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anatomy 2402 > lecture exam 3 > Flashcards

lecture exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four functional processes performed by the respiratory system?

A

Pulmonary ventilation: movement of gases in and out of lungs. External respiration: gas exchange between lungs and blood. Transport gases within blood. Internal respiration: gas exchange between blood and body tissues.

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2
Q

Why do most inspired fine particles fail to reach the lungs?

A

Mucous membranes in the oral and nasal cavity, in addition to cilia and mucous in the trachea.

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3
Q

Trace the route of air flow in the respiratory tract from the pharynx to the alveoli.

A

Pharynx → larynx → trachea → primary bronchus → secondary bronchus → tertiary bronchus → bronchioles, ending in terminal bronchiole → respiratory bronchioles → alveolar duct → alveoli.

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4
Q

The __ consists of mucous membranes supported by the turbinate bones.

A

nasal cavity

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5
Q

What anatomical structures make up the larynx?

A

Epiglottis is cartilage that covers the trachea while swallowing. Structural cartilages of larynx include: thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, and corniculate.
Vestibular folds (false vocal cords) assist in Valsalva’s maneuver, and true vocal folds vibrate to produce sound.

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6
Q

What anatomical structures maintain the openness of the trachea?

A

Rigid, stacked cartilage rings.

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7
Q

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. What is the function of both cell types?

A

Type I alveolar cells allow for gas exchange, and type II alveolar cells secrete surfactant to reduce surface tension.

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8
Q

Where in the bronchial tree do we have the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

A

alveoli

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9
Q

What layers make up the respiratory membrane?

A

Alveolar wall and capillary wall

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10
Q

What does the surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity contribute to the lungs within the thoracic cavity?

A

Allows oxygen to diffuse more easily.

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11
Q

Define intrapulmonary pressure?

A

Pressure within alveoli (lungs).

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12
Q

Define each of the following gas laws: Boyle’s law, Dalton’s law, Henry’s law, Charles’ law. Describe how each of the gas laws relate to pulmonary ventilation.

A

Boyle’s law: inverse relationship between pressure and volume. Dalton’s law: partial pressures of gases in a mixture equals the total pressure of the mixture. Henry’s law: when a gas comes into contact with a liquid, the gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure. Charles’ law: the volume of a gas is proportional to the temperature.

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13
Q

Air moves __ he lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is less than atmospheric pressure. Then, air
moves __ of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than atmospheric pressure.

A

into, out

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14
Q

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to forcefully expire?

A

Mostly internal intercostals, plus other abdominal muscles.

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15
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by

A

reducing surface tension.

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16
Q

What is lung compliance? What factors influence lung compliance?

A

Lung compliance is the ability of our lungs to expand. Factors that influence it include elasticity of lung tissue, amount of surface tension, and whether there are any degenerative lung diseases present.

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17
Q

Tidal volume (TV)

A

amount of air inspired during normal, relaxed breathing; ~500mL.

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18
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV):

A

additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after tidal inspiration; ~2100-3200mL.

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19
Q

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

A

additional air that can be forcibly
exhaled after tidal exhalation; ~1200mL.

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20
Q

Residual volume (RV)

A

volume of air remaining in lungs after
ERV is exhaled; ~1200mL.

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21
Q

Inspiratory capacity (IC):

A

maximum amount of air that can be inspired after tidal expiration; ~3600mL; IC=TV+IRV.

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22
Q

Functional residual capacity (FRC):

A

total amount of air remaining
2 in lungs after tidal expiration; ~2400mL; FRC=RV+ERV.

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23
Q

Vital capacity (VC):

A

total amount of air that can be expired after fully inhaling; ~4800mL; VC=TV+IRV+ERV.

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24
Q

Total lung capacity (TLC)

A

total amount of air that can fill lungs; ~6000mL; TLC=TV+IRV+ERV+RV.

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25
Q

Explain how the partial pressure gradient determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

A

The partial pressure of oxygen is always lower in the tissues than the blood, which causes oxygen to diffuse
readily into the tissues (areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration). The reverse (but less
dramatic) is true for carbon dioxide.

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26
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by

A

diffusion based on partial pressures.

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27
Q

What factors promote oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

A

To decrease affinity: increase temperature, increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide, increase in acidity, or increase in BPG. To increase affinity: decrease temperature, decrease in partial pressure of carbon dioxide, decrease in acidity, or decrease in BPG.

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28
Q

What is the quantity of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in the solution in the plasma? Chemically
bound to hemoglobin?

A

About 1.5% of oxygen is carried in plasma as a dissolved gas, and about 98.5% is bound to hemoglobin. About 7% of carbon dioxide is carried in plasma as dissolved gas, about 23% is
bound to hemoglobin.

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29
Q

What are possible causes of hypoxia?

A

Too few RBC’s, too little Hb, impaired blood circulation, poison, pulmonary disease.

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30
Q

Explain when the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to either the left or right under the following conditions: low temperature, high temperature, acidosis (high H+), alkalosis (low H+). What does it mean when the curve shifts to the left versus shifts to right?

A

Low temperature will make the curve shift left, high temperature makes it shift right. Acidosis causes a right shift, and alkalosis causes a left shift. Left shift will increase oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin. Though there is plenty of oxygen available, it stays attached to the hemoglobin and goes back to the lungs, without being used. Right shift will decrease oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin. More oxygen gets released to the cells, but there is less overall oxygen coming from the lungs

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31
Q

In the plasma, 70% of carbon dioxide is transported as __ ions after first entering the red blood cells.

A

bicarbonate

32
Q

The reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme __ in the RBCs. Explain the following equation: co2 + h2o = h2co3 = h+ + hco-3

A

carbonic anhydrase, Carbon dioxide combined with water produces carbonic acid. This is then oxidized to an individual hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion, which can be transported in blood.

33
Q

Nerve impulses from __ will result in inspiration.

A

inspiratory neurons, via phrenic and intercostal nerves,

34
Q

Where are the respiratory centers in the brain located?

A

Brain stem, pons, and medulla oblongata

35
Q

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is when the partial pressure of __ increases

A

carbon dioxide

36
Q

When and why would erythrocyte count increase: after an individual goes to a lower or a high altitude?

A

Several weeks after going to a higher altitude, an individual would have a higher erythrocyte count due to the lower partial pressure of oxygen.

37
Q

Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, respiratory exchanges are made through the

A

placenta

38
Q

What is digestion?

A

Break down of large molecules into small, absorbable molecules

39
Q

Be able to identify the basic histology (i.e tissues, layers, and related structures) of a section of the
alimentary canal.

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa/adventitia

40
Q

Describe the movement of peristaltic waves and segmentation.

A

Peristalsis moves substances in one
direction, segmentation moves substances forwards and backwards

41
Q

What are the various types of papillae on the tongue? Where are taste buds located?

A

Filiform, fungiform, circumvallate, and foliate; only filiform does not have taste buds, most found in fungiform.

42
Q

What are the components (i.e. enzymes, solutes, etc.) and functions of saliva?

A

Saliva is composed mostly of water, digestive enzymes, mucus, and antimicrobials. The functions are to cleanse mouth, start digestion with salivary amylase, and moisten food to compact into bolus.

43
Q

What two types of secretory cells are found in the salivary glands?

A

Serous cells produce water
secretions and enzymes, and mucous cells produce mucous.

44
Q

What is the dental formula and total number of of primary teeth? Secondary teeth?

A

Primary has 20 teeth: 2I, 1C, 2M per half of jaw; adult mouth has 32 teeth: 2I, 1C, 2PM, 3M per half of jaw.

45
Q

What is chyme and where is it manufactured?

A

Chyme is broken down food mixed with water and digestive enzymes, it is produced in the stomach.

46
Q

What tasks of chemical digestion does the stomach perform?

A

Protein digestion begins due to pepsin; carbohydrate and lipid digestion continue (started in mouth).

47
Q

What stomach cell produces each of the following: intrinsic factor, gastric hormones, hydrochloric acid,
pepsinogen?

A

Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid, enteroendocrine cells secrete
hormones, and chief cells secrete pepsinogen.

48
Q

List and define each of the enzymes found in gastric juice?

A

Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin for
protein digestion, rennin is for milk digestion and is common in infants.

49
Q

What vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A

vitamin b12

50
Q

Explain the regulatory function of each of the following paracrines: gastrin, histamine, endorphins,
serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin.

A

Gastrin and histamine increase intestinal motility and promote gastric secretions. Endorphins increase appetite and gastric secretions. Serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin decrease gastric secretions.

51
Q

What can excessive vomiting of gastric juice do to blood pH?

A

Make it more acidic (lower).

52
Q

What microscopic anatomical structures enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine?

A

Villi and microvilli.

53
Q

What is the function of goblet cells in the small intestine? Paneth cells?

A

Goblet cells secrete mucous,
Paneth cells secrete antimicrobials.

54
Q

What are the major functions of the liver?

A

Produce bile, regulate blood glucose, store fat-soluble vitamins, synthesize proteins, breakdown toxic substances, recycle old blood cells.

55
Q

What is the function of hepatocytes?

A

Liver cells that filter blood from the intestines

56
Q

Describe and explain the workings of the liver’s lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages).

A

Lobules are hexagonal, with central vein in middle and each corner containing a bile duct and two blood
vessels (portal triad). Blood from intestines flows from blood vessels, through sinusoids (spaces between lobules) and towards the central vein, being filtered by hepatocytes along the way.

57
Q

How is bile produced, what does it contain, and what is its digestive function?

A

Bile is made by the liver, and consists of bile salts, pigments, triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, and other ions. It functions to emulsify fats.

58
Q

List and describe the action of each of the enzymes secreted from the wall of the small intestine?

A

Absorptive cells secrete brush border enzymes to breakdown carbohydrates and proteins (sucrase, lactase, maltase, etc.).

59
Q

List and describe the action of each of the pancreatic enzymes found in pancreatic juice?

A

Amylase for starch digestion, proteases for protein digestion, lipase for fat digestion, and nucleases for nucleic acid digestion.

60
Q

List the pathway of ducts that deliver bile from the gall bladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas
to the duodenum.

A

Bile leaves the gallbladder via the cystic duct, then meets up with the hepatic duct from liver to form the common bile duct. Pancreatic juice travels through the pancreatic duct and meets up with the common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla, which empties into duodenum.

61
Q

Describe the anatomical characteristic of the large intestine?

A

Cecum is the first pouch of large intestine and has appendix attached. Haustra are the pouches formed from the tone of the taenia coli muscle.
Split into ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid. Feces is held in the rectum until defecation
via the internal (involuntary) and external (voluntary) anal sphincters.

62
Q

What are the essential roles played by large intestine bacteria?

A

Break down indigestible carbohydrates (such as cellulose), and produce vitamins K and some B.

63
Q

How do we keep the intestinal bacteria from going beyond the mucosa and causing problems?

A

Immune cells destroy bacteria that try to cross mucosal barrier.

64
Q

Hydrolysis is the enzymatic __ of any type of food molecule.

A

breakdown

65
Q

Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism.

A

Metabolism: all chemical reactions within body. Anabolism: synthesize monomers into polymers. Catabolism: breakdown of polymers into monomers via hydrolysis

66
Q

What is the function of cellular respiration? List the major stages of the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)?

A

Breakdown foods to trap chemical energy in ATP; achieved through glycolysis, Krebs (citric acid) cycle, and the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation

67
Q

Describe the reactions of each stage of cellular respiration and their products. Which events take place in the cytoplasm and which in the mitochondria? What is the function of NAD+ and FAD+? What stage produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis happens first and occurs in the cytosol, it is the breakdown of glucose to yield 2 pyruvic acid, 2 NADH + H+, and 4 ATP (minus 2 used in reaction). Krebs cycle within the mitochondria is next, after the presence of oxygen converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA; it yields 4 carbon dioxide, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 ATP. Still within the mitochondria, the last step is the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation. It involves harnessing energy from electrons as they are shuttled through proteins, then using that energy to pump hydrogen ions through ATP synthase pumps to form ATP from ADP, it yields ~28 ATP and metabolic water. NAD+ and FAD+ are coenzymes that assist in moving electrons along the electron transport chain.

68
Q

What is the function of dehydrogenases and oxidases?

A

Coenzymes for the exchange of hydrogen and electrons during chemical reactions.

69
Q

As protons flow through __ energy is released and exploited to combine ADP and inorganic phosphate to form ATP.

A

ATP synthesis

70
Q

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is

A

oxygen

71
Q

What nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?

A

lipids

72
Q

What is the outcome of ketosis?

A

Breakdown of fats for energy instead of glucose, produces organic acids called ketones

73
Q

What indicated by large amounts of ketone bodies present in the blood and urine?

A

metabolic acidosis

74
Q

What is the major waste substance found in the urine after proteins undergo deamination?

A

urea, after the liver breaks down toxic ammonia

75
Q

Define VLDLs, LDLs, and HDLs? Describe their advantages and/or disadvantages. What are food sources of each?

A

Very low-density lipoproteins: transport triglycerides from liver to tissues, obtained from fruits, vegetables, grains. Low-density lipoproteins: transport cholesterol to tissues, obtained from eggs, cheese, shellfish, meats. High-density lipoproteins: transport excess cholesterol to liver for bile production, obtained from grains, beans, seeds.

anatomy 2402 (6 decks)

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