Levine Flashcards

1
Q

Two fundamental processes involve DNA and two involve RNA in bacteria and mammalian cells. What are they?

A

DNA: Replication and transcription RNA: Transcription and translation

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2
Q

What four features differentiate the structure of RNA from that of DNA.

A
  • Contains ribose instead of 2-deoxyribose
  • Has uridine instead of thymidine
  • Single stranded
  • Alkali-labile
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3
Q

What are the 4 requirements of DNA dependent RNA polymerase?

A
  • Core enzyme
  • DNA strands
  • Mg & Zn ions
  • NTPs
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4
Q

To what do the terms ‘template strand’ and ‘coding strand’ refer?

A

The ‘template strand’ is a DNA strand that is transcribed to RNA. The ‘coding strand’ is the DNA strand complementary to the ‘template strand’ and whose nucleotide sequence is identical to the RNA transcribed from the template strand

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5
Q

In what direction does RNA polymerase extend a chain? What metal ion is essential for catalysis.

A

The new chain grows from 5’ to 3’ [The ribose 3’-OH group of the previously present ribonucleotide attacks the next (incoming) complementary ribonucleotide triphosphate molecule, removing pyrophosphate (PPi) and adding to the chain at the 3’ end]. Catalysis requires Mg+2 ions

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6
Q

What is a TATA box and why is it not transcribed?

A

The TATA box a short sequence of thymidine and adenine residues that promotes gene transcription. It lies about 10 nucleotides upstream of the first transcribed nucleotide and binds to sigma factor (σ factor) in bacteria. In eukaryotes it lies slightly further upstream and binds to TATA binding protein. The two DNA strands become
separated downstream of the TATA box on the coding strand by helicase action of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme

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7
Q

The bacterial RNA polymerase core enzyme has 4 subunit polypeptides, alpha, beta, beta’ and omega. What is the function of each subunit?

A

Alpha – assembly; Beta – catalysis; Beta’ – binding to template; Omega – chaperone

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8
Q

What is the function of the sigma cofactor in RNA polymerase?

A

Sends the core enzyme to the promoter, a sequence upstream of the region of DNA to be copied

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9
Q

Why is the bacterial enzyme with sigma factor referred to as a holoenzyme, not the core enzyme?

A

Because sigma factor dissociates when the enzyme is catalyzing the synthesis of RNA

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10
Q

What is the immediate result of successful promoter function?

A

Separation of the two DNA strands within the RNA polymerase holoenzyme

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11
Q

How do the sigma (σ) and rho (ρ) proteins function?

A

Sigma binds promotor sequences on DNA to initiate RNA synthesis. The Rho-dependent terminator occurs downstream of translational stop codons. It is comprised of a Rho utilization site (rut), an unstructured cytosine-rich sequence on the mRNA and a downstream transcription stop point (tsp). The rut is an mRNA loading site for Rho from which it translocates down the mRNA to the stalled RNA polymerase. Contact between Rho and the RNA -DNA complex dissociates the transcriptional complex through a mechanism that involves Rho’s helicase activity

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12
Q

Indicate three ways in which the process of transcription is more complex in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes?

A
  • Different polymerases for different types of RNAs
  • Many additional accessory protein factors
  • Core enzyme has additional C-terminal domain (CTD) that gets phosphorylated
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13
Q

Describe 4 characteristics of a prokaryotic mRNA transcript that differentiates it from a eukaryotic transcript?

A
  • no introns
  • not processed
  • translated immediately
  • rapidly degraded
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14
Q

Actinomycin D inhibits transcription in all organisms. Compare its mode of action with that of α-amanitin.

A

Actinomycin D inhibits all RNA transcription because it binds to GpC sequences in DNA, preventing the open transcription complex from forming. α-Amanitin binds strongly to eukaryotic RNA Pol II but not bacterial RNA polymerase

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15
Q

Define a gene, an exon and an intron.

A

A gene is a section of DNA that encodes a protein or an RNA molecule that serves a function other than encoding a protein. An exon is a regions of DNA that is expressed (translated) into a protein. An intron is an intervening region of DNA that is transcribed into RNA but then excised before the gene is translated

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16
Q

Assuming that siRNA and miRNA are subsets of scRNA, name the other 4 RNA types in a eukaryotic cell and order them from greatest to least amounts present.

A

rRNA > tRNA > mRNA > snRNA

scRNA would be after snRNA

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17
Q

Which of these RNAs is absent from prokaryotes and why?

rRNA, tRNA, mRNA, snRNA

A

snRNA; there are no introns to be processed in bacterial mRNA

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18
Q

Freshly synthesized eukaryotic mRNA is processed at 3 sites. What are the sites, and resulting alterations to the mRNA?

A

Sites are the 5’-end, the 3’-end and the middle: i.e. the cap, polyA tail and intron excision

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19
Q

Freshly synthesized eukaryotic mRNA is processed at 3 sites. How does each complex recognize the portion of mRNA that it acts on?

A

Cap synthesizing complex recognizes the 5’-end triphosphate (Slide 39); The endonuclease of the polyA synthesizing complex and the snRNA particles of the spliceosome complex recognize consensus sequences on unprocessed mRNA

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20
Q

One site of mRNA is processed using a complex of three classes of enzymes, one site a complex of two classes of enzymes and one a complex containing a single enzyme class. Name the enzyme components that act at each site.

A
  • Phosphohydrolase, guanosyl transferase and methylase on the cap synthesizing complex
  • Endonuclease and polyA polymerase of the poly A polymerase complex
  • Endonuclease formed by snRNA particles of the spliceosome complex
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21
Q

One site of mRNA is processed using a complex of three classes of enzymes, one site a complex of two classes of enzymes and one a complex containing a single enzyme class. To what do the spliceosomes attach before acting?

A

A Cap Binding Complex that replaces the Cap Synthesizing Complex on the phosphorylated C-terminal domain of RNA pol II

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22
Q

What are the functions of the intron 5’ and 3’ boundaries and of a downstream adenosine residue near an intron’s 3’end?

A

The first two regions hybridize with complementary sequences on snRNAs necessary to excise an intron and the third is cleaved when the upstream exon (3’ end) is connected with the downstream (5’ end)

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23
Q

hat nucleotide is the substrate for the first endonuclease action of the spliceosome complex? What are the spliceosome products?

A

An adenylate residue within the intron being excised. Processed mRNA with the exon plus the intron excised as an RNA lariat

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24
Q

One gene can encode two different polypeptides. How?

A

Alternative splicing or partial proteolysis

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25
Q

What enzymes are required to process freshly synthesized tRNA?

A

Specific endo- and exo-nucleases that trim the ends and may also remove an intron without requiring the snRNA spliceosome complex

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26
Q

What are the functions of the cap and tail in eukaryotic mRNAs?

A

The cap facilitates splicing and the tail facilitates mRNA transport to the cytosol. Both stabilize mRNA by protecting it from degradation and are also the sites of initial mRNA degradation. Cap and tail also facilitate the initiation of translation by attaching to the ribosomal small subunit

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27
Q

From your knowledge of the structure of eukaryotic mRNA in slide 37, how might you determine which genes are expressed by a eukaryotic cell at any given time and/or in a given environment?

A

All synthesized proteins have mRNA with a poly-A tail which hybridizes (binds) to a poly-dT primer. Use reverse transcriptase with a poly-T primer and an attached red or green fluorescent dye to make cDNA from the mRNA expressed at each stage of development or in the different environments. Add each PCR product to a microarray of genomic DNA from the organism on a glass slide and let them hybridize. Red indicates genes that made mRNA at stage 1, green indicates genes that made mRNA at stage 2 and yellow (mixture of red & green) indicates mRNA present equally at both stages

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28
Q

In eukaryotic cells, where are ribosomes and proteins synthesized?

A

Ribosomes are made in the nucleolus and proteins in the cytosol

29
Q

Why is the genetic code composed of sequences of three nucleotide bases, and not sequences of two or four nucleotides?

A

Dinucleotides (two bases) have 16 possible combinations, not enough to encode 20 different amino acids. Tetranucleotides (4 bases) have 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 = 256 possible combinations, far too many possibilities

30
Q

With what was polyU incubated and how did that indicate its function?

A

It was incubated with the alkali-treated cytosolic fraction of E coli. The product was radioactive only if the mixture was incubated with radioactive phenylalanine, indicating that the triplet UUU encoded phenylalanine.

31
Q

How were specific sequences of nucleotides shown to encode specific amino acids prior to elucidating the genetic code?

A

Various trinucleotides were incubated with ribosomes purified from the alkali-treated cytosolic fraction of E. coli. Which radioactive amino acid bound to the ribosomes depended on the composition of the trinucleotide

32
Q

Why is the genetic code not overlapping?

A

There would be insufficient room for aligning the aa-tRNAs next to each other to induce peptide bond formation if codons overlapped

33
Q

To what does the ‘wobble’ hypothesis apply, why was the hypothesis necessary, and what feature of the genetic code does it overcome?

A

It applies to the mRNA (codon)/tRNA (anticodon) interaction during protein synthesis. It enables the anti-codon on a tRNA specific for an amino acid to recognize more than one codon, thus limiting the number of different tRNAs required for each amino acid (Slide 65). It overcomes the degenerate nature of the code, allowing more than one codon for most amino acids

34
Q

What is the minimal number of tRNAs needed to translate all 4 codons of glycine, GGX where X is any of the 4 nucleotide bases? How many different amino acyl transferase enzymes would be required? Explain.

A

2 tRNAs and 1 transferase enzyme. There is inadequate wobble at the third codon base to allow one tRNA anti-codon to fit all 4 codons. Only 1 transferase is required because all tRNAs with a given amino acid specificity are structurally indistinguishable to the tRNA amino-acylating enzyme, irrespective of differences in the anti-codon region

35
Q

What are ribosomes and how are they categorized? Hint: S

A

Ribosomes are particles composed of structural RNA (no protein encoding function) along with many proteins. The sizes of ribosomal particles or their component RNAs are measured in Svedbergs, a sedimentation coefficient measurement

36
Q

What enzyme synthesizes eukaryotic ribosomes?

A

The genes encoding eukaryotic ribosomal RNA are transcribed by RNA polymerase I

37
Q

What are the 4 main features of a tRNA molecule, and their functions?

A
  • The amino acid attachment arm – recognized by amino acyl synthetase
  • The dihydrouridine (DHU) arm – sandwiches over the pseudouridine loop when changing from cloverleaf to L-form
  • The pseudouridine arm
  • The anticodon arm – interacts with mRNA
38
Q

What is the significance of the tRNA L form?

A

tRNA L form spreads out the tRNA across the ribosome, connecting the complementation to mRNA on the small subunit with the peptidyl synthetase reaction on the large subunit

39
Q

How is amino acid activation for polypeptide synthesis accomplished?

A

Activation is achieved by amino acid synthetases that bind ATP, a specific amino acid and a specific tRNA. Reaction produces pyrophosphate (PPi) AMP and aa-tRNA

40
Q

Why are there two classes of amino acid tRNA synthetases?

A

Enhance synthetase specificity for the correct amino acid

41
Q

What are the 5 main steps of protein synthesis?

A

Amino acid activation 2) Initiation 3) Elongation 4) Termination, 5) Post-translational polypeptide processing

42
Q

Bacterial ribosomal assembly is initiated by two closely adjacent nucleotide sequences on the mRNA. What are they and what do they each attach? Give the order of assembly of ribosomal components to form the elongating complex.

A

The Shine-Dalgarno nucleotide sequence, and the AUG codon. The SD sequence binds the small (30S) ribosomal subunit and the AUG sequence binds f-met-tRNA. The order is: 30S ribosomal subunit, mRNA, f-met-tRNA, 50S ribosome subunit

43
Q

What are the functions of the three prokaryotic initiation factors?

A

IF1 and IF3 bind to the small ribosomal subunit. IF1 blocks a second (acceptor) site used for elongation and IF3 prevents the large subunit from attaching until after f-met-tRNA binds. IF2 contains GTP and binds to f-met-tRNA. When the large subunit binds, a GTPase hydrolyzes the GTP, causing IF2 to fall away as the 70S complex forms

44
Q

Initiation in eukaryotes differs from that in prokaryotes in 4 major ways. What are they?

A
  • The 40S subunit binds the mRNA cap and tail.
  • The Shine-Dalgarno nucleotide sequence is absent. Instead, the 40S subunit slides along the mRNA to the AUG codon using a helicase.
  • Methionyl tRNA initiating (met-tRNAi) is not formylated.
  • Greater number of initiating factors.
45
Q

Indicate the 4 major steps of elongation and what the respective major cofactors are? Hint: the same 3 cofactors apply to the first two steps, none to the third and two to the fourth.

A
  • Proof-reading
  • Delivery
  • Peptide bond formation
  • Translocation
    Cofactors: EF-TS, EF-Tu and GTP – proofreading and delivery. Peptidyl synthetase – a ribozyme (no cofactors). EF-G and GTP – translocation
46
Q

How does EF-G•GDP interact with the ribosome to cause translocation?

A

EF-G•GDP stabilizes the twisted form of the ribosome. Once bound, it exchanges its GDP for GTP. Hydrolysis of the GTP to GDP then translocates the ribosome to the post-translocation state

47
Q

What is unique about the codon for translation termination?

A

Signaled by termination codons that bind to a release factor (a protein) instead of an amino acyl tRNA

48
Q

Differentiate between the functions of release factor (RF) and ribosomal recycling factor (RRF).

A

RF releases the polypeptide and allows EF-G●GTP to attach to the empty P site RRF attaches to EF-G●GTP and is released along with it and the large subunit after hydrolysis of the EF-G●GTP to EF-G●GDP

49
Q

Calculate the ATP equivalents (used as GTP or ATP) needed to synthesize a polypeptide during translation.

A

Two ATPs are required to activate (make aa-tRNA), 1 GTP for delivery, and 1 GTP for translocation. Initiating aa-tRNA requires 2 ATPs and 1 GTP for delivery. It is not translocated. The 2nd aa-tRNA is the first to be translocated. Release requires 1 GTP but no aa-tRNA. Thus, 4 ATP or its equivalent is required for every amino acid in the polypeptide

50
Q

What are the functions of the ribosomes during protein synthesis? There are 6!

A
  • Initiates translation by 30S subunit binding to Shine-Dalgarno sequence or eukaryotic mRNA cap
  • Channel for mRNA to interact with aa-tRNA
  • GTPase on its 50S subunit to ensure initiation, delivery, translocation and release
  • GDP/GTP exchange factor for translocation and release
  • Peptidyl synthetase (a ribozyme) in the large subunit
  • Tunnel in the 50S subunit for the peptide to escape
51
Q

Which of the following is not an antibiotic: Erythromycin (an aminoglycoside), Tetracycline (or Doxycycline), Cycloheximide, Puromycin, Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol? Why no

A

Cycloheximide. It binds only to a eukaryotic ribosome. Unlike all the others, cycloheximide cannot inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. It does not affect bacterial growth and is therefore not an antibiotic

52
Q

From the list of reagents in the previous question, name one antibiotic that affects each of the following processes during prokaryotic protein synthesis: a) translocation, b) delivery, c) initiation and d) peptidyl transferase? Hint: Write the mnemonic down first!

A
  • Erythromycin (aminoglycoside)
  • Tetracycline
  • Streptomycin
  • Chloramphenicol
53
Q

List the membrane soluble phosphate, 3 sugar derivatives and polypeptide amino acid residue required for N-linked glycoside synthesis. Where does this process mostly occur?

A
  • Dolichol phosphate
  • UDP-N-acetyl glucosamine
  • UDP-glucose
  • GDP-mannose
  • Asparagine residue
    Occurs mostly in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
54
Q

What causes ribosomes to become attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum? What is the result?

A

Presence of an N-terminal consensus sequence (signal peptide) that attaches to a signal recognition particle (SRP containing proteins and scRNA). The SRP moves the ribosome to a ribosomal receptor in the ER membrane. The N-terminal region is moved into the ER by an SRP-mediated translocation before much of the polypeptide is synthesized

55
Q

All eukaryotic proteins have methionine as their N-terminus, but when secreted proteins are purified they usually do not begin with methionine. Why not?

A

Secreted proteins have an N-terminal signal sequence that is cleaved on secretion. Thus, only intracellular proteins, for example hemoglobin, retain methionine at the N-terminus.

56
Q

The term translocation or translocated occurs at four steps during protein synthesis, processing and targeting. What are these steps and what cofactor does each use?

A
  • Amino acid elongation on the ribosome using EF-G•GDP after peptide bond formation
  • Secretion into the ER using Signal Recognition Particle during peptide synthesis
  • Asparagine (N) -linked oligosaccharide synthesis using dolichol phosphate after adding Nacetylglucosamine & mannose residues
  • Importins translocate nuclear proteins, for example ribosomal proteins and histones, to the nucleus
57
Q

Where do proteins become targeted to lysosomes?

A

In the Golgi where a phosphate residue is added to a terminal mannose residue on an asparagine-linked glycan on the enzyme

58
Q

What are the similarities between chaperones and chaperonins? Which reacts with a newly synthesized protein first?

A

Both types of proteins are known as ‘heat shock proteins’ because their amounts are increased on sudden, brief heating or cooling of cells. They both bind unfolded protein along with ATP and release the correctly folded protein when ATP is hydrolyzed

59
Q

What is the function of lysosome-targeted proteins and how does this function differ from proteasomes?

A

Lysosomal proteins hydrolyze extracellular and foreign proteins. Proteasomes remove dysfunctional intracellular proteins within living cells. NOTE: Lysosome-targeted proteins are hydrolytic enzymes, not exclusively proteases.

60
Q

How many enzymes are used to ubiquinate a protein and what are they called?

A
  • Three

- Ubiquitin ligases E1, E2 and E3

61
Q

How does enzymes that ubiquinate a protein work?

A

E1 activates ubiquitin by attaching its C-terminal –COOH group to a cysteine residue on E1. E1 transfers the attached ubiquitin to a corresponding cysteine residue on one of a few E2 ligases. Targets are recognized by one of many E3 ligases and they transfer the ubiquitin from the E2 cysteine thiol ester to the ε-amino group of an internal lysine residue on the target (isopeptide bond). Lysine residues within the attached ubiquitin then receive additional ubiquitin residues (poly-ubiquitination).

62
Q

What feature of ubiquitination determines the alternative fates of proteins that have been ubiquinated?

A

The fate of ubiquitinated proteins depends on whether their lysine has received more or less than 4 ubiquitin residues. If less than 4, the target is activated to some function and if more than 4, the target is moved to the proteasome and destroyed.

63
Q

What enzyme is the initial target of transcription coupled repair?

A

RNA PolII stalled by a DNA mutation during transcript elongation

64
Q

What is the result to the enzyme and to its substrate? (with respect to enzymatic transcription coupled repair)

A

Targets enzyme to proteasome and recruits repair enzymes to the DNA substrate

65
Q

What is the mediator of this reaction and what does it replace? (with respect to enzymatic transcription coupled repair)

A
  • Covalent ubiquitin binding to PolII

- Replaces Phosphate residues on the CTD (C-terminal Domain of PolII)

66
Q

What is a ribosome?

A

an RNA protein particle on which protein are synthesized

67
Q

What is a proteasome?

A

a protein particle (26s) that digests ubiquitinylated proteins in the cytosol

68
Q

What is a spliceosome?

A

a snRNA particle that removes introns as eukaryotic mRNA is being synthesized

69
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

a large section of DNA bound to histones and not transcribed unless an activator first removes the histones