Limitations Flashcards
1
Q
Flt Maneuvering load Acceleration Limit
Flaps up
A
+2.5g to -1g
2
Q
Flt Maneuvering load Acceleration Limit
Flaps down
A
+2g to 0g
3
Q
Max runway slope
A
+/- 2%
4
Q
Maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component
A
15 kts (10kts for some aircraft)
5
Q
Maximum speeds
A
observe gear and flap placards
6
Q
Max operating altitude
A
41,000 feet
7
Q
Max takeoff and landing altitude
A
8,400 feet.
8
Q
Maximum flight operating latitudes
A
82 degrees N and S with some small exceptions.
9
Q
Do standby altimeters meet altimeter accuracy requirements of RVSM airspace?
A
No.
10
Q
Max allowable in flight difference between Captain and FO altitude displays for RVSM ops
A
200 feet.
11
Q
Max difference between CA and FO altitude readouts for RVSM:
sea level to 5000?
5000? to 10,000?
A
sea level to 5000?=50 feet
5000? to 10,000?=60 feet
12
Q
Max difference between CA OR FO and field elevation for RVSM?
A
75 all altitudes.
13
Q
Typical Weight Limitations: Max Taxi: Max Takeoff: Max Landing: Max Zero Fuel:
A
Max Taxi: 174,700
Max Takeoff: 174,200
Max Landing: 144,000
Max Zero Fuel: 136,000
14
Q
VMO
A
Indicated by max airspeed pointer on airspeed indicator
15
Q
MMO
A
.82 Mach
16
Q
Max gear retraction speed
A
235 kts
17
Q
Max gear extension speed
A
270 kts/.82 Mach
18
Q
Max gear operating/extended speed
A
320 knots/.82 Mach
19
Q
If severe turbulence is encountered at altitudes below ________ feet and the aircraft gross weight is less than the maximum landing weight, the aircraft may be slowed to ______ knots in the clean configuration.
A
15,000 feet; 250 knots
20
Q
True/False: PIlot are prohibited from operating with a QFE altimeter setting
A
True.
21
Q
Max ground times after landing:
If landing weights exceeds the value in the Maximum Quick Turn Around Weight Limits table, wait at least:
A
67 Minutes (-700,-800,-900) Steel brakes. [Mx may use an alternate approved procedure to ascertain acceptable brake temps for dispatch] 48 Minutes (-900,-9ER) Carbon Brakes
Check wheel thermal plugs before making a subsequent takeoff.
22
Q
Standing Water/slush T/O Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet
A
15/15 kts
23
Q
Snow-no melting T/O Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet
A
25/25 kts
24
Q
Standing Water/slush Landing Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet
A
20/20 kts
25
Snow- No Melting Landing Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet
35/35 kts
26
True/False: Takeoff with forward looking windshear warning or caution alert annunciated is not approved?
True.
27
T/F: Installation of handle covers on the over wing exits must be verified prior to dept whenver pax are carried.
True.
28
T/F: On revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar (girt bar) does not need to be installed during taxi, takeoff and landing.
False. It has to be installed.
29
What is the minimum number of cabin portable oxygen bottles aboard?
At least one for each assigned FA (one FA for each 50 seats)
30
Max cabin pressure differential?
9.1 PSI
31
Max differential pressure for takeoff and landing
.125 PSI
32
T/F: When engine bleeds are on, do not operate A/C packs in high for takeoff, approach and landing.
True.
33
Maximum operating differential pressure: Above 37,000 feet
8.35 +/- .1 PSI
34
Maximum operating differential pressure: 28,000-37000 feet
7.8 +/- .1 PSI
35
Maximum operating differential pressure: Below 28,000 feet
7.45 +/- .1 PSI
36
Max Cooling Duct Pressure
20-25 PSI
37
Minimum duct pressure for 2 pack ops from one bleed source
20-25 PSI
38
T/F: Takeoff in mod/heavy freezing rain or hail is prohibited
True
39
Engine anti ice must be ON during all flight ops when icing condictions exist or are anticipated, expect during climb or cruise when the temp is below _____.
-40°C SAT.
40
Engine Anti Ice must be ON prior to and during descents in all icing conditions, including temps below ______.
-40°C SAT.
41
Engine ignition must be selected to _______ prior to and during engine anti-ice operation.
CONT
42
Use wing anti-ice during all ground ops between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless aircraft is or will be protected by the application of type ____ and type ____ fluid.
II and IV fluid.
43
Window heat must be on ____ minutes before takeoff
10 minutes.
44
Probe heat must be on before______.
takeoff.
45
During takeoff do not use wing anti-ice until after the _____ thrust reduction.
first.
46
Use of the _______ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.
aileron trim.
47
Autoland capabilty may only be used to runways at or below ______ feet pressure altitude
8400.
48
The ILS autoland capability may only be used with flaps ____ and _____ with both engines operative
30 & 40.
49
Max and min glideslope angles for autoland are _____ and ____ respectively.
3.25 and 2.5
50
The autoland system shall not be used for _____ landings
Overweight
51
Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottles for approach if the associated _________ is inoperative
radio altimeter
52
T/F: autolands with the FO as PF are not authorized
True
53
Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ______ AFE.
1500 ft.
54
Do not use _____ for ATC comm with ACARS operational.
VHF-3
55
Max single engine drive generator load
75 KVA-215 amps
56
Min battery voltage for APU start
23V
57
Engine Ignition must be on for:
Takeoff
Landing
Engine Anti- ice ops
Heavy Rain
58
Min oil pressure
13 PSI. Oil pressure must be in normal for takeoof.
59
Max engine oil temp
155°C
60
Max continuous oil temp
140°C
61
Max allowable engine oil temp
140°C - 155°C (45 minutes)
62
Engine Max and min limits
Red line
63
Cautionary range for engine limit display
amber arc
64
Normal operating range for engine limit display
white arc
65
Max EGT takeoff (5 minutes)
950°C
66
Max continuous EGT
925°C
67
Max EGT for Start
725°C
68
Normal Engine Starter Duty Cycle:
multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted. Each start attempt is limited to 2 min of starter usage.
A min of 10 seconds is needed between start attempts.
69
RPM Maximums:
N1
N2
104. 0%
| 105. 0%
70
Operations with assumed temp reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted with ________.
antiskid inoperative.
71
Use of assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust i snot permitted when the runway is contaminated with________,___,_____ or ______.
standing water, ice, slush, or snow.
72
Both EECs must be either ____ or ____ for takeoff.
ON or ALTN
73
Operation with assumed temperature reduced for takeoff thrust is not permitted with the EEC in _____ mode.
ALTN
74
APU max altitude for bleed and electrical
10,000 feet
75
APU max altitude for bleed
17,000 feet
76
APU max altitude for electrical load
41,000 feet.
77
Min eng oil quantity prior to engine start
60%
78
Do not engage the starter above ______% N2.
20% N2.
79
If starting an engine in ambient temps below _____, Idle engine ____ minutes before changing thrust lever position.
-35°C, 2 minutes.
80
For both _____ and ______starts, _____ minute cooling is required after ______ start attempt.
ground, in-flight, 15 minute, third.
81
Operate the APU ______ minute before using APU bleed air.
1 minute.
82
Wait a minimum of ______ seconds for APU shutdown cycle to complete, then turn battery switch to _____.
120 seconds, OFF.
83
When must the APU bleed valve be closed?
Ground pneumatic air is connected and isol valve is open.
Engine No. 1 bleed valve is open (eng 1 is running.)
Isolation valve is open and Eng 2 bleed valve is open (eng #2 running).
Note: APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power above idle.
84
If black dots shown in lavatory fire extinguisher, what is required?
maintenance action is req'd.
85
Engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure
800 PSI at 70°F
86
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is________.
prohibited.
87
In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond _______.
FLIGHT DETENT.
88
When extending or retracting the flaps with the __________ position switch, allow ______ seconds after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.
ALTERNATE FLAP, 15 seconds.
89
Max airspeed to extend the flaps with alternate system.
230 kts.
90
Speed brakes should not be deployed with flaps extended beyond flaps_____.
15
91
Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ______.
1000 feet.
92
Max speed for mach trim fail (both channels).
280 kts/ .82 Mach.
93
Do not operate the weather radar during______, within ____ feet of a fuel spill, or within_____ feet of people except in test mode.
fueling, 50 feet, 15 feet.
94
Localizer back course approaches are ________.
not authorized.
95
Wing tank capacity
1288 U.S. gallons/ 8630 lbs
96
Center tank capacity
4299 U.S. gallons/ 28,803 lbs
97
Main wing tanks must be scheduled to be full if the center wing tank contains more than _________ of fuel.
1000 pounds.
98
Lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ______. Random fuel imbalance must not exceed ______ pounds.
Zero, 1000.
99
Intentional dry running of a center fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light illuminated) is ________.
prohibited.
100
Extended Range Ops: Perform an ops check of the fuel ________ valve during the last hour of cruise flight during each extended range operation.
CROSSFEED.
101
Min fuel for stationary ground operation of electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is _______ pounds in the related main tank.
1675
102
Min hydraulic quantity for dispatch is:
Above RF
103
Max tire groundspeed :
195 kts.
104
Do not apply brakes until after
touchdown.
105
Arming the ____ feature is required for all takeoffs, if operable. Position the ____ selector to OFF is the autobrake system is inop.
RTO, RTO.
106
Brake wear indicators should extend beyond the _______ (with parking brake set).
brake flange.
107
GPWS: do not use terrain display for ________.
navigation.
108
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are _______ within ___ NM of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.
prohibited, 15 NM
109
Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extend necessary to comply with a TCAS _______.
resolution advisory.
110
The use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions are prohibited when the FMC is in _________.
IRS only operation.
111
For _______, the use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions are prohibted until position verification has been accomplished.
takeoff.
