lectures 48/49 Flashcards

ott - pharmacotherapy of seizure disorders

1
Q

how was epilepsy classified in 2011?

A

seizure can either be partial or generalized
a partial seizure can either be simple or complex

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2
Q

how was epilepsy classified in 2017?

A

focal onset
generalized onset
unknown onset

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3
Q

what medications lower the seizure threshold?

A

require usual dose –> bupropion, clozapine, theophylline, varenicline, phenothiazine antipsychotics, and CNS stimulants (amphetamines)
require higher/renal dosing –> carbapenems, lithium, meperidine, penicillin, quinolones, tramadol

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4
Q

what type of seizure is most common?

A

partial, doesn’t matter if its simple or complex

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5
Q

do patients respond better to mono or polytherapy?

A

mono –> around 50% of pts will have good control with one drug
poly –> most will have good control with 2 drugs

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6
Q

what are risk factors for seizure recurrence?

A

under 2 years seizure free
onset of seizure after age 12
hx of atypical febrile seizures
2-6 years before good seizure control in treatment
significant number of seizures (>30) before control achieved
partial seizures (which is the most common type)
abnormal EEG throughout treatment
organic neurological disorder - traumatic brain injury, dementia
withdrawal of phenytoin or valproate

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7
Q

what are possible reason for treatment failure?

A

failure to reach the CNS target
alteration of drug targets in the CNS
drugs missing the real target

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8
Q

what are management strategies to drug-resistant epilepsy?

A

rule out pseudo-resistance - wrong drug or diagnosis
combination therapy
electrical/surgical intervention

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9
Q

what is status epilepticus?

A

continuous seizure activity lasting 5 minutes or more, or two or more discrete seizures with incomplete recovery between seizures

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10
Q

what is the first line agent for status epilepticus?

A

benzodiazepines, most commonly lorazepam or midazolam

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11
Q

what are the phases of status epilepticus treatment?

A

stabilization 0-5 minutes
initial treatment 5-20
second treatment 20-40
third 40-60

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12
Q

if a person is being treated for status epilepticus, how should they be treated based on phase

A

stabilization –> no drug therapy
initial if seizure continues –> IV lorazepam and IV midazolam
second if seizure continues –> IV fosphenytoin, IV valproic acid, IV levetiracetam

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13
Q

what limits the infusion rate of phenytoin?

A

containing propylene glycol which can lead to hypotension

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14
Q

what is fosphenytoin?

A

prodrug of phenytoin
better IV tolerance of dosing
20 mg PE (phenytoin equivalents)/kg IV

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15
Q

for phenytoin/fosphenytoin loading dose, why is cardiac monitoring required?

A

due to local reaction called purple glove syndrome

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16
Q

for oral phenytoin, what should be collected in the SAME blood draw?

A

serum concentration and serum albumin

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17
Q

what is the therapeutic serum concentration range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/mL

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18
Q

what is dosing conversion of valproate loading dose?

A

1:1 mg/mg
IV to PO

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19
Q

what is the desired serum concentration range for valproate?

A

80 mcg/mL with a range of 50 - 125 mcg/mL

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20
Q

what is the dosing of lamotrigine with a UGT inhibitor (like valproate)?

A

25 mg QOD x 14d
25 mg QD x14d
50 mg QD x7d
100 mg QD

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21
Q

what is the dosing of lamotrigine without concomitant UGT Drug interactions?

A

25 mg QD x 14d
50 mg QD x 14d
100 mg QD x7d
200 mg QD

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22
Q

what is the dosing of lamotrigine with UGT inducers (like carbamazepine, phenytoin)?

A

50 mg QD x 14d
100 mg QD x14d
200 mg QD x7d
400 mg QD

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23
Q

what is an important drug interaction with lamotrigine?

A

lamotrigine is a UGT substrate, high initial serum concentrations are associated with Stevens-Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (SJS/TEN)
concomitant drug therapy with UGT inducers (carbamazepine, phenytoin) and inhibitors (valproate) need specific dosing

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24
Q

what is the black box warning of carbamazepine or like derivatives (oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine)?

A

anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome so genetic screen for HLA-B*1502 allele PRIOR to initiating
if positive –> DO NOT USE, unless benefit clearly outweighs risk

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25
Q

what patient population is more likely to be positive for the HLA-B*1502 allele?

A

strong correlation for positive allele and AHS in patients of Asian descent

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26
Q

what patient population is more likely to be positive for HLA-A*3101?

A

those of Northern European and asian descent may have similar risk

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27
Q

what is DRESS syndrome?

A

drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms
potentially life threatening with a mortality rate of around 10%

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28
Q

what drugs are associated with DRESS syndrome?

A

carbamezepine
cenobamate
lamotrigine
phenobarbital
phenytoin
valproate
zonisamide
generally occurs 2-6 weeks after initiation of drug therapy

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29
Q

what alleles correlate with what syndrome?

A

HLA-B1502 –> AHS
HLA-A
3101 –> DRESS syndrome

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30
Q

what is antiseizure drug withdrawal syndrome?

A

associated with abrupt d/c
may cause recurrence of seizures, doses of antiseizure medications should always be tapered for d/c

31
Q

how are drug serum concentrations affected by pregnancy?

A

may be altered due to changes in volume of distribution

32
Q

what drugs pose a teratogenic risk?

A

carbamazepine
clonazepam
fosphenytoin
phenobarbital
phenytoin
primidone
topiramate

33
Q

how should drugs with a teratogenic risk be counseled?

A

let people of child-bearing age should include education about these risk and contraceptive use

34
Q

why is valproate not recommended in pregnancy?

A

due to causing neural tube defects and association with a decreased IQ in offspring

35
Q

on top of antiseizure medications, what supplement should be considered in pregnancy?

A

folic acid (5mg daily)
and Vit K 10 mg daily during last month of pregnancy

36
Q

what supplement should infants receive?

A

vit K 1mg IM at bird to decrease risk of hemorrhagic disease

37
Q

what are important contraceptive drug interactions?

A

mediated by P450 3A4 induction (remember estrogen compounds are substrates of this)
interaction can be minimized by using higher-dose estrogen contraceptives, but pt can also use progestin-only contraceptives (depot formulation)

38
Q

how do estrogen and lamotrigine influence each other?

A

estrogen significantly decrease lamotrigine serum concentrations (by 50%)
lamotrigine decreases estrogen concentrations

39
Q

what is the recommended progestin-only concentration while on antiseizure?

40
Q

what is a warning about higher-dose estrogen contraceptives?

A

increased thromboembolism

41
Q

what is CV AE of lamotrigine?

A

arrhythmia

42
Q

what are the CV AE of lacosmide?

A

PR interval changes
heart block

43
Q

what is the CV AE of pregabalin?

A

PR interval changes
may also cause peripheral edema, so caution in congestive HF

44
Q

what is the CV AE of phenytoin/fosphenytoin?

A

arrhythmia
CI in heart block

45
Q

what is the CV AE of fenfluramine?

A

valvular heart disease

46
Q

what drugs cause hyponatremia/syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

A

carbamazepine
eslicarbazepine
oxcarbazepine

47
Q

how does phenytoin affect mineral metabolism?

A

alters vit D metabolism –> decreased calcium concentrations –> osteoporosis with long-term use

48
Q

what are the CP of topiramate?

A

decrease serum Bicarbonate –> metabolic acidosis
could cause nephrolithiasis so monitor serum bicarbonate
associated with decreased sweating, heat intolerance, and oligohydrosis

49
Q

what are the psychiatric SE of levetiracetam?

A

psychosis
suicidal thoughts/behaviors
unusual mood changes
worsening depression (most often seen in children/adolescents)

50
Q

what are the psychiatric SE of perampanel?

A

BOXED WARNING - dose related serious and/or life threatening neuropsychiatric events

51
Q

in what pt population, should use of perampanel be cautioned?

A

pts with pre-existing psychosis due to BBW

52
Q

what is the psychiatric SE of valproate?

A

acute mental status changes related to hyperammonemia
differentiate from sedation SE

53
Q

what are psychiatric SE of topiramate?

A

associated with cognitive dysfunction if the dose is increased too rapidly, use a slow dose titration

54
Q

what drugs are associated with visual abnormalities?

A

phenytoin
topiramate
vigabatrin

55
Q

how does topiramate affect vision?

A

post-marketing warning for vision loss, myopia, retinal detachment

56
Q

how does vigabatrin affect vision?

A

CI in pts who have other risk factors for irreversible vision loss

57
Q

in what pt populations should pregabalin/gabapentin usage be evaluated for appropriateness?

A

in pts who are taking other CNS depressants, have pulmonary disease or is elderly due to risk for respiratory depression

58
Q

what are the clinical pearls of carbamazepine?

A

strong P450 (so 1A2, 2C9, 2C19, 3A4) and p-glycoprotein inducer –> induces own metabolism
could lead to hyponatremia

59
Q

what drugs could lead to hyponatremia?

A

carbamazepine
oxcarbazepine
eslicarbazepine

60
Q

what CYP does oxcarbazepine affect?

A

induces 3A4

61
Q

what are the clinical pearls of valproate?

A

can cause thrombocytopenia so monitor CBC/plateletes
can cause PCOS, weight gain, sedation

62
Q

what are clinical pearls of topiramate and zonisamide?

A

weight loss
oligohydrosis
nephrolithiasis

63
Q

what are the clinical pearls of phenytoin?

A

absorption is decreased when given with enteral feedings (hold feedings 1-2 hours before and after administration)
can cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism

64
Q

what is a CI of zonisamide?

A

sulfa allergy

65
Q

what are clinical pearls of gabapentin and pregabalin?

A

renal eliminated so decrease dose in renal impairment
cause peripheral edema and sedation

66
Q

what are the clinical pearls of lamotrigine?

A

associated with arrhythmias in people with underlying cardiac conditions

67
Q

what syndromes does medical marijuana help control?

A

lennox-gastaut syndrome
dravet syndrome
both occur in childhood development

68
Q

what is epidiolex?

A

cannabidiol oral solution that is indicated for dravet syndrome and gastaut syndrome

69
Q

what is the ketogenic diet?

A

3:1 or 4:1 fats:carbs/protein diet
adults seem to respond only while on the diet while the effects in children may continue after diet d/c

70
Q

what are the SE of ketogenic diet?

A

hyperlipidemia (reversible upon d/c of diet)
weight loss
constipation
kidney stones
decreased bone mass/growth

71
Q

what is key to note about antiseizure medications and depression?

A

all antiseizure drugs carry a warning for increased risk of suicidal thinking and/or behaviors during treatment

72
Q

what is the warning associated with antidepressants and pts under 24 yo?

A

increased risk of suicidal thinking and behaviors in treatment

73
Q

when should bupropion be used for seizures?

A

AVOID in pts with uncontrolled seizure disorders as it can increase the risk of seizures and seizure frequency

74
Q

what is a common co-morbidity of seizure disorders?

A

depression