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Microbiology > Lecture Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Lecture Midterm 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is metabolism?

A

Sum of all chemical processes within a cell includes both catabolic and anabolic reactions

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2
Q

What is anabolism?

A

Biosynthetic reactions smaller substances are joined together, using energy to synthesize larger substances, such as macromolecules for cell structure and products like enzymes organelles, etc.

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3
Q

What is catabolism?

A

Degradative reactions were large substances are broken down into smaller substances to release energy into supply building blocks for making macromolecules

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4
Q

What are the goals of metabolism?

A

Through a process of redox reactions catabolize substances, and then utilize them through another series of redox reactions into substances that are usable for the cell.

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5
Q

What is oxidation?

A

A loss of electrons to an electron acceptor

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6
Q

What is reduction?

A

A gain of electrons from an electron donor

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7
Q

What is a redox reaction?

A

A reaction in which products are derived from oxidized and reduced substances they frequently involve electron or hydrogen carriers

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8
Q

What is a metabolic pathway?

A

Hey series of chemical reactions where the product of the first reaction is the substrate for the subsequent enzyme catalyze step

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9
Q

Why does metabolism occurs in a stepwise manner?

A

So that its process can be regulated, and over or under production can be mitigated

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10
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Protein catalysts or RNA catalysts that increase reaction rates by lowering the activation energy of chemical reactions

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11
Q

What is the function of enzymes?

A

Increase reaction rates by lowering activation energy needed for chemical reactions

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12
Q

What are the components of enzymes?

A

Specialized proteins

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13
Q

How are enzymes named?

A

By adding the suffix – ase they are named according to their substrate, and or function

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14
Q

How do enzymes work?

A

They are substrate specific, meaning that they act on a single substrate or closely related shape, charge or size, and generally catalyze a single reaction

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15
Q

Name the enzyme that is involved in the first stage of glycolysis?

A

Hexose kinase

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16
Q

Name the enzyme that is involved in the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

Hexose kinase, G6PD (glucose six phosphate dehydrogenase)

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17
Q

Name the enzyme that is involved in the Entner-Doudouroff pathway.

A

Hexose kinase

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18
Q

What are the starting an end products of glycolysis?

A

Starting products: one molecule of glucose
End products: two molecules of pyruvate, 2 ATP 2 NADH

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19
Q

What are the stages of glycolysis?

A

There are three main stages, the energy investment stage where ATP is input to start the process, the lysis stage where the six carbon glucose molecule is split into 2 3 carbon pyruvate and the third is the energy conserving or pay off stage where ATP is produced canceling out the initial investment of ATP, and having a net gain of two ATP molecules

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20
Q

How many ATP are produced per molecule of glucose in glycolysis

A

Two ATP

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21
Q

How many NADH are produced in glycolysis?

A

2 NADH

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22
Q

What is the purpose of glycolysis?

A

Catabolized glucose and ready the products for further catabolization to eventually produce an end product of ATP

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23
Q

Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?

A

In the cytoplasm

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24
Q

Does glycolysis require oxygen?

A

No, it is an anaerobic process

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25
Q

What is the starting molecule in the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

Glucose

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26
Q

What is the primary purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

To synthesize NADPH for used within red blood cells

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27
Q

What is the enzyme that if mutated can cause hemolytic anemia in humans?

A

Glucose six phosphate dehydrogenase G6PD

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28
Q

What can trigger episodes of hemolytic anemia and people who have the mutation?

A

Infection, certain medications such as primaquine, sulfa drugs, fava beans, henna

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29
Q

Are there advantages of having hemolytic anemia mutation?

A

Yes, this particular mutation provides protection against malaria

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30
Q

What is the starting molecule in the Entner Doudouroff pathway?

A

Glucose

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31
Q

What is the intermediate product produced by the Entner Doudouroff pathway?

A

2-keto-3-deoxy-6-Phosphogluconic acid (KDPG)

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32
Q

How is the Entner Doudouroff pathway used for diagnosing bacterial infections?

A

Only a few types of pathogens utilize the Entner Doudoroff pathway, such as pseudomonas aeroginosa and enterococcus faecalis. Samples are retained from the patient and KDPG is looked for to inform for possible treatment.

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33
Q

What is the pathways main purpose in the Entner Doudouroff pathway?

A

To produce pyruvic acid to be utilized in the Krebs cycle or fermentation

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34
Q

What must happen to pyruvate for it to enter the Krebs cycle?

A

It has to become acetyl Coa

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35
Q

What are the starting and end products of the Krebs cycle?

A
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36
Q

How many ATP are produced per turn in the Krebs cycle per glucose?

A

1, it takes to turns for every glucose molecule so a total of 2 ATP are synthesized for every glucose molecule in the Krebs cycle

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37
Q

How many NADH are produced per turn per glucose in the Krebs cycle?

A

3

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38
Q

What is the purpose of the Krebs cycle?

A

To transfer energy from acetyl-CoA to NAD+ and FAD to then be used in an electron transport chain

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39
Q

What is an electron transport chain?

A

It is a stepwise process in which electron carriers are put with proteins in redox reactions to allow for more synthesis of ATP

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40
Q

What are the components and carrier molecules in the electron transport chain?

A

NADH, FADH2, oxygen

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41
Q

What is chemiosmosis?

A

It can be considered a molecular machine that converts the hydronium gradient into ATP energy

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42
Q

What is proton motive, force and what does it do?

A

It is a buildup in the chemosmotic gradient of hydronium ions in the innermembrane of the mitochondrial matrix which then pushes the hydronium ions back through the membrane, in a specific protein (ATP synthase) resulting in the formation of ADP to ATP

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43
Q

What is the terminal electron acceptor of anaerobic ETC?

A

It would be an inorganic molecule such as sulfate, nitrate, or carbon dioxide 

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44
Q

What is used as the terminal electron acceptor of an aerobic ETC?

A

Oxygen

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45
Q

How many ATP’s are made from each type of ETC?

A

As much as 38 ATP depending on organism

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46
Q

What is the purpose of an electron transport chain?

A

To accept electrons from electron carriers and transfer them to other electronic scepters, and also use energy released from electron transfer to create a proton gradient across the membrane

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47
Q

Can an organism have more than a one electron transport chain? Why wouldn’t want to?

A

Yes, it can it can have an anaerobic electron transport chain as well as an aerobic electron transport chain. It would want this to be able to utilize different environments to keep energy production happening regardless of oxygen availability.

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48
Q

What is fermentation?

A

A process that does not utilize the Krebs cycle or an electron transport chain. Instead, it uses an organic molecule like pyruvic acid as the final electron acceptor to regenerate NAD+ without oxygen

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49
Q

What is the starting molecule in fermentation?

A

Glucose

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50
Q

What are some of the end products of fermentation?

A

NAD+, reduced organic molecule some of which are consumable to humans such as ethanol, acidic acid, and lactic acid

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51
Q

What is the purpose of fermentation?

A

Regeneration of NAD+ for continued glycolysis

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52
Q

How was fermentation important in recent post World War II history?

A

Chaim Weizmann held the patents for the best ways to utilize acetone butanol fermentation. He was approached by the British government who wanted to utilize those patents during the war, he said he would allow it, but his one stipulation was that a state of Israel be created to protect Jews after the war when Israel was created, he was the first president of the state of Israel.

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53
Q

How are proteins catabolized?

A

First, they are hydrolyzed from proteins structure and peptide bonds are broken to put them into individual amino acids, then beta oxidation.

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54
Q

How are fats catabolized?

A

Lipase splits glycerol from the fatty acids, fatty acids are then catabolized via beta oxidation, resulting in 14 to 17 ATP per cycle of beta oxidation

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55
Q

How many ATP are generated per cycle of beta oxidation?

A

14-17

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56
Q

Why is it called beta oxidation?

A

With each turn of the beta oxidation cycle, the beta carbon on the fatty acid chain is cleaved off

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57
Q

What are the reactants and end products in photosynthesis?

A

6CO2+6H2O+light= C6H12O6+ 6O2

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58
Q

What are photo systems?

A

Cells arrange numerous molecules of chlorophyll and other pigments in a protein matrix to form light harvesting matrices.

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59
Q

What is chlorophyll?

A

A pigment molecule that captures light energy to be utilized during photosynthesis. It has a light absorbing active site, a porphyrin ring with a magnesium ion, and a hydrocarbon tail.

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60
Q

In regards to photosynthesis what are the dark reactions and what are the products?

A

These are the reactions that do not need light as a reactant.

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61
Q

How many CO2, ATP, and NADPH does it take to make a molecule of glucose with photosynthesis?

A

6 CO2 -> glyceraldehyde three phosphate (2G3P are needed for one glucose)
18 ATP
12 NADPH

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62
Q

Which photo center is responsible for oxidative photosynthesis?

A

Photosystem two

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63
Q

Which photo system to all photo synthetic organisms have?

A

Photosystem one which is utilized for cyclic photophosphorylation

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64
Q

What is the importance of oxidative photosynthesis?

A

It creates oxygen as a byproduct, so they can be considered carbon fixers since they take in CO2 and release O2

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65
Q

What is cyclic photophosphorylation?

A

It is found in all photosynthetic organisms. It uses photosystem one. It does not generate oxygen. Light comes into the photo system and hits the chlorophyll which excites electrons, those electrons are picked up by electron carriers and brought through the electron transport chain as they do, they lose energy. Energy is able to be harvested from these electron carriers through ATP synthase pumping energy through to convert ADP to ATP. Remaining electrons then re-enter chlorophyll, where they become excited again from the incoming light energy, and complete the cycle again.

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66
Q

How does cyclic photophosphorylation work?

A

It utilizes an electron transport chain, energy is used to pump protons across the membrane, and then proton motive force is used by pumping protons through the membrane to generate ATP from ADP.

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67
Q

What is noncyclic photophosphorylation and how does it work?

A

Utilizes photosystem one and photosystem two. Chlorophyll in photosystem two reacts with light first, then a hydrolysis reaction occurs with water to yield protons (2 hydronium, ions, and one oxygen.) then in photosystem one they follow the same steps as cyclic photophosphorylation. overall, this system will produce ATP, NADPH, and oxygen. 

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68
Q

What is an amphibolic pathway?

A

It is a pathway that can be used both in catabolism or anabolism. Glucose as an example: going into glycolysis-glycolysis can be run in a forward reaction or can be reversed to produce metabolites such as carbohydrates nucleotides, sugar, carrying nucleotides or carbohydrates lake peptidoglycan or glycogen

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69
Q

Is it possible for some pathways to be both anabolic and catabolic?

A

Yes, it is possible. An example of this is taking acetyl CoA and siphoning some of it off in the Krebs cycle to make fatty acids, or taking alpha ketoglutaric acid to make amino acids, or oxaloacetic acid to make amino acids while still continuing to break down remaining acetyl Coa to make ATP.

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70
Q

Name three types of photoautotrophs

A

Algae, green plants, cyanobacteria

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71
Q

Name six groups that are chemoheterotrophs

A

Humans, animals, fungi, some types of bacteria, some archaea, some protozoa

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72
Q

What do chemoheterotroph lack?

A

The ability to synthesize their own food

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73
Q

What do photoautotrophs have?

A

The ability to synthesize their own food utilizing chlorophyll and light

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74
Q

What are three types of photosynthetic pigments?

A

Chlorophylls, bacteriochlorophylls, ???

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75
Q

What is an electron carrier?

A

Molecules that can be used to carry hydronium ions in a redox reaction for ATP synthesis

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76
Q

What is a cytochrome?

A

Proteins that contain porphyrin rings complex with iron

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77
Q

What is a flavoprotein?

A

Proteins containing Flavin

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78
Q

What is a ubiquinones?

A

Ubiquitous, lipid soluble, nonprotein electron carriers derived from vitamin K

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79
Q

What are metal containing proteins?

A

Proteins complex to metal ions, such as iron and sulfur

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80
Q

What is an apoenzyme?

A

An enzyme without a cofactor or coenzyme

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81
Q

What is a Holoenzyme?

A

Apoenzyme+cofactor+coenzyme=holoenzyme (active form)

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82
Q

What are coenzymes and cofactors?

A

Substances required by some enzymes for full activity

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83
Q

Which atom represents electron transfer?

A

Hydrogen

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84
Q

What is a reducing agent?

A

It is the electron donor in a redox reaction

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85
Q

What is an oxidizing agent?

A

It is the electron acceptor in a redox reaction

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86
Q

Name 3 H carriers that are frequently used in redox reactions in ATP synthesis?

A

NAD+ NADP, FAD

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87
Q

Name three things that cells require energy for?

A

Biosynthesis/anabolism, motility, active transport

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88
Q

What is substrate level phosphorylation?

A

The formation of ATP by directly transferring a phosphate group to ADP from an intermediate substrate, using catabolism

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89
Q

Why must NADH be regenerated?

A

The cell supply of NAD plus is finite, using it up results in a shut down of glycolysis

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90
Q

What are the two other names for the Krebs cycle?

A

Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle

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91
Q

Denaturation of a protein by heat or pH destroys what level of structure in an amino acid?

A

It’s 3-D structure

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92
Q

What is NAD?

A

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

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93
Q

What is NADP?

A

An electron carrier used in the pentose phosphate pathway, for anabolic reactions. It is utilized as a cofactor. NADP stands for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate.

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94
Q

What is FAD?

A

Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) is a cofactor for cytochrome-b5 reductase, the enzyme that maintains hemoglobin in its functional reduced state, and for glutathione reductase, an enzyme that also protects erythrocytes from oxidative damage.

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95
Q

Where are electron carriers located in prokaryotes?

A

They are located in the cell membrane

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96
Q

Where are electron carriers located in eukaryotes?

A

They are located in the inner mitochondrial membrane

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97
Q

What does Endergonic mean?

A

It means that it requires energy

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98
Q

What are three things that anabolism is needed for?

A

Growth, repair, reproduction

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99
Q

What are three things that catabolism is needed for?

A

Movement, transport, anabolism

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100
Q

What does Exergonic mean?

A

Releasing energy

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101
Q

How is catabolism exogonic?

A

It breaks chemical bonds to release energy

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102
Q

How is energy stored?

A

As a teepee or PEP

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103
Q

Explain how ADP becomes ATP

A

ADP is phosphorylated in the energy released is used to make ATP

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104
Q

How is energy released for anabolism?

A

A phosphate bond is broken in ATP

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105
Q

In macromolecules, where is the energy found?

A

Energy is spread over all of the nutrients chemical bonds

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106
Q

What type of energy does anabolism require?

A

Concentrated energy like the energy found in phosphate bonds of ATP

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107
Q

What do we call RNA that can act as an enzyme?

A

Ribozyme

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108
Q

What is an example of RNA acting as an enzyme?

A

RRNA is what actually bonds the peptides together, so this is an example of RNA, being an enzyme, also known as a ribozyme

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109
Q

What is the chemical function of a kinase?

A

It adds phosphate to molecules

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110
Q

What is the function of an active site?

A

It is where the substrate binds to an enzyme

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111
Q

Why is the 3-D structure of a protein important?

A

The 3-D structure of a protein is what allows it to bind to an active site on an enzyme. If the shape doesn’t match the enzyme, the protein will not be able to bind with its active site, and the help of the reaction won’t happen

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112
Q

What is an example of a coenzyme?

A

Niacin

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113
Q

What is an example of a cofactor?

A

magnesium

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114
Q

Is a cofactor organic or inorganic

A

Inorganic

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115
Q

Is a coenzyme organic or inorganic?

A

Organic

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116
Q

Who is Bruce Ames and what does he propose?

A

A scientist, who advocates for a metabolic tuneup with megadoses of vitamins, and supplements to help mitigate the aging process.

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117
Q

How does thiamine (vitamin B one) help people with the metabolic disorder maple syrup urine disease?

A

Taking a super dose of thiamine, basically forces the substrate to binds to the active site of the enzyme correctly

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118
Q

What is pellagra?

A

A vitamin deficiency disease when someone is deficient in vitamin B3 also known as nicotinamide. If our body doesn’t have enough nicotinamide, it cannot make NAD insufficient quantities. This inhibits catabolism and by default also inhibits anabolism.

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119
Q

What is the characteristic presentation of pellagra?

A

The most notable is skin lesions

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120
Q

What is the result of pellagra if it remains untreated?

A

It can result in death

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121
Q

What are four factors that influence the rate of enzymatic reactions?

A

Temperature, pH, enzyme and substrate concentrations, inhibitors

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122
Q

What is the optimum temperature for a psychrophile?

A

4°C

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123
Q

What is the optimum temperature for a mesophile?

A

37°C

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124
Q

What is the optimum temperature for a thermophile?

A

95°C

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125
Q

Human pathogens are more likely to be what type of phile?

A

Mesophile

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126
Q

What is the optimal pH for pepsin

A

Two

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127
Q

What is the optimal pH for urease?

A

Seven

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128
Q

What is the optimal pH for trypsin

A

10

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129
Q

What are the three types of inhibitors?

A

Competitive inhibitors, non-competitive inhibitors, negative feedback inhibitors

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130
Q

Do inhibitors denature enzymes?

A

No

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131
Q

What is an inhibitor?

A

A substance that decreases or eliminates an enzymes function

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132
Q

What is a competitive inhibitor?

A

It’s an inhibitor that has a similar three dimensional shape as a substrate. It takes the place of the substrate in the active site, and makes it so that the substrate no longer can bind to the enzyme

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133
Q

Is it possible for a substrate to outcompete a competitive inhibitor?

A

Yes, it is possible if the inhibitor is reversible, if it is irreversible, it can’t

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134
Q

Is penicillin an irreversible or reversible competitive inhibitor?

A

It is an irreversible competitive inhibitor.

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135
Q

How does sulfa drug function as a competitive inhibitor of bacteria?

A

It is a competitive inhibitor of Folick acid synthesis enzymes, these are a precursor of nucleotides so if you don’t allow folic acid to be synthesized, nucleotides cannot be built and cell proliferation cannot continue.

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136
Q

What is the role of PABA?

A

It is a substrate for the enzyme involved in folate synthesis

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137
Q

What is the role of folate?

A

It is used to make nucleotides

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138
Q

What does PABA stand for?

A

Para-aminobenzoic acid

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139
Q

Why are sulfa drugs not toxic to humans?

A

Sulfa drugs target, folate synthesis and humans import folate also known as vitamin B9 through our diet

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140
Q

What is an allosteric inhibitor or noncompetitive inhibitor?

A

It is an inhibitor that binds to an alternate site on the enzyme, known as the allosteric site

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141
Q

How does an allosteric inhibitor work?

A

It causes an alteration of the active site so that the enzyme can’t function

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142
Q

What is an example of a noncompetitive inhibitor?

A

Lead, Pb

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143
Q

How does feedback inhibition function?

A

End products of the metabolic pathway, build up, and then inhibit the first enzyme in the pathway

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144
Q

What does NAD stand for?

A

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

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145
Q

Why is the redox reaction for NAD important?

A

There is a finite amount of NAD so when it converts to NADH, the cells have to get more NAD

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146
Q

What happens in step one of glycolysis?

A

Glucose has a phosphate from ATP directly, transferred onto it, leaving glucose, six phosphate and ADP

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147
Q

What happens in step three of glycolysis?

A

ATP is used to transfer a phosphate onto fructose, six phosphate, resulting in fructose 1-6 diphosphate and ADP

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148
Q

What happens in step four of glycolysis?

A

Fructose 1-6 diphosphate is broken into two separate molecules dihydroxyacetone phosphate, (DHAP)and glyceraldehyde, three phosphate, known as GP

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149
Q

What happens in step seven of glycolysis?

A

Two ATP are made by transferring the phosphate group to 2 ADP

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150
Q

What happens in step eight of glycolysis

A

Isomerization moves phosphate to the interior to produce PEP also known as Phosphophenolpyruvic acid

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151
Q

What happens in step 10 of glycolysis?

A

Two ATP are made by transferring phosphates from 2 PEP to 2 ADP

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152
Q

Name two alternatives to glycolysis

A

Pentose, phosphate pathway, Entner Doudoroff pathway

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153
Q

What can ribose five phosphate be utilized for?

A

Synthesis of nucleotides

154
Q

During the pentose phosphate pathway, what can ribulose five phosphate be sent to?

A

The Calvin Benson cycle of photosynthesis

155
Q

What is the importance of erythrose 4 phosphate in the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

It can be utilized in the synthesis of amino acids

156
Q

What is the main role of the pentose phosphate pathway with NADPH?

A

The pentose phosphate pathway is mainly a synthetic pathway, allowing for the formation of NADPH, which then can be used by red blood cells.

157
Q

What is the role of glutathione?

A

It protects red blood cells from oxidative stress

158
Q

What reduces glutathione?

A

NADPH

159
Q

What happens if there is a G6PD deficiency?

A

NADPH is not synthesized and therefore glutathione is not reduced which doesn’t allow for oxidative stress within a red blood cell to be reduced.

160
Q

What type of organism utilizes the Entner Doudoroff pathway?

A

Prokaryotes

161
Q

The pathogen pseudomonas aeroginosa is typically found in what types of patients

A

Burn patients, patients with cystic fibrosis

162
Q

Enterococcus faecalis

A

Causes endocarditis, mainly in people with congenital malformations of the valves (heart murmur) as well as people who have had prosthetic valves or recreational drug usage intravenously

163
Q

Which glucose metabolic pathway would be the best target for an antibiotic for use in humans?

A
164
Q

Why does pyruvate need to be changed into acetyl-CoA to enter the Krebs cycle?

A

Only two carbon molecules can enter the Krebs cycle, so pyruvate needs to be oxidized and decarboxylated

165
Q

What is added to make acetyl-CoA?

A

CoA

166
Q

What is the end product of the synthesis of acetyl CoA?

A

Two acetyl CoA, 2 CO2, 2 NADH for every glucose molecule

167
Q

Where do prokaryotes generate ATP?

A

Between cell wall and cytoplasm

168
Q

In total how many ATP are produced during aerobic respiration, and specifically how many during each step in the process?

A

A total of 38 ATP are synthesized during aerobic respiration. Two from glycolysis, two from the Krebs cycle, 34 from the electron transport chain under optimal conditions.

169
Q

What are some molecules that can inhibit the electron transport chain?

A

Mercury, Demirel, cyanide, carbon monoxide

170
Q

How can urinalysis be utilized to check for an E. coli infection?

A

By looking for a high presence of nitrates in urine, understanding that that is a byproduct of anaerobic respiration utilized by E. coli

171
Q

What is triple sugar iron medium?

A

It is utilized in forcing bacteria to culture within an anaerobic environment. The byproduct from certain bacteria in an anaerobic environment is hydrogen sulfide,, which then combines with the ferrous sulfate in the medium to produce ferrous sulfide, and it registers as a black precipitate, this informs for bacterial classification as not all bacteria, utilize anaerobic respiration, and of those that do not all of them utilize hydrogen sulfide.

172
Q

Why is it important to be familiar with the different fermentation pathways?

A

Not all organisms can have all types of fermentation pathways, therefore, microbes can be identified or profiled by their specific fermentation pathway. This can inform for identification and possible treatments.

173
Q

All E. coli strains look the same under a microscope, how is it possible to differentiate between strains of E. coli?

A

E. coli can be tested for its ability to ferment different types of sugars such as sorbitol. E. coli 0157 cannot ferment sorbitol but other strains can. It will test negative on a PR sorbitol test.

174
Q

What does a positive PR sorbitol test look like?

A

It will be yellow with some gas in the small tube, indicating that fermentation has taken place.

175
Q

What does a negative PR sorbitol test look like?

A

It will be red with no gas present in the little tube

176
Q

What is a protease?

A

A digestive enzyme secreted by a cell to assist in catabolizing larger molecules, such as proteins

177
Q

What type of reaction to the protease utilize?

A

Hydrolysis reaction

178
Q

What has to happen to amino acids before they can enter the cell?

A

Deamination needs to happen and for certain amino acids desulfurylation (methionine

179
Q

What is a genetic disorder that stems from the inability to metabolize amino acids?

A

Phenylketonuria which stems from an inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Untreated children will experience mental retardation. Treatment course is diet modification with the aim of consuming low levels of phenylalanine. parents also receive counseling to not give children anything containing aspartame.

180
Q

What is the cause of maple syrup urine disease?

A

It is the inability to process branched amino acids such as valine, isoleucine, and Lucine. These accumulate and cause damage to the brain and respiratory system.

181
Q

Where are photosystems found in prokaryotes?

A

In the infoldings of the cytoplasmic membrane

182
Q

Where are photosystems found in eukaryotes?

A

In the infoldings of the inner membrane of chloroplasts

183
Q

What is the definition of a macrobe?

A

Kingdoms animalia, fungi, plantae, and the remainder of eukarya

184
Q

What is the definition of a microbe?

A

Micro organisms that cannot be seen by the naked eye, and can only be seen under a microscope these are found within the domains bacteria, and Archaea as well as single celled eukaryotic protists.

185
Q

What are some characteristics of a microbe?

A

They can be unicellular or multicellular. They can’t be seen with naked eyes, but are visible by microscope. They are able to adapt to their environment, respond to stimuli, carry out, metabolism, and carry out growth.

186
Q

Why do microbes, especially bacteria, have diverse habitats?

A

They have small size, they need only small amounts of nutrients they are metabolically diverse, and they have tolerance for a wide range of physical conditions

187
Q

What are three necessary things required by all organisms?

A

Food, water, shelter

188
Q

What are the four groups based on sources of carbon and energy?

A

Photoautotrophs (energy from light, carbon from environment)
Chemoautotrophs (energy from chemicals, carbon from environment)
Photoheterotrophs (energy from light, carbon from organic compounds)
Chemoheterotrophs (energy and carbon from organic compounds)

189
Q

What are the essential elements and trace elements?

A

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphate, sulfur are the principal elements. Trace elements are zinc, magnesium, manganese.

190
Q

What are the enzymes that are involved in detoxifying toxic oxygen forms?

A

Superoxide radical (O2-) an enzyme called superoxide dismutase is used in the following reaction:
2O2-+2H+=2H2O2+O2

Peroxide and ion is formed by superoxide dismutase during metabolism. Catalase detoxifies the peroxide in the following reaction:
2H2O2=2H2O+ O2

191
Q

How are microbes classified based on aerobicity?

A

As anaerobes and aerobes which is referring to the way that they metabolize energy

192
Q

How does temperature affect microbial growth?

A

It can denature proteins, would affect the 3-D configuration of biological molecules.This can happen with enzymes as well as phospholipids in membranes.
cold slows enzymes down.
keep in mind the minimum, maximum, and optimum growth temperatures of microbes.

193
Q

How does pH affect microbial growth?

A

Hydronium ions and hydroxide ions interfere with hydrogen bonding of proteins and nucleic acids. Specifically it destroys the tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and destroys nucleic acid structure.

194
Q

How does tonicity affect microbial growth?

A

It restricts organisms to living within certain environments, some will only grow in a hypertonic environment, others will only grow an isotonic environments, and others will only grow in a hypotonic environment. 

195
Q

How does atmospheric pressure affect microbial growth?

A

High pressure induces confirmational changes in the cell membranes. It can also modify biochemical reactions, as well as the genetic mechanism of microorganisms, which then reduces the microbial count.

196
Q

How is microbial growth measured?

A

It is exponentially measured

197
Q

What are the phases of microbial growth (standard growth curve.)

A

The lag phase, the log or exponential phase, the stationary phase, and the death or decline phase

198
Q

What is carbon utilized for in microbial growth and nutrition?

A

It is an energy source and the building blocks for carbohydrates, fats, proteins

199
Q

How is nitrogen utilized in microbial growth

A

It is found in amino acids, purines and pyrimidines

200
Q

What do cyanobacteria do with nitrogen?

A

Intakes N2 and reduces it to NH3, which is nitrogen fixation, and is an essential component of soil fertilization.

201
Q

What do Rhizobium do with nitrogen?

A

It takes an N2 and convert it to NH3 which is essential for soil and is nitrogen fixation

202
Q

How is oxygen utilized in microbial growth and nutrition?

A

It is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain in aerobic respiration. It is used with carbohydrates. There are also toxic forms of oxygen formed during aerobic respiration.

203
Q

What are the toxic forms of oxygen formed during aerobic respiration?

A

Superoxide radical (O2-) an enzyme called superoxide dismutase is used in the following reaction:
2O2-+2H+=2H2O2+O2

Peroxide anion is formed by superoxide dismutase during metabolism. Catalase or perioxidase detoxifies the peroxide in the following reaction:
2H2O2=2H2O+ O2 (gas)

204
Q

What is sulfur utilized for in metabolism and synthesis?

A

Cysteine, methionine, coenzymes, iron sulfide proteins in electron transport chains. This forms disulfide bonds that are critical to the tertiary structure of proteins and in vitamins, such as thiamin and biotin.

205
Q

What is phosphate utilized for in microbial nutrition and synthesis?

A

Nucleic acids, ATP, phospholipids, some proteins

206
Q

What are the trace elements involved as enzyme cofactors?

A

Copper (Cu), iron (Fe), zinc (Zn), cobalt (Co), sodium (Na), chlorine (Cl), potassium (K)

207
Q

What is cobalt used for as a cofactor?

A

Vitamin B 12

208
Q

What is iron used for as a cofactor

A

Heme and the electron transport chain cytochromes

209
Q

What is the definition of a growth factor?

A

Organic substances required in small amounts organisms can’t synthesize them themselves vitamins, and essential amino acids, purines and pyrimidines for some organisms, cholesterol, NADH, and heme are also growth factors for some organisms.

210
Q

What are psychrophiles?

A

Cold lovers they grow best below 15°C. Some grow well as low as 0°C.

211
Q

What are mesophiles?

A

They grow best at 20 to 40°C. Most pathogens are metafiles there optimal temperature is 37°C.

212
Q

What are thermophiles

A

Microbes that grow best about 45°C. Some can grow as high as 110°C

213
Q

What are acidophiles?

A

They are acid lovers they grow best at a pH of 0.1-5.4.

214
Q

What are neutrophiles?

A

Microbes that grow best at a pH of 5.4-8.0 this includes most human pathogens.

215
Q

What are alkaliphiles?

A

They are microbes that are based lovers. They grow best at a pH of 7-11.5.

216
Q

What is the purpose of water within microbes?

A

It is utilized to dissolve enzymes and nutrients, and serves an important role in metabolism, most cells die without water, there are also physical effects of water such as osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure.

217
Q

What is osmotic pressure

A

The pressure exerted on a semi permeable membrane by a solution containing solutes that cannot freely cross the membrane. These are separated into isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic solutions.

218
Q

What is a hyper osmotic environment?

A

An environment which is saltier in the extracellular fluid than the intracellular fluid. The result of this is cells shrinking due to water loss, which is known as plasmolysis or creation.

219
Q

What is a hypo osmotic environment?

A

It is when the inside of the cell does saltier than the extracellular fluid. Cells will take on water walled cells, such as bacteria, plants or fungi, become swollen cells without walls will burst

220
Q

What does a halophile?

A

A microbe that requires a high salt concentration, between 10 to 35% to survive and grow

221
Q

What is the relationship and hydrostatic pressure between meters of depth and ATM?

A

For every 10 m of depth water pressure will increase one ATM, one ATM is roughly equivalent to 15 psi

222
Q

Can bacteria survive high levels of hydrostatic pressure?

A

Yes, bacteria can survive to a depth of 7000 m. Some bacteria known as barophiles require pressure to grow

223
Q

What are the three types of ecological associations with microbes?

A
  1. Antagonistic
  2. Synergistic
  3. Symbiotic
224
Q

And microbial relationships what is the definition of antagonistic?

A

In which one organism harms, or kills another

225
Q

In microbial relationships, what is the definition of synergistic?

A

Members cooperate to reap the benefits in excess of those gotten one living alone. each member can live separately, however

226
Q

In microbial relationships what is the definition of symbiotic?

A

Organisms live in close, nutritional and or physical contact and are independent. Members usually don’t live apart from the relationship.

227
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

Organisms living with biofilm respond to signals from fellow organisms through the biofilm and respond with new behaviors.

228
Q

What is the culture technique for anaerobic cultures?

A

Reducing media contain oxygen binding compounds like thioglycolate

229
Q

What is the special culture technique for low oxygen culture for microaerophiles and capnophiles?

A

Use carbon dioxide, incubators, and candle jars

230
Q

What are three ways that you can preserve cultures?

A

Refrigeration, deep, freezing, freeze drying

231
Q

How does growth in microbial populations occur?

A

Through binary fission, the cell duplicates, its components, and splits into two daughter cells. Growth is logarithmic.

232
Q

What is the definition of lag phase on a growth curve?

A

The period of time in which microbes are gathering nutrients no anabolism is occurring

233
Q

What is the definition of log phase on a growth curve?

A

This is the anabolic phase when bacteria are actively growing. Due to binary fission, this happens at an exponential rate.

234
Q

What do the X and Y axis represent on a growth curve?

A

The X axis represents time, the Y axis represents growth

235
Q

Do all cells divide at the same time and microbial growth?

A

No, division is nonsynchronous

236
Q

Why is the log phase a finite duration?

A

As the number of bacteria increase, nutrients are depleted and bacterial waste accumulates

237
Q

What is a limiting factor in the log phase?

A

The rate of energy production from ATP

238
Q

What are the characteristics of the stationary phase in a growth curve?

A

Nutrients are limited, waste can be at toxic levels for bacteria, oxygen is inadequate, pH levels are sub optimal, new cells produce at a rate of old cells death

239
Q

What are the characteristics of the decline or death phase?

A

Waste have built up, nutrients are depleted, growth cannot be sustained, cell death continues to occur

240
Q

What is colonial growth?

A

Exponential growth on a solid surface, leading to colony formation. All cells in the colony or descendants of the original founding sell. The colony is the same as a clone. All phases of the growth curve occur simultaneously throughout the colony, but growth is nonsynchronous.

241
Q

What is the viable cell measure method?

A

Placing a known volume of culture onto a plate and allowing it to grow, count the colonies on the plate, then multiply by the dilution rate used, multiply that by the amount of culture that was pleated and this will give you the viable microbes in the sample.

242
Q

What is the membrane filtration growth measure?

A

This is utilized if your sample looks to dilute for serial, dilution and viable plate count you take a known amount of sample to be filtered and attach a membrane filter to a vacuum the membrane filter retains the sells. Those cells are transferred to a culture, medium incubated, and the colonies are counted.

243
Q

What is the Petroff-Hauser counting chamber?

A

This is a special type of microbial slide that allows for visual accounting methods to be utilized. Pipette some of the bacterial suspension onto the slide. cover with the special cover slip and examine under oil immersion. Count all of the cells in the 5 x 5 grid and then multiply by 10 to the fourth. This does not differentiate between viable and non-viable cells.

244
Q

What are electronic counters?

A

Utilizing a light source and a light sensitive detector, also known as a spectrophotometer and inoculated broth, culture is placed between the light source, and the light sensitive detector, based on the amount of light absorbed by the detector calculations are able to be made regarding the amount of microbial growth in the inoculated broth culture. This does not distinguish between viable and dead cells.

245
Q

What are three indirect methods of measuring microbial growth?

A

Turbidy-measuring with a spectrophotometer
Measure metabolic products
By dry weight measurement

246
Q

What is the definition of microbial growth?

A

The increase in a population of microbes

247
Q

What are the requirements of microbial growth?

A

Temperature either the minimum optimum or maximum, pH within acceptable ranges, osmotic pressure within acceptable ranges and hydrostatic pressure within acceptable ranges.

248
Q

Which methods of measuring microbial growth can distinguish between living and dead cells?

A

Serial, dilution, metabolic activity, and membrane filtration

249
Q

Oxygen in the atmosphere is essential for human life. How can some bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen?

A

Some bacteria thrive in anaerobic conditions and utilize anaerobic pathways for energy synthesis

250
Q

What effect does temperature have on lipid containing membranes of cells and organelles?

A

If the temperature is too low membranes become rigid and fragile. If the temperature is too high, membranes become to fluid, and cannot contain the cell or organelle.

251
Q

What is an example of a psychotroph?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

252
Q

What is an example of a thermophile?

A

Thermus aquaticus

253
Q

What are psychotropics most likely responsible for?

A

Food spoilage within refrigerators

254
Q

Based on the growth pattern seen here, are these bacteria psychrophiles, mesophiles, or thermophiles, and would they be likely to cause human disease?

A

Growth is best occurring at 37°C, which is characteristic of a mesophile. Yes, they would be likely to cause human disease because most pathogens are mesophiles.

255
Q

At what pH do most bacteria and protozoa grow optimally?

A

They are neutrophiles and grow best at a pH of 6.5-7.5.

256
Q

How do humans use acidophiles to our benefit?

A

They are utilized in food preservation by preventing further microbial growth, such as lacto fermentation utilized to make pickled vegetables and other foods.

257
Q

What are the two groups that organisms are categorized into based on their carbon source?

A

Autotrophs which have an inorganic source of carbon like carbon dioxide, and heterotrophs, which have an organic source of carbon like found in proteins and carbohydrates.

258
Q

What are the two groups that organisms are categorized into based on their energy source?

A

Phototrophs which get their energy from light, and chemotrophs which get their energy from redox reactions of inorganic and organic chemicals

259
Q

What is familial amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

It is a form of ALS that is a genetic mutation of the super oxide dismutase enzyme, which then renders the person unable to detoxify superoxide.

260
Q

What is Acatalasia?

A

It is a mutation that results in people being unable to produce the enzyme catalase, complications include increased periodontal disease and oral gangrene

261
Q

What are the four classification based on oxygen requirements?

A

Aerobes: metabolize aerobically, obligate aerobes that require 02
anaerobes: metabolize anaerobically, obligate that are poisoned by O2
facultative anaerobes: can metabolize aerobically and anaerobically
aerotolerant anaerobes: metabolize anaerobically, can detoxify oxygen’s poisonous forms

262
Q

Explain how bacteria growing in a thioglycolate medium helps with classification based on oxygen requirements?

A

Obligate anaerobes will grow towards the bottom
obligate aerobes will grow towards the top
facultative anaerobes will have a higher concentration at the top, but will be dispersed throughout, aerotolerant anaerobes will be evenly dispersed throughout the medium

263
Q

Why have the majority of prokaryotes never been grown in culture?

A

Due to their complex growth requirements it is very difficult to culture prokaryotes

264
Q

What are the six types of general culture media?

A

Defined media, complex media, selective media, differential media, anaerobic media, transport media

265
Q

What type of microbes can utilize defined media?

A

Microbes that have a high level of enzymatic ability and are able to break down organic compounds found in the agar to utilize as nutrients for growth

266
Q

What is complex media?

A

A type of media that can be used by micro organisms that have some ability for metabolizing things like glucose or broken down proteins, but not to the extent of microbes that can grow in defined media

267
Q

What is selective media?

A

A type of media that will suppress the growth of certain microbes, while allowing for other microbes to grow. An example of this would be altering the pH of the media to suppress bacterial growth and encourage fungal growth.

268
Q

What is differential media?

A

A type of media that gives the ability to distinguish between microbes. You can give something to the microbes to utilize in a fermentation pathway and see which microbes can utilize carbon for example in fermentation, and which ones cannot.

269
Q

What is anaerobic media?

A

A media that creates an anaerobic environment to protect obligate anaerobes

270
Q

What is transport media?

A

Commonly used in a clinical environment, it is media that would allow for transport, while not inhibiting growth of the microbial specimen

271
Q

What type of microorganisms are grown with animal and cell culture?

A

Obligate intracellular parasites such as viruses,
fastidious microbes
Rickettsias
chlamydias

272
Q

What is the protocol for being able to culture a capnophiles?

A

Specimens are placed in media inside of a large jar, which then has a lid placed on it. Inside the jar is also a candle burning, which will use up most of the oxygen and produce high amounts of CO2. This creates in an ideal environment for capnophiles, such as neisseria gonorrhoeae.

273
Q

What is reducing media?

A

A type of media that will reduce certain chemicals in the microbial environment that could possibly inhibit growth. This can also be achieved if oxygen reduction is needed by using anaerobic containers

274
Q

How is bariatric medicine utilized for patients with gas gangrene?

A

Gas gangrene is typically seen in diabetic patients hyperbaric medicine is oxygen with pressure and the hope is that oxygen will be forced into the tissue that is infected with gas, gangrene and heal. Some of the tissue lessening the need for amputation.

275
Q

What is the numerical range of colonies that is considered statistically acceptable in a viable plate count?

A

Between 30 and 300

276
Q

What is pyorrhea and what is an example of where it can be seen within the human body?

A

Pus secretions from tissues, in later stage dental infections it can accompany gingivitis

277
Q

What are the five main stages in biofilm formation?

A

Attachment, irreversible attachment and cell to cell adhesion, proliferation, maturation, dispersion

278
Q

In biofilms, what is the slime or hydrogel referred to as?

A

EPS, which stands for extracellular polymeric substance

279
Q

What is the EPS in biofilms often made of?

A

A substance often made of glycocalyx material

280
Q

What does EPS allow microbes

A

Share nutrients, resist drying, resist antibiotics, resist host defenses, take shelter from other harmful factors

281
Q

How can patients with catheters become ill with pathogens if the bacterial numbers during the initial introduction are too low to cause outright infection?

A

It’s possible that the low bacterial numbers during initial introduction, adhere to bio film, growing on the surface of the indwelling catheters, and that bacteria slowly proliferates to a point where infection is possible.

282
Q

Definition of genes

A

Pieces of DNA that carry instructions to produce proteins (or RNA)

283
Q

What are nucleic acids

A

Polymers of ribonucleotides (RNA) or deoxyribonucleotides (DNA)

284
Q

Which bases are purines?

A

Adenine and Guanine

285
Q

Which bases are pyramidines

A

Cytosine and Thymine

286
Q

How are nucleic acid bases linked to sugar phosphate bonds?

A

Phosphodiester bonds

287
Q

Which “end of the bases is free?

A

The 3’ end

288
Q

What is antiparallel?

A

DNA strands are oriented in opposing directions to each other, they are antiparallel

289
Q

How is replication semi conservative?

A

Because each strand is copied so that the 2 new molecules each have one new strand and one old strand

290
Q

What is the role of DNA helicase?

A

DNA strands at the origin are separated (H-bonds broken)

291
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase?

A
  1. adds bases 5’ → 3’
  2. Binds to the DNA at the replication fork and adds nucleotides (dATP, etc) to the hydroxyl at the 3’-end of the RNA primer.
  3. It also proofreads and can remove the wrong bases, but errors do still occur.
292
Q

Why can’t bases be added 3’ → 5’?

A

can’t add 3’ → 5’ b/c no free hydroxyl at 5’ end

293
Q

What role does Primase play?

A

Primase (enzyme) synthesizes a short length of RNA complementary to the template

294
Q

What is the role of DNA ligase?

A

DNA ligase seals the short gaps in the sugar-phosphate backbone between the Okazaki fragments to make a whole DNA strand

295
Q

What is an Okazaki fragment?

A

Short DNAs are made (100-1,000 base DNA fragments)

296
Q

What does DNA methylation do for prokaryotes?

A

Protects against virus infection in prokaryotes

297
Q

What does DNA methylation do for Eukaryotes?

A

controls gene expression in eukaryotes

298
Q

What is the definition of Genotype?

A

what genes an organism has

299
Q

What is phenotype?

A

Physical features and traits eg., metabolism, morphology

300
Q

How does genotype effect phenotype?

A

genotype determines phenotype by encoding RNA which contains instructions for proteins

301
Q

What does RNA Polymerase do?

A
  1. DNA strands are separated by RNA polymerase (H-bonds between bases broken)
  2. Pairs ribonucleotides (ATP, etc) with the complementary bases on the DNA strands in 5’ → 3’ direction
302
Q

What are the components of prokaryotic genomes?

A
  1. Genes are contained in two structures: chromosomes, which are circular and large, and within plasmids, which are circular and small. 2. They have a single copy of each chromosome known as a haploid. They also have a single copy of each gene.
303
Q

How is prokaryotic DNA arranged?

A

The DNA is compacted into a nucleoid

304
Q

What are plasmids?

A

They are small molecules of DNA that replicate independently they carry information required for their own replication and often for one or more cellular traits

305
Q

What are some types of plasmids?

A

Fertility factors (F): conjugation pili
Resistance factors (R): beta lactamase
Bacteriocin factors: E. coli colicins
Virulence plasmids colon Salmonella modulates immune system to prevent being killed

306
Q

How are plasmids important to the cell?

A

They carry the information for one or more type of cellular trait, for example, antibiotic resistance. This gives the cell survival advantages.

307
Q

What are components of eukaryotic genomes?

A

Nuclear DNA, which is chromosomal DNA and extranuclear DNA like what is found in mitochondria, chloroplasts and plasmids

308
Q

How is eukaryotic nuclear DNA arranged?

A

Chromosomes are linear and they are located in the nucleus. They typically have more than one chromosome per cell eukaryotic cells usually have two copies of each chromosome known as the diploid, and they have two copies of each gene also known as a diploid.

309
Q

How is eukaryotic DNA packaged? Why is it packaged this way?

A

DNA is wrapped around histone cubes to form nucleosomes. those are linked with short stretches of DNA and histones called Linker DNA. These are linked together over and over to create chromatin fibers. These fibers can be loosely packed if they are active genes, or if they are inactive, they are tightly packed. These can be highly condensed and chromosomes are made up of these chromatin fibers.

310
Q

What does it mean when something is diploid?

A
311
Q

Why is it advantageous to be diploid?

A
312
Q

What are DNA and RNA made of?

A
313
Q

What are the parts of nucleotides?

A
314
Q

Which nucleotides are in DNA?

A
315
Q

Which nucleotides are in RNA?

A
316
Q

What forms the DNA backbone?

A
317
Q

What forms the rungs or cross pieces of DNA?

A
318
Q

In which direction are new nucleotides added to a growing molecule, and why must they be added this way?

A
319
Q

What is replication?

A
320
Q

What are the main players of replication and what are their functions?

A
321
Q

During replication, what is the template?

A
322
Q

What is the product of replication?

A
323
Q

Where does replication begin?

A
324
Q

Why is the leading strand synthesis continuous?

A
325
Q

Why is the lagging strand synthesis discontinuous?

A
326
Q

What is transcription?

A
327
Q

Name the players of transcription and their function

A
328
Q

What is the template during transcription?

A
329
Q

What is the product of transcription?

A
330
Q

Where does transcription begin?

A
331
Q

How is transcription terminated?

A
332
Q

What are the types of RNA and what is the function of each?

A
333
Q

How does eukaryotic transcription differ from prokaryotic transcription?

A
334
Q

What is a cap and what does it do?

A
335
Q

What is polyadenylation and what is its function?

A
336
Q

What is a splicesome and what is its function?

A
337
Q

What are introns and exons?

A
338
Q

What is alternative splicing and what is the advantage of it?

A
339
Q

What is translation?

A
340
Q

What are the players in translation and what is the function of each?

A
341
Q

Where does translation begin?

A
342
Q

What is the blueprint of translation and what is the product?

A
343
Q

What is the genetic code in translation?

A
344
Q

What does redundancy in the genetic code and why is it important?

A
345
Q

What is the start codon and what amino acid doesn’t specify?

A
346
Q

What are stop codons and why does translation terminate at them?

A
347
Q

What are termination factors and how do they work?

A
348
Q

What is central dogma?

A

It states that the flow of genetic information stems from DNA, which is then transcribed to make mRNA and then translated, and from that translation process proteins are created. It also states that it is a unidirectional process.

349
Q

How are prokaryotic genes organized?

A
350
Q

What is an operon?

A
351
Q

What is an inducible operon?

A
352
Q

What is a repressible operon?

A
353
Q

What are the two levels at what did gene expression can be regulated?

A
354
Q

Why would cells want to regulate gene expression?

A
355
Q

What is riboswitch and how does it work?

A
356
Q

What is siRNA and how does it work?

A
357
Q

What is mutation?

A
358
Q

How do mutations occur?

A
359
Q

What is a mutagen?

A
360
Q

What kinds of mutagens are there and what type of mutations do they cause?

A
361
Q

What is the Ames test and how does it work?

A
362
Q

What are the mechanisms of DNA repair and how does each work?

A
363
Q

What are some diseases that can result from DNA repair defects?

A
364
Q

What is horizontal gene transfer?

A
365
Q

What are the three mechanisms for horizontal gene transfer?

A
366
Q

How is DNA transferred in each mechanism of horizontal gene transfer?

A
367
Q

How much DNA could be transferred with an each mechanism for horizontal gene transfer?

A
368
Q

Which mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer feature dead donors?

A
369
Q

Which mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer feature live donors?

A
370
Q

What is the clinical significance of horizontal gene transfer?

A
371
Q

What is the evolutionary significance of horizontal gene transfer?

A
372
Q

What are transposons?

A
373
Q

How can we identify areas were transposition has occurred?

A
374
Q

What sort of mutation is caused by transposons?

A
375
Q

Why are transposons of clinical importance?

A
376
Q

To what larger class of mobile genetic element do transposons belong?

A
377
Q

What is euchromatin?

A

It is the loosely packed or active portion of chromatin fibers

378
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

It is the inactive or tightly packed chromatin fibers in eukaryotic chromosomal packaging

379
Q

What are similarities between extranuclear DNA of eukaryotes and DNA of prokaryotes?

A

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have circular DNA like prokaryotes. This makes sense because we believe that mitochondria and chloroplasts likely came from prokaryotic cells earlier on.

380
Q

What percentage of RNA and proteins do mitochondria and chloroplasts code for?

A

Only about 5%

381
Q

True or false some fungi and protozoa also carry plasmids

A

True

Microbiology (8 decks)

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