of therapists practicing a new form of therapy, so those therapists may not be more effective than those practicing traditional forms.
A. No. The argument never discusses whether therapists trained in the new form of therapy use the same techniques, but this isn’t the problem with the argument’s logic.
B. Yes. This suggests that it was the nature of the patient’s problem, rather than the form of therapy practiced by the therapist, that is responsible for the differing levels of progress.
C. No. The argument does not discuss whether psychotherapists trained in traditional forms of therapy have also trained in the new form of therapy.
D. No. The argument doesn’t address this, but that isn’t the flaw in the argument’s reasoning. If there were some systematic difference with respect to a relevant personality attribute, this might actually lend credence to the idea that those therapists practicing the new form of therapy are more effective.
E. No. The argument does not assume that personal rapport has no influence; it merely says that the new form of therapy is what accounts for the difference in progress.
- Essayist: One of the drawbacks of extreme personal
and political freedom is that free choices are
often made for the worst. To expect people to
thrive when they are given the freedom to
make unwise decisions is frequently
unrealistic. Once people see the destructive
consequences of extreme freedom, they may
prefer to establish totalitarian political regimes
that allow virtually no freedom. Thus, one
should not support political systems that allow
extreme freedom.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the essayist’s reasoning?
(A) One should not support any political system
that will inevitably lead to the establishment
of a totalitarian political regime.
(B) One should not expect everyone to thrive even
in a political system that maximizes people’s
freedom in the long run.
(C) One should support only those political
systems that give people the freedom to make
wise choices.
(D) One should not support any political system
whose destructive consequences could lead
people to prefer totalitarian political regimes.
(E) One should not support any political system
that is based on unrealistic expectations
about people’s behavior under that system.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Strengthen
The essayist concludes that one should not support political systems that allow extreme freedom. This is because when people have extreme personal and political freedom, they often make choices for the worst and it is unrealistic to expect people to thrive when they are free to make such unwise choices. Once people see the destructive consequences of extreme freedom, it is possible that they may prefer to establish totalitarian political regimes that allow virtually no freedom. You need an answer choice that supports the essayist’s conclusion that political systems that allow extreme freedom should not be supported.
A. No. This is too strong. The essayist says that people “may prefer” to establish a totalitarian regime, not that such a regime will inevitably be established.
B. No. This is not relevant to the essayist’s conclusion, which does not discuss whether everyone should be expected to thrive.
C. No. The essayist’s conclusion says nothing about what sort of political systems should be supported; it deals only with what sort of political system should not be supported.
D. Yes. This is in line with the essayist’s reasoning, as noted above.
E. No. This is not relevant to the essayist’s conclusion, which is concerned with political systems that could lead people to desire a more restrictive form of political system.
- Ethicist: Every moral action is the keeping of an
agreement, and keeping an agreement is
nothing more than an act of securing mutual
benefit. Clearly, however, not all instances of
agreement-keeping are moral actions.
Therefore, some acts of securing mutual
benefit are not moral actions.
The pattern of reasoning in which one of the
following arguments is most similar to that in the
ethicist’s argument?
(A) All calculators are kinds of computers, and all
computers are devices for automated
reasoning. However, not all devices for
automated reasoning are calculators.
Therefore, some devices for automated
reasoning are not computers.
(B) All exercise is beneficial, and all things that are
beneficial promote health. However, not all
things that are beneficial are forms of
exercise. Therefore, some exercise does not
promote health.
(C) All metaphors are comparisons, and not all
comparisons are surprising. However, all
metaphors are surprising. Therefore, some
comparisons are not metaphors.
(D) All architecture is design and all design is art.
However, not all design is architecture.
Therefore, some art is not design.
(E) All books are texts, and all texts are
documents. However, not all texts are books.
Therefore, some documents are not books.
Correct Answer: E
E Parallel
Diagram the argument. Moral action → keeping of an agreement → securing mutual benefit. Not all agreement-keeping actions are moral actions, so then some acts of securing mutual benefit are not moral actions. The conclusion here essentially reinforces the idea that you can’t read against the direction of the arrows: Knowing that an action is an agreement-keeping action does not imply that it is a moral one, so while the act of keeping an agreement does have to be an act of securing mutual benefit, that same action could be, but does not have to be, a moral action.
A. No. Calculator → computer → device for automated reasoning. Not all devices for automated reasoning are calculators, so some devices for automated reasoning are not computers. This doesn’t have the same structure as the original argument, which places emphasis in the conclusion on the element all the way to the left of the arrows, which in this case would be the calculator (moral action in the original argument).
B. No. Exercise → beneficial → promote health. Not all beneficial things are forms of exercise, so some exercise does not promote health. This is flawed; according to the premises, all exercise must promote health.
C. No. Metaphor → comparison and surprising. This doesn’t match the argument above.
D. No. Architecture → design → art. Not all design is architecture, so some art is not design. This is close, but the conclusion doesn’t match up. For the logic to be the same, the conclusion would need to assert that some art is not architecture.
E. Yes. This is the same logic as the argument above. Book → text → document. Not all texts are books (because you can’t read against the arrow), but all texts are documents; therefore, some documents are not books.
- Sociologist: The more technologically advanced a
society is, the more marked its members’
resistance to technological innovations. This is
not surprising, because the more technologically
advanced a society is, the more aware its members
are of technology’s drawbacks. Specifically,
people realize that sophisticated technologies
deeply affect the quality of human relations.
The claim that the more technologically advanced a
society is, the more aware its members are of
technology’s drawbacks plays which one of the
following roles in the sociologist’s argument?
(A) It is a conclusion supported by the claim that
people realize that sophisticated technologies
deeply affect the quality of human relations.
(B) It is offered as an explanation of why people’s
resistance to technological innovations is
more marked the more technologically
advanced the society in which they live is.
(C) It is a premise in support of the claim that the
quality of human relations in technologically
advanced societies is extremely poor.
(D) It is a generalization based on the claim that
the more people resist technological
innovations, the more difficult it is for them
to adjust to those innovations.
(E) It is an example presented to illustrate the
claim that resistance to technological
innovations deeply affects the quality of
human relations.
Correct Answer: B
B Reasoning
The sociologist concludes that the more technologically advanced a society is, the more marked its members’ resistance to technological innovations. This is because the more technologically advanced a society is, the more aware its members are of technology’s drawbacks; people realize that sophisticated technologies deeply affect the quality of human relations. The statement that is asked about in the question stem, therefore, is one of the sociologist’s premises.
A. No. The statement is a premise, not a conclusion.
B. Yes. This is in line with the analysis above.
C. No. The sociologist never states that the quality of human relations in technologically advanced societies is extremely poor.
D. No. The sociologist never claims that the more people resist technological innovations, the more difficult it is for them to adjust to those innovations.
E. No. The statement does not serve as an example and the sociologist never claims that resistance to technological innovations deeply affects the quality of human relations.
- To win democratic elections that are not fully
subsidized by the government, nonwealthy candidates
must be supported by wealthy patrons. This makes
plausible the belief that these candidates will
compromise their views to win that support. But since
the wealthy are dispersed among the various political
parties in roughly equal proportion to their percentage
in the overall population, this belief is false.
The argument is vulnerable to criticism on the
grounds that it fails to consider that
(A) the primary function of political parties in
democracies whose governments do not
subsidize elections might not be to provide a
means of negating the influence of wealth on
elections
(B) in democracies in which elections are not fully
subsidized by the government, positions
endorsed by political parties might be much
less varied than the positions taken by
candidates
(C) in democracies, government-subsidized
elections ensure that the views expressed by
the people who run for office might not be
overly influenced by the opinions of the
wealthiest people in those countries
(D) in democracies in which elections are not fully
subsidized by the government, it might be no
easier for a wealthy person to win an election
than it is for a nonwealthy person to win an
election
(E) a democracy in which candidates do not
compromise their views in order to be elected
to office might have other flaws
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
The argument concludes that it is false to believe that nonwealthy candidates supported by wealthy patrons in democratic elections not fully subsidized by the government will compromise their views to win such support. Why? The wealthy are dispersed among the various political parties in roughly equal proportion to their percentage in the overall population. The flaw in this reasoning is that you can’t presume that the views of the candidates necessarily align with those of the wealthy people who support them, regardless of how those supporters are distributed among political parties. A candidate’s views could just as easily not align with any political party and therefore not align with any wealthy supporter, necessitating that the candidate compromise his or her views.
A. No. The primary function of political parties is not relevant to the argument.
B. Yes. This paraphrases the problem with the argument noted above.
C. No. This argument is concerned with democracies in which elections are not fully subsidized by the government, while this choice is focused on government-subsidized elections.
D. No. The ability of a wealthy person to win an election is not relevant to the argument, which is focused on nonwealthy candidates.
E. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned with whether candidates might have to compromise their views in order to be elected; it claims they do not need to. Flaws that might be found in a democracy in which candidates do not compromise their views in order to be elected constitute a separate issue
- In modern “brushless” car washes, cloth strips called
mitters have replaced brushes. Mitters are easier on
most cars’ finishes than brushes are. This is especially
important with the new clear-coat finishes found on
many cars today, which are more easily scratched
than older finishes are.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the statements above, if those
statements are true?
(A) When car washes all used brushes rather than
mitters, there were more cars on the road
with scratched finishes than there are today.
(B) Modern “brushless” car washes were
introduced as a direct response to the use of
clear-coat finishes on cars.
(C) Modern “brushless” car washes usually do not
produce visible scratches on cars with older
finishes.
(D) Brushes are more effective than mitters and
are preferred for cleaning cars with older
finishes.
(E) More cars in use today have clear-coat finishes
rather than older finishes.
Correct Answer: C
C Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. The argument says that the new clear-coat finishes are more easily scratched than are older finishes and that mitters are easier on most cars’ finishes than are brushes. However, you don’t know that in the past when all car washes used brushes, more cars had scratched finishes. You don’t have enough information to know how much cars with older finishes were prone to scratching by brushes.
B. No. This choice goes too far. From the argument, you don’t know specifically why modern “brushless” car washes were introduced.
C. Yes. You are told that the new clear-coat finishes are more easily scratched than are older finishes and that mitters are easier on most cars’ finishes than are brushes. Therefore you can conclude that modern “brushless” car washes, which use mitters, usually do not produce visible scratches on cars with older finishes. Note, too, the safe language here (“usually”), which leaves some wiggle room for exceptions.
D. No. The argument tells you nothing about the relative effectiveness of brushes (as opposed to mitters).
E. No. The argument does not state that more cars today have clear-coat finishes than older finishes; you know only that there are many cars today that do have clear-coat finishes.
- It is widely believed that lancelets—small, primitive
sea animals—do not have hearts. Each lancelet has a
contracting vessel, but this vessel is considered an
artery rather than a heart. However, this vessel is
indeed a heart. After all, it strongly resembles the
structure of the heart of certain other sea animals.
Moreover, the muscular contractions in the lancelet’s
vessel closely resemble the muscular contractions of
other animals’ hearts.
The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) Only animals that have contracting vessels
have hearts.
(B) Some primitive animals other than lancelets
have what is widely held to be a heart.
(C) A vessel whose structure and actions closely
resemble those of other animal hearts is a
heart.
(D) For a vessel in an animal to be properly
considered a heart, that vessel must undergo
muscular contractions.
(E) No animal that has a heart lacks an artery
Correct Answer: C
C Sufficient Assumption
The argument concludes that, contrary to what is widely believed, lancelets, which are small, primitive sea animals, do have hearts. This is because the contracting vessel that all lancelets have strongly resembles the structure of the heart of certain other sea animals. Moreover, the muscular contractions in the lancelet’s vessel closely resemble the muscular contractions of other animals’ hearts. The argument makes an analogy assumption: It’s valid to draw conclusions about the lancelet’s vessel being a heart based on how well it compares to other animals’ hearts in terms of structure and muscular contractions. You need an answer choice that confirms this comparison’s validity.
A. No. This doesn’t focus on the comparison made in the argument.
B. No. Again, this doesn’t focus on the specific nature of the comparison being made in the argument.
C. Yes. This tells you that a vessel whose structure and actions resemble those of other animals’ hearts can legitimately be considered a heart.
D. No. This doesn’t address whether the comparison made in the argument is validly drawn. You already know the lancelet has a contracting vessel; the issue is whether this vessel can be considered a heart based on a comparison between it and other animals’ hearts.
E. No. This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned with whether an animal can be considered to have a heart, not whether an animal can have a heart without an artery.
- Manager: I recommend that our company reconsider
the decision to completely abandon our
allegedly difficult-to-use computer software
and replace it companywide with a new
software package advertised as more flexible
and easier to use. Several other companies in
our region officially replaced the software we
currently use with the new package, and while
their employees can all use the new software,
unofficially many continue to use their former
software as much as possible.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the manager’s statements?
(A) The current company software is as flexible as
the proposed new software package.
(B) The familiarity that employees have with a
computer software package is a more
important consideration in selecting software
than flexibility or initial ease of use.
(C) The employees of the manager’s company
would find that the new software package
lacks some of the capabilities of the present
software.
(D) Adopting the new software package would
create two classes of employees, those who
can use it and those who cannot.
(E) Many of the employees in the manager’s
company would not prefer the new software
package to the software currently in use.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
Pick the answer best supported by the passage.
A. No. You are never told that the current company software is as flexible as the proposed new software package.
B. No. Familiarity is never discussed. You don’t know why employees at other companies unofficially continue to use the old software as much as possible.
C. No. The capabilities of the new software package are never discussed.
D. No. The manager never mentions the idea of creating two classes of employees.
E. Yes. This is supported by the last sentence of the argument, in which the manager notes that employees at other companies who have officially adopted the new software unofficially continue to use the old software, and by the first sentence of the argument, in which the manager advocates not completely abandoning the software currently in use at the company.
- Commentator: Although the present freshwater
supply is adequate for today’s patterns of water
use, the human population will increase
substantially over the next few decades,
drastically increasing the need for freshwater.
Hence, restrictions on water use will be
necessary to meet the freshwater needs of
humankind in the not-too-distant future.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the argument?
(A) Humans will adapt to restrictions on the use of
water without resorting to wasteful use of
other natural resources.
(B) The total supply of freshwater has not
diminished in recent years.
(C) The freshwater supply will not increase
sufficiently to meet the increased needs of
humankind.
(D) No attempt to synthesize water will have an
appreciable effect on the quantity of
freshwater available.
(E) No water conservation measure previously
attempted yielded an increase in the supply of
freshwater available for human use.
Correct Answer: C
C Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that restrictions on water use will be necessary to meet the freshwater needs of humankind in the not-too-distant future. This is based on the fact that while the water supply is currently adequate, the population will increase over the next few decades. The assumption is that the current water supply will continue to be the water supply in the future.
A. No. Other natural resources are irrelevant to the argument.
B. No. This strengthens the conclusion somewhat, but is not necessary for the conclusion to be true. Negating this answer choice doesn’t necessarily hurt the conclusion.
C. Yes. If you negate the answer choice, it says that the freshwater supply WILL increase to meet future demands. This invalidates the conclusion, so this choice must be necessary.
D. No. Synthesizing water is irrelevant to the argument.
E. No. The commentator does not seek to increase the freshwater supply; rather, he aims to decrease water consumption. Therefore, this choice is irrelevant.
- Psychologist: The best way to recall a certain word or
name that one is having trouble remembering
is to occupy one’s mind with other things,
since often the more we strive to remember a
certain word or name that we can’t think of,
the less likely it becomes that the word will
come to mind.
The principle that underlies the psychologist’s
argument underlies which one of the following
arguments?
(A) Often, the best way to achieve happiness is to
pursue other things besides wealth and fame,
for there are wealthy and famous people who
are not particularly happy, which suggests
that true happiness does not consist in wealth
and fame.
(B) The best way to succeed in writing a long
document is not to think about how much is
left to write but only about the current
paragraph, since on many occasions thinking
about what remains to be done will be so
discouraging that the writer will be tempted
to abandon the project.
(C) The best way to overcome a serious mistake is
to continue on confidently as though all is
well. After all, one can overcome a serious
mistake by succeeding in new challenges, and
dwelling on one’s errors usually distracts
one’s mind from new challenges.
(D) The best way to fall asleep quickly is to engage
in some mental diversion like counting sheep,
because frequently the more one concentrates
on falling asleep the lower the chance of
falling asleep quickly.
(E) The best way to cope with sorrow or grief is to
turn one’s attention to those who are
experiencing even greater hardship, for in
many circumstances this will make our own
troubles seem bearable by comparison.
Correct Answer: D
D Principle Match
The psychologist claims that the best way to recall a word or name is to stop trying to think about it.
A. No. The core of this situation is that one should stop trying in order to achieve the result. This answer choice does not deal with this.
B. No. This choice deals with how to avoid dwelling on the size of a project by dividing it into small bits, which doesn’t match the principle given in the argument.
C. No. This says one should ignore mistakes, which doesn’t match the psychologist’s principle.
D. Yes. Counting sheep is doing something other than trying to fall asleep, which the answer choice claims will make you fall asleep faster. This matches the stated principle.
E. No. This tells you to focus on people worse off than you are to make yourself feel better. This doesn’t match the psychologist’s principle.
- Letter to the editor: The Planning Department
budget increased from $100,000 in 2001 to
$524,000 for this year. However, this does not
justify your conclusion in yesterday’s editorial
that the department now spends five times as
much money as it did in 2001 to perform the
same duties.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
support the claim made in the letter regarding the
justification of the editorial’s conclusion?
(A) Departments other than the Planning
Department have had much larger budget
increases since 2001.
(B) Since 2001, the Planning Department has
dramatically reduced its spending on
overtime pay.
(C) In some years between 2001 and this year, the
Planning Department budget did not
increase.
(D) The budget figures used in the original
editorial were adjusted for inflation.
(E) A restructuring act, passed in 2003, broadened
the duties of the Planning Department.
Correct Answer: E
E Strengthen
The argument concludes that the conclusion drawn in the editorial (the Planning Department now spends five times as much money as it did in 2001 to perform the same duties) is not justified. There isn’t much evidence that supports the letter-writer’s argument, and the only evidence used to support the editorial’s claim is that the budget has increased from 2001 to now. The editorial assumes that the Planning Department has the same duties it had in 2001. To justify the position of the letter writer, then, you need a choice that essentially claims those duties have somehow changed since 2001.
A. No. Other departments are irrelevant.
B. No. If this statement were true, it is possible that overall spending could have decreased as well, but then it’s unlikely that their budget would have increased fivefold if they were managing to cut spending.
C. No. This is irrelevant. These are the only two years you know about, and for all you know “this year” could be 2002.
D. No. This is irrelevant because the department still had a massive budget increase.
E. Yes. This says that the Planning Department’s duties have been increased, which would justify a larger budget and thus strengthen the position expressed in the letter to the editor.
- At mock trials in which jury instructions were given
in technical legal jargon, jury verdicts tended to
mirror the judge’s own opinions. Jurors had become
aware of the judge’s nonverbal behavior: facial
expressions, body movements, tone of voice. Jurors
who viewed the same case but were given instruction
in clear, nontechnical language, however, were
comparatively more likely to return verdicts at odds
with the judge’s opinion.
Which one of the following is best illustrated by the
example described above?
(A) Technical language tends to be more precise
than nontechnical language.
(B) A person’s influence is proportional to that
person’s perceived status.
(C) Nonverbal behavior is not an effective means
of communication.
(D) Real trials are better suited for
experimentation than are mock trials.
(E) The way in which a judge instructs a jury can
influence the jury’s verdict.
Correct Answer: E
E Principle Match
The argument tells you that when a jury is given instructions using technical jargon, jurors tended to side with the judge’s opinion. Conversely, when given instructions in nontechnical language, they tended to go against the judge. This suggests that how jurors are given instructions affects the decision they make.
A. No. The argument does not pass judgment on which opinion was more correct, so which set of instructions is more precise is irrelevant.
B. No. It doesn’t seem likely that the judge’s status would change depending on whether he or she gave technical or nontechnical instructions; thus the judge’s influence should not change, either.
C. No. The nonverbal behavior the judge exhibited to the jury that received technical instructions seemed very effective.
D. No. The argument discusses only the results of mock trials, so you have no way of knowing this.
E. Yes. This restates what was stated above: The delivery of the instructions affected the jury.
- Doctor: While a few alternative medicines have
dangerous side effects, some, such as many
herbs, have been proven safe to consume.
Thus, though there is little firm evidence of
medicinal effect, advocates of these herbs as
remedies for serious illnesses should always be
allowed to prescribe them, since their patients
will not be harmed, and might be helped, by
the use of these products.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the doctor’s argument?
(A) Many practitioners and patients neglect more
effective conventional medicines in favor of
herbal remedies.
(B) Many herbal remedies are marketed with
claims of proven effectiveness when in fact
their effectiveness is unproven.
(C) Some patients may have allergic reactions to
certain medicines that have been tolerated by
other patients.
(D) The vast majority of purveyors of alternative
medicines are driven as much by the profit
motive as by a regard for their patients’
health.
(E) Any pain relief or other benefits of many herbs
have been proven to derive entirely from
patients’ belief in the remedy, rather than
from its biochemical properties.
Correct Answer: A
A Weaken
The argument concludes that while there is little firm evidence of medicinal effect, people should always be allowed to prescribe herbal remedies. The evidence is that the patient will not be harmed and may be helped by herbal alternative medicines. The argument assumes that there are no other considerations other than the effectiveness of the remedy itself.
A. Yes. If a patient forgoes effective conventional treatment in favor of herbal remedies, this could definitely bring about negative consequences. Therefore this choice weakens the doctor’s argument.
B. No. The argument already claims that there is little firm evidence of medicinal effect. Truth in advertising is irrelevant.
C. No. The doctor is talking only about alternative medicines; this answer choice broadens the focus to all medicines, so it is irrelevant.
D. No. The motives of the purveyors of alternative medicines are irrelevant.
E. No. Whether the benefits are real or derive from a placebo effect is irrelevant.
- When a nation is on the brink of financial crisis, its
government does not violate free-market principles
if, in order to prevent economic collapse, it limits the
extent to which foreign investors and lenders can
withdraw their money. After all, the right to free
speech does not include the right to shout “Fire!” in a
crowded theatre, and the harm done as investors and
lenders rush madly to get their money out before
everyone else does can be just as real as the harm
resulting from a stampede in a theatre.
The argument does which one of the following?
(A) tries to show that a set of principles is limited
in a specific way by using an analogy to a
similar principle that is limited in a similar
way
(B) infers a claim by arguing that the truth of that
claim would best explain observed facts
(C) presents numerous experimental results as
evidence for a general principle
(D) attempts to demonstrate that an explanation
of a phenomenon is flawed by showing that it
fails to explain a particular instance of that
phenomenon
(E) applies an empirical generalization to reach a
conclusion about a particular case
Correct Answer: A
A Reasoning
This argument says that government does not violate free-market principles by imposing certain limitations on transactions if it does so in order to prevent economic collapse. As support for this conclusion, the argument uses the analogy of curtailing freedom of speech in certain appropriate situations.
A. Yes. This choice matches the argument: two sets of principles, each limited in its own way under certain circumstances.
B. No. There are no observed facts given in the argument.
C. No. There are no experimental results given in the argument.
D. No. The argument doesn’t claim that there is a flaw in an explanation of a phenomenon.
E. No. The entire scenario is a generalization; there is no particular case given.
- Although many political candidates object to being
made the target of advertising designed to cast them
in an adverse light, such advertising actually benefits
its targets because most elections have been won by
candidates who were the targets of that kind of
advertising.
The pattern of flawed reasoning in the argument
most closely parallels that in which one of the
following?
(A) Although many people dislike physical
exercise, they should exercise because it is a
good way to improve their overall health.
(B) Although many actors dislike harsh reviews of
their work, such reviews actually help their
careers because most of the really prestigious
acting awards have gone to actors who have
had performances of theirs reviewed harshly.
(C) Although many students dislike studying, it
must be a good way to achieve academic
success because most students who study pass
their courses.
(D) Although many film critics dislike horror
films, such films are bound to be successful
because a large number of people are eager to
attend them.
(E) Although many people dislike feeling sleepy as
a result of staying up late the previous night,
such sleepiness must be acceptable to those
who experience it because most people who
stay up late enjoy doing so.
Correct Answer: B
B Parallel Flaw
The argument attempts to claim that being the target of a smear campaign can actually benefit a candidate because most elections have been won by candidates who have been attacked via advertising. This is a case in which correlation does not equal causation: The author fails to consider that those candidates may have won elections despite, not because of, these negative attacks.
A. No. This choice displays logical reasoning.
B. Yes. This matches the flaw in the original argument. Many award-winning actors have received negative reviews at some point in their careers, but that doesn’t mean those negative reviews caused them to win awards.
C. No. This is fairly logical reasoning.
D. No. This choice doesn’t display the same flaw as the original argument; it doesn’t attempt to claim that the critics’ dislike of horror films is what causes those films to be successful.
E. No. This choice doesn’t display the same flawed causal assumption as the original argument.
- Working residents of Springfield live, on average,
farther from their workplaces than do working
residents of Rorchester. Thus, one would expect that
the demand for public transportation would be
greater in Springfield than in Rorchester. However,
Springfield has only half as many bus routes as
Rorchester.
Each of the following, if true, contributes to a
resolution of the apparent discrepancy described
above EXCEPT:
(A) Three-fourths of the Springfield workforce is
employed at the same factory outside the city
limits.
(B) The average number of cars per household is
higher in Springfield than in Rorchester.
(C) Rorchester has fewer railway lines than
Springfield.
(D) Buses in Springfield run more frequently and
on longer routes than in Rorchester.
(E) Springfield has a larger population than
Rorchester does.
Correct Answer: E
E Resolve/Explain
Fact 1: Residents of Springfield live farther away from work than those of Rorchester, so you would expect a greater demand for public transportation in Springfield. Fact 2: Springfield has half as many bus routes as Rorchester.
A. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. If the majority of the workforce is employed outside the city limits at the same factory, then it makes sense that there wouldn’t be as many bus routes, as most of the workforce would be taking the same routes to work. And public transportation might not extend beyond the city limits, either.
B. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. If there are more car owners in Springfield, it makes sense that there wouldn’t be as great a need for buses.
C. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. Adding another form of public transportation to the equation might explain why Springfield has fewer bus routes.
D. No. This helps to explain the discrepancy. Fact 2 talks only about the number of bus routes. This choice suggests that it is possible for Springfield to have fewer routes yet provide equal coverage.
E. Yes. If anything, this choice exacerbates the contradiction because you would expect a larger population to need more bus routes, not fewer.
- People who need to reduce their intake of fat and to
consume fewer calories often turn to fat substitutes,
especially those with zero calories such as N5. But
studies indicate that N5 is of no use to such people.
Subjects who ate foods prepared with N5 almost
invariably reported feeling hungrier afterwards than
after eating foods prepared with real fat and
consequently they ate more, quickly making up for
the calories initially saved by using N5.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument fails to
consider the possibility that
(A) many foods cannot be prepared with N5
(B) N5 has mild but unpleasant side effects
(C) not everyone who eats foods prepared with N5
pays attention to caloric intake
(D) people who know N5 contains zero calories
tend to eat more foods prepared with N5 than
do people who are unaware that N5 is caloriefree
(E) the total fat intake of people who eat foods
prepared with N5 tends to decrease even if
their caloric intake does not
Correct Answer: E
E Flaw
The argument concludes that the zero-calorie fat substitute N5 is of no use to people trying to reduce their intake of fat and calories. This is because people who ate foods prepared with N5 ate more food, making up for the calories initially saved by using N5. The argument ignores the fact that half of the goal is still met with N5, namely, reducing fat intake; the phrase “of no use” in the argument’s conclusion is too strong.Best restaurants near me
A. No. How many foods can or cannot be prepared with N5 is irrelevant.
B. No. The side effects of N5 are irrelevant to the argument.
C. No. Whether those who consume N5 pay attention to caloric intake does not seem to matter.
D. No. While possibly a true statement, this is not the flaw in the argument’s reasoning because it doesn’t deal with fat intake.
E. Yes. This choice tells you that N5 is not completely useless because it solves part of the problem: It reduces fat intake.
- Music historian: Some critics lament the fact that
impoverished postwar recording studios forced
early bebop musicians to record extremely
short solos, thus leaving a misleading record of
their music. But these musicians’ beautifully
concise playing makes the recordings superb
artistic works instead of mere representations
of their live solos. Furthermore, the
conciseness characteristic of early bebop
musicians’ recordings fostered a compactness
in their subsequent live playing, which the
playing of the next generation lacks.
The music historian’s statements, if true, most
strongly support which one of the following?
(A) Representations of live solos generally are not
valuable artistic works.
(B) The difficult postwar recording conditions had
some beneficial consequences for bebop.
(C) Short bebop recordings are always superior to
longer ones.
(D) The music of the generation immediately
following early bebop is of lower overall
quality than early bebop.
(E) Musicians will not record extremely short
solos unless difficult recording conditions
force them to do so.
Correct Answer: B
B Inference
The music historian claims that the lamentations of some critics are not justified because the things they do not like about postwar bebop recordings can actually be viewed as positives.
A. No. The argument states that they are not only representations of live solos, but also superb artistic works.
B. Yes. This choice fits the music historian’s assertion that the critics are wrong.
C. No. The use of the word “always” is too extreme.
D. No. The music historian doesn’t claim the next generation’s music is of lower overall quality, only that those musicians lack the compactness in live playing that early bebop musicians possessed.
E. No. You have no way of knowing whether difficult recording conditions are a necessary component of short solos, only that it happened in this particular case.
- Recent studies indicate a correlation between damage
to human chromosome number six and adult
schizophrenia. We know, however, that there are
people without damage to this chromosome who
develop adult schizophrenia and that some people
with damage to chromosome number six do not
develop adult schizophrenia. So there is no causal
connection between damage to human chromosome
number six and adult schizophrenia.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
a reasoning flaw in the argument above?
(A) The argument ignores the possibility that
some but not all types of damage to
chromosome number six lead to
schizophrenia.
(B) The argument presumes, without providing
evidence, that schizophrenia is caused solely
by chromosomal damage.
(C) The argument makes a generalization based on
an unrepresentative sample population.
(D) The argument mistakes a cause for an effect.
(E) The argument presumes, without providing
warrant, that correlation implies causation.
Correct Answer: A
A Flaw
The argument concludes that there is no causal connection between damage to human chromosome number six and adult schizophrenia. The reason for this assertion is that while a recent study found a correlation between the two, there are people who have damage to the chromosome who do not develop schizophrenia and people who have schizophrenia whose chromosome is undamaged. The flaw in this argument is that the term “damage” is fairly broad. It could be that the extent of the damage could be a factor in whether a person develops schizophrenia, a possibility that the extreme language of the conclusion doesn’t allow for.
A. Yes. If only some types of damage to chromosome number six can cause schizophrenia, this would explain why some people have damage to the chromosome but not schizophrenia. This choice addresses the flaw in the argument.
B. No. The argument never claims chromosomal damage is the sole cause of schizophrenia. In fact, the argument disputes this, since you are told that some people have schizophrenia yet have no damage to chromosome number six.
C. No. There is no reason to doubt the representativeness of the sample used in this argument.
D. No. The argument does not offer a cause; it merely concludes that damage to the chromosome is not the cause. Thus, the argument does not mistake a cause for an effect.
E. No. The argument claims that in this case correlation does not imply causation, so this choice is backwards.
- City councilperson: Many city residents oppose the
city art commission’s proposed purchase of an
unusual stone edifice, on the grounds that art
critics are divided over whether the edifice
really qualifies as art. But I argue that the
purpose of art is to cause experts to debate
ideas, including ideas about what constitutes
art itself. Since the edifice has caused experts
to debate what constitutes art itself, it does
qualify as art.
Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the
conclusion of the city councilperson’s argument to be
properly inferred?
(A) Nothing qualifies as art unless it causes debate
among experts.
(B) If an object causes debate among experts, no
expert can be certain whether that object
qualifies as art.
(C) The purchase of an object that fulfills the
purpose of art should not be opposed.
(D) Any object that fulfills the purpose of art
qualifies as art.
(E) The city art commission should purchase the
edifice if it qualifies as art.
Correct Answer: D
D Sufficient Assumption
The city councilperson’s conclusion is that the stone edifice qualifies as art. The evidence is that the edifice has caused experts to debate what constitutes art itself and that the purpose of art is to cause experts to debate ideas. The assumption needs to bridge the gap between the object in question and the purpose of art. Essentially, the city councilperson is assuming that if something satisfies the purpose of art, then it can be considered art.
A. No. This is backwards. This choice says if something is art, then it causes debate, but that’s the opposite of what was stated above.
B. No. This goes against the assumption you are looking for and would certainly not prove true the city councilperson’s conclusion that this edifice is art. Furthermore, whether an expert can be certain that an object is art is not relevant to the argument’s conclusion.
C. No. The purpose of this argument is to try to prove that the edifice qualifies as art. Whether the town should purchase it is completely irrelevant.
D. Yes. This choice puts the pieces in the correct order: If something fulfills the purpose of art, then it is art. You know that this edifice fulfills the purpose of art according to the city councilperson; therefore, it must qualify as art.
E. No. Once again, you are not trying to determine whether the city should buy the edifice, only whether the edifice qualifies as art.
- It is a given that to be an intriguing person, one must
be able to inspire the perpetual curiosity of others.
Constantly broadening one’s abilities and extending
one’s intellectual reach will enable one to inspire that
curiosity. For such a perpetual expansion of one’s
mind makes it impossible to be fully comprehended,
making one a constant mystery to others.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion drawn in the argument above?
(A) To be an intriguing person, one must be able
to inspire the perpetual curiosity of others.
(B) If one constantly broadens one’s abilities and
extends one’s intellectual reach, one will be
able to inspire the perpetual curiosity of
others.
(C) If one’s mind becomes impossible to fully
comprehend, one will always be a mystery to
others.
(D) To inspire the perpetual curiosity of others,
one must constantly broaden one’s abilities
and extend one’s intellectual reach.
(E) If one constantly broadens one’s abilities and
extends one’s intellectual reach, one will
always have curiosity.
Correct Answer: B
B Main Point
The argument concludes that constantly broadening one’s abilities and extending one’s intellectual reach will enable one to inspire the perpetual curiosity of others. Why? If a person constantly does the aforementioned things, it makes it impossible for that person to be fully comprehended, rendering him or her a constant mystery to others.
A. No. In the argument, this statement begins with the phrase “it is a given,” which implies that this a starting point on which the rest of the argument is based. Therefore, it is not the conclusion.
B. Yes. This almost perfectly restates the conclusion of the argument.
C. No. This is a part of the premise.
D. No. If you compare this choice to (B), you’ll notice that they are very similar. The difference is that while both are conditional in nature, the necessary and sufficient terms are flipped. In the argument, the phrase “will enable” means that the information preceding that phrase (constantly broadening one’s abilities and extending one’s intellectual reach) is sufficient. This choice, however, presents that information as being necessary instead of sufficient.
E. No. This choice uses many of the same words as the argument, but changes their context. The argument is concerned with inspiring curiosity in others. This choice, however, states that the person broadening his or her mind will be curious rather than inspire curiosity in others.
- Theater managers will not rent a film if they do not
believe it will generate enough total revenue—
including food-and-beverage concession revenue—to
yield a profit. Therefore, since film producers want
their films to be shown as widely as possible, they
tend to make films that theater managers consider
attractive to younger audiences.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the argument?
(A) Adults consume less of the sort of foods and
beverages sold at movie concession stands
than do either children or adolescents.
(B) Movies of the kinds that appeal to younger
audiences almost never also appeal to older
audiences.
(C) Food-and-beverage concession stands in movie
theaters are usually more profitable than the
movies that are shown.
(D) Theater managers generally believe that a film
that is attractive to younger audiences is more
likely to be profitable than other films.
(E) Films that have an appeal to older audiences
almost never generate a profit for theaters
that show them.
Correct Answer: D
D Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that film producers tend to make movies that theater managers consider attractive to younger audiences. This is because film producers want their films to be shown as widely as possible. Furthermore, you are told that theater managers will not rent a film if they do not believe it will generate enough revenue, including concession sales, to make a profit. There is a gap in this argument between what film producers want and what theater managers want. You need to show that there is an overlap in the wishes of both groups.Online movie streaming services
A. No. This strengthens the theater managers’ portion of the argument but disregards the position of the film producers.
B. No. It is not necessary that young and old audiences “almost never” agree. This language is too strong.
C. No. This may be true, but it is not necessary to the argument. If you negate this choice, it says that the concession stands are not more profitable than the movies, which does not weaken the conclusion.
D. Yes. If you use the negation test on this choice, it says that theater managers don’t think that films targeted to younger audiences are more likely to be profitable than other films. This certainly invalidates the conclusion, because if theater managers don’t feel that films targeted to younger audiences are more profitable, there is no reason for film producers to cater to younger audiences in choosing which films to make, given that theater managers use profitability as a factor in deciding which films to rent.
E. No. The entire argument deals with films aimed at younger audiences, so older audiences are irrelevant. This may seem to strengthen the conclusion, but it is not necessary for the conclusion to be true.
- Almost all advances in genetic research give rise to
ethical dilemmas. Government is the exclusive source
of funding for most genetic research; those projects
not funded by government are funded solely by
corporations. One or the other of these sources of
funding is necessary for any genetic research.
If all the statements above are true, then which one
of the following must be true?
(A) Most advances in genetic research occur in
projects funded by government rather than
by corporations.
(B) Most genetic research funded by government
results in advances that give rise to ethical
dilemmas.
(C) At least some advances in genetic research
occur in projects funded by corporations.
(D) No ethical dilemmas resulting from advances
in genetic research arise without government
or corporate funding.
(E) As long as government continues to fund
genetic research, that research will give rise to
ethical dilemmas.
Correct Answer: D
D Inference
Almost all advances in genetic research lead to ethical dilemmas. Funding for said research is exclusively provided by government in most cases, with the remainder being funded solely by corporations. Thus it appears you can make a connection between the sources of funding and ethical dilemmas.
A. No. You know that most of the funding for genetic research comes from government sources, but that does not mean that the majority of advances come from that money.
B. No. As with (A), you don’t know what percent of government-funded research results in advances, so you cannot prove the word “most” to be true here.
C. No. Again, the problem here is similar to those found in (A) and (B). You know that corporations provide some of the money, but you have no idea what percent of advances comes from the research they fund.
D. Yes. You are told all funding comes from either government or corporations and that this funding is necessary for any genetic research. Therefore, any advances made must come from a project funded by one of these two groups. If nearly all advances lead to ethical dilemmas, then at least one of these two funding sources must be connected to these ethical dilemmas.
E. No. Once again, you don’t know whether a government-funded program has made any advances in genetic research, so there is no way to say for certain whether there are any ethical dilemmas with which government is associated.
- Corporate businesses, like species, must adapt to
survive. Businesses that are no longer efficient will
become extinct. But sometimes a business cannot
adapt without changing its core corporate
philosophy. Hence, sometimes a business can survive
only by becoming a different corporation.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the argument?
(A) No business can survive without changing its
core corporate philosophy.
(B) As a business becomes less efficient, it
invariably surrenders its core corporate
philosophy.
(C) Different corporations have different core
corporate philosophies.
(D) If a business keeps its core corporate
philosophy intact, it will continue to exist.
(E) A business cannot change its core corporate
philosophy without becoming a different
corporation.
Correct Answer: E
E Necessary Assumption
The conclusion of the argument is that sometimes a business can survive only by becoming a different corporation. The justification is that because corporations must adapt to survive, they are sometimes forced to change their core corporate philosophy. Becoming a different corporation is mentioned only in the conclusion, so you need to link it to the change in core corporate philosophy discussed in the premises.
A. No. There is no mention of becoming a different corporation, so this does not create the link you need. Furthermore, the argument states only that sometimes a company is forced to change its core corporate philosophy, so this choice is also too strong.
B. No. This does not forge the link you want. The argument says extinction results when a business is “no longer efficient,” while this choice discusses becoming “less efficient,” which is not necessarily the same thing.
C. No. Whether corporations’ philosophies are similar or different is irrelevant.
D. No. There is no support for this choice, since the argument says nothing about a business keeping its core corporate philosophy intact, and it does not create the necessary link.
E. Yes. This creates a link between changing core corporate philosophy and becoming a different corporation. Using the negation test, you get that a company CAN change its core corporate philosophy without becoming a different corporation, which definitely invalidates the conclusion.
- A survey taken ten years ago of residents of area L
showed that although living conditions were slightly
below their country’s average, most residents of L
reported general satisfaction with their living
conditions. However, this year the same survey found
that while living conditions are now about the same
as the national average, most residents of L report
general dissatisfaction with their living conditions.
Which one of the following, if true, would most help
to resolve the apparent conflict between the results of
the surveys described above?
(A) Residents of area L typically value aspects of
living conditions different from the aspects of
living conditions that are valued by residents
of adjacent areas.
(B) Between the times that the two surveys were
conducted, the average living conditions in L’s
country had substantially declined.
(C) Optimal living conditions were established in
the survey by taking into account
governmental policies and public demands on
three continents.
(D) Living conditions in an area generally improve
only if residents perceive their situation as
somehow in need of improvement.
(E) Ten years ago the residents of area L were not
aware that their living conditions were below
the national average.
Correct Answer: B
B Resolve/Explain
Fact 1: A survey taken ten year ago showed the residents of area L had below-average living conditions relative to the rest of their country; however, most of the residents were generally satisfied with their standard of living. Fact 2: A more recent survey shows that the living conditions in area L are now about the same as those of the rest of the country, yet residents are currently dissatisfied with their living conditions.
A. No. This may be true, but by itself this choice doesn’t give any real explanation of why they are no longer satisfied with their living conditions.
B. Yes. The argument leads you to believe that because the standard of living in area L became close to the national average living conditions, the national average remained static while area L’s living conditions increased. If, however, area L’s standard of living remained static, but the standard in the country as a whole decreased substantially, it would explain why the residents of area L are dissatisfied now even though their living conditions match those of the rest of the country.
C. No. How optimal living conditions are calculated doesn’t explain why the residents in area L are now dissatisfied.
D. No. While people in area L were satisfied with their living conditions in the first survey, this is not the same thing as saying they didn’t think it needed improving. You don’t know whether people saw a need for improvement. And even if they did think conditions needed to improve and thus caused them to improve, this choice still doesn’t explain why the residents are now unhappy.
E. No. Even if the residents were not aware they were living in below-average conditions, they were happy. One could argue that ignorance is bliss and so once the residents became aware, it caused them to change their opinions, but the choice itself doesn’t state this outright. Plus, you know that their living conditions have changed relative to the national average, so you still need an explanation for why they are unhappy now.
- Travel agent: Although most low-fare airlines have
had few, if any, accidents, very few such airlines
have been in existence long enough for their
safety records to be reliably established. Major
airlines, on the other hand, usually have longstanding records reliably indicating their
degree of safety. Hence, passengers are safer on
a major airline than on one of the newer lowfare airlines.
Of the following, which one is the criticism to which
the reasoning in the travel agent’s argument is most
vulnerable?
(A) The argument fails to address adequately the
possibility that the average major airline has
had a total number of accidents as great as
the average low-fare airline has had.
(B) The argument draws a general conclusion
about how safe passengers are on different
airlines on the basis of safety records that are
each from too brief a period to adequately
justify such a conclusion.
(C) The argument fails to consider the possibility
that long-standing and reliable records
documenting an airline’s degree of safety may
indicate that the airline is unsafe.
(D) The argument takes for granted that airlines
that are the safest are also the most reliable in
documenting their safety.
(E) The argument fails to address adequately the
possibility that even airlines with longstanding, reliable records indicating their
degree of safety are still likely to have one or
more accidents.
Correct Answer: C
C Flaw
The travel agent’s conclusion is that passengers are safer on a major airline than on one of the newer low-fare airlines. The travel agent attempts to justify this by stating that though most low-fare airlines have had few, if any, accidents, very few of them have been in existence long enough for their safety records to be reliably established. At the same time, major airlines have been keeping track of safety for many years. The issue with this argument is that the travel agent doesn’t actually provide evidence that the major airlines are safe, only that they have been keeping diligent records. What if those records show that they get in a crash every other flight?
A. No. You would expect a major airline to have a higher number of crashes than a low-fare airline because they have more planes flying. The bigger issue is the percent chance a crash will occur on either airline, meaning what percent of the total number flights will result in a crash.
B. No. Major airlines have been keeping records for an adequate length of time. This choice says the time period for both types of airlines is too short.
C. Yes. As stated above, nowhere in the argument does it show that the major airlines have a good safety record, only that they keep track of their safety. This choice accurately describes the flaw in the travel agent’s argument.
D. No. The argument discusses the comparison between the airlines and uses the term “safer,” which is not the same as the language in this choice, which says “safest.” There could be a small airline that does not have low fares, such as a private charter service, that could be safer than the major airlines but does not keep reliable records to indicate such. Nothing in the travel agent’s argument, moreover, discounts this possibility, so this doesn’t describe the flaw in the travel agent’s reasoning.
E. No. The travel agent never claims that flying a major airline eliminates one’s chances of getting in an accident, just that it is safer than flying a low-fare airline.
- Economist: Our economy’s weakness is the direct
result of consumers’ continued reluctance to
spend, which in turn is caused by factors such
as high-priced goods and services. This
reluctance is exacerbated by the fact that the
average income is significantly lower than it
was five years ago. Thus, even though it is not
a perfect solution, if the government were to
lower income taxes, the economy would
improve.
Which one of the following is an assumption
required by the economist’s argument?
(A) Increasing consumer spending will cause
prices for goods and services to decrease.
(B) If consumer spending increases, the average
income will increase.
(C) If income taxes are not lowered, consumers’
wages will decline even further.
(D) Consumers will be less reluctant to spend
money if income taxes are lowered.
(E) Lowering income taxes will have no effect on
government spending.
Correct Answer: D
D Necessary Assumption
The conclusion of the economist’s argument is that if the government were to lower income taxes, the economy would improve. This is based on the several facts. First, the economy’s weakness is a result of consumers’ reluctance to spend, which has been caused in part by prices going up. Second, this reluctance to spend has been exacerbated by the fact that average income is significantly lower than it was five years ago. The problem with the economist’s solution is that it takes into account only part of the problem: falling income. This solution would put more money in the hands of consumers, but you don’t know if they will actually spend the money. For the economist’s solution to work, then, you need to know that lowering income taxes would override whatever other reasons consumers may have had for not spending money.
A. No. While higher prices have contributed to decreased spending, you have no way of knowing whether the scenario will work in reverse.
B. No. This may happen, but it is not a requirement for the argument. If you negate this choice and say that average incomes will not increase, it doesn’t necessarily weaken the argument.
C. No. This choice deals with a factor (lower income) that has already contributed to the economy getting worse. Since the conclusion focuses on improving the economy, this is irrelevant.
D. Yes. This addresses the problem noted above. If you negate this choice, it suggests that consumers will be just as or more reluctant to spend money if this solution—lowering income taxes—is put into effect. If people are more reluctant to spend money, the economy will most likely not improve, which is counter to the economist’s conclusion. Therefore this choice must be necessary to the economist’s argument.
E. No. Government spending is irrelevant here; the issue is consumer spending.
- A person with a type B lipid profile is at much
greater risk of heart disease than a person with a type
A lipid profile. In an experiment, both type A
volunteers and type B volunteers were put on a lowfat diet. The cholesterol levels of the type B
volunteers soon dropped substantially, although their
lipid profiles were unchanged. The type A volunteers,
however, showed no benefit from the diet, and 40
percent of them actually shifted to type B profiles.
If the information above is true, which one of the
following must also be true?
(A) In the experiment, most of the volunteers had
their risk of heart disease reduced at least
marginally as a result of having been put on
the diet.
(B) People with type B lipid profiles have higher
cholesterol levels, on average, than do people
with type A lipid profiles.
(C) Apart from adopting the low-fat diet, most of
the volunteers did not substantially change
any aspect of their lifestyle that would have
affected their cholesterol levels or lipid
profiles.
(D) The reduction in cholesterol levels in the
volunteers is solely responsible for the change
in their lipid profiles.
(E) For at least some of the volunteers in the
experiment, the risk of heart disease increased
after having been put on the low-fat diet.
Correct Answer: E
E Inference
A person with a type B lipid profile has a greater risk of heart disease than does someone with a type A lipid profile. After being put on a low-fat diet, volunteers with type B profiles lowered their cholesterol levels but remained type B profiles. Type A volunteers, however, showed no benefit from the diet; furthermore, 40 percent of them shifted to type B lipid profiles.
A. No. The opposite of this actually seems to be true, since some of the people in the lower risk group (type A profile) moved to the higher risk group (type B profile) as a result of the diet.
B. No. The argument does not say what anyone’s starting cholesterol level was.
C. No. The argument does not discuss anything about the volunteers in terms of their lifestyles, so there’s no way to prove that this choice must be true.
D. No. The word “solely” is too strong; you have no way of knowing whether the reduction in cholesterol levels was the only factor or one of many.
E. Yes. This must be true. Those volunteers who began as type A profiles and then shifted to type B as a result of being on the diet increased their risk of heart disease.
- Columnist: Although there is and should be
complete freedom of thought and expression,
that does not mean that there is nothing
wrong with exploiting depraved popular tastes
for the sake of financial gain.
Which one of the following judgments conforms
most closely to the principle cited by the columnist?
(A) The government should grant artists the right
to create whatever works of art they want to
create so long as no one considers those
works to be depraved.
(B) People who produce depraved movies have the
freedom to do so, but that means that they
also have the freedom to refrain from doing
so.
(C) There should be no laws restricting what
books are published, but publishing books
that pander to people with depraved tastes is
not thereby morally acceptable.
(D) The public has the freedom to purchase
whatever recordings are produced, but that
does not mean that the government may not
limit the production of recordings deemed to
be depraved.
(E) One who advocates complete freedom of
speech should not criticize others for saying
things that he or she believes to exhibit
depraved tastes.
Correct Answer: C
C Principle Match
The principle is that while there should be no restrictions placed on freedom of speech, it can still be considered “bad” to exploit depraved popular tastes for the sake of financial gain.
A. No. The principle says there should be no restrictions, so this choice doesn’t match.
B. No. This choice does not address the part of the principle that says it is not okay to exploit depraved popular tastes for financial gain.
C. Yes. This matches the principle stated above. It should be legal to publish whatever sort of book one wants, but it may be morally wrong to do so.
D. No. This choice suggests the government has the right to limit freedom of speech, which goes against the principle stated above.
E. No. To claim that a person should not criticize something would be to limit that person’s freedom of expression, which violates the principle.
- When a society undergoes slow change, its younger
members find great value in the advice of its older
members. But when a society undergoes rapid
change, young people think that little in the
experience of their elders is relevant to them, and so
do not value their advice. Thus, we may measure the
rate at which a society is changing by measuring the
amount of deference its younger members show to
their elders.
Which one of the following is an assumption on
which the argument depends?
(A) A society’s younger members can often
accurately discern whether that society is
changing rapidly.
(B) How much deference young people show to
their elders depends on how much of the
elders’ experience is practically useful to
them.
(C) The deference young people show to their
elders varies according to how much the
young value their elders’ advice.
(D) The faster a society changes, the less relevant
the experience of older members of the
society is to younger members.
(E) Young people value their elders’ advice just
insofar as the elders’ experience is practically
useful to them.
Correct Answer: C
C Necessary Assumption
The argument concludes that we may measure the rate at which a society is changing by measuring the amount of deference its younger members show to their elders. The justification for this conclusion is that when a society undergoes slow change, young members find great value in the advice of its older members. However, when a society undergoes rapid change, young people think that little in the experience of their elders is relevant to them and so do not value their advice. There is a gap in this argument between the term “deference” in the conclusion and the notion of valuing advice in the premises.
A. No. Whether a society’s younger members can accurately discern rapid societal change is irrelevant to the conclusion.
B. No. This is close; however, the argument is concerned with finding value in the elders’ advice, not with whether their experience is practically useful.
C. Yes. This creates the link you need. If you negate this choice, it says that deference does not vary according to the value placed on the advice. This would invalidate the conclusion; therefore, this choice must be necessary to the argument.
D. No. This seems to be supported by the argument and so is not an assumption.
E. No. This choice talks about the advice being practically useful to young people, which is irrelevant.
- Politician: We should impose a tariff on imported
fruit to make it cost consumers more than
domestic fruit. Otherwise, growers from other
countries who can grow better fruit more
cheaply will put domestic fruit growers out of
business. This will result in farmland’s being
converted to more lucrative industrial uses and
the consequent vanishing of a unique way of
life.
The politician’s recommendation most closely
conforms to which one of the following principles?
(A) A country should put its own economic
interest over that of other countries.
(B) The interests of producers should always take
precedence over those of consumers.
(C) Social concerns should sometimes take
precedence over economic efficiency.
(D) A country should put the interests of its own
citizens ahead of those of citizens of other
countries.
(E) Government intervention sometimes creates
more economic efficiency than free markets.
Correct Answer: C
C Principle Match
The politician concludes that a tariff should be imposed on imported fruit to make it cost more than domestically grown fruit. If this is not done, domestic growers will go out of business, resulting in their farmland being converted to more lucrative industrial uses. Clearly from these statements, money is not the only motivating factor; the “vanishing of a unique way of life,” another consequence of not imposing a tariff, is even more important.
A. No. Economic interest is ancillary to the “unique way of life.” If it were only about economics, then fruit would be imported and domestic orchards turned into industrial parks.Financial news subscriptions
B. No. In this scenario that is true, but you cannot generalize from this one case to one of all producers and all consumers.
C. Yes. This says that sometimes social concerns (the unique way of life) are more important than money.
D. No. The interests of citizens of other countries are irrelevant to the argument.
E. No. The politician is not seeking to increase economic efficiency; if anything, the proposed tariff may do the opposite.
- The Kiffer Forest Preserve, in the northernmost part
of the Abbimac Valley, is where most of the bears in
the valley reside. During the eight years that the
main road through the preserve has been closed the
preserve’s bear population has nearly doubled. Thus,
the valley’s bear population will increase if the road
is kept closed.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines
the argument?
(A) Most of the increase in the preserve’s bear
population over the past eight years is due to
migration.
(B) Only some of the increase in the preserve’s
bear population over the past eight years is
due to migration of bears from other parts of
the Abbimac Valley.
(C) Only some of the increase in the preserve’s
bear population over the past eight years is
due to migration of bears from outside the
Abbimac Valley.
(D) The bear population in areas of the Abbimac
Valley outside the Kiffer Forest Preserve has
decreased over the past eight years.
(E) The bear population in the Abbimac Valley has
remained about the same over the past eight
years.
Correct Answer: E
E Weaken
The conclusion is that the valley’s bear population will increase if the road is kept closed. This is based on the fact that in the Kipper Forest Preserve, most of the bears live in the valley. During the eight years that the main road through the preserve has been closed, the preserve’s bear population has nearly doubled. One problem with this argument is that it tells you that the preserve’s bear population has doubled and then it concludes that the valley’s bear population will also increase. This is flawed: Just because the population of one area has gone up does not mean that the population of the total area will go up. You need to find an answer that addresses this gap.
A. No. Why the population in the preserve increased is irrelevant.
B. No. Once again, why the population in the preserve increased is irrelevant. You are concerned only with whether the total population will increase if the road remains closed.
C. No. This choice also deals with why the population in the preserve has increased, which is irrelevant.
D. No. This doesn’t effectively weaken the conclusion. There could be many reasons the bear population in the rest of the valley decreased, reasons that could perhaps be dealt with by keeping the road closed.
E. Yes. This tells you that during the time the main road was closed, the valley’s overall bear population remained roughly the same, implying that the increase in the preserve’s bear population was not replicated elsewhere in the valley and might have been the result of the bears moving from other parts of the valley into the preserve. Therefore, keeping the road closed could not be expected to increase the valley’s bear population further, which weakens the argument’s conclusion.
- If a wig has any handmade components, it is more
expensive than one with none. Similarly, a made-tomeasure wig ranges from medium-priced to
expensive. Handmade foundations are never found
on wigs that do not use human hair. Furthermore,
any wig that contains human hair should be drycleaned. So all made-to-measure wigs should be drycleaned.
The conclusion of the argument follows logically if
which one of the following is assumed?
(A) Any wig whose price falls in the mediumpriced to expensive range has a handmade
foundation.
(B) If a wig’s foundation is handmade, then it is
more expensive than one whose foundation is
not handmade.
(C) A wig that has any handmade components
should be dry-cleaned.
(D) If a wig’s foundation is handmade, then its
price is at least in the medium range.
(E) Any wig that should be dry-cleaned has a
foundation that is handmade.
Correct Answer: A
A Sufficient Assumption
The conclusion is that made-to-measure wigs should be dry-cleaned (MMW → DC). This is based on several facts. First, a made-to-measure wig has a price range of medium-priced to expensive (MMW → M-E). Second, handmade foundations are never found on wigs that don’t have human hair (HF → HH). Third, any wig that contains human hair should be dry cleaned (HH → DC). So you get this basic setup when mapping out the argument: Conclusion: MMW → DC. Premises: MMW → M-E, HF → HH, HH → DC. You can now see that to get from MMW to DC you have to connect the price range of the wig to the handmade foundation. MMW → M-E → HF → HH → DC. This proves the conclusion and would thus be the answer you want to find.
A. Yes. This is the missing conditional statement that is stated above (M-E → HF). This statement links together the premises and proves the conclusion true.
B. No. This choice mentions a foundation that is not handmade, which isn’t what you need.
C. No. This is an inference that can be drawn from both statements regarding human hair in the argument. HF → HH plus HH → DC yields HF → DC. However, this doesn’t connect the premise about made-to-measure wigs ranging in price to the conclusion, so it can’t be the credited response.
D. No. This choice is backwards. The conditional statement discussed above and stated in (A) has the terms on the correct side of the arrow, while this choice gives you HF → M-E.
E. No. This choice confuses necessity and sufficiency. From the premises you can conclude that any wig with a handmade foundation should be dry cleaned, making the handmade foundation part sufficient. However, this choice uses it as a necessary term (DC → HF), which goes against what you mapped out above.
- Philosopher: Wolves do not tolerate an attack by one
wolf on another if the latter wolf demonstrates
submission by baring its throat. The same is
true of foxes and domesticated dogs. So it
would be erroneous to deny that animals have
rights on the grounds that only human beings
are capable of obeying moral rules.
The philosopher’s argument proceeds by attempting
to
(A) provide counterexamples to refute a premise
on which a particular conclusion is based
(B) establish inductively that all animals possess
some form of morality
(C) cast doubt on the principle that being capable
of obeying moral rules is a necessary
condition for having rights
(D) establish a claim by showing that the denial of
that claim entails a logical contradiction
(E) provide evidence suggesting that the concept
of morality is often applied too broadly
Correct Answer: A
A Reasoning
The philosopher’s conclusion is that it would be erroneous to deny that animals have rights on the grounds that only human beings are capable of obeying moral rules. The evidence given in support of this conclusion is an example of wolves’ behavior: A wolf will not tolerate an attack by one wolf on another if the latter wolf demonstrates submission by baring its throat. The philosopher also mentions that both foxes and domesticated dogs exhibit this sort of behavior, too. The statement that the philosopher rejects is based on the premise that only human beings are capable of obeying moral rules. The argument shows that in certain situations animals do behave morally.
A. Yes. Wolves, foxes, and domesticated dogs are all counterexamples to the premise that the philosopher refutes.
B. No. The philosopher never claims that all animals possess some form of morality, only that wolves, foxes, and domesticated dogs have displayed what could be seen as moral behavior.
C. No. There is no principle stated in this argument; all the evidence given is factual.
D. No. Denying the claim in this argument does not produce any sort of contradiction.
E. No. If anything, the philosopher seems to broaden the application of the concept of morality.
- Automated flight technology can guide an aircraft
very reliably, from navigation to landing. Yet this
technology, even when functioning correctly, is not a
perfect safeguard against human error.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the situation described above?
(A) Automated flight technology does not always
function correctly.
(B) Smaller aircraft do not always have their
automated flight technology updated
regularly.
(C) If a plane’s automated flight technology
malfunctions, crew members have to operate
the plane manually.
(D) Some airplane crashes are due neither to
human error nor to malfunction of
automated flight technology.
(E) Automated flight technology invariably
executes exactly the commands that humans
give it.
Correct Answer: E
E Resolve/Explain
Fact 1: Automated flight technology can guide an aircraft reliably from navigation to landing. Fact 2: Even when functioning correctly, this technology does not completely guard against human error.
A. No. According to Fact 2, you are concerned only with trying to explain the situation when the technology is functioning correctly.
B. No. This would not explain why the technology isn’t a perfect safeguard against human error.
C. No. The argument states that it is not a perfect safeguard against human error even when it is functioning correctly. You are not concerned with instances during which it malfunctions.
D. No. This choice does not explain why correctly functioning flight technology does not prevent such errors.
E. Yes. If automated flight technology responds directly to human commands, then that would explain how it could function correctly and still make errors. If a human makes an error, then the flight technology would simply carry out that error.
- To keep one’s hands warm during the winter, one
never needs gloves or mittens. One can always keep
one’s hands warm simply by putting on an extra
layer of clothing, such as a thermal undershirt or a
sweater. After all, keeping one’s vital organs warm
can keep one’s hands warm as well.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
argument?
(A) Maintaining the temperature of your hands is
far less important, physiologically, than
maintaining the temperature of your torso.
(B) Several layers of light garments will keep one’s
vital organs warmer than will one or two
heavy garments.
(C) Wearing an extra layer of clothing will not
keep one’s hands warm at temperatures low
enough to cause frostbite.
(D) Keeping one’s hands warm by putting on an
extra layer of clothing is less effective than
turning up the heat.
(E) The physical effort required to put on an extra
layer of clothing does not stimulate
circulation enough to warm your hands.
Correct Answer: C
C Weaken
The author concludes that a person can invariably keep his/her hands warm by putting on an extra layer of clothing. The author supports this by stating that by keeping your vital organs warm you can warm your hands as well. However, just because extra clothing can keep your hands warm does not mean it always will, so you want to look for an answer choice that exploits this gap in the argument.
A. No. The question requires you to attack the ability of an extra layer to keep one’s hands warm, not the importance of keeping one’s hands warm.
B. No. The way in which one adds extra layers of clothing to keep one’s hands warm is irrelevant.
C. Yes. This choice exploits the strong language in the conclusion by showing there are times when an extra layer of clothing will not keep one’s hands warm.
D. No. Despite being less effective at warming the hands than turning up the heat, an extra layer still could keep the hands warm. Thus, this choice does not weaken the conclusion.
E. No. Although the physical effort required to put on an extra layer of clothing may not be enough to warm the hands, other factors (such as the body warmth the extra layer may help contain) could help warm the hands, so this doesn’t weaken the argument.
- The reason music with a simple recurring rhythm
exerts a strong primordial appeal is that it reminds
us of the womb environment. After all, the first
sound heard within the womb is the comforting
sound of the mother’s regular heartbeat. So in taking
away from us the warmth and security of the womb,
birth also takes away a primal and constant source of
comfort. Thus it is extremely natural that in seeking
sensations of warmth and security throughout life,
people would be strongly drawn toward simple
recurring rhythmic sounds.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion drawn in the reasoning above?
(A) The explanation of the strong primordial
appeal of music with a simple recurring
rhythm is that it reminds us of the womb
environment.
(B) The comforting sound of the mother’s regular
heartbeat is the first sound that is heard
inside the womb.
(C) Birth deprives us of a primal and constant
source of comfort when it takes away the
warmth and security of the womb.
(D) People seek sensations of warmth and security
throughout life because birth takes away the
warmth and security of the womb.
(E) The comforting sound of the mother’s regular
heartbeat is a simple recurring rhythmic
sound.
Correct Answer: A
A Main Point
The author concludes that the reason music with a simple recurring rhythm exerts a strong primordial appeal is that it reminds us of the womb. Why? The first sound heard in the womb is the comforting sound of the mother’s heartbeat which, along with the womb’s warmth and security, birth takes away.
A. Yes. This almost perfectly restates the conclusion.
B. No. This is a premise.
C. No. This is provided as one of the reasons that people are comforted by the womb; thus it is a premise, not the conclusion.
D. No. This choice is too broad. The author specifically discusses the appeal of music with simple recurring rhythms. The fact that people seek the warmth and security that was taken away at birth serves to explain why such music is appealing.
E. No. The fact that the mother’s heartbeat is a simple rhythmic sound is a reason that people like music with a similar sound; thus it is a premise of the argument.
- Linguist: Most people can tell whether a sequence of
words in their own dialect is grammatical. Yet
few people who can do so are able to specify
the relevant grammatical rules.
Which one of the following best illustrates the
principle underlying the linguist’s statements?
(A) Some people are able to write cogent and
accurate narrative descriptions of events. But
these people are not necessarily also capable
of composing emotionally moving and
satisfying poems.
(B) Engineers who apply the principles of physics
to design buildings and bridges must know a
great deal more than do the physicists who
discover these principles.
(C) Some people are able to tell whether any given
piece of music is a waltz. But the majority of
these people cannot state the defining
characteristics of a waltz.
(D) Those travelers who most enjoy their journeys
are not always those most capable of vividly
describing the details of those journeys to
others.
(E) Quite a few people know the rules of chess, but
only a small number of them can play chess
very well.
Correct Answer: C
C Principle Match
The author states that even though people can detect whether a sentence in their language is grammatical, they are not able to specify the particular grammatical rules. You must find a similar case in which people are able to identify a particular concept without being able to state the rules that guide that concept.
A. No. This choice describes a case in which people are able to perform one sort of action but are not able to perform a completely separate kind of action.
B. No. This choice deals with two separate groups of people. The argument deals with a single group of people who can perform one action but cannot cite the particular rules guiding their action.
C. Yes. This choice is similar to the principle underlying the original argument in that it deals with people who are able to identify a particular concept but are unable to cite the rules guiding that concept.
D. No. While the first part of this choice is similar to the original argument in that it deals with a single group of people in relation to a concept, the latter half differs from the argument in that it discusses the same people not being fully able to recall the details of that concept.
E. No. This choice concerns people who know the rules of chess but may not be able to play chess very well. This does not match the principle underlying the original argument.
- Company president: For the management consultant
position, we shall interview only those
applicants who have worked for management
consulting firms generally recognized as in the
top 1 percent of firms worldwide. When we
finally select somebody, then, we can be sure to
have selected one of the best management
consultants available.
The company president’s reasoning is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it
(A) takes for granted that only the best
management consultants have worked for the
top management consulting firms
(B) generalizes from too small a sample of
management consulting firms worldwide
(C) takes for granted that if something is true of
each member of a collection, then it is also
true of the collection as a whole
(D) presumes, without providing warrant, that
persons who have worked for the top
companies will accept a job offer
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
highly competent management consultants
are highly competent at every task
Correct Answer: A
A Flaw
The company president concludes that when somebody is finally selected for the consultant position, the company will surely have selected one of the best possible management consultants. The reason the president gives for this belief is that they are interviewing only applicants who have worked for the top 1 percent of firms worldwide. The problem, however, is that the best consultants might not necessarily have worked at those top firms.
A. Yes. This choice addresses the assumption that the best consultants work for the top firms. Perhaps the best consultants do not work for the best firms, in which case hiring someone who has worked for one of those firms wouldn’t guarantee that the company has hired one of the best consultants.
B. No. The sample size is never mentioned.
C. No. This choice describes a part-to-whole flaw, while the argument actually contains a whole-to-part flaw. The company president assumes that what is true of the top firms (the whole) is true of each consultant working in those firms (the part).
D. No. The argument mentions only interviewing and selecting people. It never actually mentions the hiring process.
E. No. The company president does not assume that the consultants will be highly competent at every task.
- Beginners typically decide each chess move by
considering the consequences. Expert players, in
contrast, primarily use pattern-recognition
techniques. That is, such a player recognizes having
been in a similar position before and makes a
decision based on information recalled about the
consequences of moves chosen on that prior
occasion.
Which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the information above?
(A) Beginning chess players are better at thinking
through the consequences of chess moves
than experts are.
(B) A beginning chess player should use patternrecognition techniques when deciding what
move to make.
(C) One’s chess skills will improve only if one
learns to use pattern-recognition techniques.
(D) In playing chess, an expert player relies
crucially on his or her memory.
(E) Any chess player who played other games that
require pattern-recognition skills would
thereby improve his or her chess skills.
Correct Answer: D
D Inference
The passage details techniques used by beginner and expert chess players. Beginners tend to decide each move by considering the consequences. An expert player, however, typically makes use of pattern-recognition techniques in which the player recalls relevant prior experience to help determine the next move.
A. No. The author never states who is better at thinking through the consequences. This information goes beyond the passage.
B. No. While the author states that pattern-recognition techniques are what the experts use, he never claims that they are what should be used. Moreover, the author never states whether beginning chess players have the ability to use such techniques.
C. No. How to improve one’s chess skills is never mentioned in the passage.
D. Yes. The passage states that expert players primarily use pattern-recognition techniques in which players recall previous experiences.
E. No. This choice is irrelevant; the passage does not discuss how to improve one’s chess skills.
- Farmer: Because water content is what makes
popcorn pop, the kernels must dry at just the
right speed to trap the correct amount of
water. The best way to achieve this effect is to
have the sun dry the corn while the corn is still
in the field, but I always dry the ears on a
screen in a warm, dry room.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
resolve the apparent discrepancy between the
farmer’s theory and practice?
(A) The region in which the farmer grows popcorn
experiences a long, cloudy season that begins
shortly before the popcorn in fields would
begin to dry.
(B) Leaving popcorn to dry on its stalks in the
field is the least expensive method of drying
it.
(C) Drying popcorn on its stalks in the field is
only one of several methods that allow the
kernels’ water content to reach acceptable
levels.
(D) When popcorn does not dry sufficiently, it will
still pop, but it will take several minutes to do
so, even under optimal popping conditions.
(E) If popcorn is allowed to dry too much, it will
not pop
Correct Answer: A
A Resolve/Explain
Fact 1: The best way to dry kernels in order to make popcorn is to dry the corn in the sun while the corn is still in the field. Fact 2: Even though this is the best way, the farmer dries them on a screen in a warm, dry room. You need to find a choice that explains why he doesn’t make use of the best method in practice.
A. Yes. This choice explains why the farmer does not use the sun-drying method. Drying corn in the field is not possible because the region’s cloudy season coincides with the time during which he would generally dry popcorn.
B. No. This choice would give the farmer even more incentive to dry the kernels in the field. You need an answer choice that explains why he doesn’t.
C. No. The passage states that drying popcorn on its stalks in the field is the best method. Even if there are other ways to dry the kernels, this doesn’t explain why the farmer does not choose the best method.
D. No. This choice does not explain why the farmer does not dry popcorn in the sun.
E. No. What happens when popcorn is dried too much is irrelevant.
- Factory manager: One reason the automobile parts
this factory produces are expensive is that our
manufacturing equipment is outdated and
inefficient. Our products would be more
competitively priced if we were to refurbish
the factory completely with new, more efficient
equipment. Therefore, since to survive in
today’s market we have to make our products
more competitively priced, we must
completely refurbish the factory in order to
survive.
The reasoning in the factory manager’s argument is
flawed because this argument
(A) fails to recognize that the price of a particular
commodity can change over time
(B) shifts without justification from treating
something as one way of achieving a goal to
treating it as the only way of achieving that
goal
(C) argues that one thing is the cause of another
when the evidence given indicates that the
second thing may in fact be the cause of the
first
(D) recommends a solution to a problem without
first considering any possible causes of that
problem
(E) fails to make a definite recommendation and
instead merely suggests that some possible
course of action might be effective
Correct Answer: B
B Flaw
The factory manager concludes that the factory must be refurbished in order to make its products more competitively priced and thus survive. The support for this conclusion is that the factory’s manufacturing equipment is outdated and inefficient, which results in higher prices for the automobile parts it produces. However, the manager states that this is only one reason the parts are expensive. The flaw is that the manager shifts from noting one way to make products more competitively priced to stating that it is the only way to achieve this goal.
A. No. The fact that prices may change over time is irrelevant to the argument.
B. Yes. This choice identifies the manager’s flawed assumption that because refurbishing the factory could make products more competitively priced, it is therefore the only way to achieve this result.
C. No. There is no reverse causation flaw in this argument.
D. No. The argument does provide a reason for the expensive products—outdated and inefficient manufacturing equipment.
E. No. The factory manager does make a definite recommendation; he concludes that the factory must be refurbished.
- Two months ago a major shipment of pythons
arrived from Africa, resulting in a great number of
inexpensive pythons in pet stores. Anyone interested
in buying a python, however, should beware: many
pythons hatched in Africa are afflicted with a deadly
liver disease. Although a few pythons recently
hatched in North America have this disease, a much
greater proportion of African-hatched pythons have
it. The disease is difficult to detect in its early stages,
and all pythons die within six months of contracting
the disease.
Which one of the following statements can be
properly inferred from the statements above?
(A) Some pythons hatched in North America may
appear fine but will die within six months as a
result of the liver disease.
(B) Pythons that hatch in Africa are more
susceptible to the liver disease than are
pythons that hatch in North America.
(C) Any python that has not died by the age of six
months does not have the liver disease.
(D) The pythons are inexpensively priced because
many of them suffer from the liver disease.
(E) Pythons hatched in neither Africa nor North
America are not afflicted with the liver
disease.
Correct Answer: A
A Inference
The passage states that some pythons hatched in Africa and some pythons recently hatched in North America have a deadly liver disease. The passage further states that the disease is difficult to detect in its early stages and that all pythons with the disease die within six months of contracting it.
A. Yes. The passage tells you that some pythons hatched in North America have the deadly liver disease. You know the disease is difficult to detect and all pythons with the disease will die within six months. You can link these two pieces of information together and infer that some pythons hatched in North America will seem okay but will die within six months.
B. No. The passage states that a greater proportion of African-hatched pythons have the disease, but you do not necessarily know that this is due to a higher susceptibility rate to the disease among African-hatched pythons. There could be any number of other reasons that the disease is more prevalent among African-hatched pythons.
C. No. The passage states that pythons die within six months of contracting the disease, not that they die within the first six months of life.
D. No. The first sentence states that the reason for the large number of inexpensive pythons was the arrival of a major shipment of pythons from Africa.
E. No. The passage never discusses the conditions of pythons hatched in areas other than Africa and North America.
