anaesethics Flashcards

1
Q

into what space is a spinal anaesethic put

A

subarachnoid (normally below the level where the spinal cord ends at L2)

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1
Q

what is different about the local anaesethics used for spinal compared to normal local anaesthetics

A

they are made hyperbaric by adding glucose so that they are heavier than CSF and move more with gravity

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2
Q

how long does a single spinal injection last

A

2-3 hours (so can’t be used for longer operations)

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3
Q

does spinal injection affect the sympathetic nervous system

A

yes - reduces systemic vasoconstriction so can drop BP

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4
Q

what is different about the needle used for epidural rather than spinal

A

is it longer and larger

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5
Q

why is an epidural better for longer surgery

A

catheter remains in place so anaesethic can be put in continuously

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6
Q

how is hypotension from epidural managed

A

can use phenylephrine

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7
Q

how does local anaesethic work

A

block Na channels

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8
Q

why is adrenaline added to local anaesethic (not in fingers)

A

reduce blood flow so reduce systemic uptake and potentiate action

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9
Q

IV commonly used induction anaesethic for GA

A

propofol (potentiates GABAa)

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10
Q

inhaled / volatile commonly used anaesethic for GA

A

sevoflurane (can cause malignant hyperthermia)

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11
Q

Mx of malignant hyperthermia (caused by suxamethonium and sevoflurane) and will show raised CK on Ix

A

dantrolene (muscle relaxant)

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12
Q

stages of a GA

A

1) oxygen (to replace the nitrogen in the lungs)
2) induction - IV propofol
3) muscle relaxant
4) secure airway
5) phenylephrine to maintain BP as SNS impaired
6) consider if anything else is need eg IV hydrocortisone if on LT steroid or insulin

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13
Q

what score assesses the airway

A

malampati

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14
Q

what is an ASA VI pt

A

brain dead

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15
Q

what is an ASA V pt

A

unlikely to survive eg ruptured AAA

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16
Q

what is an ASA II patient

A

mild, well controlled illness eg well controlled diabetes/smoker or obese

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17
Q

what is an ASA III patient

A

not well controlled disease HTN/DM/ BMI >40

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18
Q

what is an ASA IV pt

A

severe disease which is a constant threat to life –> LTOT, MI in last 3 months

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19
Q

RF of post op nausea

A

female, young, personal hx of motion sickness

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20
Q

when is the WHO checklist for surgical safety done

A

before induction of anaesthesia, before incision of skin and before the patient leaves the operating theatre

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21
Q

what are checked in the surgical safety

A
  • Patient identity and allergies checked
    • Site is marked
    • Pulse oximetry on patient and working
    • Risk of blood loss
      Anaesthesia safety check
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22
Q

when is a pre op done

A

2-4 weeks before elective and 4-7 days before urgent

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23
Q

when is an ECG done at preop

A

if >80
or if > 60 and a surgical severity score of 3+

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24
Q

SE of epidural

A

hypotension, post dural puncture headache, epidural haematoma

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25
Q

MX of post dural puncture headache (can get from LP, spinal or epidural)

A

lie flat, stay hydrated, drink caffeine
May need a blood patch

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26
Q

how does a post dural puncture headache present

A

like a bad migraine which is worse when stood up

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27
Q

does a spinal or epidural work faster

A

spinal as this is in the CSF

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28
Q

into what space is an epidural put

A

between the ligamentum flavum and the dura matter

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29
Q

how long do patients need to fast before surgery

A

at least 6 hours

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30
Q

how long before surgery can patients drink clear fluid

31
Q

when do type 2 DM who normally control DM with oral meds, need a VRIII in surgery

A

poor glycamic control, more than one meal missed

32
Q

is metformin taken on surgery day

A

yes, just omit lunchtime dose (if there is one)

33
Q

is gliclazide taken on surgery day

34
Q

are SGLT2 inhibitors taken on surgery day

35
Q

are the glitazones, gliptins and GLP1 mimetics taken on surgery day

36
Q

are long acting insulin taken on surgery day

A

yes just reduce dose by 20%

37
Q

what needs to happen to steroid dose on surgery

A

-double usual steroid for 24-48 hours
-hydrocortisone 100mg IV on induction followed by IV infusion 200mg/24 hours

38
Q

when does a DOAC need to be stopped

A

24 -72 hours before surgery

39
Q

when does clopidogrel need to be stopped before surgery

40
Q

when does warfarin need to be stopped before surgery

A

5 days and then bridging therapy with LMWH used

41
Q

what do all patients need before surgery

A

G+S (and cross match if high risk of bleeding) and MRSA screen

42
Q

when does COCP / HRT need to be stopped before surgery

43
Q

considerations for diabetic patients

A

first on list, switch back to normal insulin regime at first meal but need to have SC insulin before taking down as half life of insulin is 5 minutes, optimisation of diabetes before surgery

44
Q

what is an acceptable CBG in surgery and how often is it monitored

A

6-10 and monitored hourly

45
Q

what is insulin infused through in VRIII

A

dextrose 5% (+added K+)

46
Q

how is hyperglycaemia managed on surgery day

A

if CBG >12, check ketones.

47
Q

risks of diabetics having surgery

A

higher risk son wound infections, risks of mistakes with insulin prescribing, underlying diabetes problems like higher risk of kidney insult

48
Q

what are the diabetes sick day rules

A

increase CBG monitoring to hourly, increase fluid to 3L, continue insulin even if not eating and measure ketones

49
Q

what happens in HIT

A

heparin induced antibodies attack platelet factor 4 and cause hypercoaguable state of blood. May present with a DVT. Need to stop UFH and start another anticoagulant.

50
Q

complications of anaesthetic

A

1) sore throat post intubation
2) aspiration of gastric contents in non fasted individuals
3) urinary retention
4) PONV (RF - female, young, opioids used in surgery, hx of motion sickness)
5) PO cognitive dysfunction - increasing age / lower IQ
6) hypothermia

51
Q

whats a sign of local anaesthetic toxicity

A

tingling around mouth + arrhythmias

52
Q

RF for SSI

A

shaving with a razor (disposable clippers preferred), tissue hypoxia, delayed administration of prophylactic abx

53
Q

Prevention of SSI

A

-don’t routinely remove body hair
-give prophylactic abx if surgery involves any sort of prosthesis, if it is clean contaminated or contaminated
-if tourniquet is use in surgery, need to give the prophylactic abx earlier

54
Q

what does propofol give some protection against

55
Q

what is propofol biggest SE

A

hypotension (in causes of haemodynaimc instability etomidate may be used instead but this causes adrenal suppression)

56
Q

MOA of ketamine

A

blocks NMDA receptors

57
Q

why is ketamine useful as a induction anaesthetic in trauma

A

doesn’t cause a drop in BP

58
Q

muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction

A

suxamethonium

59
Q

what kind of muscle relaxant is suxamethonium

A

depolarising (causes depolarisation at the motor end plate), people with MG are more resistant to this kind of muscle relaxant as they have fewer receptors for it to act on

60
Q

when is suxamethonisum contraindicated

A

in eye trauma or glaucoma as it increase IOP

61
Q

is ESRF ASA III or IV

A

III if undergoing regular dialysis and IV if not

62
Q

how is someone fed post oesophagectomy

A

jejunostomy

63
Q

what is an Igel also known as

A

laryngeal mask (this provides poor protection of aspiration if patient is not fasted)

Actually NO - LMA has an inflatable cuff but Igel does not

64
Q

if nitrous oxide is given to someone with a pneumothorax, what can happen

A

become a tension pneumothorax

65
Q

example of volatile liquid that can be used for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia

A

sevoflurane (can cause malignant hyperthermia)

66
Q

features of propofol

A

provides some protection against PONV
-cause hypotension (due to myocardial depression)
-potentiates GABA
-pain on injection

67
Q

SE of etomidate

A

adrenal suppression

68
Q

what is the agent of choice for a rapid sequence induction

A

thiopentone due to working RAPID

69
Q

what is a depolarising muscle relaxant

A

binds to nAChR causing persistent depolarisation of the end plate (suxamethonium)

70
Q

what is a non depolarising muscle relaxant

A

competitive antagonism of nACHr, so can be reverse by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

71
Q

what kind of muscle relaxants exacerbate myasthenia gravis

A

non depolarising !!!!

72
Q

when is LMWH started after a tHR

73
Q

whats the time out part of the WHO checklist

A

the part before the incision (the other part are sign in and sign out)

74
Q

what blood transfusion bloods have to be done for elective C section

75
Q

what does no trace on capnography indicate

A

in the wrong place (oesophageal)