Liver pathologies and ano-rectal disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 pathways of lipid metabolism in the liver?

A

Reverse transport pathway (HDL)
Exogenous pathway (Chylomicrons)
Endogenous pathway (LDL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the metabolism of lipids in the liver?

A

Bile digests lipids in the gut, forming chylomicrons
Remnant receptors on liver take in chylomicrons
VLDL and HDL released by the liver
VLDL converted to LDL by lipoprotein lipase and taken up by the liver
HDL delivers cholesterol to tissue that needs it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the metabolism of protein in the liver

A

Proteins are broken down into amino acids in the small intestine
Hepatocytes transport amino acids which are metabolised via the krebs cycle, forming hormones, neurotransmitters, plasma protein, nucleotides and ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the metabolism of ammonia in the liver

A

Ammonia is detoxified in the liver by conversion to urea by the krebs cycle, which is consumed in the conversion of glutamate to glutamine, a reaction that depends upon glutamine sythetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the metabolism of vitamin D by the liver

A

Vitamin D is metabolised to cholecalciferol and then to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 phases of drug metabolism in the liver?

A

Phase I
Phase II
Phase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What occurs in phase I of drug metabolism?

A

The drug can undergo oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis by cytochrome P450 in the endoplasmic reticulum
Some of these P450 proteins include CYP1, 2, 3 and 3A4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What occurs in phase II of drug metabolism?

A

The drug undergoes conjugation in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes
These conjugation processes include addition of glucuronic acid, sulphate, acetate, glycine or glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What occurs in phase III of drug metabolism?

A

The drug is secreted into the bile, mediated by ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of albumin?

A

It is involves in the transport of insoluble molecules such as bilirubin, hormones and fatty acids in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some proteins that are synthesised by the liver?

A

Ferritin
Caeruloplasmin
Transferrin
Ferritin
Alpha 1 anti-trypsin
CRP
AFP
Complement system components
Fibrinogen
Vitamin K dependant coagulation factors (X, IX, VII, II, V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What role does the liver play in bile synthesis?

A

Primary bile is made up in the liver
Secondary bile acids are absorbed by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some components of bile?

A

Phospholipids
Cholesterol
Bilirubin
Conjugated drugs
Electrolytes (e.g. Na+, Cl-, HCO3-, Cu)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the pathway from formation to excretion of bilirubin

A

Haem -> In spleen
Biliverdin ->
Unconjugated bilirubin -> In blood
Conjugated bilirubin -> In liver
Urobilinogen -> In intestines and kidneys
Urobilin (kidneys) or Sterocobilin (Intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the role of the liver in immune response

A

The liver contains Kupffer cells which phagocytose gut pathogens
It also produces interleukins and tumour necrosis factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is liver cirrhosis?

A

The development of regenerative nodules, surrounded by fibrous bands in response to chronic liver injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of liver cirrhosis

A

Injury causes inflammation, matrix deposition, parenchymal cell death and angiogenesis

Damage to cells releases cell contents and ROS which activates stellate cells

Stellate cells release CCL2 which activates macrophages

Phagocytosis of liver cells releases pro-inflammatory mediators which activates neutrophils, and releases TGFß which transdifferentiate stellate cells into myofibroblasts

Myofibroblasts release collagen and alpha-SMA causing scarring, which neutrophils cause damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What occurs when chronic injury to the liver is stopped during fibrosis pathophysiology?

A

There is a decrease in MMP release from immune cells, which causes net matrix degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can liver cirrhosis lead to portal hypertension?

A

An increase in type I and III collagen as well as angiogenesis and sinusoidal remodelling leads to increased sinusoidal resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some general symptoms of liver cirrhosis?

A

Jaundice
Fever
Loss of body hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some presentations of compensated liver disease?

A

Xanthelasma
Parotid enlargement
Spider naevi
Gynaecomastia
Splenomegaly
Liver palms
Scratch marks
Testicular atrophy
Perpura pigmented ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is meant by liver palms?

A

Clubbing
Duputren’s contracture
Xanthoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some presentations of decompensated liver disease?

A

Neurological conditions (e.g. disorientation, drowsiness, stroke)
Encephalopathy - Hepatic flap
Fetor hepaticus
Ascites
Caput medusae
Oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some investigations in liver cirrhosis?

A

Liver biopsy
Serum markers
Elastography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are some of the serum markers that can be used in liver cirrhosis?
Albumin - Decreased in end stage Prothrombin time - Decrease synthesis of clotting factors Bilirubin - Increased in end stage cirrhosis due to decreased clearance Platelets - Decreased thrombopoetin decreases megakaryocytic growth
26
What occurs in alcoholic liver disease?
Ethanol is absorbed into hepatocytes, altering their micrometabolism, especially their fat metabolism, which causes cell injury and death, manifested by formation of Mallory's hyalin
27
Describe the progression of alcoholic liver disease
Fatty liver Hepatitis Fibrosis Cirrhosis
28
How will 2-3 days of drinking alcohol affect the liver?
Cause reversible fatty liver
29
How will 4-6 weeks of chronic high alcohol intake affect the liver?
Cause reversible hepatitis
30
How will months of chronic high alcohol intake affect the liver?
Cause reducible liver fibrosis
31
How will years of chronic high alcohol intake affect the liver?
Cause irreversible cirrhosis
32
What occurs in fatty liver disease?
There in an increased number of fat vacuoles within the hepatocytes
33
What are some possible complications of alcoholic liver disease?
Cirrhosis Portal hypertension Malnutrition Hepatocellular carcinoma Social disintegration
34
How are units of alcohol calculated?
. Volume (mls) x ABV (%) . --------------------------------- . 1000
35
What does CAGE stand for in alcohol misuse screening?
do you think you should (C)ut down do you get (A)nnoyed by criticism of your intake do you feel (G)uilty about your drinking do you use alcohol as an (E)ye opener
36
What is the alcohol misuse screening test used in A&E?
PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test)
37
What is the cycle of change in alcohol misuse?
1 - Pre-contemplation 2- Contemplation 3 - Preparation 4 - Action 5 - Maintenance 6 - Established change or Relapse
38
What are the 2 stages of alcoholism treatment?
Detox Maintenance of abstinence
39
What are some methods of abstinence maintenance in alcohol misuse?
White knuckling Peer support (AA) Disulfiram Acomprasate
40
How does disulfiram work?
It creates an increase ethanol sensitivity and so causes adverse effects if alcohol in taken in
41
What is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?
This is a spectrum of disease ranging from steatosis to steatohapatitis to fibrosis and cirrhosis, with an identical pathology to alcoholic liver disease
42
What causes non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?
Increased fat intake and insulin resistance
43
How is steatohepatitis pathologically characterised?
Inflammation Hepatocyte degeneration Ballooning Mallory bodies Eventual fibrosis
44
How is simple steatosis diagnosed in NAFLD?
Ultrasound
45
What is NASH?
Non-Alcoholic SteatoHepatitis
46
How is NASH diagnosed?
Liver biopsy
47
What is the management of simple steatosis in NAFLD?
Weight loss Exercise
48
What is the management of NASH in NAFLD?
Weight loss Exercise Some experimental treatments
49
What are some viruses that can cause hepatitis?
Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) Yellow fever virus Hepres Simplex Virus (HSV) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
50
How is hepatitis A spread?
Faecal-oral route
51
Who is most at risk of hepatitis A?
Children and young adults Those in the tropics Those with poor sanitation
52
How will hepatitis A show on LFTs?
High ALT and AST Possible high bilirubin
53
How is a diagnosis of Hepatitis A made?
Blood clotting testing for HAV IgM
54
Does hepatitis A cause acute or chronic hepatitis?
Acute
55
Does hepatitis B cause acute or chronic hepatitis?
Both
56
How is hepatitis B transmitted?
Vertical transmission (Mother to child) Blood Sexually
57
Who is most at risk of hepatitis B?
People born in high prevalence areas Children of infected women PWID People who have many partners in high prevalence areas Men who have sex with men
58
What is the incubation period for hepatitis B?
30-180 days
59
When would a patients with Hepatitis B require treatment?
If there's acute liver failure, coagulopathy or prolonged course of illness (>4 weeks)
60
What are the 7 diagnostic markers of hepatitis B?
HBsAg = Viral surface antigen Anti-HBs = Antibody to surface antigen HBeAg = Viral replication protein Anti-HBe = Antibody to replication protein HBcAg = Viral core antigen Anti-HBc = Antibody to core antigen HBV DNA = DNA of hepatitis B
61
How is a neonate treated for hepatitis B?
Immunoglobulin infusion and vaccination
62
What are the 2 nucleoside analogues for hepatitis B treatment in adults?
Tenofivir Entecavir
63
Does hepatitis C cause acute or chronic infection?
Chronic
64
How many genotypes of hepatitis C are there and which are most common in the UK?
6 genotypes I and III are most dominant in UK
65
How is hepatitis C transmitted?
Blood Sexual (rare)
66
What are the main risk factors of hepatitis C?
PWID Transfusions in the developing world Tattoos in the developing world
67
Who is offered treatment in hepatitis C?
Everyone who will accept, as there is a low rate of spontaneous clearance
68
What are the 3 classes of drugs that can be used in hepatitis C treatment?
Protease inhibitors Polymerase inhibitors NS5A inhibitors
69
How is hepatitis C diagnosed?
HCV IgG = Indicated exposure HCV RNA = Indicates active infection
70
How does hepatitis D cause infection?
It causes progressive or acute hepatitis in patients with pre-existing HBV infection as it required the HBsAg
71
What are the treatment options for hepatitis D?
Pegylated interferon - 48 weeks treatment Bulveritide
72
Is hepatitis E acute or chronic?
Acute
73
What are some symptoms of hepatitis E?
Jaundice Nausea Vomiting
74
How is hepatitis E transmitted?
Faecal-oral route Significant zoonotic spread (Pigs)
75
What is the incubation time for hepatitis E?
15-60 days
76
What are the 4 serotypes of hepatitis E and where are they found?
Type I and II are found most in Asia Type III and IV are found most in Europe
77
How is hepatitis E diagnosed?
HEV IgM
78
Which forms of hepatitis virus cause acute infection?
A B E
79
Which forms of hepatitis virus cause chronic infection?
B C
80
What are some symptoms of acute viral hepatitis?
Abdominal pain Nausea Vomiting Jaundice Diarrhoea (Occasionally)
81
Describe the LFTs of acute viral hepatitis?
Raised ALT and AST (>1000) Possibly raised bilirubin Normal ALP Normal Gamma-GT
82
When will chronic hepatitis infection cause symptoms?
If it progresses to decompensated cirrhosis
83
What are some symptoms suggestive of chronic hepatitis infection?
Jaundice Ascites Encephalopathy
84
What is primary biliary cholangitis (Cirrhosis)?
This is a genetic condition leading to inflammation of the cholagiocytes lining the biliary tree
85
What causes primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)?
This is an autoimmune condition in which anti-mitochondrial antibodies target the pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme of the inner leaflet of the mitochondrial membranes of cholangiocytes
86
Describe the pathology of primary biliary cholangitis?
Damage to cholangiocytes causes inflammation and granuloma formation, which can cause obstruction, leading to cholestasis, necrosis and fibrosis
87
Who is most at risk of PBC?
Females (10:1 ratio)
88
What are some symptoms of PBC?
Fatigue Itch without rash (Due to bile build up in blood) Xanthelasma Xanthoma RUQ pain or discomfort
89
How is PBC diagnosed?
Positive AMA test Cholestatic LFTs Liver biopsy
90
How is PBC treated?
Treatment is mostly to prevent symptoms such as itching, with urseodeoxycholic acid or obeticholic acid Liver transpantation can be performed
91
How many types of autoimmune hepatitis are there?
2
92
What is the age distribution for Type I autoimmune hepatitis?
Bimodal age distribution Ages 15-25 ges 45-70
93
What gender is most at risk of autoimmune hepatitis?
Females (3.6:1 ratio)
94
What are some conditions associated with Type I autoimmune hepatitis?
Autoimmune thyroiditis Grave's disease Pernicious anaemia Systemic sclerosis
95
What antibodies are the cause of type I autoimmune hepatitis?
ANA - Anti-Nuclear Antibodies ASMA - Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibodies
96
What antibodies are the cause of type II autoimmune hepatitis?
LKM-1 - Liver Kidney Microsomal AMA - Anti-Mitochonrial Antibodies
97
What age is most at risk of type II autoimmune hepatitis?
Children and young adults
98
What are some common mutations that can lead to autoimmune hepatitis?
HLA mutations IgG mutations T-cell receptor mutations
99
What are some drugs that can trigger autoimmune hepatitis?
Oxyphenistan Methyldopa Nitrofurantoin Diclofenac Minocycline Statins
100
What are some symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis?
Malaise Fatigue Nausea Abdominal pain Anorexia Jaundice
101
What are some clinical signs of autoimmune hepatitis?
Hepatomegaly Jaundice Splenomegaly
102
How will autoimmune hepatitis affect LFTs?
Elevated AST and ALT (100-800) Elevated prothrombin time Antibodies
103
What tests are used in diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis?
LFTs Liver biopsy
104
What is the treatment regime used in autoimmune hepatitis?
Prednisolone (30mg to 15mg at week 4 then 10mg daily) Azathioprine (50-100mg)
105
What are some common drugs that can cause chronic drug induced hepatitis?
Antibiotics (Co-amoxiclav, flucloxicillin) NSAIDs Paracetamol Methotrexate
106
How does paracetamol cause a hepatitis?
Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) is a common drug that can lead to liver injury and failure due to overdose In the correct dose, paracetamol is conjugated by the liver via addition of glucuronide or sulfate In large doses, excess paracetamol is converted into NAPQI (N-Acetyl-P-Benzo-Quinone Imine) which is hepatotoxic and binds to hepatocytes, causing damage
107
What is the treatment for paracetamol induced hepatitis?
NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) can be given, which adds glutathione, converting NAPQI into cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates
108
What is primary sclerosis cholangitis?
This is an autoimmune destructive disease of the large and medium sized bile ducts
109
What gender is more at risk of primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Males (4:1 ratio)
110
Describe the pathology of PSC?
Periductal fibrosis and duct destruction can cause stricture formation, leading to jaundice and recurrent cholangitis There is also an increased risk of malignancy
111
How is a diagnosis of PSC usually made?
Imaging of the biliary tree showing inflammation and stricture formation This is by Ultrasound or MRCP (Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatopgraphy)
112
What are some signs and symptoms of PSC?
RUQ pain Fever, weight loss, sweats and fatigue Jaundice and pruritus Hepatomegaly
113
Describe the LFT derangement in PSC
Cholestatic - ALP > ALT/AST, ↑ GGT and bilirubin positive p-ANCA (Anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies)
114
How is PSC treated?
Maintenance of bile flow using ballon dilatation or stent implantation Surveillance for carcinoma
115
What is haemochromatosis?
This is a mono-genetic autosomal recessive disease, resulting in overload of iron in the blood and liver
116
What are some causes of primary haemochromatosis?
Genetics leading to an increased absorption of iron, despite having a normal diet
117
Describe the complications of haemochromatosis
Iron is deposited in the liver, which can stimulate fibrosis, if it reaches the portal connective tissue This can lead to cirrhosis, carcinoma, diabetes, cardiomyopathy and impotence
118
What are some causes of secondary haemochromatosis?
Iron overload from diet, blood transfusions or iron therapy
119
What is the treatment option for haemochromatosis?
Venesection of the liver
120
What is wilsons disease?
A mono-genetic autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism
121
Describe the pathophysiology of Wilson's disease
A mutation causes loss of function of caeruloplasmin This is a copper binding protein, and a mutation of this causes massive copper deposition and accumulation in the liver and basal ganglia of the brain
122
What are some some neurological symptoms of Wilson's disease?
Choreo-astheitoid movements Neurological deterioration
123
What is meant by choreo-atheitoid movements (Choreoatheitosis)?
Involuntary muscle spasms and movements
124
What are some hepatic symptoms of Wilson's disease?
Cirrhosis Sub-fulminant liver failure Jaundice (In children)
125
What are some systemic symptoms of Wilson's disease?
Kayser-Fleischer rings (Golden rings) at the corneal limbus Low serum caeruloplasmin levels
126
What investigations can be performed in Wilson's disease?
24hr urinary copper excretion high Serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels low Liver biopsy if other tests inconclusive
127
What are the treatment options for Wilson's disease?
Copper chelation drugs: - Zinc - Penicillamine These block copper absorption in the GI tract
128
What is an alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?
An autosomal recessive disorder of production of an enzyme inhibitor, alpha-1 anti-trypsin
129
Describe the role of alpha-1 anti-trypsin in the body
A1AT is produced by the liver and plays a role in inhibiting the action of elastases produced in the liver and lungs
130
How can an A1AT deficiency cause liver cirrhosis and COPD?
If there is a deficiency of A1AT, elastases in the liver and lungs can cause destruction of the liver and lung parenchyma
131
How will an A1AT deficiency present clinically?
Pulmonary - Cough, exertion dyspnoea, wheeze Hepatic - Hepatitis, cirrhosis
132
What are some investigations that can be performed in A1AT deficiency?
- Plasma AAT level - PFTs - CXR - CT chest
133
What are some treatment options in A1AT deficiency?
Smoking cessation Bronchodilator therapy
134
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?
This is a condition resulting in thrombosis of the hepatic veins, either caused by congenital webs or thrombotic tendency due to protein C or S deficiency
135
What is the main cause of primary Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Direct internal occlusion of the hepatic veins, usually caused by atheroma formation
136
What is the main cause of secondary Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Usually caused by occlusion of the hepatic veins by an external stimulus, usually compression by a tumour or drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill
137
How does acute Budd-Chiari syndrome usually present?
This usually presents with jaundice and tender hepatomegaly due to portal congestion
138
How does chronic Budd-Chiari syndrome usually present?
It can present with ascites due to chronic portal congestion
139
How is Budd-Chiari diagnosed?
Ultrasound or MRI to visualise the hepatic veins
140
How is Budd-Chiari syndrome treated?
Recanalisation TIPSS
141
What supplement is required in treatment of decompensated liver disease due to alcohol?
Vitamin B - Thiamine, as excess alcohol intake can cause severe neurological disturbance if forgotten
142
How does decompensated liver disease cause ascites?
Liver damage can cause release of vasodilators, causing renal hypotension, therefore causing sodium retention by the kidneys, leading to water retention
143
How should new ascites be treated?
Spironolactone first, then loop diuretics such as furosemide
144
What are some risks of ascites paracentesis?
Infection Encephalopathy Hypovolaemia
145
What should be given to the patients in ascites paracentesis to prevent recurrence?
Albumin, therefore causing fluid retention in the blood, so fluid doesn't move back into the perineal cavity
146
What are the 4 grades of encephalopathy?
I - Can't draw 5 point star or house II - Hepatic flap III - Unconscious but pain responsive IV - Unconscious and unresponsive to pain
147
What causes encephalopathy?
An increase in NH3 in the blood caused by a decrease in ammonia metabolism by the liver, causes the conversion of glutamate to glutamine in the astrocytes of the brain Glutamine is highly osmotic, so causes astrocytes to swell as water moves in
148
How is encephalopathy usually treated?
Lactulose to clear the gut Rifazamin to treat the cause
149
What scoring system is used to determine the probability of death in cirrhosis without transplant?
UKELD score
150
How are ruptured oesophageal varicise treated and managed?
Resuscitation with fluids as bleeding can cause hypovolaemic shock Terlipressin to prevent bleeding Band ligation to cut off blood flow or balloon tamponade to compress the varicose
151
What is meant by the lithotomy position?
The patient lies supine with their legs held in the air by stirrups
152
What are the 2 ways in which wounds can heal?
Primary tension - wounds sutured together grow together Secondary tension - Wound grows upwards, while being left open
153
What are haemorrhoids?
Haemorrhoids are enlarged vascular cushions in the lower rectum and anal canal
154
What are some common causes of haemorrhoids?
Excessive straining due to constipation Increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. pregnancy, chronic cough, pregnancy) Increasing age
155
Where are the haemorrhoids found (Clockface)?
3, 7 and 11 on a clockface in the lithotomy position
156
What are the 4 stages of internal haemorrhoids?
I - No protrusion, possible bleeding II - Protrusion during defection III - Protrusion but can be pushed in IV - Cannot be mechanically pushed in
157
What are the 2 types of haemorrhoid tissue?
Internal haemorrhoids External haemorrhoids
158
Where are the internal haemorrhoids usually found?
Above the dentate line
159
Where are the external haemorrhoids usually found?
Below the dentate line, around the anus
160
What are some symptoms of haemorrhoids?
Painless, bright red bleeding Perianal itchiness No changes in bowel habit or weight loss
161
What are some investigations that can be performed in haemorrhoids?
- PR exam - Proctoscopy - Flexible sigmoidoscopy in patients over 50 or where malignancy is a possibility
162
What are some management options for haemorrhoids?
Do nothing if asymptomatic Rubber band ligation Open haemorrhoidectomy HALO (Haemorrhoidal artery ligation)
163
What are some symptom relief treatments in haemorrhoids?
Stool softeners High fibre diet Topical creams (Hydrocortisone)
164
What are some possible complications of haemorrhoids?
Possible thrombosis Strangulation Necrosis
165
What is meant by a rectal prolapse?
A condition in which the walls of the rectum protrude through the opening of the anus and become visible
166
Who is most at risk of rectal prolapse?
The elderly, although it can occur in children
167
What are some risk factors for rectal prolapse?
Increasing age Female gender Multiple deliveries Straining Previous traumatic vaginal delivery
168
What are the 2 stages of rectal prolapse?
Partial - Anterior mucosal prolapse Full - Full thickness prolapse
169
How will rectal prolapse usually present?
A protruding mass from the anus, especially during defecation Bleeding or passing of mucus per rectum Poor anal tone on examination
170
What are some investigations that can be performed in rectal prolapse?
Barium enema and/or colonoscopy Stool microscopy and cultures Sweat test
171
What are some surgical procedures in rectal prolapse?
Delorme's procedure Altmaier procedure Abdominal rectoplexy Anterior resection
172
What are some non-surgical treatment options in rectal prolapse?
Do nothing if asymptomatic Laxatives may reduce prolapse High fibre diet Education of manual reduction
173
What is an anal fissure?
A tear in the anal tissue, found below the dentate line
174
What disease can cause multiple anal fissures?
Crohn's disease
175
What is meant by a sentinel pile?
A small skin tag caused by anal fissure formation
176
What is the usual cause of anal fissure formation?
Constipation and straining
177
What should the list of differentials be in a patient with fresh red bleeding PR?
Anal fissures Haemorrhoids Diverticulitis IBD (Mainly UC) Colorectal cancer
178
What are some treatment options in anal fissures?
High fibre diet Stool softeners Pharmacological sphincterotomy Botox injection
179
What is a pharmacological sphincterotomy?
This is an ointment containing 0.3% GTN and 2% Diltiazem ointment, allowing for dilatation of blood vessels which allows healing
180
Why is botox used in anal fissures?
This paralyses the sphincter to allow relaxation, meaning that the fissure can heal
181
What are some consequences of chronic high alcohol intake?
Alcoholic Liver Disease Hepatocellular carcinoma Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS) Pancreatitis Alcoholic Cardiomyopathy
182
What is Wenicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
This is a syndrome caused by thiamine defieicny as a result of chronic high alcohol intake, leaidng to Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome
183
What are some symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Confusion Oculomotor disturbances (disturbances of eye movements) Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
184
What are some symptoms of Korsakoff syndrome?
Memory impairment (retrograde and anterograde) Behavioural changes
185
What is meant by a fistula-in-ano?
This is an abnormal communication between the epithelium surface of the rectum and the perianal skin
186
What are some possible causes of perianal fistulas?
Untreated anorectal abscess Crohn's disease Tuberculosis Anal cancer
187
How do perianal fistulas form from an abscess or ulcer?
Pressure within the abdomen can cause burrowing through the ulcer or abscess, into the connective tissue and out onto the skin
188
What disease will often cause multiple fistulas?
Crohn's disease
189
What are some possible presentations of perianal fistulas?
Painful tender swellings Discharge of pus, faeces or blood onto the perianal surface
190
What are some investigations that can be carried out in perianal fistulas?
PR examination Proctoscopy MRI in complex fistulas
191
What are some surgical procedures that can be performed in cases of perianal fistulas?
Laying open Insertion of seton (Drain) LIFT or VAAFT (Video Assisted Anal Fistula Treatment) Fistula plug
192
What are some complications of surgery on anal fistulas?
Pain Bleeding Incontenence of stool or flatus
193
What is the most common form of anal cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma
194
What are some risk factors of anal cancer?
Smoking Immunosuppression HPV History of vulval, cervical or vaginal cancer
195
What are some possible symptoms of anal cancer?
Pain Bleeding Lumps near anus
196
What is the usual first line treatment in anal cancer?
Chemotherapy and radiotherapy with palliative surgery if this fails
197
What are some benign lesions of the liver?
Haemangioma Focal nodular hyperplasia Adenoma Liver cysts
198
What are haemangiomas?
These are dense, hyper vascular tumours, usually small with a demarcated capsule
199
Which gender is more at risk of haemangioma?
Female
200
How is a diagnosis of haemangioma usually made?
US - Echogenic spot, demarcated CT - Venous enhancement MRI - High intensity area
201
What is focal nodular hyperplasia?
This is a benign nodule formation of liver tissue and is commonly a congenital vascular anomaly, associated with Osler-Weber-Rendu and liver haemangioma
202
Describe the pathology of focal nodular hyperplasia
There is usually a central scar containing a large artery, with radiating branches to the periphery (Hub and spoke)
203
Who is more at risk of focal nodular hyperplasia?
Young and middle aged women
204
How does focal nodular hyperplasia usually present?
It is usually asymptomatic
205
How is a diagnosis of focal nodular hyperplasia usually made?
US - Nodule with varying echogenicity CT - Hypervascular mass with central scar MRI - iso or hypo intense FNA - Normal hepatocytes and kupffer cells
206
What is a hepatic adenoma?
This is a benign neoplasm, composed of normal hepatocytes, but with no branch of the portal triad
207
What are some risk factors of hepatic adenoma?
Female (10:1) Contraceptive hormones Anabolic steroids
208
at are some possible complications of hepatic adenoma?
Rupture Haemorrhage Malignant transformation
209
Who is more at risk of melignant transformation of hepatic adenoma?
Males
210
Where are most hepatic adenomas found?
Right lobe
211
What are some side effects of larger hepatic adenomas?
RUQ pain Bleeding
212
What is the presence of multiple adenomas known as?
Adenomatosis - Associated with glycogen storage diseases
213
How is diagnosis of hepatic adenomas made?
US - Filling defect CT - Diffuse arterial enhancement MRI - Hypo or hyper intense location
214
How are hepatic adenomas treated in males?
Surgical excision due to risk of malignancy
215
How are hepatic adenomas treated in females?
MRI scan after 6 months: <5cm or reducing = Annual MRI >5cm or increasing = Surgical excision
216
What are cystic lesions of the liver?
These are fluid containing lesions
217
What is meant by a simple liver cyst?
This is a liquid collection, lined by an epithelium, which is solitary and unallocated, with no biliary tree communication
218
What are some possible complications of simple liver cysts?
Intracystic haemorrhage Infection Rupture Compression
219
What is a hydatid cyst?
This is a cyst caused by the tapeworm echinococcus granulosus
220
Where are hydatid cysts most commonly found?
Eastern Europe Central and South America Middle East North Africa
221
How are hydatid cysts diagnosed?
History Serological testing for anti-echinococcus anti-bodies
222
What are some common management strategies in hydatid cysts?
Surgery Albendazole Percutaneous drainage
223
What are embryonic ductal plate malformations?
These are embryonic malformations of the intrahepatic biliary tree, leading to the formation of numerous cysts throughout the liver parenchyma
224
What are the 3 types of ductal plate malformations?
Von Meyenburg complexes (VMC) Polycystic liver disease Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
225
What are Von Meyenburg complexes?
These are microhamartomas, which are benign nodules that develop throughout the liver, caused by cystic bile duct malformations
226
What is polycystic liver disease?
This is a genetic disease causing the formation of many cysts, however, liver function is normally preserved and renal failure is rare
227
What are some symptoms of more severe polycystic liver disease?
Abdominal pain Abdominal distension Compression of adjacent tissue
228
What is the usual treatment in polycystic liver disease?
Conservative treatment is recommended, with liver transplantation only required in cases of advanced disease or liver failure
229
What is autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
This is a genetic disease which leads to renal failure due to polycystic kidneys Non-renal extra-hepatic features are common, leading to potential massive hepatic enlargement
230
What are liver abscesses?
These are infections of the liver
231
What are some symptoms of liver abscesses?
High fever leukocytosis Abdominal pain Complex liver lesions
232
Who is most at risk of liver abscesses?
Those with an abdominal or biliary infection Those after a dental procedure
233
What is the management strategy in liver abscesses?
Empirical borad spectrum antibiotics Then needle aspiration Then Echocardiogram Then surgery if no clinical improvement
234
What is the most common primary liver cancer?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
235
What are some risk factors of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Males Cirrhosis Hepatitis B Heoatitis C Alcohol Aflatoxin (Peanuts)
236
How will hepatocellular carcinoma usually present?
Weight loss RUQ pain Worsening of pre-existing chronic liver disease Acute liver failure
237
What are some clinical signs of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Signs of cirrhosis Hard enlarged RUQ mass Liver bruit (Rare)
238
What are some common sites of metastases from the liver?
Portal vein Lymph nodes Lung Bone Brain
239
What is the first diagnostic test performed in hepatocellular carcinoma?
Alpha fetoprotein - HCC tumour marker, with values >100ng/ml being highly suggestive of HCC
240
What are some other tests that can be performed in HCC?
Ultrasound Triphasic CT MRI
241
What is the best available treatment in hepatocellular carcinoma?
Liver transplantation
242
What are some more palliative treatment options in hepatocellular carcinoma?
Transarterial chemoembolisation (TACE), in which chemotherapy gents are directly injected into the hepatic artery Immune checkpoint inhibitors can also be used
243
What are some examples of immune checkpoint inhibitors used in hepatocellular carcinoma?
Atezolizumab (Anti-PDL1) Sorafenib (Multikinase inhibitor)
244
What is fibrolamellar carcinoma?
This is an aggressive form of liver malignancy that occurs in young, healthy patients, usually aged 5-35, with no cirrhosis
245
What will be shown on Ct scanning in fibrolamellar carcinoma?
Typical stellate scar with radial septa, showing persistent enhancement
246
What are some common cancers that metastasis to the liver?
Colon Breast Lung Stomach Pancreas Skin (Melanoma)
247
What are LFTs?
Liver Function Tests
248
What are some tests that are performed in LFTs?
Albumin Prothrombin time Bilirubin ALT and AST ALP (Alkaline phosphate) GGT
249
What are some things that should be asked about when taking a liver history?
Alcohol Tattoos Blood transfusions Medications Illicit drug use Travel history
250
What are the main categories of tests within liver screening?
Virology Immunology Iron studies Storage disorder studies History specififc tests
251
What are some viruses tested for in liver screening tests?
HCV - Hepatitis C virus HBV - Hepatitis B virus CMV - Cytomegalovirus EBV - Eppstein-Barr virus
252
What are some auto-antibodies (Immunology) tested for in liver screening?
ASMA (Anti-smooth muscle antibodies) AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies) ANA (Anti-nuclear antibodies) ALKM1 (Anti-liver kidney microsomal 1)
253
What iron studies are performed in a liver screening test?
Transferrin saturation Ferritin
254
What are some storage disorder studies performed in a liver screen ?
Alpha 1 anti-trypsin Caeruloplasmin
255
What are some history specific tests that can be carried out in liver screening?
HEV (Hepatitis E Virus) HAV (Hepatitis A Virus) Paracetamol levels
256
What are the 3 patterns of derrangement in liver function tests?
Hepatitic Cholestatic Mixed
257
What will be seen in a hepatitic derangement of LFTs?
Predominant rise of ALT and AST (Transaminases) >55 This suggests injury to hepatocytes
258
What are some conditions that will show hepatitic derangement of LFTs?
Autoimmune hepatitis (100
259
What is cholestasis?
This is the slow movement or lack of movement of bile, usually caused by obstruction or a disease of the bile ducts
260
What will be seen in a cholestatic derangement of LFTs?
Predominant rise in ALP and Bilirubin Mild rise in ALT and GGT
261
What is the upper limit of normal for bilirubin?
22
262
What are some conitions that can cause a cholestatic pattern on LFTs?
Gallstones Primary Biliary Cirrhosis Obstructing tumours Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
263
What are some conditions that can cause a mixed derangement of LFTs?
Alcoholic fatty liver disease Drug induced liver injury Obstructing or parenchymal tumours