Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What are the load factor limits:
1. Clean configuration?
2. Other configurations?

General

A
  1. -1G to +2.5G
  2. 0G to +2G
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the min/max operating altitudes?

General

A

Min: -1000’
or -2000’ PA
Max: 39,100’
or 39,800’ PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the min/max altitudes for takeoff and landing?

General

A

Min: -1000’
or -2000’ PA
Max: 9200’
or 8000’ PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nominal Runway Width?

General

A

147’/45m
A runway of 147’/45m or greater where the outer portion is contaminated is acceptable for use provided that a minimum of 100’/30.5m width is cleared within the allowable limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Minimum Runway Width?

General

A

98’/30M
A runway of 147’/45m or greater where the outer portion is contaminated is acceptable for use provided that a minimum of 100’/30.5m width is cleared within the allowable limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max Runway Slope?

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind (takeoff and landing)

General

A

38 kt (gust included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max Tailwind for Takeoff?

General

A

15 kts or
10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Max Tailwind for landing?

General

A

10 kts or
15 kts

(For tailwinds greater than 10kts, FLAPS FULL recommended)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Max Wind Speed for doors operations?

General

A
  • Pax door - 65 kts
  • FWD/AFT Cargo operation - 40 kts (50kts if into wind or on leeward side)
  • FWD/AFT Cargo doors must be closed before wind exceeds 65 kts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Max Cockpit Window Open Speed?

General

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Max Flaps/Slats Speeds

319/320

A
  • 1 = 230 kts
  • 1 + F = 215 kts
  • 2 = 200 kts
  • 3 = 185 kts
  • Full = 177 kts

319/320

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Max Flaps/Slats Speeds

321

A
  • 1 = 235 kts
  • 1 + F = 225 kts
  • 2 = 215 kts
  • 3 = 195 kts
  • FULL = 190 kts

321

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max Operating Speed (Vmo/Mmo)?

General

A

350 kts / M .82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max speed with landing gear extended (Vle)?

General

A

280 kts / M 0.67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max Speed at which the gear may be extened (Vlo extension)?

General

A

250 kts / M 0.60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max speed at which the gear may be retracted (Vlo retraction)?

General

A

220 kts / M 0.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum Tire Speed

General

A

195 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Minimum control speed for landing (Vmcl)?

General

A

116 kts / 113 kts /110 kts / 108 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Taxi Speed limit in a turn at a hight gross weight?

General

A

20 kts above 76 000 kg.

225-226, 232, 235-242, 401-402, 415-422

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Max Wiper Operating Speed

General

A

230

This limitation is applicable when the wipers are sweeping. It is not applicable if the wipers are not sweeping for any reasons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Max Landing Wieght?

General

A

319 - 61,000KG
320 - 64,500 KG (or 66,000KG)
321 - 77,800KG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max Positive Diff. Pressure

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

9.0 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max Negative Diff. Pressure

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

-1.0 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Safety Relief valve setting (PSI)

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

8.6 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

At what temperature should you start to be concerned about avionics ventalation on ground?

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

49º OAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What Altitude does the Outfllow Valve Close?

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

15,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What altitude do you get a Cab Alt Warning?

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

9,550’ +/- 350’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max Cab Alt Selection?
Min Cab Alt Selection?

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

14,000’
2,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Max Norm Cab Alt

Air Bleed/Cond/Press/Vent

A

8,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Minimum height for AP use on Takeoff

Autoflight

A

100’ AGL
(and atleast 5 s after takeoff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Min AP Use
In Approach with F-G/S Mode

Autoflight

A

200’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Min AP Use
In Approach with FINAL APP, V/S or FPA mode

Autoflight

A

250’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Min AP Use
In circling approach

Autoflight

A

500’ AGL for aircraft CAT C
(600’ AGL for aircraft CAT D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Min AP Use
ILS/MLS approach when CAT 1 is displayed on the FMA

Autoflight

A

160’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Min AP Use
ILS/MLS approach when CAT 2 or CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL is displayed on the FMA

Autoflight

A

0’ AGL if Autoland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Min AP Use
GLS approach when CAT1 is displayed on the FMA

Autoflight

A

160’ AGL

38
Q

Min AP Use
GLS approach when AUTOLAND is displayed on the FMA

Autoflight

A

0’ AGL if autoland

39
Q

Min AP Use
After a Go-Around

Autoflight

A

100’ AGL

40
Q

Min AP Use
In all other phases of flight

Autoflight

A

500’ AGL
(900’ AGL in some A321’s)

OP DES/DES may only be used if FCU altitude is set to, or above the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500/900’

41
Q

What limitations are there for Engine-out NPA Approaches?

Autoflight

A

It is not permitted to use the autopilot to perfrom NPA in the following modes: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV/FPA. Only FD use is permitted.
Note: One Engine inoperative RNP APCH approaches must be hand flown in FINAL APP or NAV/FPA mode. To reduce pilot workload, and if conditions permit, it is recommended to fly an RNP APCH approach in FINAL APP using the FD.

42
Q

ILS CAT II Min Decision Height

Autoflight

A

100’

At leaste one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 2 or CAT 3 SINGLE or DUAL must be displayed on FMA. For manual landing AP should be disconnected no later than 80’ AGL.

43
Q

RNP Accuracy with GPS Primary

A
  • AP // AP off and FD on // Off
  • Enroute - 1nm/1nm/1.1nm
  • Terminal - .5/.51/.51
  • Approach - .3/.3/ Not auth

AP / AP off and FD on both require to be in NAV or LOC (for approach phase)

44
Q

What limitations are there to a SA ILS CAT II approach?

Autoflight

A

Same as normal CAT II
AND
Crew must perform an automatic landing.

45
Q

ILS CAT III (Single) Limitations

Autoflight

A
  • Min decision height - 50 AGL
  • A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed.
  • At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 3 SINGLE or DUAL must be displayed on the FMA.
46
Q

ILS CAT III (DUAL) Limitations

Autoflight

A
  • Alert Height - 100’
  • A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed.
  • Both AP’s must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT III DUAL must be displayed on the FMA.
47
Q

ILS CAT III DUAL with DH
Minimum Decision Height

Autoflight

A

20’ AGL (AC)
18’ AGL (Airbus)

48
Q

ILS CAT III DUAL
Minimum RVR

Autoflight

A

250’

49
Q

What limitations are there to Engine Out Precision Approaches?

Autoflight

A

CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved in configuration FULL, and if engine out procedures are completed before reaching 1000’ in approach.

Air Canada Limitation. Airbus allows CONF 3.

50
Q

Autoland Glideslope Limitations?

Autoflight

A

Glideslope angle between 2.5º and 3.15º

51
Q

Autoland Weight Limitation?

Autoflight

A

Below maximum landing weight.

A319: Depending on the situation (eg. emergency or other) and provided that the runway is approved for automatic alnding, the flight crew can perform an autoland up to 69t.

52
Q

Autoland max/min elevation?

Autoflight

A

-1000’ to 9200’ (A319/A320)
-1000’ to 2500’ (some A320)
-1000’ to 5750’ (A321)

53
Q

Autoland Configuration Limitations?

Autoflight

A

AC is CONF FULL only.

Airbus allows CONF 3 and CONF FULL

54
Q

What are the APU Start Limitations?

APU

A

After 3 attempts, wait 60 minutes before next attempt.

55
Q

APU Start/Shutdown During Refueling Limitations?

APU

A

APU Starts/Shutdowns are permitted with the following restrictions:
* If the APU failed to start or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU
* If a fuel spill occurs, perform an APU shutdown.

56
Q

Above what Altitude can the APU only provide Electrical output?

APU

A

22,500’ PA or
20,000 PA

57
Q

What is the APU Battery Restart Atltitude Limit?

APU

A

25,000’ PA

58
Q

Up to what altitude can the APU provide Bleed Air output?

(Single Pack)

APU

A

22,500’ PA or
20,000 PA

(Single Pack)

59
Q

Up to what altitude can the APU provide Bleed Air Output?

(Dual Pack)

APU

A

15,000’ PA

(Dual Pack)

60
Q

Max Altitude for APU assisted engine start?

APU

A

20,000’

61
Q

Max Altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack operation?)

APU

A

22,500’ PA or
20,000’ PA

62
Q

Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack operation?)

APU

A

15,000’

63
Q

Can you use APU bleed air for wing anti-ice?

APU

A

Not permitted.

64
Q

Max Continuous Load per generator

Electrical

A

90 KVA

65
Q

Max Continuous Load per TRU

Electrical

A

200 A

66
Q

How long can you use TOGA?

Engines

A

All Engines - 5 mins
One engine - 10 Mins

67
Q

Max start EGT Limit?

Engines

A

725º C

68
Q

Oil Min start Temp?

Engines

A

-40º C

69
Q

Oil Min temp before Takeoff

Engines

A

-10º C

70
Q

Min oil quantity?

Engines

A

9.5 qt + est consumption

0.5qt/h

71
Q

What is considered one start cycle?

Engines

A
  • A standard automatic start that includes up to three start attempts is considered one cycle.
72
Q

How long of a pause is requried between start cycles?

Engines

A

20 seconds

73
Q

How long of a cooling period is required and when (during start?)

Engines

A
  • A 15 minute cooling period is required, subsequent to 4 failed cycles.
74
Q

Starter N2 limitation

Engines

A

Starter must not be run when N2 is above 20%

75
Q

When is Flex Thrust Prohibited?

Engine

A
  • The assumed temp for Flex Thrust is less than the actual OAT.
  • Windshear or known temperature inversion exists below 1500 AGL.
  • Runway is contaminated.
  • Reduced thrust takeoff is prohibited by the Route Manual.
  • Prohibited by MEL Manual.

The flex takeoff thrust must bever be below the MCT at ISA + 40ºC (320/321)

TFLEX cannot be:
* Higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to ISA +53º or +40º (320) / +44º (319) / +43ºC (321).
* Lower than the flat temperature (TREF).
* Lower than actual OAT.

76
Q

At what altitude are TCAS RA’s inhibited below?

MT #2 Slide (Maybe double check)

A

1000’ AGL

77
Q

What are the syptoms of windshear?

MT #2 Slide (Maybe double check)

A
  1. IAS variations excess of +/- 15kts.
  2. Ground speed variations
  3. Wind indications variations in direction and speed on the ND.
  4. Vertical speed excursions of 500 fpm.
  5. Pitch attitude excursions of 5º.
  6. Glide slope deviations of 1 dot.
  7. Heading variations of 10º.
  8. Unusaly A/THR activity.
78
Q

What is the normal maximum taxi speed in a straight line and sharp turn?

A
  • 30 kts
  • 10 kts

FCOM-Taxi

79
Q

What is the min/max fuel temps JA/A-1?

Fuel

A
  • JET A - 36ºc (Moniter if -34ºc)
  • JET A1 - 43ºc

Max 54ºc

80
Q

What are the altitude limits for high fuel temperatures?

Fuel

A

If wing fuel temp exceeds 30ºC at engine start, the altitude must be limited to FL350, until the center tank is empty.

Pressure supplied by center tank pumps becomes lower than the pressure supplied by the wing tank pumps.

81
Q

Fuel Imbalance Limits at Takeoff

Fuel (319/320)

A
  • Inner Tanks - 500kgs
  • Outer Tanks - 370kgs

(319/320)

82
Q

Fuel Imbalance Limits in flight

Fuel (319/320)

A
  • Inner Tanks - 1500kgs
  • Outer Tanks - 690kgs

(319/320)

83
Q

Fuel Imbalance at Takeoff

Fuel (321)

A

600kgs
400kgs (483)

(321)

84
Q

Fuel Imbalance in flight

Fuel (321)

A

1320kgs

(321)

85
Q

Min Fuel for Takeoff

Fuel

A

1500kgs
(ECAM alerts must not appear)

86
Q

Max Operating Pressure

Hydraulics

A

3000 PSI +/- 200 PSI
(At zero Delivery)

87
Q

Definition of Icing Conditions

Ice and Rain Protection

A
  • OAT or TAT is at or below 10ºc and visible moisture is present (clouds, fog, of 1sm or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals
  • OAT is at or below 10ºc and operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water, or slush may be ingested
88
Q

Severe Ice Definition

Ice and Rain Protection

A

5mm or 0.2 in

89
Q

Max brake temps for takeoff

Landing Gear

A

150ºc Fans on
300ºc Fans off

90
Q

Max speed during turn if max one tire per gear is deflated (up to 3)

Landing Gear

A

7kts

91
Q

Max speed with two tires deflated on same gear

Landing Gear

A

3 kts

92
Q

Max nosewheel steering angle with deflated tires

Landing Gear

A

30º