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KNAT 502 > Lower Extremity > Flashcards

Lower Extremity Flashcards

1
Q

what pulses should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee

A

posterior tibial
dorsalis pedis

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2
Q

what action does the rectus femoris muscle do when it contracts

A

flexes the hip
extends the knee

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3
Q

if a palpable clunk or shift is at approx 2-30 degrees of knee flexion is found during a pivot shift test what is this indicative of

A

anterolateral rotatory instability of the knee

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4
Q

a positive Thompsons sign is indicative of

A

ruptured Achilles tendon

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5
Q

what muscle flexes both the foot and the knee

A

gastrocnemius

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6
Q

following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, teh AT detects weakness of the invertors and evertors of the ankle, which muscles invert the ankle

A

tibialis posterior
flexor digitorum longus
flexor hallucis longus

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7
Q

a basketball players reports with burning pain on lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running, no edema or bruising found, but is tender. what special test would be positive

A

ober’s test

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8
Q

a lacrosse player is limping with assistance, and his holding his leg in slight hip and knee flexion and a bulge is in the proximal thigh. only partially able to straighten the leg and pain down anterior thigh with movement, what is wrong?

A

ruptured rectus femoris

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9
Q

what special tests detects a possible meniscal tear

A

McMurrays

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10
Q

what type of force typically causes injury to MCL, medial meniscus, and ACL

A

valgus force with tibia in external rotation

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11
Q

what is the recommended position for manual muscle testing of the gluteus medius

A

side-lying with affected limb on top

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12
Q

what is the proper method to manually muscle test the biceps femoris muscle

A

lying prone, resisting knee flexion with tibia in external rotation

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13
Q

what are structures of the pelvis

A

coccyx
pubic symphysis
innominate bones
sacrum

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14
Q

which of the following signs is tested for when DVT is suspected in the leg

A

Homan’s sign

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15
Q

a tennis player presents with medial thigh pain, limping, and pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion, diffuse tenderness and bruising on proximal/medial thigh, what has happened

A

groin strain

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16
Q

if the calcaneofibular ligament of the ankle is torn, which test would be positive

A

talar tilt test

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17
Q

what is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis

A

side-lying

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18
Q

true leg length discreptancy is measured between what 2 points

A

ASIS to medial malleolus

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19
Q

a grade 1 ankle inversion sprain involves what structure

A

anterior talofibular ligament

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20
Q

how is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually tested

A

resistance to knee flexion and hip adduction

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21
Q

a 2nd degree MCL sprain is characterized by

A

-pain along medial joint line
-no gross knee instability, but mild laxity in full knee extension during valgus test
-difficulty active flexing and extending the knee

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22
Q

trendelenburg test is used to evaluate the competence of what structure

A

hip abductors

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23
Q

which muscles internally rotate the hip

A

adductor magnus
gracilius
TFL
gluteus minimus

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24
Q

what special tests examines the integrity of the knee LCL

A

varus stress test

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25
Q

which test is positive of a torn PCL

A

sag sign

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26
Q

foot drop is indicative of what pathology

A

peroneal nerve injury

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27
Q

signs/symptoms of anterior compartment syndrome

A

-paresthesisa in web space between 1st and 2nd toes
-absence or deminished dorsalis pedis pulse
-decreased stregnth in digit extension
-decreased ankle dorsiflexion

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28
Q

what produces the windlass effect

A

extension of the toes causes the calcaneus to come forward, increases the arch

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29
Q

name of a high-riding patella

A

patella alta

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30
Q

what would a positive hip scoring test indicate

A

acetabular labral tear
osteochondral defect

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31
Q

how to measure hip Q angle

A

proximal arm is on the ASIS
axis on the midpoint of patella
distal arm on tibial tuberosity

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32
Q

what vascular structure is found behind the medial malleolus

A

posterior tibial artery

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33
Q

a quantitative measure of what motion can be calculated using the navicular drop test

A

pronation

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34
Q

what are true statements regarding the MCL

A

-2 layers (deep and superficial)
-attaches to medial meniscus
-reinforces and thickens joint capsule

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35
Q

what structure stabilizes the pelvic girdle

A

sacrum

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36
Q

what makes up the pelvic girdle

A

ilium
ischium
pubis bones

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37
Q

which tests are appropriate to assess tightness of the rectus femoris

A

Thomas test
Ely’s test

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38
Q

what tarsal bone is referred to as the keystone and is the main structure of the medial longitudinal arch

A

navicular

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39
Q

the relationship between the femoral head and femoral shaft in the transverse plane is known as

A

angle of torsion (twist)

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40
Q

walking on the heel to avoid push-off may indicate

A

metatarsal fracture
plantar fascitis
great toe pathology

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41
Q

which describes the hips having an angle of torsion greater than 20 degrees

A

anteverted

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42
Q

the ankle must be in what position to palpate the dome of the talus

A

plantarflexion

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43
Q

a decrease in the angle of inclination may lead to observation of what knee pathology

A

squinting patella

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44
Q

edema following a lateral ankle sprain tends to pool in the area of

A

sinus tarsi

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45
Q

deformity which involves the 1st metatarsal being shorter than the 2nd

A

Morton’s toe

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46
Q

the pelvis is formed by pairs of 3 fused bones and jointed anteriorly by what

A

pubic symphysis

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47
Q

the best diagnostic accuracy is achieved with a high rate of what

A

true positives
true negatives

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48
Q

in the presence of an ACL rupture, the recommendation is surgery to reconstruct the ACL. which are long-term consequences of an ACL-deficient knee

A

knee instability
osteoarthritis
meniscal degeneration

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49
Q

at what point does the AT’s initial evaluation of an injury begin

A

the moment the injury is witnessed

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50
Q

what joints is called the Lisfranc joints

A

tarsometatarsal

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51
Q

where is pain centralized for plantar fascitis

A

medial calcaneal tubercle

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52
Q

what structures are in the deep posterior compartment

A

tibialis posterior
flexor digitorum longus
flexor hallucis longus

53
Q

which foot posture does the rearfoot become hypermobile, resulting in increased pronation

A

rearfoot valgus

54
Q

what structure on the calcanues provides inferior support to the talus and below the medial malleoulus

A

sustentaculum tali

55
Q

what portion of the tibialis posterior is most palpable

A

tendon from medial malleolus to insertion

56
Q

which bone is most lateral bone of the midfoot

A

cuboid

57
Q

what MOI typically causes injury to ATFL

A

inversion

58
Q

what ankle joints are involved in pronation and supination

A

talocrural
subtalar
midtarsal

59
Q

what motions occurs in closed-chain supination of the ankle

A

external tibia rotation
knee extension
external hip rotation

60
Q

proper way to determine a Kleiger test

A

foot and talus are externally rotated and stabilizes the leg

61
Q

what accounts for higher incidence of inversion ankle sprains

A

deltoid ligament of the medial side is strong causing less eversion

62
Q

what makes up the midfoot

A

navicular, 3 cuneiforms, and cuboids

63
Q

injury to the deep peroneal nerve occurs in which compartment

A

anterior

64
Q

unexplained redness and swelling of posterior calf may indicate

A

DVT

65
Q

what can be palpated directly posterior to fibular head

A

common peroneal nerve

66
Q

what of the foot is responsible for assisiting in absorbing and redirecting WB forces, reducing friction, and protect its tendon

A

sesmoids

67
Q

signs/symptoms of anterior compartment syndrome

A

severe pain
loss of motor function
paresthesia

68
Q

individual cannot resist gravity in resisted position but can complete movement in gravity assisted position, what is the score

A

2/5

69
Q

patient reports redness, swelling, and pain of great toe with no MOI. pain with palaption, no increase pain with ROM, what is it

A

gout
(obesity, weight gain, alcohol, impaired renal fxn)

70
Q

bony landmarks of the calcaneus

A

sustentaculum tali, peroneal tubercle, and calcaneal tubercle

71
Q

functions of the fibula

A

-site of ligamentous attachment
-muscular origin and attachment
-pulley to increase muscle efficiency that run posteriorly to it

72
Q

muscles of the pes anerinus group

A

gracilis
sartorius
semitendinosus

73
Q

which test is the best to detect an ACL sprain

A

Lachman’s

74
Q

what can occur post ACL surgery

A

loss of knee extension

75
Q

what injury typically occurs with repetitive jumping, running, or weightlifting

A

patellar tendinitis

76
Q

patella is high-riding and sitting laterally

A

frog-eyed patella

77
Q

what position should the knee be placed in the anterior drawer test of the knee

A

90 degrees knee flexion

78
Q

roles of the menisci

A

-shock absorption
-improve lubrication
-deepen atriculation and fill in the gaps

79
Q

best test for assessing a meniscal lesion

A

Thessaly

80
Q

valgus and varus of the knee should be performed at what degree of angle

A

0 degrees

81
Q

origin and insertion of the sartorius

A

origin: ASIS
insertion: pes anserine tendon

82
Q

indicated by a ballottable patella

A

knee effusion

83
Q

what is most reliable in determining who will have patellofemoral pain

A

levels of ASIS

84
Q

a straight isolated valgus force injures what ligament

A

MCL

85
Q

what would be most difficult if PCL was injured

A

backward running

86
Q

best describes the J-sign

A

as the knee moves from flexion to extension, the patella slides superiorly and tracks slightly laterally

87
Q

conclusive special test for determining both the presence and absence of the PCL

A

posterior drawer

88
Q

anterolateral rotary instability is characterized by

A

subluxation of the lateral tibial plateau with anterior translation

89
Q

what bony landmark does the patella glide thru as knee flexes and extends

A

femoral trochlea

90
Q

what muscle is responsible for unscrewing or unlocking the tibia

A

popliteus

91
Q

injury to the common peroneal nerve would elicit motor weakness in which muscle

A

dorsiflexors
evertors

92
Q

observations of alignment relative to patellofemoral disorder includes

A

Q-angle
tibial torsion
patellar alignment

93
Q

what bursa lies at the deep end of the quad femoris group and is extension of the knees joint capsule

A

suprapatellar bursa

94
Q

AROM knee flexion is how many degrees

A

135 degrees

95
Q

end-feel of passive knee extension

A

firm

96
Q

lateral pivot shift maneuver identifies which rotary instability

A

anterolateral

97
Q

a sprain to the hip joint results from which movements

A

abduction and lateral rotation

98
Q

hip angle of torsion greater than 20 degrees

A

anterversion

99
Q

Y-shaped ligament of the hip that originates from AIIS

A

illiofemoral

100
Q

what blood supply supplies the femoral head and neck

A

femoral circumflex arteries

101
Q

decrease angle of inclination

A

coxa vara

102
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes diseased affects what age range

A

2-14

103
Q

primary complaint of early stages of articular degeneration of the hip

A

pain only with WB activities

104
Q

Ober’s test examines tightness of which muscle

A

TFL

105
Q

MOI for acute hip labral tear

A

hip dislocation

106
Q

osteitis pubis results from overuse and repetitie stress on which muscle group

A

adductors

107
Q

when the hip joint dislocates, the leg is typically shortened in what position

A

medial rotation

108
Q

the special tests associated with exam of the SI joint reproduce what forces

A

compression
distraction
shearing

109
Q

test used to examine flexibility of hip flexors

A

Thomas test

110
Q

coxa valga in which the angle of the femoral shaft and neck is

A

greater than 135

111
Q

pain characteristic associated with unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

pain that prevents walking

112
Q

what muscle compresses the sciatic nerve

A

piriformis

113
Q

normal angle of inclincation of the hip

A

125 degrees

114
Q

during what type of muscle contractions do muscle strains most frequently occurs

A

eccentric

115
Q

name of the ligament that originates off of the ASIS and inserts at pubic symphysis

A

inguinal ligament

116
Q

which muscle is the primary hip flexor with the knee extended

A

iliopsoas

117
Q

borders of the femoral triange

A

lateral: sartorius
superior: inguinal ligaments
medial: adductor longus
-femoral artery, vein, and nerve lie within

118
Q

what vascular structure would you palpate if you suspect a serious hip or pelvic injury

A

femoral artery

119
Q

possible complication of a lateral ankle sprain

A

superficial peroneal nerve palsy

120
Q

which MOI typically cause injury to the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

A

inversion

121
Q

signs and symptoms of anterior compartment syndrome

A

-severe pain
-loss of motor function over the distribution of the deep peroneal nerve
-parasthesia

122
Q

most ankle sprains occurs when the ankle if forced into what positions

A

inversion
plantarflexion

123
Q

what special test examines a syndesmosis separation and the integrity of the ATF ligament

A

Kleiger test

124
Q

an athlete with rearfoot varus is likely to develop what chronic injury

A

medial tibial stress syndrome

125
Q

which tests are used to examine the integrity of the calcaneofibular and deltoid ligaments

A

talar tilt test

126
Q

what anatomical feature likely accounts for the higher incidence of inversion sprain in the ankle joint

A

deltoid ligament on the medial side is strongs, causing fewer eversion sprains

127
Q

if an acute compartment syndrome is not accurately recognized, muscle ischemia, and necrosis can occur within

A

6-12 hours

128
Q
A

KNAT 502 (3 decks)

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