Lesson 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The component of the operating system responsible for selecting which process from the ready queue should be executed next by the CPU. It makes decisions based on a defined scheduling algorithm.

A

CPU Scheduler/Short Term Scheduler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The module that gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the CPU scheduler. It involves switching context, switching to user mode, and jumping to the proper location in the user program.

A

Dispatcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The time taken from when the scheduler selects a process to execute until CPU starts executing that process. This includes context switching and any overhead involved in the dispatching process.

A

Dispatch Latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The metrics used to evaluate and compare the performance of different scheduling algorithms.

A

Scheduling Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The number of processes completed per time unit.

A

Throughput

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The total time taken from submission of a process to its completion.

A

Turn Around Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The total time a process spends waiting in the ready queue.

A

Waiting Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The time from when a request is submitted until the first response is produced, not counting the time for the output to be used.

A

Response Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A scheduling algorithm that serves processes in the order they arrive in the ready queue, like a queue at a ticket counter. It is simple but can lead to long waiting times, especially if short processes are stuck behind long ones.

A

First Come First Serve (FCFS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An algorithm that selects the process with the smallest execution time first. This can minimize turnaround time but can lead to the “starvation” of longer processes.

A

Shortest Job First (SJF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A scheduling method where processes are assigned priorities, and the CPU is allocated to the process with the highest priority (lowest numerical value). If two processes have the same priority, FCFS is applied. It can lead to starvation for low-priority processes.

A

Priority Scheduling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A preemptive scheduling algorithm where each process is assigned a fixed time slice (quantum) in which it can execute. Once the time sliced is used up, the process is placed at the end of the ready queue, and the next process is given CPU time. This method is far and effective time sharing.

A

Round Roubin (RR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The amount of time a process spends executing on the CPU before it either blocks (waiting for I/O) or voluntarily yields control of the CPU.

A

CPU Burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The total time required by a process for its execution on the CPU, from start to finish.

A

Burst Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Refers to the measures taken to protect a system, network, or information from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or disruption.

A

Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Encompass the types of breaches or attacks that compromise confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

A

Security Violation Categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Occurs when unauthorized access exposes private or sensitive information.

A

Breach of Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Happens when data is altered or tampered with without authorization.

A

Breach of Integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Occurs when legitimate users are denied access to resources or systems.

A

Breach of Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Refers to unauthorized use of a system’s resources or services.

A

Theft of Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is an attack that disrupts the normal functioning of a service, making it unavailable to legitimate users.

A

Denial of Service (DoS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Methods used to compromise a system’s security, including techniques like masquerading, replay attacks, and session hijacking

A

Security Violation Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Involves pretending to be another entity to gain unauthorized access

A

Masquerading

24
Q

Occurs when valid data transmission is intercepted and resent by an attacker to deceive a system.

A

Replay Attack

25
In this attack, an adversary intercepts and possibly alters communication between two parties without their knowledge.
Man-in-the-Middle Attack
26
Is the exploitation of a valid session to gain unauthorized access to a system.
Session Hijacking
27
These levels include methods to secure systems based on physical, human, and software-based measures.
Security Measure Levels
28
Involves protecting hardware and facilities from physical threats like theft or damage.
Physical Security
29
Focuses on training, awareness, and preventing social engineering attacks.
Human Security
30
This ensures system processes and resources are protected through policies, authentication, and access control.
Operating System Security
31
Is a cyberattack where fraudulent communication tricks individuals into divulging sensitive information.
Phishing
32
Involves protecting a network and its resources from unauthorized access, misuse, or attacks.
Network Security Level
33
Is the practice of securing communication by encoding information to prevent unauthorized access.
Cryptography
34
Is the process of converting plain text into unreadable ciphertext to protect data.
Encryption
35
Is the process of converting ciphertext back into plain text to make it readable.
Decryption
36
Verifies the identity of a user or system to ensure secure access.
Authentication
37
Are electronic credentials that verify the authenticity of a public key or entity.
Digital Certificates
38
Is the process of verifying a user’s credentials to grant access.
User Authentication
39
Refers to capturing and analyzing network traffic, often to intercept sensitive information
Sniffing
40
Is the memory allocated to a process for execution and data storage
Process Address Space
41
Is generated by a program and mapped to a physical address in memory for access.
Logical and Physical Address
42
______ addresses are used by programmers, ______ addresses are offsets, and _______ addresses refer to actual memory locations.
Symbolic, Relative, and Physical
43
Is a memory management technique where disk space is used to simulate additional RAM.
Virtual Memory
44
______ loading loads all program components into memory at compile time, whereas ______ loading loads them at runtime as needed.
Static and Dynamic Loading
45
________ errors occur during program compilation, while _______errors occur during program execution.
Compile-Time and Run-Time Error
46
Refers to the structure and rules for writing valid code in a programming language.
Syntax
47
Refers to the meaning or behavior of a piece of code.
Semantics
48
_____ linking incorporates all libraries into an executable at compile time, while ______ linking loads libraries during execution.
Static and Dynamic Linking
49
Is a memory management process where inactive processes are moved to disk to free up RAM.
Swapping
50
Assigns memory blocks to programs or processes.
Memory Allocation
51
_______ refers to memory near the start of the address space, while______ is at the upper range.
Low-Memory and High-Memory
52
Occurs when memory is inefficiently used, leaving unusable gaps.
Fragmentation
53
_________ refers to free memory being scattered in non-contiguous blocks, while ________ occurs when allocated memory exceeds a process's needs.
External and Internal Fragmentation
54
Rearranges memory to consolidate free space into a contiguous block.
Compaction
55
Is a memory management technique dividing memory into fixed-sized blocks for more efficient allocation.
Paging
56
It divides memory into variable-sized segments based on logical divisions, such as code, data, and stack.
Segmentation