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Mechanisms of Disease > Lecture Quizzes- 1-7 > Flashcards

Lecture Quizzes- 1-7 Flashcards

1
Q

The majority of drugs alter what sort of system?

  • DNA biology.
  • Energy flow within the body.
  • Enzymes which process metabolites.
  • Information flow within the body.
A

Information flow within the body.

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2
Q

Compare eating and fasting: which of the statements below best describes these two states?

  • Muscles breakdown proteins during eating and build them up during fasting.
  • Blood glucose levels drop as you eat and rise as you fast.
  • The rate of the heart beat along with the rate of breathing correlates with eating and fasting states.
  • The body can distinguish between eating and fasting by the amount of nutrients in the blood stream.
A

The body can distinguish between eating and fasting by the amount of nutrients in the blood

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3
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes how the peripheral nervous system is set up?

  • Sensory organs are nerve cells. They go to the CNS where the information is processed.
  • Sensory organs release hormones. These hormones activate nerve cells in the periphery. The nerve cells go to the CNS where the information is processed.
  • Sensory organs release hormones. These hormones pass the blood brain barrier and go to the CNS where the information is processed.
A

Sensory organs are nerve cells. They go to the CNS where the information is processed.

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4
Q

Consider the two neurotransmitters:

(choose the best answer)

I. Acetylcholone (Ach)

II. Norepinephrine (NE)

  • Both ACh and NE are used by the parasympathetic nervous system.
  • NE is used by the sympathetic nervous system.
  • Both ACh and NE are used by the sympathetic nervous system.
  • ACh is used by the sympathetic nervous system
A

NE is used by the sympathetic nervous system.

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5
Q

How should we define homeostasis?

  • A force working to create change.
  • Environmental interaction with the cell.
  • Feedback control of cellular processes.
  • Cellular inertia.
A

Feedback control of cellular processes.

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6
Q

What class of protein forms nucleosomes?

  • Histones
  • Transcription factors
  • DNA
  • Kinases
A

Histones

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7
Q

Which of the following protein modifications specifically targets proteins for degradation?

  • Acetylation
  • Ubiquitination
  • Phosphorylation
A

Ubiquitination

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8
Q

How does CpG methylation regulate gene expression?

  • CpG methylation inhibits histone acetyltransferase (HAT).
  • CpG methylation creates better binding sites for transcription factors.
  • CpG methylation creates a better binding site for RNA polymerase II
  • CpG methylation creates a better binding site for histone interaction.
A

CpG methylation creates a better binding site for histone interaction.

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9
Q

What is the major constituent of the extracellular matrix?

  • Phospholipids and carbohydrates.
  • Proteins.
  • Phospholipids and RNAs.
  • Phospholipids.
A

Proteins

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10
Q

Consider saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following is true?

  • Some saturated and some unsaturated fatty acids are kinked in the plasma membrane.
  • All saturated fatty acids are kinked (not straight) in the plasma membrane.
  • All unsaturated fatty acids are kinked in the plasma membrane.
  • No fatty acids of any type are kinked in the plasma membrane.
A

All unsaturated fatty acids are kinked in the plasma membrane.

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT mediated by a cell membrane (and the proteins embedded within it)?

  • Serving as a scaffold for assembling large complexes.
  • The wrapping and protection of DNA.
  • Generating ion gradients as a power source.
  • Controlling the movement of molecules.
A

The wrapping and protection of DNA.

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12
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

  • Causes retardation due to a ganglioside processing defect.
  • Causes heart disease in infants due to lipid filled lysosomes.
  • Involves a loss of cholesterol in the brain.
  • Involves a loss of gangliosides in the brain.
A

Causes retardation due to a ganglioside processing defect.

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13
Q

What is the major protein secondary structure that passes through the membrane?

  • All protein structures pass equally easily through the membrane.
  • Beta sheet.
  • Alpha helix.
  • Random coil.
A

Alpha helix

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14
Q

Ceramide is a form of

  • Sphingolipid.
  • Ganglioside.
  • Phospholipid.
  • Protein.
A

Sphingolipid

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15
Q

The organ containing the highest concentration of gangliosides is…?

  • Lungs
  • Brain
  • Liver
  • Heart
A

Brain

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16
Q

Lipid rafts

  • Exclude gangliosides.
  • Exclude protein.
  • Exclude cholesterol.
  • Contain gangliosides, cholesterol, and protein.
A

Contain gangliosides, cholesterol, and protein

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17
Q

Secretion via vesicular fusion with the membrane most directly involves which of the following signaling events?

  • none - vesicles fuse spontaneoulsy
  • Increased intracellular calcium
  • Methylation of the vesicle
  • Phosphorylation of the vesicle
A

Increased intracellular calcium

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18
Q

Gap junctions have been shown to play a role in which of the following pathologies?

  • Diabetes
  • Tay Sachs Disease
  • Alzheimer’s Disease
  • Drug induced liver injury
A

Drug induced liver injury

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19
Q

Which of the following proteins functions to generate cAMP?

  • Protein Kinase C
  • Adenylate Cyclase
  • The Gs G-protein
  • Protein Kinase A
A

Adenylate Cyclase

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20
Q

The immediate effect of a steroid hormone binding to its receptor is

  • The activation of Gs
  • The influx of calcium into the cell
  • The binding of the receptor to DNA
  • The activation of a tyrosine kinase
A

The binding of the receptor to DNA

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21
Q

Prostaglandins are most often used for which of the following signaling strategies?

  • Signaling through direct cell-cell contact
  • Paracrine signaling
  • Autocrine signaling
  • Endocrine signaling
A

Paracrine signaling

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22
Q

You have found that the tissue level of the drug you are studying is 10,000 times higher than your estimate of the concentration of the receptor that the drug targets. Which of the following pharmacological terms fits best with (and probably describes) this observation?

  • Competition
  • Down-regulation
  • Affinity
  • Saturation
A

Saturation

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23
Q

How is TNFaa released from the cell?

  • PKA phosphorylates TNFa and induces release
  • TACE cleaves TNFa from the membrane
  • Calcium induces TNF cleavage from the membrane
  • TACE induces vesicular fusion
A

TACE cleaves TNFa from the membrane

24
Q

The beta-adrenergic receptor activates adenylate cyclase by

  • The removal of GTP and binding of GDP to Gs
  • The removal of GDP and binding of GTP to Gq
  • The removal of GDP and binding of GTP to Gs
  • The removal of GTP and binding of GDP to Gq
A

The removal of GDP and binding of GTP to Gs

25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a direct path for incoming endocytosed molecules?

  • Metabolism within the lysosome.
  • Recycling to the plasma membrane.
  • Transport to the neucleus.
  • Transport to the other side of the cell.
A

Transport to the neucleus

26
Q

How does cholesterol get into the cell?

  • The cholesterol receptor binds cholesterol and is endocytosed.
  • Cholesterol passes into and through the membrane.
  • Cholesterol is endocytosed as part of LDL.
  • Passive transport through one of the SLC family of transporters.
A

Cholesterol is endocytosed as part of LDL

27
Q

Consider regulated and constitutive exocytosis. Which of the following is true?

** I. All cells use regulated exocytosis.**

** II. There exist cells which do NOT use constitutive exocytosis.**

  • Both I and II are true.
  • Only II is true.
  • Only I is true.
  • Neither I or II is true.
A

Neither I or II is true

28
Q

Which of the following statements about endocytosis is correct?

  • Endocytosis involves the pulling inward of material through protein channels.
  • Fibroblasts have the highest rate of endocytosis of any cells measured.
  • All cells endocytose at the same rate.
  • Endocytic vesicles come directly from plasma membrane.
A

Endocytic vesicles come directly from plasma membrane.

29
Q

Which of the following describes Niemann-Pick disease?

  • A lysosomal storage disease involving loss of a specific acid hydrolase.
  • the loss of a chloride transporter leading to increased airway mucus.
  • the buildup of amyloid protein leading to neuronal loss.
  • A cholesterol disease involving increased risk of heart disease.
A

A lysosomal storage disease involving loss of a specific acid hydrolase

30
Q

Drug interactions with transporters can generally be described as…

  • Transporters only interact by bringing drugs into the cell.
  • Some transporters import drugs while others pump drugs out.
  • Transporters do not move drugs into or out of cells in general.
  • Transporters only interact by pumping drugs out of the cell.
A

Some transporters import drugs while others pump drugs out.

31
Q

Cystic Fibrosis is caused by

  • A mutation disrupting endocytosis.
  • The inability to transport xenobiotics.
  • Increased susceptibility to infection.
  • A mutation in an ATP binding transporter.
A

A mutation in an ATP binding transporter

32
Q

Which is true of vesicular trafficking?

  • Vesicles are only used for bringing in material from outside the cell.
  • Vesicles use lipid rafts to target specific destinations within the cell.
  • The cell uses different proteins to coat vesicles derived from the ER, the golgi, and the plasma membrane.
  • All vesicles use clatherin as a coating.
A

The cell uses different proteins to coat vesicles derived from the ER, the golgi, and the plasma membrane

33
Q

Consider 2 states: a person has just enough to eat to survive versus a person who overeats continuously. What is the most likely stress that overeating would most immediately generate?

  • Hypoxia
  • Generation of peroxy radicals
  • Cardiac hypertrophy
  • Generation of DNA mutations
A

Generation of peroxy radicals

34
Q

Which of the following statements about cellular adaption is accurate?

  • Adaption is a slow process taking months to years to complete.
  • Failure to adapt usually results in the death of the cell.
  • All cells rapidly adapt by altering their genetic structure.
  • Only specialized cells adapt to environmental changes.
A

Failure to adapt usually results in the death of the cell

35
Q
  1. What is the function of glutathione peroxidase?
  • Glutathione peroxidase detoxifies reactive oxygen species.
  • Glutathione peroxidase repairs DNA.
  • Glutathione peroxidase regenerates glutathione.
  • Glutathione peroxidase helps refold proteins.
A

Glutathione peroxidase detoxifies reactive oxygen species

36
Q

Which of the following statements is characteristic of a cortisol high state?

  • Increased mobilization of fatty acids.
  • Increased storage of glucose.
  • Decreased gluconeogenesis.
  • Increased DNA repair.** **
A

Increased mobilization of fatty acids.

37
Q

Here are two statements about skeletal muscle regeneration. Please choose the maximum number of correct statements.

I. Muscle fiber type is genetically determined and cannot be changed.

II. The number of fibers in a muscle is constant increasing or decreasing depending on usage.

  • Both I and II are true.
  • Only II is true.
  • Only I is true.
  • Neither is true.
A

Neither is true

38
Q

Which of the following describes some aspect of how cells sense unfolded proteins?

  • Unfolded proteins form disulfide bonds with each other and the aggregates activate AMPK.
  • Unfolded proteins bind to DNA and activate Unfolded Protein Response Genes.
  • Unfolded proteins donate electrons leading to activation of PKA
  • Unfolded proteins bind to GRP78 keeping it from binding to ER stress sensors.
A

Unfolded proteins bind to GRP78 keeping it from binding to ER stress sensors.

39
Q

Which of the following systems would most successfully deal with exposure to a reactive environmental carcinogen?

  • The activity of glutathione peroxidase.
  • The transcription of VEGF.
  • Secretion of inflammatory mediators.
  • Increased secretion of cortisol.
A

The activity of glutathione peroxidase

40
Q

Which of the following describes excision repair?

  • Damaged sections of protein are removed and replaced with an undamaged section of the correct amino acids.
  • A specific damaged base is modified and repaired by an enzyme system.
  • A specific damaged amino acid is modified and repaired by an enzyme system.
  • Damaged sections of DNA are removed and replaced with an undamaged section of the correct bases.
A

Damaged sections of DNA are removed and replaced with an undamaged section of the correct bases.

41
Q

How does the apoptotic signal result in the degradation of DNA?

  • A DNase is activated via the degradation of its inhibitor.
  • Matrix metalloproteinases are activated by Fas.
  • The mitochondria releases DNases with cytochrome c.
  • Caspases cleave DNA directly.
A

A DNase is activated via the degradation of its inhibitor

42
Q

Which of the following statements about Bcl-2 is correct?

  • It associates with death receptors and promotes apoptosis
  • It functions as an initiator caspase.
  • It forms a channel in the mitochondrial membrane.
  • It binds to Bax and blocks its function.
A

It binds to Bax and blocks its function

43
Q

How do T cells contribute to the weakening of the heart?

  • T cells supply TNFa which induces the activation of caspases.
  • T cells supply FasL and increase apoptosis by several orders of magnitude.
  • T cells attach to the heart making it harder to contract.
  • T cells attack cardiomyocytes and promote necrosis.
A

T cells supply FasL and increase apoptosis by several orders of magnitudw

44
Q

Proapoptotic drugs are in clinical trials. What disease would make sense for them to treat?

  • Alzheimer’s Disease
  • Cancer
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Diabetes
A

Cancer

45
Q

Here are two statements about p53. Please choose the option corresponding to the maximum number of true statements.

I. p53 is involved in helping the cell to effect repairs and thus survive.

II p53 is involved in the induction of apoptosis to remove damaged cells.

  • Both I and II are correct
  • Only I is correct
  • Neither I or II is correct
  • Only II is correct
A

Both I and II are correct

46
Q

Which of the following statements would be most consistent with a cell dying via the extrinsic pathway?

  • Bcl2 was overwhelmed by Bax.
  • TNF binding to TNFR1 induced the activation of caspase 8.
  • Benzene exposure caused production of oxygen radicals.
  • cytochrome C release activated a caspase cascade.
A

TNF binding to TNFR1 induced the activation of caspase 8

47
Q

How does a macrophage recognize an apoptotic cell?

  • DNA leaked from the cell is recognized.
  • Phosphatidyl serine is present on the surface of the apoptotic cell.
  • GM1 ganglioside is expressed on the outside of the apoptotic cell.
  • The apoptotic cell has broken into small enough parts that it is just absorbed.
A

Phosphatidyl serine is present on the surface of the apoptotic cell

48
Q

ER stress and the unfolded response can lead to apoptosis. How?

  • Unfolded proteins can induce aggregation of FAS leading to apoptosis.
  • IRE1 interacts with and eventually activates BAX.
  • The UPR leads to prolonged elevated calcium.
  • Unfolded proteins activated caspase 8.
A

IRE1 interacts with and eventually activates BAX

49
Q

Which of the following discoveries provided strong evidence for Janeway’s model of PAMPs (pathogen associated molecular patterns).

  • The discovery of complement.
  • The phagocytic properties of dendritic cells.
  • The discovery of the toll-like receptor (TLR) family
  • The discovery of the inflammasome.
A

The discovery of the toll-like receptor (TLR) family

50
Q

Which of the following situations would you expect to induce the activation of inflammasomes?

  • Mechanism of Disease lecture
  • Bacterial infection
  • Smoke inhalation
  • Twisted ankle
A

Smoke inhalation

*good choice! the partially burned carcinogens in smoke will supply reactive oxygen intermediates to cells of the lung. Inflammasomes can respond to ROI*

51
Q

Which of the following describes some aspect of the vascular response during inflammation?

  • Blood pressure rises as vessels constrict.
  • Vascular endothelial cells proliferate in the presence of VEGF.
  • Cell adhesion molecules are expressed on the surface of vascular endothelia.
  • Transporters actively remove inflammatory products from the damaged tissue.
A

Cell adhesion molecules are expressed on the surface of vascular endothelia.

52
Q

What is the physiological role of the basophil?

  • Causing allergic reactions.
  • Presenting antigen.
  • Fighting bacteria.
  • Fighting helminth infections.
A

Fighting helminth infections

53
Q

Glucocorticoids are powerful antiinflammatory drugs. Which of the following is a direct target for this drug?

  • macrophages
  • NF-kB
  • TLR (toll-like receptors)
  • T cells
A

NF-kB

*The glucocorticoid receptor inhibits NF-kB mediated transcription. Because NF-kB activates many genes involved in inflammation, it is a powerful drug*

54
Q

Which of the following is an antigen presenting cell (APC)?

  • Macrophage
  • Neutrophil
  • Eosinophil
  • T cell
A

Macrophage

55
Q

Consider infiltration and the order of events to make this happen. Which of the following correctly describes this order?

  • Adhesion before activation
  • Activation before chemotaxis
  • Adhesion before rolling
  • Chemotaxis before activation
A

Activation before chemotaxis

56
Q

Which of the following is an endogenous ligand recognized by a TLR?

  • oxidized LDL
  • Flagellin
  • Hemoglobin
  • LPS
A

oxidized LDL

Mechanisms of Disease (6 decks)

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