Lower limb anatomy / fractures Flashcards

1
Q

where does the femoral artery branch from

A

external iliac

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1
Q

where does the obturator artery branch from

A

internal iliac

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2
Q

what does the femoral nerve (L2-L4) supply

A

hip flexors and knee extensors

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3
Q

what does the obturator nerve (L2-L4) supply

A

medial muscles (the adductors)

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4
Q

nerve roots of sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3

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5
Q

where does the sciatic nerve supply

A

posterior thigh, and all muscles of lower leg and foot (splits into tibial and common perineal)

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6
Q

what is piriformis syndrome

A

where the piriformis muscle compress the sciatic nerve - get radicular pain, numbness and buttock tenderness

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7
Q

femoral shaft fracture damages which nerve / artery

A

femoral

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8
Q

what happens to the proximal segment in a femoral shaft fracture

A

gets pulled into external rotation by gluteus medius and minimus and then flexion by iliopsoas

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9
Q

complications of femoral shaft fracture

A

fat embolism, non union

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10
Q

how would a fat embolism present

A

resp signs (tachycardia, tachypnoea and hypoxia) and petechial rash and confusion

ABG - T1 resp failure
blood film - fat globules
CXR - diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
CTPA

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11
Q

how do you Tx fat embolism

A

supportive care but do prompt fixation to prevent it occurring

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12
Q

surgery for a femoral shaft fracture

A

IM nail

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13
Q

most common open fracture is

A

phalanx

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14
Q

Ix for tibial shaft fracture

A

full length AP and lateral Xray

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15
Q

MX of tibial shaft fracture

A

reduction and above knee backslab
IM nail

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16
Q

when might you have to do ORIF and plates in a tibial shaft fracture

A

if it is particularly proximal or distal

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17
Q

what causes a tibial plateau fracture (normally lateral)

A

high energy (jumping)

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18
Q

with any fracture what is is essential to assess for and SAY IN EXAM

A

assess for neurovascular problems

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19
Q

high risk of what in a tibial shaft fracture

A

compartment syndrome

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20
Q

if there is an associated fibula fracture with a tibia shaft fracture, what does the level of the fracture indicate

A

high energy will be at the same level and low energy will be at a different level

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21
Q

why would a tibial plateau fracture lead to rapid degenerative changes

A

as there is disruption of the articular surface

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22
Q

main complication of tibial plateau fracture

A

OA

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23
Q

in what direction does the hip normally dislocate

24
Q

how is the hip held in a dislocation

A

adducted, internally rotated and shortened

25
Q

timeframe to reduce the hip when it is dislocated in order to prevent avascular necrosis s

26
Q

what is a hip dislocation normally associated with and why

A

high energy force so normally has fractures too

27
Q

pain in trochanteric bursitis exacerbated by what (pain typically over GT and will radiate down thigh)

A

external rotation

28
Q

how to treat trochanteric bursitis

A

should resolve, advise avoid excessive adduction (crossing legs) and do some gluteal strengthening

29
Q

most common site for a metatarsal stress fracture

30
Q

damage to which peripheral nerve causes foot drop

A

common peroneal nerve (supplies anterior and lateral leg)

31
Q

the deep peroneal nerve supplies muscles where

A

anterior leg

32
Q

the superficial peroneal nerve supplies muscles

A

lateral leg

33
Q

how is the superficial peroneal nerve normally injured

A

fracture of the head of the fibula

34
Q

apart from common peroneal nerve injury, what else can cause foot drop

A

L5 radiculopathy (loss of ankle dorsiflexion)

35
Q

which nerve supplies sensation to the sole of the foot

A

the tibial (medial plantar, lateral plantar and medial calcaneal)

36
Q

what nerve supplies sensation to the top of the foot

A

the superficial peroneal, with the deep peroneal supplying the first webspace

37
Q

which imaging modality is best for nerve injuries

38
Q

what nerves makes up the sural nerve

A

the common fibular and the tibia nerve (no motor function but sensation to the lateral foot)

39
Q

firstline pain Mx for peripheral nerve injury

A

NSAID (same as BNF guidance for back pain)

40
Q

Mx of weber A

A

remain weight bearing in a CAM boot (controlled ankle movement) for 6 weeks

41
Q

advise after hip fracture surgery

A

patient can immediately fully weight bear

42
Q

compartment syndrome most commonly associated with

A

tibial shaft fractures and supracondylar fractures

43
Q

what is a buckle fracture

A

in paeds - get a swelling of the cortex of a longbone due to incomplete fracture where the cortex is not breached, can be tx conservatively

44
Q

what is an initial mx step in compartment syndrome

A

keep the limb at the level of the heart

45
Q

firstline pain med for back pain

A

ORAL NSAID!!!

46
Q

what is fat pad atrophy

A

we have a fat pad under our calcaneus. As we age/obesity/trauma this reduces which causes pain, especially when in bare foot

47
Q

where is Mortons neuroma most likely to affect (pain and sensation of lump)

A

between third and fourth metatarsal

48
Q

test of Mortons neuroma

A

pain elicited by deep pressure to intermetatarsal space of mulders click test (where the foot is manipulated)

49
Q

Tx of Mortons neuroma

A

conservative –> good footwear, activity modification, NSAIDs, steroid injection
May do surgery if above does not work

50
Q

first sign of compartment syndrome

A

parasthesia (pulselessness is a late sign)

51
Q

what is a greenstick fracture

A

unilateral cortex breach

52
Q

what nerves are responsible for the knee reflex and what is the significance of this

A

L2/3/4 –> so when one of these nerve routes are compressed –> the knee reflex is affected

L5 compression –> nerve root unaffected

53
Q

when is VTE prophylaxis with LMWH started post surgery

A

after 6 hours

54
Q

signs of avascular necrosis on Xray

A

flattening of the femoral head and crescent sign

55
Q

pressure over what is diagnostic of compartment syndrome

56
Q

Mx of compartment syndrome

A

1) fasciotomy
2) IV fluid resus as fasciotomy releases myoglobin –> AKI
3) if necrotic –> debride and amputate

57
Q

for a flare of RA what is recommended

A

1) intraarticular steroids
2) IM or PO steroids