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anatomy 2402 > lecture exam 1 > Flashcards

lecture exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

exocrine glands

A

secrete their contents onto the free surface of an epithelial tissue by way of a duct.

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2
Q

endocrine gland

A

secrete their contents into the surrounding extracellular space.

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3
Q

water soluble hormones, such as proteins and peptide hormones, activate target cells by

A

by binding to receptors on the cell membrane and initiating the second-messenger system. This system activates a protein that converts ATP to cAMP, which activates proteins in the cytoplasm to alter cell activity.

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4
Q

what are the differences between the connection of the hypothalamus and the neurohypophysis and the connection between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis?

A

hypothalamic hormones released in the hypophyseal portal system control the release of hormones from the adenohypophysis. action potential travel down the axons of hypothalamic neurons, which causes hormone release from their axon terminals in the neurohypophysis.

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5
Q

what are tropic hormones and what do they do?

A

tropic hormones usually come from the adenohypophysis and stimulate other endocrine organs to secrete hormones.

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6
Q

what hormones are secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? posterior lobe?

A

anterior lobe: thyroid stimulating, adrenocorticotropic, follicle-stimulating, growth, prolactin, and luteinizing hormones. posterior lobe: oxytocin and antidiuretic hormones.

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7
Q

what are the effects of antiduretic hormone (ADH)?

A

ADH targets kidney tubules to reabsorb more water, which decreases urine formation.

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8
Q

what is the target organ of thyrotropic hormone (TH), also known as thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

thyroid gland

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9
Q

largest endocrine gland?

A

thyroid

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10
Q

what gland controls the overall metabolic rate of the body?

A

thyroid gland

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11
Q

what are the effects of parathyroid hormone in relation to calcium?

A

PTH is secreted when calcium levels drop, and it is inhibited by rising calcium levels. PTH stimulates osteoclasts to digest bone matrix, enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

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12
Q

what is the function of insulin? glucagon? which glans secretes them?

A

pancreas secretes them/ glucagon raises blood glucose levels, insulin lowers blood glucose levels.

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13
Q

explain each of the cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

A

Polyuria is a large
urine output, polydipsia is excessive thirst, and polyphagia is excessive hunger and/or food consumption

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14
Q

What are the effects of aldosterone

A

Stimulates sodium reabsorption and potassium elimination in the
kidneys.

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15
Q

What are the actions of the glucocorticoids?

A

Alter cellular metabolism, maintain blood glucose levels, maintain blood pressure, and assists in the inflammatory response

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16
Q

what gland begins to atrophy after puberty?

A

thymus

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17
Q

what type of mixture is blood?

A

A colloid mixture; composed of 55% plasma and 45% formed elements

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18
Q

what is the average normal pH range blood?

A

7.35-7.45

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19
Q

What is the viscosity? What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

Viscosity is the thickness of blood due to the
amount of proteins and formed elements. Colloid osmotic pressure is the force of those non-diffusible molecules against the capillary wall; it opposes hydrostatic pressure and these opposing forces allow the exchange of nutrients and wastes across the capillary wall.

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20
Q

What would be a normal hematocrit value range for males and females? What unit is used to measure
hematocrit?

A

Hematocrit is the percentage of RBC’s in the blood. Female average is 35-45%, male average
is 38-48%.

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21
Q

What are the major functions of blood?

A

Transportation of gases, nutrients, and waste; regulation of
homeostasis; protection via white blood cells

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22
Q

List each component making up the composition of blood plasma and their approximate percentages?

A

Water makes up about 90% of plasma, proteins (mostly albumin, globulin, fibrinogen) make up about 8%,
and nutrients, gases, hormones, and wastes make up the other 2%

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23
Q

What are the formed elements of blood? List each major cell category

A

Erythrocytes are >90% of formed
elements, plus platelets and leukocytes (granulocytes and agranulocytes).

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24
Q

What do erythrocytes transport?

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide

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25
Q

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

A

Kidneys produce hormone erythropoietin,
which signals the red bone marrow to produce more erythrocytes.

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26
Q

What condition and organ triggers erythropoiesis?

A

The hormone erythropoietin triggers erythropoiesis; it
mostly comes from the kidney but also some comes from the liver

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27
Q

what is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life.

A

red marrow

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28
Q

what is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood.

A

hemocytoblast

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29
Q

List the cells in the developmental sequence of erythrocytes from hemocytoblast to maturity.

A

Hemocytoblast, proerythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatic erythroblast, orthochromatic
erythroblasts, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

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30
Q

What is the major cause for red blood cells to age and wear out

A

Lack organelles once mature and can
only maintain themselves for approx. 100 days before wearing out

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31
Q

what are involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of cellular remains.

A

liver and spleen

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32
Q

is a bile pigment formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes.

A

bilirubin

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33
Q

What characteristic do all leukocytes have in common?

A

They contain a nucleus and organelles.

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34
Q

What is leukopoiesis?

A

The formation of white blood cells

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35
Q

The percentages of each granulocytes in normal circulating blood?

A

Neutrophils about 50-70%, eosinophils
about 2-4%, and basophils less than 1%.

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36
Q

What is the function of each granulocyte

A

Neutrophils are phagocytic “bacteria slayers”, eosinophils play
a role with parasitic worms and asthma/allergies, and basophils release histamine as an inflammatory
response.

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37
Q

Which leukocytes have no visible cytoplasmic granules

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

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38
Q

What converts fibrinogen to fibrin

A

Thrombin (factor IIa)

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39
Q

What are the functions and properties of platelets?

A

Platelets are fragments of larger cells
(megakaryocytes) and assist in forming a clot to stop bleeding.

40
Q

What are the three major events of hemostasis in order? Define each

A

Vascular spasm is vasoconstriction
triggered by an injury to the blood vessel. Platelet plug formation is a mass of platelets forming a plug in
the damaged vessel. Coagulation is a series of reactions to transform plasma into sticky protein to form a
patch.

41
Q

Beginning with factor X, list and describe the common components in the pathway of coagulation?

A

Factor X combines with factor V, calcium, and platelet factor III to form prothrombin activator. This then converts prothrombin to thrombin, then to fibrinogen, then to fibrin. Fibrin adheres to the blood vessel walls.

42
Q

What ion is essential to virtually all stages of coagulation?

A

calcium

43
Q

is a pivotal molecule associated with the negatively charged membranes of aggregated platelets.

A

Platelet factor III (PF3)

44
Q

How is a clot, that is no longer needed, removed?

A

A clot is broken down during a process called
fibrinolysis. This process involves the protein plasminogen being converted to plasmin, which breaks down the fibrin holding the clot together

45
Q

What occurs in tissues during a transfusion reaction?

A

Agglutination

46
Q

List each blood type – include their agglutinogens and antibodies.

A

a+ antigen (A,D) antibody (B) A- antigen (A) antibody (B) B+ antigen (B,D) antibody (A) B- antigen (B) antibody (A) AB+ antigen (A,B,D) antidbody (none) AB- antigen (A,B) antibody (none) O+ antigen (none) antibody (A,B) O- antigen (none) antibody (A,B)

47
Q

According to The American National Red Cross, what is the most common blood type and the least common?

A

O+, AB-

48
Q

What are the blood types that are said to be the universal donor and universal receiver?

A

Universal donor
is O- and universal recipient is AB+.

49
Q

Excessive amounts of RBCs and WBC’s in the blood is known as

A

polycythemia and leukemia

50
Q

The heart chambers are lined by the

A

pectinate muscles (atria) and trabeculae carneae (ventricles)

51
Q

is the layer of the heart that actually contracts

A

myocardium

52
Q

Know the complete blood trace through the heart, including all vessels and valves

A

Vena cava, r atrium, tricuspid valve, r ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, l atrium, mitral valve, l ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, aorta.

53
Q

How does one easily discern the right and left ventricles when viewing a dissected heart?

A

Right ventricle is smaller.

54
Q

Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the

A

papillary muscles

55
Q

Know all events in cardiac cycle and blood flow – when do chambers contract and when do valves open and close.

A

Combinations of #51, #60, and #61.

56
Q

Compare skeletal muscle fibers and cardiac muscle cells, both anatomically and physiologically.

A

Skeletal muscle is multinucleate, striated, and cylindrical; the motor units must be stimulated individually; fewer mitochondria. Cardiac muscle is usually uninucleate and has short, striated cells, with intercalated discs present; entire heart functions as a single unit; requires more mitochondria to support its high energy needs.

57
Q

Define functional syncytium.

A

The entire myocardium functioning as a single unit

58
Q

What physiological regulation prevents tetanic contractions when the heart beats (which would stop the heart’s pumping action)?

A

refractory period

59
Q

the influx of what ions from extracellular sources is the initiating
event in cardiac muscle contraction.

A

calcium

60
Q

Drugs known as calcium channel blockers can be used to

A

treat hypertension, arrhythmias, angina pectoris, etc.

61
Q

Be able to label all structures of the conduction system of heart with their correct anatomical name

A

Sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node,
atrioventricular bundle, right/left bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

62
Q

Label and describe the electrical events in the heart that occurs during each of the following:
(a) P wave:
(b) P-Q interval:
(b) QRS wave
(c) T wave:

A

(a) depolarization of SA node; depolarization of atria.
(b) time period for impulse to travel from SA node to AV node.
(c) ventricular depolarization; atrial repolarization
(d) ventricular repolarization

63
Q

What causes normal heart sounds, how are they described sounding, and when do they occur during the
cardiac cycle?

A

Heart sounds are caused by closing of the heart valves. The first sound is “lub,” which is the AV valve closing at the start of ventricular systole. There is a pause indicating heart relaxation, then the second sound of “dup” is heard, which is the SL valve closing at the start of ventricular diastole

64
Q

What is ventricular systole and ventricular diastole?

A

Systole is a period of contraction, and diastole is a period of relaxation

65
Q

During the period of ventricular filling blood flows passively through the atria and the open AV valves into
the

A

ventricle

66
Q

Describe isovolumetric contraction. When does it occur?

A

Isovolumetric contraction is a brief pause where
the volume of the ventricles doesn’t change. The pause happens during ventricular systole when the AV
valves and SL valves are all closed, then this triggers a spike in pressure that will open the SL valves

67
Q

What effect does the following chemical have on heart rate: acetylcholine, norepinephrine, digitalis, nicotine?

A

Acetylcholine and digitalis slow heart rate; norepinephrine and nicotine increase heart rate

68
Q

The time of day most hazardous for heart attacks is

A

early morning (after lying still all night while sleeping).

69
Q

Where is the cardiovascular center within the nervous system?

A

Within the medulla oblongata

70
Q

What role does the vagus nerve have on heart rate?

A

Vagus nerve communicates with cardioinhibitory
center in medulla

71
Q

Define aneurysm:

A

abnormal bulge in blood vessel wall.

72
Q

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

A

Tunica media

73
Q

Do all arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart? Explain your answer

A

All arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart except for the pulmonary arteries, which carry deoxygenated blood (to the lungs).

74
Q

are the smallest vessels that permit the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood
and tissue cells.

A

capillaries

75
Q

Complete the sequence from the heart and back: heart __ arteries …___ arteries.. arterioles… ___ arterioles… metarterioles… ___… postcapillary venules…. ___ veins… __ veins….heart

A

elastic, muscular, terminal, throughfare channel, medium, large.

76
Q

Why are arterioles also known as resistance vessels?

A

They can constrict or dilate to change resistance to
blood flow

77
Q

Name, explain, and compare the three kinds of capillaries.

A

Continuous capillaries are the most common
(found in skin, muscles, lungs, CNS) and least permeable.
Fenestrated capillaries have large pores that
increase permeability and are found in the kidneys, intestines, and glands with hormone secretion.
Sinusoidal capillaries are the least common (found in liver, bone marrow, spleen, adrenal medulla) and most permeable with having large fenestrations and few tight junctions

78
Q

of the body’s blood is found in veins

A

65%

79
Q

are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.

A

veins

80
Q

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure to

A

increase

81
Q

What factors increase peripheral resistance in a vessel? What factors decrease peripheral resistance in a
vessel?

A

Increases resistance: increased viscosity, longer vessel length, and smaller vessel diameter.
Decreases resistance: decreased viscosity, shorter vessel length, and larger vessel diameter.

82
Q

Capillaries are fragile and high pressures would

A

rupture

83
Q

What intrinsic factors will increase arteriole blood pressure?

A

Endothelins can be released from the
endothelium, and they are vasoconstrictors.

84
Q

name and explain the factors that aid venous return to the heart

A

Muscular pump: skeletal muscle contraction pushing blood towards heart;
respiratory pump: pressure changes in thoracic cavity move blood towards heart; sympathetic venoconstriction: smooth muscle is constricted via sympathetic nerve
fibers.

85
Q

Explain the short-term neural controls of blood pressure.

A

Cardiovascular center is cluster of sympathetic
neurons in medulla oblongata consisting of cardioinhibitory, cardioacceleratory, and vasomotor centers
that receive input from baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and higher brain centers

86
Q
  1. Where are the baroreceptors located? What are they sensitive too?
A

Located in walls of large arteries and
they measure arterial blood pressure. Increased BP stimulates baroreceptors to increase input to
vasomotor center; this will inhibit the vasomotor and cardioacceleratory centers while stimulating the
cardioinhibitory center. This results in decreased blood pressure via vasodilation

87
Q

Explain the short-term hormonal controls of blood pressure. Give examples and effects

A

Epinephrine and
norepinephrine increase cardiac output and vasoconstriction; angiotensin II stimulates vasoconstriction;
antidiuretic hormone stimulates vasoconstriction; atrial natriuretic peptide antagonizes aldosterone,
which decreases blood volume (and blood pressure).

88
Q

What is the long-term mechanism of blood pressure regulation?

A

Renal regulation
direct: : low BP causes less filtration in kidneys, which decreases urine output, which increases blood volume to increase BP.
indirect: : low BP causes kidneys to release renin. Renin stimulates angiotensinogen to convert into
angiotensin I in the liver. The angiotensin-converting enzyme from the lungs stimulates angiotensin I to
convert to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II: stimulates secretion of aldosterone, ADH release, triggers thirst
center, and is a potent vasoconstrictor

89
Q

What is a normal blood pressure reading? What blood pressure reading would be indicative of
hypertension?

A

120/80 is a normal reading, above 140/90 is considered hypertension.

90
Q

What is tissue perfusion? How is MAP an estimate of tissue perfusion?

A

Tissue perfusion is the blood flow through body tissues where diffusion occurs. Capillary perfusion rate is equal to the average blood pressure within the body (MAP).

91
Q

What vessel type has the slowest velocity of blood flow? What vessel type has the fastest velocity of
blood flow?

A

Slowest blood flow is seen in the capillaries, fastest blood flow is seen in the aorta.

92
Q

What organ in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing
vasodilation?

A

lungs

93
Q

Water enters the blood capillaries by means of

A

filtration (diffusion).

94
Q

The net filtration pressure of a blood capillary is the difference between

A

hydrostatic pressure and colloid
osmotic pressure. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by fluid pressing against the vessel wall, and
colloid osmotic pressure is exerted by large particles not being able to pass through the vessel well.

95
Q

What two pressures regulate capillary dynamics? What are their effects?

A

At the arterial end, capillary hydrostatic pressure is highest and overcomes osmotic pressure, causing an outward movement of
water/dissolved substances from capillary to interstitial fluid. At the venous end, the capillary osmotic pressure overcomes the hydrostatic pressure and causes an inward movement of water/dissolved substances from interstitial fluid into the capillary.

96
Q

If blood pressure is almost normal in a person who has lost blood, does that mean the tissues are
receiving adequate blood flow? Explain.

A

No, blood pressure should decrease if blood volume decreases.
Since they don’t have a low BP, this means their BP was too high before they lost the blood

anatomy 2402 (6 decks)

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