LHA/LHD Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Advisory Control

A

A form of air traffic control in
which the controlling agency monitors radar and radio
contact with aircraft under its control and provides
traffic advisories. Traffic separation is the responsibility
of the individual pilot, with the assistance provided by
the control agency.

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2
Q

Air Capable Ship

A

All ships other than CV/CVN
or LHA/LHD from which aircraft can take off, be
recovered, or routinely receive and transfer logistic
support.

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3
Q

Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC)

A

The centralized air traffic control agency
for LHA/LHD responsible for maintaining the status
and operational control of aircraft departing the ship
and recovery of inbound aircraft after a mission is
completed. AATCC is responsible for providing IMC
approach and departure control services. Also, AATCC
is responsible for maintaining the status and tactical
control of airborne helicopters in support of amphibious
assaults as directed by Tactical Air Control Center
(TACC) Helicopter Coordination Section (HCS).

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4
Q

Amphibious Assault Aviation Ship

A

An LHA or LHD

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5
Q

Angels

A

Altitude in thousands of feet

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6
Q

Approach Control

A

A control station in AATCC
responsible for controlling air traffic within the control
area except that controlled by final, departure, or marshal
control. It also is responsible for providing positive
control for all CCA waveoff traffic until a radar handoff
to another control station has been accomplished.

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7
Q

Bent

A

A term used to identify when a radar or NAVAIDis

down/out of service.

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8
Q

Ball

A

A pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid

is in sight.

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9
Q

Bingo

A

An order to proceed and land at the field specified,
utilizing a bingo profile. Aircraft is considered to be in an emergency/fuel critical situation. Bearing, distance,
and destination shall be provided.

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10
Q

Buster

A

An order used by a ship controller to direct an

aircraft to proceed at maximum safe speed.

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11
Q

Charlie

A

A signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship. A
number suffix indicates time delay in minutes before
landing may be anticipated.

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12
Q

Clara

A

A pilot transmission meaning he does NOT have

the visual landing aid (meatball) in sight.

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13
Q

Control Area

A

A circular airspace with a radius of 50
nm around the ship that extends upward from the surface
to unlimited altitude and is under the cognizance of
AATCC.

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14
Q

Control Zone

A

The airspace within a circular limit
is defined by 5 nm horizontal radius from the ship,
extending upward from the surface to and including
2,500 feet unless otherwise designated for special
operations, and is under the cognizance of the air officer
during VMC.

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15
Q

Crutched

A

Refers to any helicopter in a folded
configuration with blade clamps and support poles
installed.

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16
Q

Dearming (safing)

A

An operation in which a weapon
is changed from a state of readiness for initiation to a
safe condition.

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17
Q

Dearming Area

A

That area where ordnance is changed
from a state of readiness to a safe condition. All
dearming evolutions are to be conducted in the dearming
area by the individual stores loading manual/checklist.
The area ahead/behind and/or surrounding the aircraft
shall be kept clear until all weapons/ordnance are
completely safe. When taxiing aircraft from the landing
area to the dearming area, care must be taken to
minimize exposure of the armed ordnance to personnel
and equipment.

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18
Q

Delta

A

A signal given to hold and conserve fuel at an
altitude and position appropriate to type aircraft and case
recovery in effect. Also a pattern around the ship used to
hold aircraft pending further clearance, assignment, etc.

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19
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude in feet corrected
for temperature and relative humidity. The higher the
ambient air temperature/relative humidity, the higher
the density altitude, resulting in a decrease in aircraft
performance.

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20
Q

Departure Control

A

A control station in AATCC that

is responsible for the orderly flow of departing traffic.

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21
Q

Divert

A

An order for an aircraft to proceed and land at the

field specified. This is a nonemergency situation.

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22
Q

Downloading

A

An operation that removes airborne

weapons/stores from an aircraft.

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23
Q

Easy Rider

A
Precision approach landing system used for
CCA approaches (SPN-46/35)
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24
Q

Emergency Expected Approach Time

A

The future time, assigned prior to launch,
at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound
or penetrate from a preassigned fix under lost
communications conditions.

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25
Q

EFB Emergency Final Bearing

A

A magnetic
heading provided by AATCC to all flightcrews prior to
launch to be used when executing emergency procedures
for communications failure in IMC. The emergency
marshal pattern shall be relative to the EFB and is
the final bearing for the lost communications tacan
approach.

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26
Q

Emergency Marshal

A

A marshal established by
AATCC and assigned to each aircraft prior to launch.
The emergency marshal consists of a radial, DME,
altitude, and emergency expected approach time.

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27
Q

Emission Control (EMCON)

A

Control of all
electromagnetic radiations, including electronic
communications, radar, and visual systems. During its
imposition, no electronic emitting device within the
designated bands shall be operated unless absolutely
essential to the mission of the force.

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28
Q

Expected approach time (EAT)

A

The future time
at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound from
a prearranged fix. Aircraft shall depart and commence
approach at assigned time if no further instructions are
received.

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29
Q

Father

A

Tacan

30
Q

Final Bearing

A

The magnetic bearing assigned by
AATCC for final approach. It is an extension of the
landing area centerline.

31
Q

Final Control

A

A control station in AATCC responsible
for controlling traffic in instrument meteorological
conditions until pilot reports “VMC” or “meatball” or
reaches approach minimums.

32
Q

Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility

A

A U.S. Navy fixed, shore-based
air traffic control facility. Designated to manage
offshore and inland operating areas and other assigned
airspace, including special use airspace. Provides
joint-use scheduling and control of surface, subsurface,
and airborne military platforms operating within and
transiting to and from these areas. Administers services
to support the coexistence of military government
and nongovernment agencies consistent with national
priorities.

33
Q

Gadget

A

All inclusive term for air search radar.

34
Q

Ground Resonance

A

A condition of geometric
imbalance on helicopters caused by offset dynamic
forces when the helicopter makes improper contact with
the deck. If allowed to continue, destruction of the
helicopter is imminent. Improper tiedowns aggravate
the onset of ground resonance.

35
Q

HERO safe ordnance

A

Any ordnance item that is
sufficiently shielded or otherwise so protected that
all EEDs/CADs contained by the item are immune to
adverse effects (safety or reliability) when the item is
employed in its expected shipboard RF environments,
provided that the general HERO requirements are
observed.

36
Q

HERO susceptible ordnance system

A

Any
ordnance system proven (by tests) to contain
EEDs/CADs that can be adversely affected by RF
energy to the point that the safety and/or reliability of
the system is in jeopardy when the system is employed
in expected shipboard RF environments.

37
Q

HERO unsafe ordnance

A

Any ordnance item is
defined as being HERO unsafe when its external wiring
is physically exposed; when tests are being conducted on
the item that result in additional electrical connections
to the item; when EEDs/CADs having exposed wire
leads are present, handled, or loaded; when the item
is being assembled/disassembled; or when the item
is in a disassembled condition. Ordnance items that
fall into the above classification may be exempted
from being classified as HERO unsafe ordnance as the
result of HERO tests conducted to determine specific
susceptibility.

38
Q

IMC

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms
of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling, are less
than the minimal specified for visual meteorological
conditions.

39
Q

KILO report

A

A pilot report indicating aircraft mission

readiness.

40
Q

Marshal

A

A bearing, distance, and altitude fix designated
by AATCC from which pilots shall orient holding and
from which initial approach shall commence.

41
Q

Marshal Control

A

A control station in AATCC that is

responsible for the orderly flow of inbound traffic.

42
Q

Meatball (or ball)

A

A pilot report indicating that
the VLA is in sight, e.g., amber beam of stabilized
glideslope indicator.

43
Q

Mixed Operations

A

Simultaneous fixed-wing and
helicopter air operations. Tiltrotor involvement with
either type aircraft in the appropriate mode does not
constitute mixed operations

44
Q

Monitor Control

A

The monitoring of radar and radio

channels for emergency transmissions.

45
Q

Mother

A

Parent Vessel

46
Q

NVD

A

Any device (NVG,
FLIR, low-light TC, etc.) that aids an individual’s vision
at night.

47
Q

Nonprecision approach

A

Radar-controlled
approach or an approach flown by reference to
navigation aids in which glideslope information is not
available.

48
Q

Nonradar Control

A

A form of air traffic control in
which the pilot flies according to a published procedure
or as prescribed by the controlling agency. Traffic
separation is provided by the controlling agency
using frequent pilot position reports and modified
separation criteria. This form of control is used in
case of emergency, when all shipboard control radar
is inoperative or, in the opinion of the AATCC officer,
unsafe.

49
Q

NVD Compatible

A

Lighting systems which are only
required for the unaided operator and shall have no
adverse effect on the operator equipped with ANVIS
devices. A system virtually invisible to the ANVIS
devices

50
Q

NVD Compliant

A

Components that are NVD
compatible, NVD shipboard friendly, and incompatible
systems which are dimmed, baffled or hidden from direct
line of sight of the aided operator. A NVD compliant
ship consisting of this lighting discipline can be used for
aided and unaided operations so the ship’s mission is
not compromised and the aided/unaided personnel can perform all their duties, tasks and functions in a safe and
efficient manner.

51
Q

NVD shipboard covert

A

NVD shipboard covert. Only required to be seen by
aided operators and cannot be detected by the unaided
observer.

52
Q

NVD shipboard friendly

A

Lighting systems which
are required to be seen by both the aided and unaided
operators simultaneously and/or independently. Has
spectral energy emitted in a controlled fashion to allow
direct aided view/recognition without impacting the
devices to the point that critical visual cues are washed
out or obscured.

53
Q

Operational Necessity

A

A mission associated with
war or peacetime operations in which the consequences
of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft
and crew.

54
Q

Ordnance Handling

A

The physical act of moving
explosive devices manually or with powered equipment
within the confines of the ship.

55
Q

Parrot

A

Military IFF/transponder

56
Q

PMC

A

An
administrative/logistics flight scheduled for transfer of
personnel and/or material to/from the ship. PMC does
not include lifts of combat troops for actual or training
vertical assaults or withdrawals.

57
Q

Pigeons

A

Magnetic bearing and distance from an aircraft to a specified location

58
Q

POGO

A

A term utilized by a controlling agency indicating
return to last assigned frequency if no contact
experienced on newly assigned frequency.

59
Q

POPEYE

A

A pilot term used to indicate that his aircraft has

entered IMC.

60
Q

Positive Control

A

A form of air traffic control in which
the controlling agency has radar and radio contact with
the aircraft being controlled and published approach
and departure procedures are complied with, or where
specific assignments regarding heading and altitude are
issued by the controller. While altitude separation is
provided by pilot maintaining assigned altitude, lateral
and time separation is the responsibility of the air traffic
controller. Speed changes may be directed by the air
traffic controller.

61
Q

Precision Approach

A

An approach in which azimuth
and glideslope information are provided to the pilot
(CCA).

62
Q

Primary Flight Control (PRIFLY)

A

The controlling
agency that is responsible for aircraft traffic control
within the control zone.

63
Q

Ramp Time

A

The time that the deck will be ready to
recover aircraft and an aircraft is expected to arrive at
the ramp.

64
Q

Raspberry

A

A ship-to-shore HF radio net, used for flight

following and administrative traffic concerning aircraft

65
Q

Tactical Air Control Center (TACC) (afloat)

A

When embarked, TACC is the primary
air control agency for the Expeditionary Strike
Group (ESG) and/or Amphibious Task Force (ATF),
responsible for all air operations supporting the
amphibious force. This control refers to all airborne
operations not incidental to the actual launch or recovery
of aircraft, instrument departure, approach and marshal.

66
Q

Tactical Direction

A

A form of nonradar control in
which tactical information is passed to an aircraft by
the controlling unit, but the aircraft commander is
responsible for navigation and safety.

67
Q

three nautical mile DME fix

A

A checkpoint in
a CCA on the final bearing 3 miles from the ship
through which all helicopters shall pass in a landing
configuration

68
Q

VMC

A

Weather conditions in which VFR applies,
expressed in terms of visibility, ceiling height, and
aircraft clearance from clouds along the flightpath.
When these criteria do not exist, IMC prevails and IFR
must be complied with.

69
Q

Case I

A

Fixed
wing weather ceiling to be no lower than 3,000 feet
and not less than 5-nm visibility (1,000-foot ceiling and
3-nm visibility for helicopters).

70
Q

Case II

A

Fixed wing weather ceiling to be no lower
than 1,000 feet and not less than 5-nm visibility unless
modified by ship’s commanding officer for special
operations (500-foot ceiling and 1-nm visibility absolute
minimum Case II for helicopters).

71
Q

Case III

A

V/STOL weather ceiling below 1,000 feet or
visibility below 5 nm or ceiling and visibility below
Case II minimums set by ship’s commanding officer for
special operations (below 500-foot ceiling or less than
1-nm visibility for helicopters).

72
Q

ZIPLIP

A

A condition that may be prescribed for flight
operations during day or night VMC under which
positive communications control is waived and radio
transmissions are held to the minimum necessary for
safety of flight.