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Block 2 > Lesson 12/13 Airspace & CFRs > Flashcards

Lesson 12/13 Airspace & CFRs Flashcards

0
Q

Class A Airspace (altitude)

A

from 18,000 feet Mean Sea Level (MSL) up to and including FL600

  • all operations IFR and subject to ATC clearances and instructions
  • two way radio communication must be established and maintained
  • 4096 transponder w/ Mode C
  • jet routes
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1
Q

Controlled Airspace

A

airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flights and Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flights in accordance with the airspace classification

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2
Q

Class B Airspace (busy)

A

surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of airport ops or passenger enplanements

  • configuration is individually tailored
  • designed to contain all published instrument approaches
  • ATC clearance to enter
  • ATC provides separation; two-way radio needed
  • 4096 transponder w/ Mode C
  • IFR a/c require operable VOR or TACAN nav equipment
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3
Q

In Class B, student pilots may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight unless:

A
  • student pilot has received instruction on that specific Class B airspace
  • Student pilot’s logbook has been endorsed within the preceding 90 days verifying instruction
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4
Q

Class C Airspace (crowded)

A

surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding airports that have: operational control tower, service provided by a Radar Approach Control, certain # of IFR ops or passenger enplanements

  • surface area with a 5 NM radius
  • two way radio communication
  • 4096 transponder w/ Mode C
  • VFR aircraft do not require a clearance to enter but entry may be denied (need approval/acknowledgement from atc)
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5
Q

Class D Airspace (dialogue)

A

surface to 2,500 ft above the airport elevation surrounding those airports with an operational control tower

  • two way radio communication
  • No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft
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6
Q

Class E Airspace (elsewhere)

A

except for 18,000 feet MSL, has no defined vertical limit, extends upward from the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace

  • NO communication requirement or separation for VFR a/c
  • Federal Airways (VICTOR) and low alt RNAV routes (TANGO) extend upward from 1,200 ft AGL to, but not including 18,000 ft MSL
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7
Q

Uncontrolled Class G Airspace (go for it)

A

surface upwards to the base of the overlying controlled airspace
- vector a/c in Class G airspace only upon pilot request and as an additional service

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8
Q

Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)

A

airspace surrounding some airports wherein ATC:
- provides radar vectoring, sequencing and separation
- separates all IFR aircraft
- separates participating VFR aircraft
- Pilot participation is urged but is not mandatory
(depicted on VFR aeronautical charts)

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9
Q

Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs)

A

issued within the sovereign airspace of the United States and its territories to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area on a temporary basis to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground
- issued for: disaster hazardous, aircraft accident/sites, VIP movements, national security

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10
Q

Special Use Airspace (SUA)

A

airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and/or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities

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11
Q

The ________ is the FAA ATC facility that exercises control of the airspace when an SUA area is not activated.

A

controlling agency

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12
Q

The _______ is the military unit or other organization whose activity established the requirement for the SUA.

A

Using Agency

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13
Q

Name the 7 types of Special Use Airspace:

A 
Prohibited Area (P)
Restricted Area  (R)
Warning Area  (W)
Alert Area  (A)
Controlled Firing Area (CFA)
Military  Operations Area (MOA)
National Security Area (NSA)
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14
Q

A ________ is designated airspace where the flight of aircraft is not permitted, without permission of the using agency.

A

Prohibited Area (P)

  • interest of national security and welfare
  • “P”, a dash, plus number
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15
Q

A ________ is designated airspace above US land areas or territorial waters, within which flight of aircraft is NOT totally prohibited, but is subjected to restrictions.

A

Restricted Area (R)

  • established when determined necessary to confine or segregate activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
  • “R”, a dash, & number
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16
Q

A _______ is airspace of defined dimensions, (extending 3NM outward from the coast of the United States), designated to contain activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

A

warning area (W)

  • purpose: warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger from activities being conducted
  • “W”, a dash, 2 or 3 digit #
17
Q

An _________ is airspace wherein a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted.

A

Alert Area (A)

  • high volume of pilot training operations, or an unusual type of aeronautical activity, that they might not otherwise expect to encounter
  • “A”, a dash, 2 or 3 digit number
18
Q

Controlled Firing Area (CFA)

A

airspace designated to contain activities that if not conducted in a controlled environment would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
- not published; no identifier

19
Q

Military Operations Area (MOA)

A

airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established outside Class A airspace for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted
-identifier: name, MOA, 2 letter state abbreviation

20
Q

National Security Area (NSA)

A

airspace of defined lateral and vertical dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security of ground facilities

  • pilots requested to voluntarily avoid flying through an NSA
  • no standard dimensions
21
Q

Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) are issued by authority of the __________.

A

FAA Administrator

22
Q

Structure of CFRs (arranged by)

A
  • part
  • subpart
  • section
23
Q

CFR 91.1 through 91.25 govern all air traffic within the United States including the:
Waters within ______ of the US Coast.
Airspace within _____ of the US Coast.

A

3 NM; 12 NM

24
Q

Converging aircraft of the same category, aircraft to ______ has right-of-way.

A

right

25
Q

When approaching head on, each pilot shall alter course to the ______.

A

right

26
Q

Right of Way Rules — Overtaking

A
  • Aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way

- Overtaking aircraft passes on the right

27
Q

Aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL must operate at a speed of not more than _______.

A

250 KIAS

28
Q

Aircraft at or below 2,500 AGL within _____ of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace must operate at a speed of not more than _______.

A

4 NM; 200 KIAS

29
Q

No person may operate an aircraft at more than 200 knots indicated air speed:

A
  • below Class B airspace

- in a VFR corridor designated through a Class B airspace

30
Q

Minimum Safe Altitude over Congested Areas (VFR)

A

Below 1,000 feet above highest obstacle within horizontal radius of 2,000 ft of the aircraft

31
Q

Minimum Safe Altitudes over Other Than Congested Areas (VFR)

A

altitude of 500 ft above the surface except over open water or sparsley populated areas

32
Q

Altimeter Setting Below 18,000 MSL

A

current altimeter setting reported by a station along the route within 100 NM of the aircraft

33
Q

Altimeter at or above 18,000 feet MSL

A

altimeter set at 29.92

34
Q

The pilot may not deviate from ATC clearance except:

A
  • if an emergency exists
  • if pilot obtains an amended clearance
  • in response to a Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)
35
Q

Pilots who deviate, in an emergency, from an ATC clearance must notify ATC of the deviation _______________.

A

as soon as possible

36
Q

The pilot may cancel IFR when:

A
  • operating in VFR conditions

- outside Class A airspace

37
Q

Pilots receiving priority from ATC for an emergency shall, _________, submit a detailed report of the emergency within ______ to the manager of the affected facility.

A

upon request; 48 hrs

38
Q

Eligibility requirements for an ATC tower certificate are to:

A
  • be at least 18 yrs old
  • good moral character
  • able to read, write, and understand the English language and speak it without accent or impediment
  • valid second class medical certificate
39
Q

An ATC control tower operator certificate is effective until it is:

A

surrendered, suspended or revoked

40
Q

Under CFR Part 67, age 39 and below ____ terminal, ____ flight service.

A

2 yrs; 3 yrs

41
Q

Under CFR Part 67, medical exams for 40 and above _____ terminal/center, ____ Flight Service.

A

1yr; 2 yrs

Block 2 (4 decks)

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