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CRJ-700 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure

A

-0.5 psi

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1
Q

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

10 knots

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2
Q

Landing Gear Extended (Vle)

A

220

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3
Q

Maximum Maneuvering Speed Sea Level at 75,000lbs. (Va)

A

253kts.

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4
Q

Maximum Operating FL250 to FL410 (Vmo/Mmo)

A

Red Line

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4
Q

Maximum Operating (KIAS) 8,000 ft. to FL250

A

Red Line/335kts

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7
Q

Maximum Turbulence Penetration Vb/Mb

A

280/.75 whichever is lower

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8
Q

Maximum differential pressure

A

8.7 psi

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8
Q

Maximum Operating Speed (Vmo/Mmo)

A

335/.85

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8
Q

Landing Gear Extension (Vloe)

A

220

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10
Q

Landing Gear Retraction (Vlor)

A

200kts.

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11
Q

Maximum Operating (KIAS) up to 8,000ft. Vmo

A

Red Line/330 kts

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12
Q

Flaps 1, 8, and 20 degrees (Vfe)

A

230kts.

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13
Q

Flaps 30

A

185 kts.

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14
Q

Maximum Wiper Operating

A

250 kts. (If the wiper blade has failed in a non-parked position, the aircraft speed must not exceed 250 kias.)

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15
Q

Maximum ADG Operating (Vmo/Mmo)

A

335/.85

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16
Q

Maximum Tire Limit

A

182 kts.

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17
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

41,000 ft.

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18
Q

Flaps 45

A

170 kts.

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19
Q

Minimum Temperature for T/O and Landing

A

-40°C

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20
Q

APU Altitude Limit

A

FL 370

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21
Q

APU Airspeed Limit

A

Vmo/Mmo

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22
Q

APU Starting Limits

A

3 Starts/start attempts per 60 minutes, with a minimum of 2 minutes delay between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of the starter, starter contacted and for APU drainage

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23
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use after T/O

A

600 ft AGL

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24
Q

Maximum APU EGT limit under ANY conditions

A

1038°C

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25
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use for non-precision approaches

A

400 ft AGL

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26
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use for Precision approaches with glide path angle less than or equal to 3.5 degrees

A

80 ft AGL

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27
Q

Can you use the autopilot for a precision approach if the airport elevation is greater than 4,000 ft and the glide path angle is greater than 3.5, but less than 4.0 degrees?

A

No

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28
Q

Maximum time for ground operations with DC power only

A

5 minutes (To protect the CRT displays)

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29
Q

Maximum ITT for engine operating

A

Red Line

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30
Q

Maximum N2 for engine starting

A

0-45%

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31
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use for precision approaches with glide path angle greater than 3.5, but less than or equal to 4.0 degrees

A

120 ft AGL

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32
Q

How long can the oil pressure be in the amber range after and engine start?

A

Max of 10 minutes

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33
Q

Normal N1 and N2 for idling engine

A

20-25% N1, 55-65% N2

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34
Q

Maximum oil pressure when the oil temp transient is less than 60 degrees C

A

156 psi

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35
Q

Maximum ITT for engine start on ground

A

120°C

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36
Q

Low oil pressure (Amber values) when above IDLE require oil temperature monitoring

A

True (25-45 psi)

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37
Q

Minimum oil temp for engine start

A

-40°C

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38
Q

Starter limits for motoring (thrust lever at SHUTOFF)

A

1st cycle - 90 sec on, 5 min off

2nd - 5th cycle- 30 sec on, 5 min off

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39
Q

Maximum temperature for engine start in air

A

90°C

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40
Q

Pilot initiated APR thrust (MAX POWER detent or HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switchlight) is Prohibited except in the case of safety of flight:

A
  • Above 7,500 MSL

- within the first 30 minutes after any engine start at altitude below 7,500 MSL

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41
Q

Wind and Fan speed limit within 30 degrees of aircraft nose with no windspeed limit

A

Method A, B, or C

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41
Q

Wind and fan speed limit with greater than 30 degrees either direction from aircraft nose and between 5 and 30 knots windspeed

A

Method B, or C (Do not exceed 75% N1 before brake release)

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42
Q

Wind and fan speed limit with greater than 30 degrees either direction from aircraft nose and greater than 30 knots windspeed

A

Method C only

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43
Q

When the aircraft is cold-soaked at an ambient temperature of -30 C or below for more than 8 hours

A
  • the engines must be motored for 60 seconds and the fan rotation must be verified on the N1 before engine start is initiated
  • the thrust reverser must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less
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44
Q

When continuous ignition must be used

A
  • Takeoffs and landings on a contaminated runway
  • Flight through moderate or heavier rain
  • Flight through moderate or heavier turbulence
  • Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
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45
Q

Maximum N1 within 2 minutes after engine start

A

75% N1

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46
Q

Maximum N2 for starter engage

A

45%

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47
Q

Starter Limits for engine start on ground (Thrust lever at IDLE)

A

1st and 2nd cycles - 90 sec on, 10 sec off

3rd - 5th cycles - 90 sec on, 5 min off

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49
Q

Maximum altitude for slats/flaps

A

15,000 ft

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50
Q

When must flight spoilers not be used?

A
  • Altitude less than 300 ft

- At air speeds below the recommended approach speed plus 10 knots

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52
Q

Starter limits for engine start in flight

A

1st cycle - 120 sec on, 10 sec off

2nd - 5th cycles - 60 sec on, 5 min off

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52
Q

Maximum VNAV final approach glidepath

A

4.0°

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53
Q

Minimum engine fuel temp for takeoff

A

5°C

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54
Q

Wind and fan speed limit greater than 30 degrees either direction from aircraft nose with less than 5 knots windspeed

A

Method A, B, or C

55
Q

Minimum bulk fuel takeoff limit and bulk fuel during flight limit

A

-30°C (takeoff), -40°C (Bulk flight)

56
Q

Takeoff with a fuel load in excess of 500lb in the center tank is prohibited unless each main wing tank is above

A

4,400 lb

57
Q

Minimum fuel quantity for go-around

A

600 lb per wing (assuming wings level, and max pitch up of 10 degrees)

58
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance (takeoff, and all other phases of flight)

A

300 lb for takeoff, 800 lb for all other phases

59
Q

Visible moisture definition

A

Visibility 1 mi or less, clouds, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals

60
Q

How to identify severe icing

A

Ice accretion on the cockpit side windows

61
Q

Takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to

A

-The upper surface of the fuselage
and/or
-The underside of the wing, that is caused by cold soaked fuel

63
Q

Maximum time taxi light can be on while stationary

A

10 minutes

64
Q

Runway Slope Limits for T/O and Landing

A

-2% to 2%

65
Q

Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits

A

Flaps Up: +2.5g to -1.0g

Flaps Down: +2.0g to 0g

66
Q

Maximum pressure differential during taxi, takeoff and landing

A

0.1 psi

67
Q

Maximum altitude for single pack operations

A

FL 310

68
Q

______ and/or ______ anti-ice selection is Prohibited with the ______ as a bleed source in manual mode

A

Wing, Cowl, APU

69
Q

EMER DEBRESS is prohibited above

A

15,000 ft

70
Q

Maximum cruise Mach number during flight in RVSM airspace

A

0.83

71
Q

Minimum and Maximum T/O and Landing Pressure Altitudes

A

-1,000 and 9,600 ft

72
Q

Maximum ambient temperature for T/O and Landing

A

ISA +35°C

73
Q

Minimum Ambient Temperature for APU

A

-40°C (ground) and -65°C (flight)

74
Q

APU RPM Limit

A

106%

75
Q

Maximum APU Generator Limit

A

FL 410

76
Q

APU Bleed Air Extraction Limit

A

FL 250

77
Q

APU Bleed Air Engine Start Limit

A

FL 210

78
Q

Maximum Altitude to start APU

A

FL 370

79
Q

Maximum Load on main and APU generators up to 41,000 ft

A

40 kVA

80
Q

Maximum continuous load on each TRU

A

120 amps

81
Q

With the engines running and bleeds configured for takeoff, the crew must verify that the target N1 values correspond to the data presented in the thrust setting charts (±____%). With the thrust levers set for takeoff, target and actual N1 values should match

A

1.0%

82
Q

Thrust reverser limits

A
  1. Ground Use only
  2. Go-Arounds are not allowed after deployment
  3. Takeoff with any EICAS indication or messages is prohibited
  4. Thrust reverse limited to 60% N1 if below 75 knots
83
Q

GND LIFT DUMPING must be selected to _____ during takeoffs and touch-and-go landings

A

AUTO

84
Q

When _____ is tuned to a valid ____ frequency, the ISI will display localizer and glide slope deviation while on the backcourse approach. Use of the ISI localizer and backcourse information is Prohibited during backcourse approaches

A

NAV 1, ILS

85
Q

IFR enroute and terminal navigation is prohibited unless the pilot verifies the currency of the database and verifies waypoints for accuracy by reference to current publications

A

.

86
Q

FMS range, fuel management and altitude/speed capability information is advisory only

A

.

87
Q

Approved fuel grades

A

Jet A, Jet A1, JP-8, JP-5

88
Q

Left and right fuel tank capacity (Pressure refueling)

A

7,492 lb. each tank

89
Q

Center tank capacity

A

4,610 lb.

90
Q

Left and right fuel tank capacity (Gravity Refueling)

A

7,290 lb. each tank

91
Q

Maximum total fuel capacity (Pressure and gravity refueling)

A

19,594 lb (Pressure), 14,580 lb. (Gravity)

92
Q

Power and Gravity Crossflow must be ____ for takeoff

A

Off

93
Q

When flying to an airport where a GPS stand-alone approach is intended and is the only suitable approach, prior to dispatch, the flight crew must verify that predictive RAIM at the destination is available during the ETA

A

.

94
Q

Ground contamination definition

A

Runways, ramps or taxiways with surface snow, ice, slush or standing water

95
Q

COWL anti ice is required on the ground during taxi if there is ground contamination or visible moisture and if the OAT is

A

10°C or colder

96
Q

During flight in visible moisture and if the SAT is between -40°C and TAT 10°C below 230 knots then which anti ice system is required?

A

COWL and WING

97
Q

During flight in visible moisture and if the SAT is between -40°C and TAT 10°C at or above 230 knots then which anti ice system is required?

A

COWL

98
Q

If you have an ICE EICAS message which anti ice system should be turned on?

A

COWL and WING

99
Q

During takeoff, at what temperature and below should the COWL anti ice be on?

A

OAT 10°C and colder

100
Q

During takeoff, at what temperature and below should the COWL and WING anti ice be on?

A

OAT 5°C and colder

101
Q

Just before thrust increase for takeoff, the wing anti ice system must be selected on, if required, when which Anti-icing fluids have been applied?

A

Type II, III, or Type IV

102
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with frost, ice, or slush adhering to any critical surface which include:

A

(Wings, upper fuselage, horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, control surfaces, and engine inlets

103
Q

Minimum brake cooling time between a landing or rejected takeoff and the subsequent takeoff

A

15 minutes

104
Q

Flights must be within ____ minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment C3 or C4

A

60

105
Q

GRND PROX. TERRAIN switch should be off when within ____ of takeoff, approach or landing of an airport not contained in the EGPWS airport database

A

15 NM

106
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

A

75,250 lb.

107
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

75,000 lb.

108
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

67,000 lb.

109
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

62,300 lb.

110
Q

Minimum Flight Weight

A

42,000 lb.

111
Q

Minimum Operation Empty Weight

A

39,835 lb.

112
Q

CAT II approaches must be conducted with the autopilot on and coupled to the First Officer’s side

A

.

113
Q

Types of Aircraft Operation

A

VFR, IFR, Day, Night, FIKI, RVSM

114
Q

Is the aircraft certified for ditching?

A

No

115
Q

Required instruments for RVSM

A

1 Autopilot, Altitude Alerting System, Altitude Reporting Transponder, 2 ADC’s

116
Q

Maximum altitude for single pack operations

A

FL 310

117
Q

Minimum temperatures for Flight up to 10,000 ft, and at FL 410

A

-40 and -70 at FL410

118
Q

APU RPM Limit

A

Red Line (106%)

119
Q

APU EGT Limit

A

Red Line

120
Q

APU Air Engine Start Limit

A

FL 210

121
Q

APU EGT Normal Operating Range

APU RPM Normal Operating Range

A

0 - 806 degrees

0 - 106%

122
Q

APU EGT, On Speed

Ground
Inflight

A

682 - 789 degrees

773 - 806 degrees

123
Q

Can you reset a circuit breaker in flight?

A

NO

124
Q

Maximum oil pressure for idling engine

A

60 psi

125
Q

Maximum oil pressure for 70%N1, TO/GA, APR, or MCT

A

95 psi

126
Q

Other than starting, the engine can show an amber value which is a temperature less than

A

60 degrees

127
Q

Max N1 and N2

A

99.5% N1, 99.4% N2

128
Q

Max oil temps for

  • 70% N1
  • TO/GA
  • APR
  • MCT
A

70% N1 - Amber value
TO/GA - Amber value for max of 15 min.
APR - Amber value for max of 15 min.
MCT - Amber value

129
Q

Maximum N2 for MCT

A

98%

130
Q

At what pressure will the oil pressure gauge show amber dashes?

Oil pressure may be greater than 95 psi for a max of

A

182 psi

10 min.

131
Q

Engine relight limit for windmilling engine from 21,000ft - 10,000

A

290 KIAS to Vmo and 7.2% N2 minimum

132
Q

Engine relight limit for windmilling engine from10,000 ft to sea-level

A

250 KIAS to Vmo and 7.2% N2 minimum

133
Q

Engine relight limit for starter assisted start from 21,000 ft to sea level

A

Vref to Vmo and from 0-45% N2

134
Q

Special All Engine Out (AEO) Rapid Relight from 10,000ft to sea level

A

200 knots for up to 15 second fuel interruptions

135
Q

Which approaches are only approved for the FMS to be used?

A

Non-Precision only

136
Q

What must you inspect after a RTO?

A

The wheel fuse plugs

137
Q

If cargo is carried in C3 or C4, then the flight must stay within how many minutes of a suitable airport?

A

60 minutes

CRJ-700 (21 decks)

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