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✈️ 737 Flash cards > LIMITATIONS > Flashcards

LIMITATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Operating Pressure Altitude Maximum

A

⭐️41,000 feet

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2
Q

MAXIMUM TAKEOFF/LANDING TAILWIND COMPONENT.⭐️

A

15 knots

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3
Q

RECOMMENDED SEVERE TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED
Cruise &. Climb/Descent

A

Cruise TURB N1 setting from cruise page
Climb and descent 280 knots/.76 Mach

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4
Q

Takeoff in moderate/heavy freezing rain or hail is…?

A

prohibited

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5
Q

Rolling takeoffs are strongly
advised when crosswinds exceed ______ knots.

A

20 knots

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6
Q

Sideslip only (zero crab) landings for aircraft equipped with split scimitar
winglets are not recommended with crosswinds in excess of _______ knots.

A

15 knots

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7
Q

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below _______ AFE.

A

1000 ft

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8
Q

Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottle for approach if the associated ______
_________ is inoperative.

A

Radio Altimeter

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9
Q

Reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted when?

A

🔘antiskid inoperative
🔘runway is contaminated with standing water, ice, slush, or snow
🔘EEC in ALT mode
🔘WINDSHEAR/Strong Xwind

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10
Q

ENGINE OIL QUANTITY. Minimum prior to engine start

A

70%

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11
Q

In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the _______ _______

A

FLIGHT DETENT

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12
Q

In flight, do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the ARMED detent with
________________

A

flaps 40 selected.

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13
Q

Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than______ feet.

A

1000

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14
Q

Approach speed may not exceed__________ or landing flap placard speed minus 5 knots, whichever is lower.

A

VREF+15

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15
Q

FLIGHT MANEUVERING LOAD ACCELERATION LIMITS

Flaps up?
Flaps down?

A

Flaps up +2.5g to -1.0g
Flaps down +2.0g to 0.0g

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16
Q

Takeoff/Landing Pressure Altitude
Maximum__________ feet

A

10,000

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17
Q

RUNWAY SLOPE

A

Maximum ± 2%

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18
Q

Maximum Flight Operating Latitude

A

82 degrees north and 82 degrees south, except for some exceptions

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19
Q

VMO

A

Indicated by the upper barber pole on the speed tape

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20
Q

MMO

A

.82 Mach

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21
Q

Maximum gear retraction speed

A

235 knots

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22
Q

Maximum gear extension speed

A

270 knots/.82 Mach

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23
Q

Maximum gear operating/extended speed

A

320 knots/.82 Mach

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24
Q

MINIMUM GROUND TIME AFTER LANDING
If landing weight exceeds the value in the Maximum Quick Turn Around Weight
Limits table, Performance chapter, wait at least:
Steel brakes___ minutes
Carbon brakes ___minutes

A

67
48

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25
Q

T/O X-Wind Component
DRY Runway⭐️

A

⭐️33

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26
Q

Landing X-Wind Component
DRY Runway⭐️

A

⭐️37

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27
Q

T/O X-Wind Component
🌧WET/DAMP/FROST
<1/8 Water/Slush/Snow on Runway⭐️

A

⭐️25

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28
Q

Landing X-Wind Component
WET/DAMP/FROST
<1/8 Water/Slush/Snow on Runway
BA Good (5 ) ⭐️

A

⭐️37

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29
Q

T/O X-Wind Component
>1/8 SNOW

A

20/20

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30
Q

Landing X-Wind Component

> 1/8 SNOW

A

25/25

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31
Q

T/O X-Wind
>1/8in Water/Slush

A

15/15

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32
Q

Landing X-Wind
>1/8in Water/Slush

A

17/17

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33
Q

T/O X-Wind
ICE (Braking action-Poor)

A

13/13

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34
Q

Landing X-Wind
ICE (Braking action-Poor)

A

17/17

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35
Q

WINDSHEAR ALERT
Takeoff with predictive windshear warning or caution alert annunciated is
________________

A

not
approved.

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36
Q

T/F

Installation of handle covers on the over wing exits must be verified prior to
departure whenever passengers are carried.

A

True

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37
Q

T/F

On revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar (girt bar)must be installed
during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

A

True

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38
Q

PORTABLE OXYGEN BOTTLES
Minimum number of cabin portable oxygen bottles aboard - At least ____ for each assigned flight attendant (one flight attendant for each 50 seats or part thereof).

A

One

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39
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential____ PSI

A

9.10

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40
Q

Maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing _____ PSI

A

.125 PSI

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41
Q

When engine bleeds are on (either one or both), do not operate air conditioning
packs in _______ for takeoff, approach, and landing.

A

High

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42
Q

OPERATING DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE
Above 37,000 feet ______PSI

A

8.35 ± .1

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43
Q

28,000 through 37,000 feet_______ ± .1 PSI

A

7.8

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44
Q

Below 28,000 feet _______
± .1 PSI

A

7.45

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45
Q

DUCT PRESSURE
Maximum cooling _____ PSI
Note: A duct pressure difference of more than _____ PSI may indicate a mechanical
malfunction. If a duct pressure split is observed after bleeds are
configured for flight, and the lowest indication is approximately _____ PSI or
less, contact maintenance.

A

20-25
>8
18

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46
Q

DUCT PRESSURE FOR TWO PACK OPERATION FROM ONE BLEED
SOURCE
Minimum ______ PSI
(700/800/900/9ER) Do not operate more than ______ pack from one engine.
(MAX) On the ground do not operate more than______pack from one engine

A

20-25
One pack (NG) All times
(ie. Don’t operate two packs from one bleed source)
One pack (MAX) Ground only

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47
Q

ICING CONDITIONS
WHEN:

A

Outside air temperature ⭐️10°C or below
and
• Visible moisture in any form is present (i.e., clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile
or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals), or
• While operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where snow, standing water,
or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or
engine sensor probes.

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48
Q

ENGINE ANTI-ICE
• Must be ON during all ground operations, including after landing, when icing
conditions exist or are anticipated.
• Must be ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are
anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is _________
• Must be ON prior to and during descent in all icing conditions, including
temperatures below -40°C SAT.
• Engine ignition must be selected to _______ prior to and during engine anti-ice
operation.

A

Below -40°C SAT.

CONT

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49
Q

WING ANTI-ICE
• Use wing anti-ice during all ground operations between engine start and
takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the aircraft is or
will be protected by the application of ________ or ___________
• Do not operate wing anti-ice on the ground when the OAT is __________

A

Type II or Type IV fluid.

above 10°C

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50
Q

During takeoff do not use wing anti-ice until after the
__________________
CAUTION: Use of wing anti-ice above approximately ___________ may cause
bleed trip off and possible loss of cabin pressure.

A

first thrust reduction.

FL 350

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51
Q

Window heat must be on
______ minutes before takeoff.

A

10

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52
Q

When must the Probe heat must be On?

A

Prior to T/O

53
Q

On takeoff or missed approach, do not engage autopilot below:
⭐️______ feet AGL

A

400

54
Q

AUTOLAND – MAXIMUM WINDS
Headwind ◘ ____knots
Crosswind ◘ ____knots
Tailwind (flaps 30 1 and 40) ◘ _____knots

A

25
15
10

(-900[401-412]) Flaps 30:
Field elevation 4000 feet or less – ◘ 10 knots
Field elevation 4001-6000 feet – 5 knots
Field elevation 6001 feet and above – 0 knots

55
Q

Use of _______ _____ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

aileron trim

56
Q

Minimum Altitude for Use of Autopilot on Approach
ILS/GLS coupled approaches (no autoland)⭐️

A

⭐️50 feet AGL

57
Q

Minimum Altitude for Use of Autopilot on Non-precision approaches⭐️

A

⭐️50 feet below MDA/DA

58
Q

Autopilot must be disconnected before descending below _____ feet AGL without a published MDA or DA.

A

500

59
Q

Autoland capability may only be used to runways at or below ________ pressure
altitude.

A

8400 feet

60
Q

The ILS autoland capability may only be used with flaps ________ and _______with both
___________ operative.

A

30 and 40

engines

61
Q

Maximum and minimum glideslope angles for autoland are _____ and _____
respectively

A

3.25° and 2.5°

62
Q

The autoland system shall not be used for __________ landings

A

overweight

63
Q

Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottle for approach if the associated _________
____________ is inoperative.

A

radio
altimeter

64
Q

______________with the First Officer as Pilot Flying are not authorized.

A

Autolands

65
Q

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below______ feet AFE.

A

1000⭐️

66
Q

In all cases other than autoland, the autothrottle must be disconnected no lower than____ feet AGL

A

50

67
Q

WI-FI SYSTEM
WARNING: Do not operate the KA GND TX ENABLE switch in
the OVERRIDE position or the WIFI COMM ENABLE /
BROADBAND SYSTEM switch in the ON position during
deicing, when….

A

maintenance is being performed in the
vicinity of the Wi-Fi radome, [MAX taxiing under a skybridge]
or in a hangar due to the presence of radio frequency
(RF) energies. Failure to follow this precaution can cause
personnel injury.

68
Q

SINGLE ENGINE DRIVE GENERATOR LOAD
Maximum

A

75 KVA – 215 amps

69
Q

BATTERY VOLTAGE FOR APU START

A

Minimum 23 volts

70
Q

ENGINE IGNITION
Ignition must be on for:

A

• Takeoff
• Landing
• Engine anti-ice operation
• Heavy rain

71
Q

ENGINE OIL PRESSURE
Oil pressure must be in ________ _______ for takeoff.

A

normal range

72
Q

Minimum oil pressure
(700/800/900/9ER)?
(MAX)?

A

NG 13 PSI
MAX. 17.4 PSI

73
Q

ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE
Minimum starting (MAX)?
Minimum takeoff (MAX)?

A

Minimum starting (MAX) -40°C
Minimum takeoff (MAX)
31°C

74
Q

ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE

Maximum?

A

155°C

75
Q

ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE

Maximum continuous

A

140°C

76
Q

ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE

Maximum allowable
NG? MAX?

A

NG. 155°C. 45 minutes
MAX. 155°C. 15 minutes

77
Q

ENGINE LIMIT DISPLAY MARKINGS
Maximum and minimum limits?
Cautionary range?
Normal operating range?

A

Red line
Amber arc
White arc

78
Q

MAXIMUM EGT LIMITS (700/800/900/9ER)
Takeoff?

A

(5 minutes) 950°C

79
Q

Maximum continuous

A

925°C

80
Q

Maximum Start EGT

A

725°C

81
Q

MAXIMUM EGT LIMITS (MAX)
Takeoff?
Maximum continuous?
Start?

A

(10 minutes) 1038°C

1013°C

753°C

82
Q

ENGINE STARTER DUTY CYCLE
Normal starter duty cycle:
• Multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted. Each start attempt is limited
to ______(700/800/900/9ER)
________(MAX) of starter usage.
• A minimum of ________ is needed between start attempts.

A

NG. 2 minutes
MAX. 3 minutes
10 seconds

83
Q

Extended engine motoring:
• (700/800/900/9ER) Starter usage is limited to ____ minutes for the first ____
extended engine motorings. A minimum of ___ minutes is needed between each
attempt.
• (700/800/900/9ER) For the third and subsequent extended engine motorings,
starter usage is limited to ____ minutes. A minimum of _____ minutes is needed
between each attempt.

A

First two:
15 min first two motorings
2 min between
Third and after:
5 min on / 10 min off

84
Q

• (MAX) Starter usage is limited to ____ minutes for all extended engine motorings.
A minimum of ___ minutes is needed between the first two extended engine
motorings.
• (MAX) For the third and subsequent extended engine motorings, a minimum of
____ minutes is needed between each engine motoring.

A

5 on / 5 off
Third and after:
10 min off

85
Q

RPM MAXIMUM
N1 & N2
(700/800/900/9ER)?
(MAX)?

A

NG. MAX
N1 104.0% 104.3%
N2 105.0% 117.5%

86
Q

REVERSE THRUST
Limitations (4)

A

◘ Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited.
-Use for ground operation only.
-Backing the airplane with the reverse thrust is prohibited.
-Do not attempt go-around after thrust reverser deployment on landing.

87
Q

ENGINE CONTROL (EEC)
Both EECs must be either_____ or _____ for takeoff.

A

ON or ALTN

88
Q

Operation with assumed temperature reduced for takeoff thrust is not permitted
with the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) in______ mode.

A

ALTN

89
Q

APU MAXIMUM ALTITUDE
APU bleed and electrical

A

10,000 feet

90
Q

APU bleed maximum altitude

A

17,000

91
Q

APU electrical load Max Altitude

A

41,000 feet

92
Q

ENGINE OIL QUANTITY
Minimum prior to engine start

A

70%

93
Q

Do not engage starter above_____ N2.

A

20%

94
Q

ENGINE STARTS IN AMBIENT TEMPERATURES BELOW________
Idle engine ________ before changing thrust lever position.

A

-35°C

2 minutes

95
Q

Tank fuel temperature prior to engine start must not be less than _______ or
________ above the fuel freezing point temperature, whichever is greater.

A

-43°C
3°C

96
Q

APU STARTER DUTY CYCLE
For both ground and in-flight starts, __________ cooling is required after ______
start attempt.

A

15-minute
3rd

97
Q

APU WARMUP
(700/800/900/9ER) Operate APU ________ before using APU bleed air.
(MAX) Operate APU______ before using APU bleed air.

A

1 minute

2 minutes

98
Q

APU SHUTDOWN
Wait a minimum of ________ for APU shutdown cycle to complete, then turn
battery switch to OFF.

A

120 seconds

99
Q

ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE PRESSURE

A

800 PSI at 70°F

100
Q

FLAP EXTENSION ALTITUDE
Maximum⭐️

A

⭐️20,000 feet

101
Q

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is:

A

prohibited

102
Q

In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the …

A

FLIGHT DETENT

103
Q

In flight, do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the ARMED detent with
flaps ____ selected

A

40

104
Q

Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ______ feet.

A

1000

105
Q

When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch,
allow _________ after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before
moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.
After a complete extend/retract cycle (i.e., 0 to 15 and back to 0) allow ________
cooling before attempting another extension.

A

15 seconds

5 minutes

106
Q

AIRSPEED TO EXTEND FLAPS WITH ALTERNATE SYSTEM
Maximum

A

230 knots

107
Q

MACH TRIM FAIL (BOTH CHANNELS)
Maximum speed

A

280 knots/.82 Mach

108
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer
altitude displays for RVSM operations is _____ feet.

A

200

109
Q

Field Elevation Max Difference Between
Captain and First Officer
Max Difference Between
Captain or First Officer
and Field Elevation
(feet)
Sea level to 5000?
5001 – 10,000?

A

Cpt/FO. FE
50 75
60 75

110
Q

Do not operate weather radar during _____, within _____ feet of a fuel spill, or within
_____ feet of people except in test mode.

A

fueling
50
15

111
Q

The FMCS with dual FMC operations may be used as primary means of
navigation for VOR and NDB final approach segments when authorized
for use with RNAV substitution via a ….

A

Company NOTAM or 10-7 page note.

112
Q

RNAV APPROACHES
Demonstrated Minimums

Autopilot/flight director
on: LNAV/VNAV engaged:

A

0.10 RNP

113
Q

LOCALIZER BACK COURSE APPROACHES
Localizer Back Course (LOC-BC) approaches are

A

not authorized

114
Q

ROUTE 2
Due to the possibility of FMC restarts, do not copy or enter any information into
RTE 2. During preflight, ensure that…

A

no information (including a departure or destination airport) is in RTE 2.

115
Q

TANK CAPACITY – USABLE
(700/800/900/9ER)
Wing tanks ?
Center tank?

A

8630 lbs. (x2)

28,803 lbs.

116
Q

Main wing tanks must be scheduled to be full if the center wing tank contains more than

A

1000 pounds of fuel

117
Q

Lateral fuel imbalance between wing tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be
_____. Fuel imbalance between main wing tanks for taxi, takeoff, flight, or landing must not exceed _____ pounds.

A

zero
1000

118
Q

CENTER TANK FUEL PUMPS
Intentional dry running of a center tank fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light
illuminated)

A

is prohibited.

119
Q

EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS
Fuel Crossfeed Valve Operational Check for Airplanes
with a Single Crossfeed Valve

Prior to each extended operations (ETOPS) flight, an operational check of the
fuel CROSSFEED valve must be performed. This check must be performed by
the flight crew prior to each ETOPS flight as part of the__________ procedure for
each specific extended range flight.
Perform an operational check of the fuel CROSSFEED valve during ______________________
during each extended range operation

A

pre-flight

the last hour of cruise flight

120
Q

CENTER TANK FUEL PUMPS
Center tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless

A

personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor LOW PRESSURE lights

121
Q

Minimum fuel for stationary ground operation of electric motor-driven hydraulic
pumps is ______ pounds in the related main tank.

A

1675

122
Q

HYDRAULIC QUANTITY
Maximum?
Minimum for dispatch?

A

105%

Above RF

123
Q

TIRE GROUNDSPEED
(700/800/900/9ER)
Maximum?
(MAX) Maximum?

A

195 knots

204 knots

124
Q

AUTOBRAKES
Arming the RTO feature is required on__________, if operable.

A

all takeoffs

125
Q

Autobrakes are not permitted with _______ inoperative.

A

antiskid

126
Q

Brake wear indicators should extend beyond_________
(with parking brake
set)

A

the brake flange

127
Q

GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM (GPWS)
Do not use the terrain display for:

A

navigation

128
Q

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited
within ______ of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport or runway not
contained in the GPWS terrain database.

A

15 NM

129
Q

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent
necessary to comply with a

A

TCAS II resolution advisory

✈️ 737 Flash cards (4 decks)

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