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virology term 2 quiz 3 > levinson questions > Flashcards

levinson questions Flashcards

1
Q

159: viruses enter cells by adsorbing to specific sites on the outer membrane of cells. each of the following statements regarding this event is correct except:
A: the interaction determines the specific target organs for infection
B: the interaction determines whether the purified genome of a virus infection
C: in interaction can be prevented by neutralizing antibody
D: if the sites are occupied, interfere with virus infection occurs

A

B

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2
Q

160: many viruses mature by budding through the outer membrane of the host cell. each of the following statements regarding these viruses is correct except:
A: some of these viruses cause multinucleated giant cell formation
B: some new viral antigens appear on the surface of the host cell
C: some of these viruses contain host cell lipids
D: some of these viruses do not have an envelope

A

D

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3
Q

161: biochemical analysis of a virus reveals the genome to be composed of eight unequally sized pieces of single-stranded RNA, each of which is complementary to viral mRNA in infected cells. which one of the following statements is unlikely to be correct?
A: different proteins are encoded by each segment of the viral genome
B: the virus particle contains a virus-encoded enzyme that can copy the genome into its complement
C: purified RNA extracted from the virus particle is infectious
D: the virus can acquire new antigens via reassortment of its RNA segments

A

C

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4
Q 
162: latency is an outcome particuarly characteristic of which one of the following virus groups?
A: polioviruses
B: herpesviruses
C: rhinoviruses
D: influenza viruses
A

B

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5
Q

163: each of the following statements concerning viral serotypes is correct except:
A: in naked nucleocapsid viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the outer capsid proteins
B: in enveloped viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the outer envelope proteins, especially the spike proteins
C: some viruses have multiple serotypes
D: some viruses have an RNA polymerase that determines serotype

A

D

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6
Q

164: the ability of a virus to produce disease can result from a variety of mechanisms. which one of the following is least likely?
A: cytopathic effect in infected cells
B: malignant transformation of infected cells
C: immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface of infected cells
D: production of an exotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase

A

D

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7
Q 
165: which one of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A: passive immunity
B: passive-active immunity
C: active immunity
D: cell-mediated immunity
A

A

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8
Q

170: a stock of virus particles has been found by electron microscopy to contain 10^8 particles/mL, but a plaque assay reveals only 10^5 plaque-forming units/mL. the best interpretation of these results is that:
A: only one particle in 1000 is infectious
B: a nonpermissive cell line was used for the plaque assay
C: several kinds of viruses were present in stock
D: the virus is a temperature-sensitive mutant

A

A

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9
Q

172: each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct except:
A: they elicit antibody that neutralizes infectivity of the virus
B: the determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction
C: they participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope membrane
D: they protect the genetic material against nucleases

A

C

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10
Q

block 1, 2: your summer research project is to study the viruses that cause upper respiratory tract infections. you have isolated a virus from a patient’s throat and find that its genome is RNA. futhermore, you find that the genome is the complement of viral mRNA within the infected cell. Of the following, which one is the MOST appropriate conclusion you could draw?
A: the virion contains a polymerase
B: the purified genome RNA is infectious
C: the genome RNA is segmented
D: a single-stranded DNA is synthesized during replication
E: the genome RNA encodes a precursor polypeptide that must be cleaved by a protease

A

A

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11
Q

167: you have isolated a virus from the stool of a patient with diarrhea and shown that its genome is composed of multiple pieces of double-stranded RNA. which one of the following is least likely to be true?
A: each piece of RNA encodes a different protein
B: the virus encodes an RNA-directed RNA polymerase
C: the virion contains an RNA polymerase
D: the genome integrates into the host chromosome

A

D

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12
Q

173: each of the following statements concerning viral vaccines is correct except:
A: in live, attenuated vaccines, the virus has lost its ability to cause disease but has retained its ability to induce neutralizing antibody
B: in live, attenuated vaccines, the possibility of reversion to virulence is of concern
C: with inactivated vaccines, IgA mucosal immunity is usually induced
D: with inactivated vaccines, protective immunity is due mainly to the production of IgG

A

C

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13
Q

174: the major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory infections by immunization is:
A: the poor local and systemic immune response to these viruses
B: the large number of serotypes of the rhinoviruses
C: the side effects of the vaccine
D: the inability to grow the viruses in cell cultures

A

B

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14
Q

191: each of the following statements about both poliovirus and rhinoviruses is correct except:
A: they are noneveloped RNA viruses
B: they have multiple antigenic types
C: their virons contain an RNA polymerase
D: they do not integrate their genome into host cell DNA

A

C

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15
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: DNA enveloped virus
B: DNA non-enveloped virus
C: RNA enveloped virus
D: RNA non-enveloped virus

196: rotavirus

A

D

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16
Q

214: each of the following statements regarding poliovirus and its vaccine is correct except:
A: poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
B: pathogenesis by poliovirus primarily involves the death of sensory neurons
C: the live, attenuated vaccine contains all three serotypes of poliovirus
D: an unimmunized adult traveling to countries where there is a known risk of being infected with poliovirus should receive the inactivated virus

A

B

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17
Q

215: which one of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus?
A: paranteral (intramuscular) immunization with inactivated vaccine
B: oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin
C: parenteral immunization with live vaccine
D: oral immunization with live vaccine

A

D

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18
Q 
245:  which of the following conditions is least likely to be caused by adenoviruses?
A: conjunctivitis
B: pneumonia
C: pharyngitis
D: glomerulonephritis
A

D

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19
Q

260: each of the following statements concerning rhinoviruses is correct except
A: rhinoviruses are picornaviruses (ie small, noneneveloped viruses with an RNA genome)
B: rhinoviruses are an important cause of lower respiratory tract infections, especially in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C: rhinoviruses do not infect the GI tract because they are inactivated by the acid pH in the stomach
D: there is no vaccine against rhinoviruses because there are too many antigenic types

A

B

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20
Q

265: each of the following statements concerning adenovirus is correct except:
A: adenoviruses are composed of a double-stranded DNA genome and a capsid without an envelope
B: adenoviruses cause both sore throat and pneumonia
C: adenoviruses have only one serologic type
D: adenoviruses are implicated as a cause of tumors in animals but not humans

A

C

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21
Q

268: each of the following statements concerning rhinoviruses is correct except:
A: rhinoviruses are the most common cause of the common cold
B: rhinoviruses grow better at 33 C than at 37 C, hence they tend to cause disease in the upper respiratory tract rather than the lower respiratory tract
C: rhinoviruses are members of the picornaviruses family and hence resemble poliovirus in their structure and replication
D: the immunity provided by the rhinovirus vaccine is excellent because there is only one serotype

A

D

22
Q

269: which one of the following statements concerning poliovirus infection is correct?
A: congenital infection of the fetus is an important complication
B: the virus replicates extensively in the GI tract
C: A skin test is available to determine prior exposure to the virus
D: amantadine is an effective preventive agent

A

B

23
Q

block two, 12: the two most common types of viral vaccines are killed vaccines adn live, attenuated vaccines. Regarding these vaccines, which one of the following statements is the most accurate?
A: killed vaccines induce a longer-lasting response than do live, attenuated vaccines
B: killed vaccines are no longer used in this country because they do not induce secretory IgA
C: killed vaccines induce a broader range of immune responses than do live, attenuated vaccines
D: killed vaccines are safer to give to immunocompromised patients than are live, attenuated vaccines

A

D

24
Q

block two, 29: regarding poliovirus, which one of the following is most accurate?
A: poliovirus remains latent within sensory ganglia, and reactivation occurs primarily in immunocompromised patients
B: when the live, attenuated virus in the oral vaccine replicates, revertant mutants can occur that can cause paralytic polio
C: the widespread use of the killed vaccine in the countries of North and South America has led to the virtual elimination of paralytic polio in these areas
D: the current recommemdation is to give the live, attenuated vaccine for the first 3 immunizations to prevent the child from acting as a reservoir, followed by boosters using the killed vaccine

A

B

25
Q

clinical cases 9: a 20-year-old man has a severe headache and vomiting that began yesterday. he is now confused. on examination, his temperature si 39 degres C and his neck is stiff. Spinal fluid reveals no bacteria on Gram stain, 25 lymphs, normal protein, and normal glucose. culture of the spinal fluid on blood agar shows no bacterial colones. Diagnosis?

A

viral meningitis, which is most often caused by coxsackie virus. can isolate the virus from spinal fluid.

26
Q

clinical cases 11: a 3-month-old girl has watery, nonbloody diarrhea. stool culture reveals only normal enteric flora. Diagnosis?

A

think rotavirus, the most common cause of diarrhea in infants. the elisa test for rotavirus antigen in the stool is positive, which confirms the diagnosis

27
Q

166: which one of the following statements concerning interferons is least accurate?
A; interferons are proteins that influence host defenses in many ways, one of which is the induction of antiviral state
B: interferons are synthesized only by virus-infected cells
C: interferons inhibit a broad range of viruses, not just the virus that induced the interferon
D: interferons induce the synthesis of a ribonuclease that degrades viral mRNA

A

B

28
Q

175: the feature of the influenza virus genome that contributes most to the antigenic variation of the virus is:
A: a high G+C content, which augments binding to nucleoproteins
B: inverted repeat regions, which create “sticky ends”
C: segmented nucleic acid
D: unique methylated bases

A

C

29
Q

177: each of the following statements concerning interferon is correct except:
A: interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA
B: interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA
C: interferon made by cells of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species than in the cells of other species
D: interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell

A

D

30
Q

178: each of the following statements concerning the viruses that infect humans is correct except:
A: only viruses with a negative polarity RNA genome have a polymerase in the virion
B: the purified nucleic acid of some viruses is infectious, but at a lower efficiency than the intact virions
C: some viruses contain lipoprotein envelopes derived from the plasma membrane of the host cell
D: the nucleic acid of some viruses is single-stranded DNA and that of others is double-stranded RNA

A

A

31
Q

179: which one of the following statements about virion structure and assembly is correct?
A: most viruses acquire surface glycoproteins by budding through the nuclear membrane
B: helical nucleocapsids are found primarily in DNA viruses
C: the symmetry of virus particles prevents inclusion of any nonstructural proteins, such as enzymes
D: enveloped viruses use a matrix protein to mediate interactions between viral glycoproteins in the plasma membrane and structural proteins in the nucleocapsid

A

D

32
Q

181: viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. each of the following statements concerning this fact is correct except:
A: viruses cannot generate energy outside of the cell
B: viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells
C: viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
D: enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes

A

C

33
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: attachment and penetration of virion
B: viral mRNA synthesis
C: viral protein synthesis
D: viral genome DNA synthesis
E: assembly and release of progeny virus

198: main site of action of amantadine

A

A

34
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: attachment and penetration of virion
B: viral mRNA synthesis
C: viral protein synthesis
D: viral genome DNA synthesis
E: assembly and release of progeny virus

199: function of virion polymerase of influenza virus

A

B

35
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: attachment and penetration of virion
B: viral mRNA synthesis
C: viral protein synthesis
D: viral genome DNA synthesis
E: assembly and release of progeny virus

201: step at which budding occurs

A

E

36
Q

219: each of the following statements concerning influenza is correct except:
A: major epidemics of the disease are caused by influenza A viruses rather than influenza B and C viruses
B: likely sources of new antigens for influenza A viruses are the viruses that cause influenza in animals
C: major antigenic changes (shifts) of viral surface proteins are seen primarily in influenza A viruses rather than in influenza B and C viruses
D: the antigenic changes that occur with antigenic drift are due to reassortment of the multiple pieces of the influenza virus genome.

A

D

37
Q 
221: a 6-month-old child develops a persistent cost and a fever. physical examination and chest x-ray suggest pneumonia. which one of the following organisms is least likely to cause this infection?
A: respiratory syncytial virus
B: adenovirus
C: parainfluenza virus
D: rotavirus
A

D

38
Q

224: each of the following statements concerning respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is correct except:
A: RSV has a single-stranded RNA genome
B: RSV induces the formation of multinucleated giant cells
C: RSV causes pneumonia primarily in children
D: RSV infections can be effectively treated with acyclovir

A

D

39
Q

225: the principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be:
A: people in isolated communities such as the arctic
B: animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
C: soil, especially in the tropics
D: sewage

A

B

40
Q

243: there are several influenza vaccines in the US. regarding these vaccines, which one of the following statements is least accurate?
A: one of the vaccines contains purified peptide subunits of neuraminidase produced in yeast
B: one of the vaccines consisting of formaldehyde-treated influenza virions
C: one of the vaccines contains a temperature sensitive mutant of influenza virus that replicates in the nose but not the lungs
D: influenza vaccines contain influenza A and B strains but not C

A

A

41
Q 
244: which of the following is the most common lower respiratory pathogen in infants
A: respiratory syncytial viurs
B: adenovirus
C: rhinovirus
D: coxsackie virus
A

A

42
Q

264: each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct except:
A: antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are due to the reassortment of segments of the viral genome
B: antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase
C: the worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts
D: the protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucloprotein

A

D

43
Q

block 1, 2: your summer research project is to study the viruses that cause upper respiratory tract infections. you have isolated a virus from a patient’s throat and find that its genome is RNA. furthermore, you find that the genome is the complement of viral mRNA within the infected cell. of the following, which one is the most appropriate conclusion you could draw?
A: the virion contains a polymerase
B: the purified genome RNA is infectious
C: the genome RNA is segmented
D: a single-stranded DNA is synthesized during replication
E: the genome RNA encodes a precursor polypeptide that must be cleaved by a protease

A

A

44
Q

block 2, 2: the purified genome of certain RNA viruses can enter a cell and elicit the production of progeny viruses (ie the genome is infectious). regarding these viruses, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
A: they have a segmented genome
B: they have a polymerase in the virion
C: their genome RNA is double-stranded
D: they encode a protease that cleaves a precursor polypeptide
E: their genome RNA has the same base sequence as mRNA

A

E

45
Q 
233: a 30-year-old man develops fever and jaundice. he consults a physician, who finds that blood tests for HBs antigen and anti-HBs antibody are negative. which one of the following additional tests is most helpful to establish that hepatitis was indeed due to hep B virus?
A: HBe antigen
B: Anti-HBc antibody
C: Anti-HBe antibody
D: delta antigen
A

B

46
Q

234: which one of the following is the most reasonable explanation for the ability of hepatitis B virus to cause chronic infection?
A: infection does not elicit the production of antibody
B: the liver is an immunologically sheltered site
C: viral DNA can persist within host cell
D: many humans are immunologically tolerant to HBs antigen

A

C

47
Q 
235: the routine screening of transfused blood for HBs antigen has not eliminated the problem of posttransfusion hepatitis. For which one of the following viruses has screening eliminated a large number of cases of posttransfusion hepatitis?
A: hepatitis A virus
B: hepatits B virus
C: cytomegalovirus
D: EBV
A

B

48
Q 
236: a 35-year-old man addicted to IV drugs has been a carrier of HBs antigen for 10 years. he suddenly develops acute fulminant hepatits and dies within 10 days. which one of the following laboratory tests would contribute most to a diagnosis?
A: anti-HBs antibody
B: HBe antigen
C: anti-HBc antibody
D: anti-delta virus antibody
A

D

49
Q

254: each of the following statements concerning hepatits C virus (HCV) and hepatits D virus (HDV) is correct except:
A: HCV is an RNA virus that causes posttransfusion hepatitis
B: HDV is a defective virus that can replicate only in a cell that is also infected with hepatits B virus
C: HDV is transmitted primarily by the fecal-oral route
D: people infected with HCV commonly become chronic carriers of HCV and are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma

A

C

50
Q

275: each of the following statements concerning hepatits A virus (HAV) is correct except:
A: the hepatits A vaccine contains inactivated HAV as the immunogen
B: HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children
C: the diagnosis of hepatits A is usually made by isolating HAV in cell culture
D: gamma globulin is used to prevent hepatits A in exposed persons

A

C

51
Q

block one, 19: regarding hepatitic C virus (HCV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV), which one of the following is most accurate?
A: HCV is transmitted by blood, but HDV is not
B: more than half of HCV infections result in a chronic carrier state
C: there is an effective vaccine against HCV but not against HDV
D: both HCV and HDV are defective RNA viruses and require concurrent HBV infection to replicate

A

B

52
Q

What are the only non enveloped virus in our course?

A 
Pico
Reo (rota)
Adeno
Calci (Norwalk)
Hep E
Parvo B19
Papovirus

virology term 2 quiz 3 (7 decks)

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