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Microbiology > Lab Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Lab Midterm 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Taenia solium

A

Genus: Cestode
Carried by pigs
Causes pork tapeworm
Ingestion of eggs, larva or proglottids in undercooked pork
Found worldwide

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2
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Genus: Nematode
Fecal/oral transmission via produce fertilized with “night soil”
Found in Asia, S. America, E.&W. Africa,
Roundworm

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3
Q

Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Genus: Nematode
Found in Tropical Africa, Central & S. America, S.E. Asia
Vector borne via mosquito
Causes Elephantiasis/Filariasis

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4
Q

Trichinella spiralis

A

Genus: Nematode
Food borne via undercooked pork or bear meat
Can be fatal if infects heart muscle
Causes trichinosis

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5
Q

Enterobius vermicularis

A

Genus: Nematode
Infects worldwide
f/o ingestion of eggs from fecal matter (usually due to unwashed hands)
Causes pinworms

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6
Q

Ixodes pacificus

A

Tick that carries Borrelia burgdorferi
Causes Lyme disease

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7
Q

Dermacentor

A

Tick that carries Rickettsia rickettsia
Causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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8
Q

Anopheles

A

Mosquito
Found in Africa
Carries plasmodium for Malaria

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9
Q

Aedes

A

Mosquito
Found in Asia and Pacific
Carries Dengue fever, Yellow fever, Zika

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10
Q

Culex

A

Found in Americas
Carries West Nile disease

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11
Q

Tania sanginata

A

Genus: Cestode
Carried by beef, causes beef tapeworm
Ingestion of eggs, larva, or proglottids in undercooked beef
found worldwide

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12
Q

Schistosoma mansoni

A

Genus: Trematode (bloodfluke)
Found in Sub-saharan Africa & some S. America
water borne transmission (cercaria burrow through skin)
Causes Schistosomiasis (Snail Fever)

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13
Q

Schistosoma hematobium

A

Genus: Trematode (bloodfluke)
Found in Africa & Middle East, brought to Italy via refugees (human reservoir)
Causes Schistosoma haematobium

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14
Q

Schistosoma boris

A

Genus: Trematode (bloodfluke)
Found in Italy in cows
Infects cows with Schistosomiasis

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15
Q

Schistosoma hematobium x Schistosoma bovis

A

Genus: Trematode (bloodfluke)
Found in Corsica, Italy
This is a hybrid that can infect both humans and bovine, and can utilize both of these animals as a reservoir

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16
Q

Dracunculus medininsis

A

Genus: Nematode
Found in Africa, Eurasia
Vector borne via arthropod (copepod)
Causes Guinea Worm

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17
Q

Dirofilaria immitis

A

Genus: Nematode
Found everywhere
Vector borne via mosquito
Causes dog heartworm

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18
Q

Necator americanus

A

Genus: Nematode
Found in Africa, Asia, Australia, Americas
Defecation in soil, larvae hatch and burrow into feet of those who walk on soil
Causes hookworm (anemia, fatigue, cognitive impairment)
Could have positive help for allergy sufferers (immune system down regulation)

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19
Q

Xenopsylia cheopis

A

Flea
Carries Yersinia pestis (causes bubonic plague)
Carries Rickettsia typhi (causes Endemic Murine Typhus)

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20
Q

Glossina – tse tse fly

A

Fly
African origin
Carries Trypanosoma brucei (causes African Trypanosomiasis – African Sleeping sickness)

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21
Q

Triatoma – Reduviid

A

“Kissing Bug”
Central & S. America
Carries Typanosoma cruzi (causes American Trypanosomiasis – Chagas Disease)

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22
Q

Pediculis humanus corporis

A

Body Lice– Infestation of body

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23
Q

Pediculis humanus capitis

A

Head lice–infestation of hair

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24
Q

What is the flagellar arrangement?

A

Peritrichous

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25
Q

What is the flagellar arrangement?

A

Monotrichous

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26
Q

What is the flagellar arrangement?

A

Amphitrichous

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27
Q

What is the flagellar arrangement?

A

Lophotrichous

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28
Q

Broth/liquid growth indicator

A

turbidity/cloudiness

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29
Q

Agar/solid growth indicator

A

Formation of colonies

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30
Q

Broth/Media advantages

A

Grow many types of microbes with differing oxygen requirements.

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31
Q

Broth/Media disadvantages

A

Cannot confirm pure cultures.

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32
Q

Agar/Solid advantages

A

Can grow pure colonies

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33
Q

Agar/Solid disadvantages

A

Cannot support the growth of microbes with different oxygen requirements.

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34
Q

All purpose/General agar

A

Tryptic Soy Agar

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35
Q

Enriched Agar

A

Blood Agar

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36
Q

Selective Agar

A

MacConkey, Mannitol Salt Agar, Sabouraud Dextrose

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37
Q

Differential

A

MacConkey, Mannitol Salt Agar, Blood Agar

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38
Q

Which Agar is only differential

A

Blood Agar

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39
Q

Which Agar is only Selective

A

Sabouraud Dextrose

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40
Q

What is the selective component for MacConkey agar?

A

Bile salts, crystal violet

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41
Q

What does the selective component for MacConkey agar do?

A

Allows for Gram negative enterics to grow

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42
Q

What does the selective component for Mannitol Salt Agar do?

A

Allows for growth of Halophiles

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43
Q

What is the selective component of Mannitol Salt Agar?

A

7.5% Sodium Chloride

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44
Q

What is the selective component of Sabouraud Dextrose agar?

A

Low pH, High sugar

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45
Q

What does the selective component of Sabouraud Dextrose agar do?

A

Allows for fungi growth due to low pH

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46
Q

What are the differential ingredients for Blood Agar?

A

Red blood cells

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47
Q

What does blood agar differentiate?

A

α hemolysis – greening of agar
β hemolysis – clearing of agar
γ hemolysis – no change

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48
Q

Which microbes complete α hemolysis with Blood Agar?

A

Streptococcus pneumonaie, Streptococcus mutans

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49
Q

Which microbes complete β hemolysis with Blood Agar?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus pyogenes

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50
Q

Which microbes complete γ hemolysis with Blood Agar?

A

Escherichia coli

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51
Q

Differential component for Mannitol Salt Agar?

A

Mannitol and phenol red

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52
Q

Acid production result with Mannitol Salt Agar?

A

If organisms can ferment mannitol and produces acid, the agar turns yellow.

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53
Q

No acid production result with Mannitol Salt Agar?

A

If organisms cannot ferment mannitol to acid end products, medium stays red.

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54
Q

Differential component for MacConkey Agar?

A

Lactose and Neutral red

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55
Q

Result of Lactose Fermentation with MacConkey Agar?

A

Lactose fermentation will create acid which lowers pH, colonies will appear pink.

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56
Q

Result of no Lactose Fermentation with MacConkey Agar?

A

No lactose fermentations, the colonies will remain colorless

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57
Q

Eosin Methylene Blue differential components?

A

Lactose, Eosin Y, and Methylene Blue

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58
Q

Eosin Methylene Blue high acid production result?

A

Color change to metallic green sheen when they are lactose fermenters with creation of high acid.

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59
Q

Eosin Methylene Blue low acid production result?

A

Color change to purple when they are lactose fermenters with low acid production.

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60
Q

Eosin Methylene Blue non-fermentor result?

A

Non-lactose fermenters will have colorless colonies.

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61
Q

What main 7 descriptors are used for colony characteristics?

A

Color
Size
Shape
Texture
Margin
Elevation
Optical properties

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62
Q

Describing colonies, what are the descriptors of Texture?

A

moist, mucoid, dry

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63
Q

Describing colonies, what are the descriptors of Margin?

A

entire, undulate, lobate, filamentous, rhizoid

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64
Q

Describing colonies, what are the descriptors of Elevation?

A

flat, raised, convex, pulvinate umbonate

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65
Q

What is the MOA of Halogens?

A

oxidize amino acid R groups & denature proteins

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66
Q

What is the MOA of Quaternary ammonium/surfactant?

A

Physical removal/disrupt membranes

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67
Q

What is the MOA of Alcohols?

A

Denature proteins, CM disrupted

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68
Q

What is the MOA of Surfactant?

A

Physical removal via micelles, CM disrupted (quats, only)

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69
Q

What is the MOA of Phenolic?

A

Denature proteins

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70
Q

What is the MOA of Alcohol + halogen

A

Denature proteins, CM Disrupted + oxidation

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71
Q

Examples of Halogens

A

Iodine, Chloride, bleach (1:10 dil)

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72
Q

Examples of Alcohols?

A

EtOH; mix w/ H2O

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73
Q

What is the MOA for Heavy metals?

A

denature proteins (react w/ -SH of cys, met)

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74
Q

Example of Surfricants?

A

soaps, detergents

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75
Q

Examples of Phenolics?

A

carbolic acid; Lysol

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76
Q

What is the MOA of Phenolics?

A

Denature proteins CM disrupted

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77
Q

What is the MOA of Alkylating agents?

A

Denature proteins, DNA Damage

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78
Q

What are examples of Alkylating agents?

A

formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde

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79
Q

What are examples of Heavy metals?

A

nano-Ag; merthiolate, mercurochrome, Ag, Hg

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80
Q

What are examples of Oxidizing agents?

A

H2O2, O3

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81
Q

What is the MOA of Oxidizing agents?

A

Denature proteins

82
Q

What does heat do to microbes?

A

denature proteins, destroy CM

83
Q

What does cold do to microbes?

A

slow metabolism → slow growth

84
Q

What does UV do to microbes?

A

damages DNA (pyrimidine dimers)

85
Q

What wavelength is best for UV use on microbes? Why?

A

265 nm most effective; absorbed by DNA best → most damaging

86
Q

What is the MOA of using microwaves on microbes?

A

produces heat (denature proteins, destroy CM)

87
Q

What is the MOA of ionizing (gamma-, x-rays)?

A

damages DNA (strand breaks)

88
Q

What is the Removal of ALL organisms?

A

Sterilization

89
Q

What is defined as ↓ number of PATHOGENS on objects?

A

Disinfection

90
Q

What is defined as ↓ number of MICROBES on/in living tissues?

A

Antisepsis

91
Q

What is defined as↓ number of MICROBES on objects to meet public health standards?

A

Sanitization

92
Q

What is defined as ↓ PATHOGENS and SPOILAGE MICROBES in foods (heat process)?

A

Pasteurization

93
Q

What is defined as Removal of MICROBES from surfaces by mechanical means?

A

Degerming

94
Q

What is the MOA for Filtration?

A

Physically excludes microbes

95
Q

What is the MOA for Drying?

A

↓ or stop metabolism

96
Q

What is the MOA for Osmotic pressure (salt, sugar)?

A

↓ or stop metabolism

97
Q

What is the MOA for pH?

A

extremes denature protein

98
Q

How does UV damage get repaired by microbes?

A

Bacteria use photolyase and dark repair to repair UV damage

99
Q

What is defined as Chemical used in or on the body for therapy?

A

Chemotherapy

100
Q

What is defined as Chemicals used to treat microbial infections?

A

Antimicrobial

101
Q

What are examples of Antimicrobials?

A

salvarsan, prontosil

102
Q

What is defined as Microbial metabolites used to inhibit/kill other microbes?

A

Antibiotics

103
Q

What are examples of Antibiotics?

A

penicillin, streptomycin

104
Q

What is defined as Chemically altered antibiotics?

A

Semi-synthetics

105
Q

What are examples of Semi-Synthetics?

A

ampicillin, tigacycline

106
Q

What is defined as Lab-made antimicrobials?

A

Synthetics

107
Q

What is an example of a Synthetic?

A

sulfonamides

108
Q

What is the MOA of β-lactams?

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

109
Q

What is the MOA of Aminoglycosides & Tetracyclines?

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis

110
Q

What is the MOA of Polymyxins, Polyenes, & “Azoles”

A

Disruption of cell membrane

111
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfonamides?

A

Inhibition of metabolism (competitive inhibitors of PABA synthetic enzymes)

112
Q

What is the MOA of Quinolones & Rifampin

A

Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
Quinolones: inhibit DNA gyrase
Rifampin: inhibits RNA pol

113
Q

Polymyxins are active against which microbes?

A

fungi and Gram-negative bacteria

114
Q

Polyenes & “Azoles” are active against which microbes?

A

fungi

115
Q

β-lactams are MOST effective against which type of bacteria?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

116
Q

What use is the efficacy range for Tetracyclines?

A

broad spectrum antibiotic

117
Q

What is an example of a Aminoglycoside?

A

streptomycin

118
Q

What is an example of a Polyene?

A

amphotericin B

119
Q

What is an example of a Polymyxin?

A

polymyxin B

120
Q

What is an example of an Azole?

A

ketoconazole

121
Q

What is an example of an Antiviral?

A

Valaciclovir

122
Q

What is the MOA of Valaciclovir?

A

inhibits HSV thymidine kinase

123
Q

What is an example of Bacteria altering a target molecule so antibiotics can’t bind?

A

Trimethoprim rendered non-functional, cant bind

124
Q

An example of Enzymes that degrade antibiotic; can be plasmid-encoded?

A

β-lactamase degrades penicillins

125
Q

Altering cell membrane to make impermeable to antibiotic is useful against which two antibiotics?

A

1) Tetracycline
2) Penicillins

126
Q

What is an example of bypass and which antibiotics are targeted with it?

A

Sulfonamides (sulfonilamide, trimethoprim) – bacteria import folic acid instead of synthesizing it

127
Q

Which antibiotic is resisted by cell pumping drug out?

A

Tetracycline

128
Q

What is MOA of tetracycline?

A

70s ribosome inhibitor, stops translation/protein synthesis

129
Q

What is MOA of Macrolides?

A

70s ribosome inhibitor; stops translation/protein synthesis

130
Q

What is MOA of Clindamycin?

A

70s ribosome inhibitor; stops translation/protein synthesis

131
Q

What 7 things cause failure of transfer of a microbe?

A
  1. Culture is dead
  2. Loop/needle was to hot when you picked up your sample.
  3. You missed picking up your sample.
  4. You didn’t mix a liquid culture before transferring.
  5. Media used was not appropriate for the organism.
  6. You incubated the culture at a temperature inappropriate for the organism.
  7. Other culturing conditions are not good for the organism
132
Q

What is the name of the head of a cestode?

A

SCOLEX

133
Q

Segment of the tapeworm which can release eggs or detach from tapeworm

A

PROGLOTTID

134
Q

Taenia solium Larvae can move into other tissues (lung, live, eye and brain) become________.

A

CYSTICERCI

135
Q

Taenia solium cysticerci and cause____________.

A

CYSTICEROSIS

136
Q

Adults from Wuchereria bancrofti move to the lymphatic system and produce_________.

A

microfilariae

137
Q

Withc Trichinella spiralis, Females hatch larvae that migrate to muscles where they become_________.

A

CYSTS

138
Q

What are 4 means of antibiotic resistance commonly used by bacteria?

A
  1. Blocking entry by cell wall
  2. Inactivation of enzymes
  3. Alteration of target molecule
  4. Efflux pumps
139
Q

In a PR test what is a positive result?

A

If organism can ferment the sugar with acid end product, the solution to yellow.

140
Q

In a PR test what is a negative result?

A

If organism can’t ferment the sugar and must use the amino acids to grow, the solution with stay pink

141
Q

What is the name of the tube used in the PR test? What does it show?

A

Durham Tube, shows displaced liquid if gas is present as part of fermentation of sugars.

142
Q

What is Thioglycollate used for?

A

Used to determine oxygen requirement of organisms

143
Q

If growth only at the top with Thioglycollate what does that mean?

A

Obligate aerobe

144
Q

If growth is only at the bottom with Thioglycollate what does that mean?

A

Obligate anaerobe

145
Q

If growth is all throughout the tube with Thioglycollate what does that mean?

A

Facultative anaerobe

146
Q

Indole Slide Test is testing for________.

A

Tests for enterics.
Tests for the ability of the organism to hydrolyze tryptophan

147
Q

What is a positive reading on Indole Slide Test?

A

Red is positive

148
Q

What is a negative reading on Indole Slide Test?

A

Normal filter paper

149
Q

What does Methyl Red broth test for?

A

Tests for the ability of an organism to use mixed acid fermentation

150
Q

What is the indicator on the MR broth test?

A

Methyl Red is the pH indicator

151
Q

What is a positive reading on the Methyl Red broth test? What does it mean?

A

Red ring at top, Mixed acid fermentation with high acid production

152
Q

What is a positive reading on the Vogues-Proskauer test? What does it mean?

A

Red is positive, Uses sugar to the intermediate, acetoin.

153
Q

Simmon’s citrate tests for what?

A

Tests for the ability to use citrate as the sole carbohydrate source.

154
Q

What is the pH indicator for the Simmon’s citrate test?

A

Uses bromothymol blue as pH indicator

155
Q

Catalase test is testing a microbes ability to do what?

A

Tests for the ability to break down hydrogen peroxide

156
Q

What are the components for the TSI test?

A

Has 3 sugars: glucose, sucrose, and lactose
Contains iron

157
Q

A positive TSI means what about the microbe?

A

+ hydrogen sulfide

158
Q

What is the pH indicator for the TSI test?

A

Uses Phenol Red as pH indicator

159
Q

What does a Yellow butt only mean on TSI test?

A

Glucose was fermented

160
Q

What do Cracks/bubbles in agar on TSI test mean?

A

Gas produced during fermentation.

161
Q

What does a Yellow butt and slant mean on TSI test?

A

Glucose with either lactose and/or sucrose fermented

162
Q

What are the results for E. coli on IMViC tests?

A

I: +
M: +
Vi:-
C: -

163
Q

What are the results for Enterobacter aerogenes on IMViC tests?

A

I: -
M: -
Vi:+
C: +

164
Q

What are the results for Citrobacter on IMViC tests?

A

I: -
M: +
Vi: -
C: +

165
Q

What are the body segments of class insecta? Characteristics?

A

body plan: 3 segments - head, thorax, abdomen
6 legs, antennae, +/- wings

166
Q

What are the body segments of class acrachnida? Characteristics?

A

segments –cephalothorax, abdomen
8 legs as adults, not antennae, no wings

167
Q

What are Cimex?

A

bed bugs

168
Q

What causes this? What is the name of this?

A

cysticerci in brain = neurocysticercosis, caused by Taenia solium

169
Q

What type of microbe is this? What group does it belong to?

A

Shchistosoma, Trematodes

170
Q

What is this? What the name of the microbe?

A

cysticercus of Taenia solium

171
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

Ova of Taenia solium

172
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

cercariae of Schistosoma mansoni

173
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

Ova of Schistosoma mansoni

174
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

miracidium of Schistosoma mansoni

175
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

Ova of Ascaris lumbricoides

176
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

Adult worm, Ascaris lumbricoides

177
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

microfilaria of Wuchereria bancrofti in blood

178
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

Ova of Enterobius vermicularis

179
Q

What is this? What is the name of the microbe?

A

nurse cells made by Trichinella spiralis larvae

180
Q

This is a Mannitol Salt Agar, which side is positive?

A

Yellow side is positive for Mannitol fermenter

181
Q

This is a MAC agar, which side is positive?

A

pink = positive for lactose fermenter

182
Q

Which of these microbes shows β hemolysis with Blood Agar?

A

A

183
Q

Which area of the blood agar plate (see image, below) could be growing Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

B

184
Q

This is a PR Sucrose test, C is the control. Which fermented sucrose?

A

A, B

185
Q

This is a PR Sucrose test, C is the control. Which made gas as a byproduct in fermentation?

A

A

186
Q

What type of test is this? Which is positive, and what does that tell us about the microbe?

A

Indole test
Microbe A positive
Microbe has tryptophanase enzyme

187
Q

This is a MR test, which is positive? What does that tell us?

A

A is positive
Carries out mixed acid fermentation resulting in low pH

188
Q

This is a Vogues proskauer test, which is positive (left or right) ? What does that tell us?

A

Right side is positive (red ring) can perform the 2, 3 butanediol fermentation/butylene glycol fermentation, makes acetoin

189
Q

This is the Citrate test, A is control, B and C are tests.
Which is positive? What does it tell us?

A

C is positive, uses citrate as its sole source of carbon and energy.

190
Q

This is an oxidase test, which is positive? What does that tell us?

A

2 is positive, microbe has an aerobic ETC that features cytochrome C oxidase

191
Q

This is a urease test, which is positive? What does it tell us?

A

B is positive, microbe can ferment urea with urease enzyme

192
Q

What microbe would be positive on this test?

A

E. Coli

193
Q

Which microbes would be negative on this test?

A

Salmonella, Shigella are urease-negative (non-lactose fermentors)

194
Q

which microbes would be positive on this test?

A

Pseudomonas, Neisseria have an aerobic ETC that features cytochrome C oxidase

195
Q

Which microbe would be positive on this test?

A

Proteus can metabolize urea

196
Q

Which microbe would be positive on this test?

A

Staph. = catalase-positive

197
Q

Which microbes would be negative on this test?

A

Strep. = catalase-negative

198
Q

Which microbes would be negative on this test?

A

Enterics usually ox-negative

199
Q

Which microbe would be positive on this test?

A

non-fecal coliforms, environmental

200
Q

Which microbes would be negative on this test?

A

Enterobacter (Fecal coliforms)

201
Q

Which microbe would be positive on this test?

A

Enterobacter (non-fecal coliforms, environmental)

Microbiology (8 decks)

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