Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

M1 immunology term 2 quiz 1 > levinson questions > Flashcards

levinson questions Flashcards

1
Q

402: C3 is cleaved to form C3a and C3b by C3 convertase. C3b is involved in all of the following except:
A: increasing vascular permeability
B: promoting phagocytosis
C: forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase
D: forming C5 convertase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
403: after binding to its specific antigen, a B lymphocyte may switch its:
A: immunoglobulin light chain isotype
B: immunoglobulin heavy chain class
C: variable region of the immunoglobulin heavy chain
D: constant region of the immunoglobulin light chain
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

404: diversity is an important feature of the immune system. which one of the following statements about it is incorrect?
A: humans can make antibodies with about 10^8 different VhxVl combinations
B: a single cell can synthesize IgM antibody then switch to IgA antibody
C: the hematopoietic stem cell carries the genetic potential to create more than 10^4 immunoglobulin genes
D: a single B lympocyte can produce antibodies of many different specificities, but a plasma cell is monospecific

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
405: C3a and C5a can cause:
A: bacterial lysis
B: vascular permeability
C: phagocytosis of IgE-coated bacteria
D: aggregation of C4 and C2
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
406: neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:
A: IgM
B: C1
C: C5a
D: C8
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

407: complement fixation refers to:
A: the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages
B: the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 C for 30 minutes
C: the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes
D: the interaction of C3b with mast cells

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
408: the classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with:
A: antigen 
B: B-factor
C: antigin-IgG complexes
D: bacterial lipopolysaccharides
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

409: patients with severely reduced C3 levels tend to have:
A: increased numbers of severe viral infections
B: increased numbers of severe bacterial infections
C: low gamma globulin levels
D: frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

410: individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have:
A: decreased resistance to viral infections
B: increased hypersensitivity reactions
C: increased frequency of cancer
D: decreased resistance to neisseria bacteremia

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

411: natural killer cells are:
A: b cells that can kill without complement
B: cytotoxic T cells
C: increased by immunization
D: able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

415: “isotype switching” of immunoglobulin clases by B cells involves:
A: simultaneous insertion of VH genes adjacent to each CH gene
B: successive insertion of a Vh gene adjacent to different Ch genes
C: activation of homologous genes on chromosome 6
D: switching of light chain types (kappa and lambda)

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

416: which one of the following pairs of genes is linked on a single chromosome?
A: V gene for lambda chain and C gene for kappa chain
B: C gene for gamma chain and C gene for kappa chain
C: V gene for lambda chain and B gene for heavy chain
D: C gene for gamma chain and C gene for alpha chain

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

417: idiotypic determinants are located within:
A: hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains
B: constant regions of light chains
C: constant regions of heavy chains
D: the hinge region

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
418: a primary immune response in an adult human requires approximately how much time to produce detectable antibody levels in the blood?
A: 12 hours
B: 3 days
C: 1 week
D: 3 weeks
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

419: the membrane IgM and IgG on the surface of an individual B cell:
A: have identical heavy chains but different light chains
B: are identical except for their Ch regions
C: are identical except for their Vh regions
D: have different Vh and Vl regions

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
420: during the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the:
A: Mu chain
B: gamma chain
C: epsilon chain
D: alpha chain
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

421: in the immune response to a hapten-protein conjugate, in order to get anti-hapten antibodies, it is essential that:
A: the hapten be recognized by helper T cells
B: the protein be recognized by helper T cells
C: the protein be recognized by B cells
D: the hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

423: which one of the following sequences is appropriate for testing a patient for antibody against the AIDS virus with the ELISA procedure? (the assay is carried out in a plastic plate with an incubation and a wash step after each addition except the final one.)
A: patient’s serum/enzyme substrate/HIV antigen/enzyme-labeled antibody against HIV
B: HIV antigen/patient’s serum/enzyme-labeled antibody against human gamma globulin/- enzyme substrate
C: enzyme-labeled antibody against human gamma globulin/patient’s serum/HIV antigen/enzyme substrate
D: enzyme-labeled antibody against HIV/HIV antigen/patient’s serum/enzyme sustrate

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
424: the best method to demonstrate IgG on the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section is the:
A: precipitin
B: complement fixation test
C: agglutination test
D: indirect fluorescent antibody test
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
427: which one of the following substances is not released by activated helper T cells?
A: alpha interferon
B: gamma interferon
C: interleukin-2
D: interleukin-4
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

432: which one of the following is not true of class I MHC antigens?
A: they can be assayed by a cytotoxic test that uses antibody and complement
B: one of their two polypeptide chains is a beta-2-microglobulin
C: they are encoded by at least three gene loci in the major histocompatibility complex
D: they are found mainly on B cells, macrophages, and activated T cells

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

434: an antibody directed against the idotypic determinants of a human IgG antibody would react with:
A: the Fc part of the IgG
B: an IgM antibody produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG
C: all human kappa chains
D: all human gamma chains

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

435: which one of the following is not true of the gene segments that combine to make up heavy chain gene?
A: many V region segments are available
B: several J segments and several D segments are available
C: V, D, and J segments combine to encode the antigen-binding site
D: A V segment and a J segment are preselected by an antigen to make up the variable-region portion of the gene

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
437: if an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected?
A: IgG
B: IgM
C: IgA
D: IgG and IgM
E: IgM and IgA
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

438: the antibody-binding site is formed primarily by:
A: the constant regions of H and L chains
B: the hypervariable regions of H and L chains
C: the hypervariable regions of H chains
D: the variable regions of H chains
E: the variable regions of L chains

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
439: the class of Ig present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is:
A: IgG
B: IgM
C: IgA
D: IgD
E: IgE
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

441: cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells:
A: from the same host infected with any virus
B: infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
C: infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
D: infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
E: infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
442: antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A: IgE
B: gamma interferon
C: class I MHC antigens
D: class II MHC antigens
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
443: which one of the following does not contain C3b?
A: classic-pathway C5 convertase
B: alternative-pathway C5 convertase
C: classic-pathway C3 convertase
D: alternative-pathway C3 convertase
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

444: which one of the following is not true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A: it can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody
B: it does not require C1, C2 or C4
C: it cannot be initiated unless C3b fragments are already present
D: it has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

447: complement lyses cells by:
A: enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B: activation of adenylate cyclase
C: insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
D: inhibition of elongation factor 2

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
449: which one of the following properties of antibodies is not dependent on the structure of the heavy chain constant region?
A: ability to cross the placenta
B: isotype (class)
C: ability to fix complement
D: affinity for antigen
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

456: your patient became ill 10 days ago with a viral disease. laboratory examination reveals that the patient’s antibodies against this virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. what is your conclusion?
A: it is unlikely that the patient has encountered this organism previously
B: the patient is predisposed to IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
C: the information given is irrelevant to previous antigen exposure
D: it is likely that the patient has an autoimmune disease

A

A

34
Q

457: if you measure the ability of cytotoxic T cells from a HLA-B27 person to kill virus X-infected target cells, which one of the following statements is correct?
A: any virus x-infected target cell will be killed
B: only virus x-infected cells of HLA-B27 type will be killed
C: any HLA-B27 cell will be killed
D: no HLA-B27 cell will be killed

A

B

35
Q 
460: the role of macrophage during an antibody response is to:
A: make antibody
B: lyse virus-infected target cells
C: activate cytotoxic T cells
D: process antigen and present it
A

D

36
Q 
462: complement can enhance phagocytosis because of the presence on macrophages and neutrophils of receptors for:
A: factor D
B: C3b
C: C6
D: C9
A

B

37
Q 
463: the main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that:
A: it can be administered orally
B: it provides antibody more rapidly
C: antibody persists for a longer period
D: it contains primary IgM
A

B

38
Q

464: on Jan. 15, a patient developed an illness suggestive of influenza, which lasted 1 week. On feb. 20, she had a similar illness. she had no influenza immunization during this period. her hemagglutination inhibition titer to influenza A virus was 10 on Jan. 18, 40 on Jan 30, and 320 on Feb. 20. Which one of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?
A: the patient was ill with influenza A on Jan 15
B: the patient was ill with influenza A on feb 20
C: the patient was not infected with influenza virus
D: the patient has an autoimmune disease

A

A

39
Q

465: an individual who is heterozygous for Gm allotypes contains two allelic forms of IgG in serum, but individual lymphocytes produce only one of the two forms. this phenomenon, known as “allelic exclusion” is consistent with:
A: a rearrangement of a heavy chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte
B: rearrangements of heavy chain genes on both chromosomes in a lymphocyte
C: a rearrangement of a light chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte
D: rearrangements of light chain genes on both chromosomes in a lymphocyte

A

A

40
Q

466: each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct except:
A: they are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B: they are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C: they are codominantly expressed
D: they are important in the skin test to mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

D

41
Q

468: regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one of the following is least accurate?
A: Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity
B: Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity
C: both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane
D: before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are double-positive (ie they produce both gamma interferon and interleukin-4)

A

D

42
Q

469: each of the following statements concerning the variable regions of heavy chains and the variable regions of light chains in a given antibody molecule is correct except:
A: they have the same amino acid sequence
B: they define the specificity for antigen
C: they are encoded on different chromosomes
D: they contain the hypervariable regions

A

A

43
Q

470: each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct except:
A: they are found on the surface of both B and T cells
B: they have a high degree of polymorphism
C: they are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
D: they have a binding site for CD4 proteins

A

A

44
Q 
471: which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is correct?
A: allotypes are found only on heavy chains
B: allowtypes are determined by class I MHC genes
C: allotypes are confined to the variable regions
D: allotypes are due to genetic polymorphisms within a species
A

D

45
Q

473: each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct except:
A: the spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody
B: the myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely
C: the antibody produced by a hydridoma cell is IgM, because heavy chain switching does not occur
D: the antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogenous (ie it is directed against a single epitope)

A

C

46
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: T cells
B: B cells
C: macrophages
D: B cells and macrophages
E: T cells, B cells, and macrophages

477: major source of interleukin-2

A

A

47
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: T cells
B: B cells
C: macrophages
D: B cells and macrophages
E: T cells, B cells, and macrophages

478: express class I MHC markers

A

E

48
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: T cells
B: B cells
C: macrophages
D: B cells and macrophages
E: T cells, B cells, and macrophages

479: express class II MHC markers

A

D

49
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: T cells
B: B cells
C: macrophages
D: B cells and macrophages
E: T cells, B cells, and macrophages

480: express surface immunoglobulin

A

B

50
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: primary antibody response
B: secondary antibody response

481: appears more quickly and persists longer

A

B

51
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: primary antibody response
B: secondary antibody response

482: relatively richer in IgG

A

B

52
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: primary antibody response
B: secondary antibody response

483: relatively richer in IgM

A

A

53
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: primary antibody response
B: secondary antibody response

484: typically takes 7 to 10 days for antibody to appear

A

A

54
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: variable region of light chain
B: variable region of heavy chain
C: variable regions of light and heavy chains
D: constant region of heavy chain
E: constant regions of light and heavy chains

489: determines IG class

A

D

55
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: variable region of light chain
B: variable region of heavy chain
C: variable regions of light and heavy chains
D: constant region of heavy chain
E: constant regions of light and heavy chains

490: determines allotypes

A

E

56
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: variable region of light chain
B: variable region of heavy chain
C: variable regions of light and heavy chains
D: constant region of heavy chain
E: constant regions of light and heavy chains

491: determines idiotypes

A

C

57
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: variable region of light chain
B: variable region of heavy chain
C: variable regions of light and heavy chains
D: constant region of heavy chain
E: constant regions of light and heavy chains

492: binding of IgG to macrophages

A

D

58
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: variable region of light chain
B: variable region of heavy chain
C: variable regions of light and heavy chains
D: constant region of heavy chain
E: constant regions of light and heavy chains

493: fixation of complement by IgG

A

D

59
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: variable region of light chain
B: variable region of heavy chain
C: variable regions of light and heavy chains
D: constant region of heavy chain
E: constant regions of light and heavy chains

494: antigen-binding site

A

C

60
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgM
B: IgG
C: IgA
D: IgE

502: crosses the placenta

A

B

61
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgM
B: IgG
C: IgA
D: IgE

503: can contain polypeptide chain not synthesized by a B lymphocyte

A

C

62
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgM
B: IgG
C: IgA
D: IgE

504: found in the milk of lactating women

A

C

63
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgM
B: IgG
C: IgA
D: IgE

505: binds firmly to mast cells and triggers anaphylaxis

A

D

64
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: agglutination
B: precipitin test
C: immunofluorescence
D: enzyme immunoassay

506: concentration of IgG in serum

A

D

65
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: agglutination
B: precipitin test
C: immunofluorescence
D: enzyme immunoassay

507: surface IgM on cells in a bone marrow smear

A

C

66
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: agglutination
B: precipitin test
C: immunofluorescence
D: enzyme immunoassay

508: growth hormone in serum

A

D

67
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: agglutination
B: precipitin test
C: immunofluorescence
D: enzyme immunoassay

509: type A blood group antigen on erythrocytes

A

A

68
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgA
B: IgE
C: IgG
D: IgM

510: present in highest concentration in serum

A

C

69
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgA
B: IgE
C: IgG
D: IgM

511: present in highest concentrations in secretions

A

A

70
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgA
B: IgE
C: IgG
D: IgM

512: present in lowest concentration in serum

A

B

71
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: IgA
B: IgE
C: IgG
D: IgM

513: contains 10 heavy and 10 light chains

A

D

72
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: class I MHC proteins
B: class II MHC proteins

518: involved in the presentation of antigen to CD4-positive cells

A

B

73
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: class I MHC proteins
B: class II MHC proteins

519: involved in the presentation of antigen to CD8-positive cells

A

A

74
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: class I MHC proteins
B: class II MHC proteins

520: involved in antibody responses to T-dependent antigens

A

B

75
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: class I MHC proteins
B: class II MHC proteins

521: involved in target cell recognition by cytotoxic T cells

A

A

76
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: Fab fragment of IgG
B: Fc fragment of IgG

522: contains an antigen-combining site

A

A

77
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: Fab fragment of IgG
B: Fc fragment of IgG

523: contains hypervariable regions

A

A

78
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: Fab fragment of IgG
B: Fc fragment of IgG

524: contains a complement-binding site

A

B

79
Q

17: regarding the function of chemokines in host defenses, which one of the following is the most accurate?
A: chemoknes bind to the t-cell receptor outside of the antigen-binding site and activate many T cells
B: chemokines induce gene switching in B cells that increases the amount of IgE synthesized, thereby predisposing to allergies
C: chemokines penetrate the membranes of target cells during attack of cytotoxic t cells
D: chemokines attract neutrophils to the site of bacterial infection, thereby playing a role in the inflammatory response

A

D

80
Q

20: which one of the following is most likely to induce an IgM antibody response withouth the participation of helper T cells?
A: bacterial capsular polysaccharide
B: toxic shock syndrome toxin
C: penicillin-bovine serum albumin (BSA) complex
D: tetanus toxoid

A

A

81
Q

40: which one of the following laboratory tests would be the best to order to determine the number of CD4 positive cells in a patient infected with HIV?
A: agglutination
B: enzyme-liked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C: flow cytometry
D: immunoelectrophoresis
E: ouchterlony gel assay

A

C

M1 immunology term 2 quiz 1 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions