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United 737 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Flt Maneuvering load Acceleration Limit

Flaps up

A

+2.5g to -1g

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2
Q

Flt Maneuvering load Acceleration Limit

Flaps down

A

+2g to 0g

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3
Q

Max runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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4
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component

A

15 kts (10kts for some aircraft)

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5
Q

Maximum speeds

A

observe gear and flap placards

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6
Q

Max operating altitude

A

41,000 feet

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7
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

8,400 feet.

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8
Q

Maximum flight operating latitudes

A

82 degrees N and S with some small exceptions.

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9
Q

Do standby altimeters meet altimeter accuracy requirements of RVSM airspace?

A

No.

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10
Q

Max allowable in flight difference between Captain and FO altitude displays for RVSM ops

A

200 feet.

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11
Q

Max difference between CA and FO altitude readouts for RVSM:

sea level to 5000?
5000? to 10,000?

A

sea level to 5000?=50 feet

5000? to 10,000?=60 feet

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12
Q

Max difference between CA OR FO and field elevation for RVSM?

A

75 all altitudes.

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13
Q 
Typical Weight Limitations:
Max Taxi:
Max Takeoff:
Max Landing:
Max Zero Fuel:
A

Max Taxi: 174,700
Max Takeoff: 174,200
Max Landing: 144,000
Max Zero Fuel: 136,000

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14
Q

VMO

A

Indicated by max airspeed pointer on airspeed indicator

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15
Q

MMO

A

.82 Mach

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16
Q

Max gear retraction speed

A

235 kts

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17
Q

Max gear extension speed

A

270 kts/.82 Mach

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18
Q

Max gear operating/extended speed

A

320 knots/.82 Mach

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19
Q

If severe turbulence is encountered at altitudes below ________ feet and the aircraft gross weight is less than the maximum landing weight, the aircraft may be slowed to ______ knots in the clean configuration.

A

15,000 feet; 250 knots

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20
Q

True/False: PIlot are prohibited from operating with a QFE altimeter setting

A

True.

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21
Q

Max ground times after landing:

If landing weights exceeds the value in the Maximum Quick Turn Around Weight Limits table, wait at least:

A 
67 Minutes (-700,-800,-900) Steel brakes. [Mx may use an alternate approved procedure to ascertain acceptable brake temps for dispatch]
48 Minutes (-900,-9ER) Carbon Brakes

Check wheel thermal plugs before making a subsequent takeoff.

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22
Q

Standing Water/slush T/O Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet

A

15/15 kts

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23
Q

Snow-no melting T/O Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet

A

25/25 kts

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24
Q

Standing Water/slush Landing Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet

A

20/20 kts

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25
Q

Snow- No Melting Landing Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet

A

35/35 kts

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26
Q

True/False: Takeoff with forward looking windshear warning or caution alert annunciated is not approved?

A

True.

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27
Q

T/F: Installation of handle covers on the over wing exits must be verified prior to dept whenver pax are carried.

A

True.

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28
Q

T/F: On revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar (girt bar) does not need to be installed during taxi, takeoff and landing.

A

False. It has to be installed.

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29
Q

What is the minimum number of cabin portable oxygen bottles aboard?

A

At least one for each assigned FA (one FA for each 50 seats)

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30
Q

Max cabin pressure differential?

A

9.1 PSI

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31
Q

Max differential pressure for takeoff and landing

A

.125 PSI

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32
Q

T/F: When engine bleeds are on, do not operate A/C packs in high for takeoff, approach and landing.

A

True.

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33
Q

Maximum operating differential pressure: Above 37,000 feet

A

8.35 +/- .1 PSI

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34
Q

Maximum operating differential pressure: 28,000-37000 feet

A

7.8 +/- .1 PSI

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35
Q

Maximum operating differential pressure: Below 28,000 feet

A

7.45 +/- .1 PSI

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36
Q

Max Cooling Duct Pressure

A

20-25 PSI

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37
Q

Minimum duct pressure for 2 pack ops from one bleed source

A

20-25 PSI

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38
Q

T/F: Takeoff in mod/heavy freezing rain or hail is prohibited

A

True

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39
Q

Engine anti ice must be ON during all flight ops when icing condictions exist or are anticipated, expect during climb or cruise when the temp is below _____.

A

-40°C SAT.

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40
Q

Engine Anti Ice must be ON prior to and during descents in all icing conditions, including temps below ______.

A

-40°C SAT.

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41
Q

Engine ignition must be selected to _______ prior to and during engine anti-ice operation.

A

CONT

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42
Q

Use wing anti-ice during all ground ops between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless aircraft is or will be protected by the application of type ____ and type ____ fluid.

A

II and IV fluid.

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43
Q

Window heat must be on ____ minutes before takeoff

A

10 minutes.

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44
Q

Probe heat must be on before______.

A

takeoff.

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45
Q

During takeoff do not use wing anti-ice until after the _____ thrust reduction.

A

first.

46
Q

Use of the _______ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

aileron trim.

47
Q

Autoland capabilty may only be used to runways at or below ______ feet pressure altitude

A

8400.

48
Q

The ILS autoland capability may only be used with flaps ____ and _____ with both engines operative

A

30 & 40.

49
Q

Max and min glideslope angles for autoland are _____ and ____ respectively.

A

3.25 and 2.5

50
Q

The autoland system shall not be used for _____ landings

A

Overweight

51
Q

Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottles for approach if the associated _________ is inoperative

A

radio altimeter

52
Q

T/F: autolands with the FO as PF are not authorized

A

True

53
Q

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ______ AFE.

A

1500 ft.

54
Q

Do not use _____ for ATC comm with ACARS operational.

A

VHF-3

55
Q

Max single engine drive generator load

A

75 KVA-215 amps

56
Q

Min battery voltage for APU start

A

23V

57
Q

Engine Ignition must be on for:

A

Takeoff
Landing
Engine Anti- ice ops
Heavy Rain

58
Q

Min oil pressure

A

13 PSI. Oil pressure must be in normal for takeoof.

59
Q

Max engine oil temp

A

155°C

60
Q

Max continuous oil temp

A

140°C

61
Q

Max allowable engine oil temp

A

140°C - 155°C (45 minutes)

62
Q

Engine Max and min limits

A

Red line

63
Q

Cautionary range for engine limit display

A

amber arc

64
Q

Normal operating range for engine limit display

A

white arc

65
Q

Max EGT takeoff (5 minutes)

A

950°C

66
Q

Max continuous EGT

A

925°C

67
Q

Max EGT for Start

A

725°C

68
Q

Normal Engine Starter Duty Cycle:

A

multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted. Each start attempt is limited to 2 min of starter usage.

A min of 10 seconds is needed between start attempts.

69
Q

RPM Maximums:
N1
N2

A
  1. 0%

105. 0%

70
Q

Operations with assumed temp reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted with ________.

A

antiskid inoperative.

71
Q

Use of assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust i snot permitted when the runway is contaminated with________,___,_____ or ______.

A

standing water, ice, slush, or snow.

72
Q

Both EECs must be either ____ or ____ for takeoff.

A

ON or ALTN

73
Q

Operation with assumed temperature reduced for takeoff thrust is not permitted with the EEC in _____ mode.

A

ALTN

74
Q

APU max altitude for bleed and electrical

A

10,000 feet

75
Q

APU max altitude for bleed

A

17,000 feet

76
Q

APU max altitude for electrical load

A

41,000 feet.

77
Q

Min eng oil quantity prior to engine start

A

60%

78
Q

Do not engage the starter above ______% N2.

A

20% N2.

79
Q

If starting an engine in ambient temps below _____, Idle engine ____ minutes before changing thrust lever position.

A

-35°C, 2 minutes.

80
Q

For both _____ and ______starts, _____ minute cooling is required after ______ start attempt.

A

ground, in-flight, 15 minute, third.

81
Q

Operate the APU ______ minute before using APU bleed air.

A

1 minute.

82
Q

Wait a minimum of ______ seconds for APU shutdown cycle to complete, then turn battery switch to _____.

A

120 seconds, OFF.

83
Q

When must the APU bleed valve be closed?

A

Ground pneumatic air is connected and isol valve is open.
Engine No. 1 bleed valve is open (eng 1 is running.)
Isolation valve is open and Eng 2 bleed valve is open (eng #2 running).

Note: APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power above idle.

84
Q

If black dots shown in lavatory fire extinguisher, what is required?

A

maintenance action is req’d.

85
Q

Engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure

A

800 PSI at 70°F

86
Q

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is________.

A

prohibited.

87
Q

In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond _______.

A

FLIGHT DETENT.

88
Q

When extending or retracting the flaps with the __________ position switch, allow ______ seconds after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

A

ALTERNATE FLAP, 15 seconds.

89
Q

Max airspeed to extend the flaps with alternate system.

A

230 kts.

90
Q

Speed brakes should not be deployed with flaps extended beyond flaps_____.

A

15

91
Q

Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ______.

A

1000 feet.

92
Q

Max speed for mach trim fail (both channels).

A

280 kts/ .82 Mach.

93
Q

Do not operate the weather radar during______, within ____ feet of a fuel spill, or within_____ feet of people except in test mode.

A

fueling, 50 feet, 15 feet.

94
Q

Localizer back course approaches are ________.

A

not authorized.

95
Q

Wing tank capacity

A

1288 U.S. gallons/ 8630 lbs

96
Q

Center tank capacity

A

4299 U.S. gallons/ 28,803 lbs

97
Q

Main wing tanks must be scheduled to be full if the center wing tank contains more than _________ of fuel.

A

1000 pounds.

98
Q

Lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ______. Random fuel imbalance must not exceed ______ pounds.

A

Zero, 1000.

99
Q

Intentional dry running of a center fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light illuminated) is ________.

A

prohibited.

100
Q

Extended Range Ops: Perform an ops check of the fuel ________ valve during the last hour of cruise flight during each extended range operation.

A

CROSSFEED.

101
Q

Min fuel for stationary ground operation of electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is _______ pounds in the related main tank.

A

1675

102
Q

Min hydraulic quantity for dispatch is:

A

Above RF

103
Q

Max tire groundspeed :

A

195 kts.

104
Q

Do not apply brakes until after

A

touchdown.

105
Q

Arming the ____ feature is required for all takeoffs, if operable. Position the ____ selector to OFF is the autobrake system is inop.

A

RTO, RTO.

106
Q

Brake wear indicators should extend beyond the _______ (with parking brake set).

A

brake flange.

107
Q

GPWS: do not use terrain display for ________.

A

navigation.

108
Q

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are _______ within ___ NM of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.

A

prohibited, 15 NM

109
Q

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extend necessary to comply with a TCAS _______.

A

resolution advisory.

110
Q

The use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions are prohibited when the FMC is in _________.

A

IRS only operation.

111
Q

For _______, the use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions are prohibted until position verification has been accomplished.

A

takeoff.

United 737 (25 decks)

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