737 FM Flashcards

1
Q

The first flight of the day checks are:

A

⚫️Fire control panel(s) check
⚫️Oxygen mask test
⚫️Trim and main trim cutout
⚫️Weather radar/PWS
⚫️Voice recorder
⚫️Flight deck door condition/access system

F.O.O.W.V.F.

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2
Q

Once in the airplane, when must you consult the MEL if you have MX issue?

A

PRIOR TO TAKEOFF,
if a non-normal checklist is accomplished or a non-normal situation is identified, after completion of the checklist, the Minimum Equipment List is consulted to determine if dispatch relief is available.

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3
Q

If an amber caution light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall, but
extinguishes after MASTER CAUTION reset, completion of the associated
checklist is _____________.
Prior to takeoff, notify ________ of redundant system
failure. If in flight, use normal maintenance discrepancy procedures.

A

not required.

TOMC

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4
Q

TEST BRIEFING

A

TEST:
⚫️Type of non-normal or emergency. Brief the non-normal condition and
whether an emergency has been declared.
⚫️Evacuation: prepare or don’t prepare for a possible evacuation.
⚫️Special instructions
⚫️Time until landing. An estimate should be given of the approximate flight
time until landing.

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5
Q

There are some situations where pilots will plan to land at the nearest suitable
airport. These situations include, but are not limited to, conditions where: (6)

A

• The non-normal checklist states Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport.
• Fire or smoke continues.
• An engine fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage.
• Only one AC power source remains (engine or APU generator).
• Only one hydraulic system remains (the standby system is considered a
hydraulic system).
• Any other situation determined by the pilots to have a significant adverse
effect on safety if the flight is continued.

For smoke that continues or a fire that cannot be positively confirmed to be
completely extinguished, the earliest possible descent, landing, and evacuation must be accomplished.

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6
Q

If engine oil quantity is low.

Do you automatically shut the engine?

A

There are no non-normal checklists for engine oil quantity and no minimum oil
quantity limit (no amber or red line limit). After engine start there are no inflight
operating limitations for the engine oil quantity; therefore, there are no pilot
procedures based solely on a response to low oil quantity
(Basically, no automatic engine shutdown, watch other parameters to make sure engine limits are not exceed.)

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7
Q

REJECTED TAKEOFF CONSIDERATIONS
(Above and Below 100 knots)

A
Below 100 Knots
• Engine failure/exceedance
• Any fire indication
• Unsafe1/unable to fly
• PWS warning or caution
• Cabin smoke/fire
• System failure
• Unusual noise or vibration
• Tire failure
• Abnormal acceleration
• Takeoff configuration warning
• Any windshear warning or
microburst 
At or Above 100 Knots
• Engine failure
• Any fire indication
• Unsafe1/unable to fly
• PWS warning or caution
 ⛔️ 
WARNING: Master caution system annunciations are not
considered unsafe to fly
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8
Q

PREFLIGHT FLUIDS MINIMUM • Oil quantity ?

• Hydraulic quantity ?

A
  • Oil quantity (at/above 70%)

* Hydraulic quantity (No RF)

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9
Q

The Captain calls for the Before Push Checklist when both of the following
conditions are met:

A
  • Purser has given the cabin ready indication.

* All exterior doors are closed and flight deck door is secure

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10
Q

To avoid nuisance caution lights, consider leaving the center tank fuel pumps off for the takeoff roll when the center tank fuel is:

A

<1000 pounds

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11
Q

The engines should run at idle or taxi thrust for at least___________ prior to takeoff.
If the engines have been shut down for more than ________, they should be run at idle or taxi thrust for at least________.

A

3 minutes

5 hours/5 minutes

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12
Q

During engine start,

Fuel flow and EGT indication within ____ seconds

A

15 seconds

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13
Q

Aborted Start checklist in any of the following

conditions: (4)

A
  • N1 or N2 does not increase or increases very slowly after the EGT increases.
  • There is no oil pressure indication by the time the engine is stable at idle.
  • The EGT does not increase by 15 seconds after the engine start lever is moved to IDLE.
  • EGT rapidly approaches or exceeds the start limit.
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14
Q

Do not exceed ____ N1 within congested areas unless

cleared by appropriate personnel.

A

45%

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15
Q

TAXI SPEED

CAUTION: At speeds above _____ knots, exercise caution to avoid overcontrolling the nose wheel when using the tiller.

A

20 knots

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16
Q

The normal straight-away taxi speed should not exceed approximately _____ knots. When approaching a turn, speed should be slowed to the appropriate speed for the conditions; on a dry surface use approximately ____ knots.

A

Straight: 30 knots
Turns: 10 knots

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17
Q

If difference between Final Weight Manifest CG value and TAKEOFF REF CG value exceeds______, request new takeoff data.

A

3%

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18
Q

(EO) ENGINE OUT ACCELERATION HEIGHTS Small changes in variables can affect the EO acceleration heights, which may be different from the acceleration heights published on the 10-7 pages or the ACARS Takeoff Data message.
Unless superseded by a 10-7 page note or an Ops Alert, use ________ FMC acceleration heights for the NADP-1 and NADP-2 departures and
when programming the VNAV CLB page for NADP-2 departures.

A

UPLINKED

FMC T/O pg.2

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19
Q

Takeoff Data:

Request new takeoff data when: (3)

A
  • Using max thrust data and actual OAT is greater than TEMP
  • Using reduced thrust and actual OAT is greater than ASSMD TMP
  • Altimeter decreases by 1 hPa or .03 inches of mercury
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20
Q

Reduced Thrust Data:
If actual ____ is less than the printed value, use the 0-knot TW line or request new data. If actual ___ is more than the printed value, use the appropriate 5-knot or 10-knot TW line or request new data

A

Actual HW is < than printed

Actual TW > than printed

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21
Q

CAUTION:
VNAV shall not be armed on the ground if the engine failure
procedure for the takeoff runway contains conditions
requiring either of the following:

A

• The completion of a turn to a specified heading before
accelerating.
• Becoming established on a defined lateral course before
accelerating.
The above restriction does not apply if an engine failure
procedure only requires the initiation of a turn after takeoff
with subsequent acceleration at a specified engine-out
acceleration altitude.

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22
Q

When windshear conditions are possible, verify weather radar is displayed by _____________________.
Otherwise, PWS alerts may be unavailable until ____seconds after takeoff thrust application. The terrain display pop-up feature is still available if both pilots have weather radar displayed.

A

at least one pilot

12 seconds

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23
Q

Engine surge can occur with a strong crosswind or tailwind component if takeoff thrust is set before brake release. Therefore, the rolling takeoff procedure is strongly advised when crosswinds exceed________ or
tailwinds exceed_______.

A

20 knots

5 knots

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24
Q

When the aircraft is below ______ feet RA, full GA N1 can be determined by pushing a TO/GA switch a second time. This will set the reference N1 bugs for full GA thrust.

A

800 RA

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25
Q

Gusty Wind and/or Strong Crosswind Conditions

The use of this procedure should be based on the current weather
conditions and is at the discretion of the Captain.

A

• Use maximum takeoff thrust. Max thrust is selected by selecting N1 LIMIT
page and deleting SEL (assumed temperature) (1L).
• Use flaps 5 unless limited by obstacle clearance and/or climb gradient.
• Verify/set V-speeds.
If required, manually enter V-speeds. If Sabre returned a reduced thrust
solution, use the reduced thrust V-speeds to help minimize the gap between
V1 and VR. United Performance Engineering has authorized the use of
reduced thrust V-speeds as the aircraft will accelerate to those speeds earlier
during the takeoff roll using maximum thrust.
• Use VR MAX for increased airspeed at rotation.

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26
Q

Reduced thrust takeoffs are not authorized when:

A

• Gusty winds and/or strong crosswinds.
• Reported or suspected windshear.
• Snow, slush, or standing water penalty applied.
• MEL/CDL restriction prohibits use (Anti-Skid INOP, EEC in ALT mode)
• Maintenance Release Document (MRD) displays message stating MAX
THRUST TAKEOFF DUE (in this case, the first flight of the day should be
accomplished as a full rated takeoff).

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27
Q

CLIMB

The maximum bank angle after takeoff will be ____ degrees until reaching ______.
At an airspeed of V2+15 and above, bank angles of 30 degrees are allowable.

A

15 degrees

V2+15

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28
Q

The L2 method VNAV climb procedure:

How to set up? How/when will it accelerate? When would you use it?

A

(preflight entry of VM 0 [VREF 40+70]
on the TGT SPD line L2) will cause AFDS to command a smooth increase from
V2+20 to VM 0 upon selection of VNAV. When an acceleration is desired to above VM 0 select ECON on the CLIMB page.
Use when departing near terrain, departing in the opposite direction of your route or speed restrictions are present on SID

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29
Q

The L3 method VNAV climb procedure.

How to set up? How/when will it accelerate? When would you use it?

A

(preflight entry of VM 0 [VREF
40+70]/3000 feet AFE on the SPD REST line L3, and 250 knots on the TGT SPD line L2) will cause the AFDS to command a smooth increase from V2+20 to VM 0 upon selection of VNAV and from VM 0 to 250 knots at 3000 feet AFE. Upon reaching an altitude where the pilot wishes to accelerate to the scheduled climb speed (normally 10,000 MSL) select ECON on the CLIMB page.

Most common VNAV departure procedure.
Use when standard acceleration is desired.

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30
Q

The flap retraction altitude is no lower than ______ feet AFE for NADP-1
or _____ feet AFE for NADP-2 noise abatement profiles. Higher acceleration altitudes may be displayed on the ACARS Takeoff Data message.

A

3000 AFE (NADP-1)

800 AFE (NADP-2)

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31
Q

WARNING:
VNAV is the recommended pitch mode above _________.
Improper use of other pitch modes has resulted in undesired
aircraft states.

A

FL 250

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32
Q

For operations other than LNAV, when operating at or near maximum altitude,
fly at least ______ above the lower amber band and use bank angles of _____ or
less.

A

10 knots

10°

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33
Q

HOLDING PROCEDURE
ATC COORDINATION
Request the _______ __________ _____ _________ consistent with the expected further
clearance (EFC) time to minimize holding fuel burn.
DISPATCH COORDINATION
Notify ________ of holding location and EFC.

A

longest practical leg length

Dispatch

34
Q

If holding speeds are not available in the FMC, recommended holding speeds
can be approximated by using the following guidance until more accurate speeds
are obtained from Performance>Normal>Enroute>Holding:

A

• Flaps up maneuver speed approximates minimum fuel burn and may be used
at low altitudes.
• Above FL 250, use VREF 40+100 to provide full maneuver capability.

35
Q

Landing distance must be checked for the landing runway for any of the
following conditions:

A

• Landing at other than the planned destination
• Available runway less than 9000 feet
• Reported braking action less than dry (less than Runway Condition
Code 6)
• Using autobrakes less than 3
• Non-normal aircraft condition affecting stopping distance
• Landing with a tailwind
• Engine inoperative. Request ACARS data to ensure the most current
engine failure procedure is available for the missed approach MEL/CDL: ACARS landing data accounts for MEL/CDL items that have been deferred by Tech Ops. Applicable MEL/CDL items are listed on the ACARS Landing Data message.

36
Q

A flaps 40 landing should be considered in the following situations:

A
  • Short runway
  • Slippery runway
  • Reduced ceiling and visibility approaches
37
Q

Target speed, add __________ plus the____________
to VREF for the landing flap speed. Minimum target speed is VREF+5.
When making adjustments for winds, the maximum approach speed may not
exceed___________________, whichever is LOWER.

A

½ the steady headwind component + full gust value.

VREF+15 or landing flap placard speed minus 5 knots

38
Q
WARNING: The lowest altitude that may be set in the MCP window is the
FAF/FAP/GP Intcpt altitude until cleared for the approach
Set TDZE (rounded up to nearest 100 feet) in the MCP window when all of the following conditions have been met:
A

• Cleared for the approach.
• Established on a published approach segment (IAF inbound).
• Either of the following:
– At the FAF altitude.
– When established in VNAV on a published vertical profile with altitude
constraints assured.

39
Q

WARNING: Do not use level change on approach below_______ feet AFE.

A

1000

40
Q

WARNING: Do not change vertical mode from ______ without resetting
the _____ altitude to the next altitude constraint.

A

VNAV

MCP

41
Q

The minimums for a CAT I approach may be as low as_______ RVR.
Note: If weather conditions are below ______ RVR _______mile visibility, a _______ or ________ must be used.

A

1800 RVR
4000 RVR or ¾ mile
flight director or autopilot

42
Q

Observe the following operational parameters when LANDING on contaminated
runways:
• Maximum water/slush depth: _______
• Maximum snow depth: _______

A

Water/Slush: 1 inch

Snow: 6 inches

43
Q

When do we do the 2500’ call out?

A

1-After cleared for the approach,
2-below the transition level, and
3-no later than immediately following the 2500-foot callout.

44
Q

What do we say on the 2500’ call out?

A

⚫️PF &
⚫️PM

“_____ in/hPa”

45
Q

Missed Approach Climb Gradient: We can use lowest approach minimums, however if there is a special EO missed approach procedure we must follow that procedure even if we are doing a 2 engine go-around.
T/F?

A

True

Request alternate missed approach procedure (EO) with ATC due to performance

46
Q

What are Low visibility approaches ?

A

Low visibility approaches are defined as approaches with visibility minimums less than CAT I

47
Q

Below CAT I minimums,__________ approach procedures are required and the _________ is the PF.

A

Auto-land

Captain

48
Q

Which CAT minimums must be briefed when using low visibility approach procedures? (ie. Vis

A

Below CAT I minimums, pilots must brief the category of approach with the
lowest minimum that the aircraft and pilots are authorized to conduct, even if the latest reported weather would permit a category of approach that has a higher minimum.

49
Q
DECISION HEIGHT (DH)
CAT II/CAT III approaches use a DH based on:
A

the radio altimeter.

50
Q

CAT II approaches use the lowest RA published in the CAT II minimums box, but never less than:

A

100-foot DH.

51
Q

The DH for CAT III approaches is:

A

50 feet RA.

52
Q

A non-ILS/GLS approach is any instrument approach where:

A

electronic glideslope information is not provided by a ground-based navigation aid.

53
Q

Authorized non-ILS/GLS approaches are:

A

• RNAV approaches
Navigation reference is on-board aircraft systems (FMS) and not dependent on ground-based navaids. RNAV (GPS), RNAV (GNSS), RNP, RNAV (RNP), and
RNP (AR)
• VOR and NDB final approach segment substitution
(e.g., the navaid is out of service, receiver failure, or ADF
not installed)
• LOC and VOR approaches
Primary navigation reference is based on a ground-based navaid.

54
Q

When not flying an ILS what must we verify in the LEGS pg before using VNAV as vertical guidance on an approach?

A

When non-ILS/GLS approaches are coded with a glidepath angle that displays
on the LEGS page (GP x.xx), the FMC is capable of providing an accurate
vertical path to the runway.

55
Q

________ is the primary lateral mode for all non-ILS/GLS approaches other than
VOR/LOC approaches.
_______ is the preferred vertical mode for accomplishing non-ILS/GLS approaches.

A

LNAV

VNAV
• The use of VNAV on the final approach segment requires a line-selectable
approach with a coded GP angle.

56
Q

When using VNAV, the FMA must annunciate ______ ___

by the_______________.

A

VNAV PTH

FAF/FAP/GP Intcpt

57
Q

When VNAV is unavailable:
• Use ____.
• RNAV (RNP) approaches are ____ _________.

A

V/S

not authorized

58
Q

DERIVED DECISION ALTITUDE (DDA)
Adding 50 feet to the published DA/MDA(H) provides desired obstacle clearance during a go-around. This is known as a DDA.
Calculate and set a DDA for any of the following:

A

• Any published MDA(H), including those with a ball note indicating a DDA is
not required.
• VNAV is not available (or V/S used).
• Cold temperature altitude corrections entered

Use of VNAV on Final Approach to DA
VNAV may be used when conducting a non-ILS/GLS approach to a DA. If a DA is not published for the approach, 50 feet must be added to the published MDA (H). Adding 50 feet provides desired obstacle clearance during a go-around at minimums. When adding 50 feet to the MDA (H), the minimum is now known as a Derived Decision Altitude (DDA).

59
Q

AUTOPILOT USE
Autopilot use is required if the weather is less than____________.
RNAV (RNP) Approaches Use of the autopilot is __________ from ____ to _____regardless of reported weather conditions, except:
• The autopilot may be disconnected once the runway is in sight and can be
kept in sight throughout the approach and landing. Autopilot should be used
while on an RF leg.

A

1000/3

mandatory

IAF to DA

60
Q

On an RNAV Approach,

Do not request or accept a vector:

A
  • Direct to any waypoint beginning or within an RF leg.
  • To intercept a leg preceding an RF leg.
  • Direct to the FAF/FAP/GP Intcpt.
61
Q

RNAV APPROACH
VERT DEV error is not to exceed ______
inside the _______________.

A

75 feet

FAF/FAP/GP Intcpt.

62
Q
Speed intervention (as installed) may be used at the crew's discretion outside the\_\_\_\_\_\_ to comply with operational constraints. Inside the \_\_\_\_\_\_ fix,
the speed window should be closed unless operationally necessary to use MCP speed instead of FMC speed.
A

FAF

FAF

63
Q

Flight director and autothrottle go-around mode is available anytime below _____________.

A

2000 feet

64
Q

REVERSE THRUST
Maximum reverse thrust is initially required, immediately after main gear
touchdown, for all landings (greater than_____% N1)

Note: Reverse thrust is most effective at______ speeds.

Reduce reverse thrust to reverse _____ between _____ knots and taxi speed to prevent engine exhaust re-ingestion and to reduce the risk of FOD.

A

80%

high speeds

idle ~ 80 kts

65
Q

CAUTION: The nose wheel steering wheel should not be used above
taxi speeds of ____ knots.

A

20

66
Q
Allow engine(s) to operate at or near idle for \_\_\_ minutes recommended before
shutdown.
A

3 min

67
Q

Releasing the parking brake is not authorized under the following conditions
even when hot brakes are suspected:
(4)

A

• Sustained wind speeds or gusts of 25 knots or more (actual or forecast)
• Sustained wind speeds or gusts above 10 knots with ramp contaminate
(actual or forecast)
• Autopark system used without any confirmation that wheels are chocked
• Parked on the ramp area away from the gate.

68
Q

WARNING: Severe turbulence should be avoided if at all possible. If severe turbulence cannot be avoided, a descent_______ feet below optimum altitude is recommended to increase buffet margin.

A

4000

69
Q

If thrust
corrections are not satisfactory, deploy partial ________ ________
slowly until a noticeable reduction in airspeed is below
VMO/MMO.

A

speed brakes

70
Q

WINDSHEAR

When the words “_________,” “___________,” or “___________” are being broadcast by a controller, takeoff initiation or descents below 1000 feet AGL for the affected runway are prohibited.

A

microburst

microburst alert

shears of 30 knots or greater

71
Q
Severe windshear (below 1000AGL) may be indicated by :
(5)
A
  • ± one dot displacement from the glideslope
  • ± 5° pitch attitude
  • ± 15 knots indicated airspeed
  • ± 500 FPM vertical speed
  • An unusual throttle position for a significant period of time
72
Q

If there is a probability of windshear on T/O. What procedure should we consider?

A

⚫️ Max thrust
⚫️ Longest Runway
⚫️ Flaps 5
⚫️ Rotate at VR max

(Do not delay rotation beyond 2000 feet usable runway remaining)

73
Q

Resetting or cycling the following circuit breakers is prohibited:
(2)

A
  • Any tripped fuel boost pump circuit breaker
  • Any tripped fuel quantity indication system circuit breaker
74
Q

When can we RESET tripped a CB?

A

ONLY on the GROUND(with airplane stop/parking brake ON) AND under the direction of MX Control

(Wait at least 2 min for cooling)

75
Q

When can we CYCLE and CB?

A

Only when one of these conditions apply:

  • MX Control request (Ground ONLY)
  • FM/QRH procedure
  • Included in the approved CB table

(Wait at least 5 sec before closing CB)

76
Q

ENGINE START – FIRST FLIGHT OF THE DAY

If the temperature is below 5°C/41°F:

A

Ignition select switch . .BOTH
Engine start . . .Accomplish
After engine start:
Ignition select switch . . . . . IGN L or IGN R

77
Q

ENGINE START – HIGH ALTITUDE AIRPORT
(ABOVE 5000 FEET)
Use this procedure for ground engine starts above 5000 feet MSL.

A

⚫️ Engine start . . . . . .Accomplish
Prior to introducing Fuel observe all of the following:
-N1 rotation
-minimum N2 20%
-maximum motoring
Note: Maximum motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than 1% in
approximately 5 seconds.

78
Q

UPSET RECOGNITION AND RECOVERY

• Pitch attitude greater than ____nose up
• Pitch attitude greater than _____nose down
• Bank angle greater than ____
• Less than the above parameters but flying at an airspeed inappropriate for
the conditions.

A

25°

10°

45°

79
Q

Taxi Fuel (pounds per hour)
(700/800/900)
1 or 2 engines running
APU?

A
Two engines 1500 
Single engine 750 
APU Fuel (pounds per hour)
Idle – No loads 175
Supplying electrical load only 225
80
Q

During ORCA OPS aircraft speed should be within
_____ Mach of flight plan
(Pacific)

A

.02 Mach

81
Q

Class I definition

A

Flight operations within the operational service volume of the Nav aid defining the airway in use
OR
If using RNAV, aircraft position can be fixed at least once an hour using a Nav facility (130+465+130) =
725