Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy Physiology 201 > Lecture Exam #2: Skeletal And Bone Features > Flashcards

Lecture Exam #2: Skeletal And Bone Features Flashcards

1
Q

What is a part of the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, vertebrae, sternum, ribs, sacrum, hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is part of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Pectoral girdle, upper/lower limbs, pelvic girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is articulation?

A

Consisting of segments united by joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Auditory ossicles (SKULL)

A

3 in each ear in the middle: malleus, incus, stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hyoid Bone:

A

Between chin & larynx, doesn’t articulate w/ any bone, suspended by muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Infant Skull

A

Fontanels: spaces between unfused bones
Metopic Suture: fusing of the frontal bones
Reaches full size by 8 or 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Spine Vertebraes

A

33 TOTAL
Cervical: 7
Thoracic: 12
Lumbar: 5
Sacral: 5
Coccygeal: 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Functions of Spine

A

-supports skull/trunk
-allows movement
-protects spinal cord
-absorbs stress
-provides attachment for limbs, thoracic cage, postural muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Types of Curvature:

A
  1. Newborn Curvature: C shape (thoracic/lumbar)
  2. Adult Curvature: S shape (cervical/pelvic)
  3. Abnormal Curvature: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain Scolosis

A

Abnormal lateral curvature in thoracic region, particularly in adolescent girls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain Kyphosis

A

Exaggerated thoracic curvature, caused by wrestling/weightlifting in young boys (hunchback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain Lordosis

A

Exaggerated lumbar curvature, caused by pregnancy/obesity (sway back)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When you go down the spine vertebrae get…..

A

Larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

C1-ATLAS

A

supports head, has no body, allows yes nodding motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

C2-AXIS

A

dens projects into atlas, allows “no” nodding motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Intervertebral Discs

A

binds vertebra, supports weight of body, absorbs shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

intervertebral foramen

A

holes seen from lateral views when vertebrae are connected, passage way for spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

vertebral foramen

A

hole in between body and spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe cervical vertebrae

A

bifid spinous process, only type with transverse foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe a thoracic vertebrae 

A

spinous process is angled down and pointy, has costal facets for ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the thoracic cage

A

has sternum/ribs/thoracic vertebrae, costal margin: downward arc of the ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the true ribs

A

ribs 1-7, direct attachment to dternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the false ribs

A

ribs 8-10, join together then go to sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the floating ribs

A

ribs 11/12, still false, don’t attach at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the lumbar vertebrae

A

thick/stout body, blunt squarish spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Compare male and female pelvis

A

male has a more narrow pelvic brim and pubic arch is 90° while a female has a wide pelvic brim in the pubic arch is 120° for childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the four shapes of bones and give examples of each

A

Long: femur, short: talus, Flat: sternum, irregular: vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

 explain the parts of compact bone

A

osteon: Basic structural, concentric lamellae: Layers of matrix around central canals,
Perforating canals: Diagonal passages coming off the central canal
Nutrient foramina on surface
circumferential lamellae: Boundaries of dense bone
Interstitial lamellae: Remains of old osteons that broke down as bone grew & remodeled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

explain the medullary (marrow) cavity

A

hollow part of bone that contains bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

explain the makeup of spongy (cancellous) bone

A

spicules: slivers of bone
trabeculae: thin plates of bone
- red bone marrow fills spaces
- few osteons
- no central canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the diaphysis on a bone

A

Cylinder of compact bone called the shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the epiphysis on a bone

A

end parts of bone that are separated by epiphyseal plates until fully connected to shaft when plate turns into line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where is articular cartilage on a bone what does it do

A

covers the epiphysis and creates joints when bones connect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is periosteum

A

external sheath that covers bone, outer fibrous layer of collagen with inner osteogenic layer of bone forming cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate

A

Area of hyaline cartilage that separates marrow spaces of epiphysis and diaphysis, AKA growth plate, transition zone where cartilage is replaced by bone (metaphysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the endosteum

A

thin layer of reticular connective tissue lining the marrow cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is nutrient foramina

A

little holes on surface that allows blood vessels and nerves to enter the bone 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What’s the function of osteogenic cells

A

stem cells that differentiate and become osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the function of osteoblasts

A

bone forming cells that line up as a single layer of cells under the endosteum and periosteum that then turn into osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the function of osteocytes

A

osteoblasts that form the lacunae (matrix cocoon),
- maintains bone matrix
- When stressed they send signals for aged bone remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts

A


bone dissolving cells found on the bone surface, remodels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the matrix consist of

A

1/3 organic matter (synthesized by osteoblasts, collagen/carbohydrate/protein complexes)
2/3 inorganic matter (85% hydroxyapatite, 10% calcium carbonate, other minerals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is rickets

A

soft bones due to deficiency of calcium salts (more organic than inorganic matter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

excessive brittle bones due to lack of protein/collagen (more inorganic than organic matter)

45
Q

What makes spongy bone different from compact bone

A

-spongy is made up of trabeculae, fills inner layer of bone, on the ends of bones
-Compact bone is made up of osteons, Fills outer layer of bone, on the shaft of bones

46
Q

What is red marrow

A

hemopoietic tissue, found a nearly every bone in a child but in adult is found in skull/vertebrae/ribs/sternum/pelvic girdle heads of humerus and femur

47
Q

What is the yellow marrow

A

found only in adults, red marrow turned into yellow fatty marrow, does not produce blood

48
Q

What is ossification/osteogenesis

A

Formation of bone

49
Q

what is intramembranous ossification

A

produces flat bones of the skull in most of the clavicle, Mesenchyme cells differentiate into osteogenic cells which then differentiate into osteoblasts which continue to deposit minerals
Mesenchyme cells also turn into trabeculae to create osteoid tissues
differentiation of spongy bone, compact bone, & medullary cavity

50
Q

what is endochondral ossification

A

process in which bone develops from pre-existing cartilage
mesenchyme differentiates into hyaline cartilage then is covered with fibrous perichondrium which turns into chondrocytes then osteoclasts that form a bony collar around the middle of the cartilage the outside perichondrium turns into the periosteum 
primary ossification center: middle of the bone

51
Q

explain metaphysis

A

once the diaphysis (primary ossification center) is formed metaphysis starts to occur
-osteoclasts break down cartilage which creates the hollow in the same process occurs

52
Q

Interstitial growth

A

Bone increase in length

53
Q

Appositional growth

A

bone increase in width 

54
Q

wolff’s law of bone

A

REMODELING: collaborative and precise action of osteoblast and osteoclasts
-bone adapts to withstand stresses

55
Q

achondroplastic dwarfism

A

Long bones stop growing in childhood, failure of cartilage growth in metastasis
-normal torso/short limbs

56
Q

pituitary dwarfism

A

lack of growth hormone, normal proportions with short stature

57
Q

What are the two main layers of the skin

A

Epidermis and dermis

58
Q

What are the functions of the skin

A

resist trauma and infection, barrier functions, vitamin D synthesis, transdermal absorption, thermal regulation, sensation

59
Q

Differences between epidermis and dermis

A

epidermis is an outer thin layer of the skin that has no blood vessels or nerves while the dermis is the thickest layer of skin & has nerves and blood capillaries

60
Q

Five type of cells in the epidermis

A

stem cells & melanocytes (found in basale), keratinocytes (majority of cells), tactile (touch receptors), dendritic (macrophages in spinosum)

61
Q

Five layers of the epidermis

A

stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale 

62
Q

Which epidermal layer only seen in thick skin

A

stratum lucidum

63
Q

what cells are in the stratum basale

A

melanocytes/tactical cells/stem cells/keratinocytes

64
Q

what occurs in the stratum basale

A

Cell division, older cells are pushed into spinosum layer

65
Q

What cells are in the stratum Spinosum

A

(several layers) keratinocytes & dendritic cells

66
Q

what occurs in the stratum Spinosum

A

start of keratinization

67
Q

What cells are in stratum granulosum

A

keratinocytes (3-5 layers)

68
Q

What occurs in stratum granulosum

A

keratinocytes lose organelles & accumulate keratohyalin granules which then turn into fillagrin (basically where they prepare to die)

69
Q

What cells are in the stratum lucidum

A

keratinocytes

70
Q

What occurs in the stratum lucidum

A

The dead and flatten keratinocytes are densely packed with eleidin (makes them translucent)

71
Q

What cells are in the stratum corneum

A

up to 30 layers of Dead scaly keratinized cells

72
Q

What occurs in the stratum corneum

A

surface of cells flake off, layers help resist abrasion, penetration, and water loss (overall protection) 

73
Q

Average life cycle of keratinocytes

A

30-40 days

74
Q

What is the epidermal water barrier

A

consist of lipids/tight junctions/ thick layer of insoluble protein, the barrier cuts off cells from nutrients below & any dead cells exfoliate (dander)

75
Q

Where is the epidermal water barrier located

A

between stratum granulosum and stratum Spinosum

76
Q

What are the layers of the dermis

A

Dermal Papillae: upward finger like extensions
Papillary: superficial zone of dermis (thin zone of areolar tissue in & near dermal papilla)
Reticular: deeper & much thicker layer (dense irregular connective tissue) *stretchmarks

77
Q

What are the structures of the dermis

A

collagen with elastic fibers, reticular fibers, fibroblasts, adipose tissue
- well supplied w blood vessels/glands/nerves

78
Q

What are the functions of the dermis

A

protection, cushion deep structures from injury , provide nutrients for epidermis

79
Q

Hypodermis

A

Made of more areolar & adipose tissue the dermis, has subcutaneous tissue & fat, pads body, highly vascular, bind skin to underlying tissues, drugs introduced by injection

80
Q

What is subcutaneous tissue

A

hypodermis

81
Q

What is subcutaneous fat

A

energy Reservoir, thermal insulation, Thicker in women

82
Q

What factors give skin its color

A

Amount of melanin/hemoglobin/carotene & exposure to UV

83
Q

Abnormal skin colors

A

Cyanosis: blueness (lack of oxygen)
Erythema: redness (body temp rises)
Pallor: paleness (anemic/cold)
Albinism: lack of pigment (inherited genes)
Jaundice: yellowness (bad liver)
Hematoma: bruise (clotted blood)

84
Q

What creates fingerprints (friction ridges)

A

Markings on the fingertips that leave oily fingerprints on surface we touch

85
Q

Flexion line

A

Lines on the flexor surfaces of the digits, palms, wrist, elbows

86
Q

Freckles/moles

A

Tan to black aggregations of melanocytes

87
Q

Hemangiomas

A

Patches of discolored skin caused by benign tumors of dermal blood

88
Q

What are considered “accessory” organs of skin

A

Hair, nails, cutaneous glands

89
Q

What are functions of hair

A

Vestigial
Alert us of parasites crawling on skin
Scalp retains heat/protects against sunburn
Pubic & axillary hair signify sexual maturity
Guard hairs (vibrissae): nostrils/ears
Nonverbal communication

90
Q

Where is hair not found

A

Palms/soles/fingertips and toe tips

91
Q

What are the three types of human hair

A

Lanugo: fine/downy/unpigmented hair appears on fetus
Vellus: fine/pale hair that replaces lanugo by time of birth
Terminal: longer, coarser, pigmented (head)

92
Q

What are the 3 zones along the length of a hair

A

Bulb: swelling at the base where hair grow in dermis/hypodermis (start of follicle)
Root: remainder of hair follicle
Shaft: portion outside the skin

93
Q

Where does mitosis occur in the hair

A

Hair matrix

94
Q

What are the 3 layers of hair in cross section

A

Medulla: core of loosely arranged cells & air spaces (inner most layer)
Cortex: constitutes bulk of hair, consists of layers of elongated keratinized cells
Cuticle: consists of layers of thin scaly cells that overlap each other (outer most layer)

95
Q

What structures does the hair follicle consist of

A

Bulb/root

96
Q

Where does growth of the nail occur

A

Nail matrix found in nail root

97
Q

What are the 5 types of glands

A

Merocrine sweat glands
Aprocrine sweat glands
Sebaceous glands (oil)
Ceruminous glands (earwax)
Mammary glands

98
Q

Where are merocrine and apocrine sweat glands found

A

Merocrine: all over skin
Apocrine: groin/armpit

99
Q

Which gland develops at puberty

A

Apocrine

100
Q

Differences of basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma

A

basal: most common, forms in stratum basale, small shiny bump with central depression
Squamous: forms in stratum spinosum, raised/reddened/scaly appearance concave ulcer

101
Q

What are the ABCD’s of malignant melanoma

A

Aysmmetry
Border irregularity
Color
Diameter

102
Q

Which cancers metastasize rapidly

A

Malignant melanoma

103
Q

Insensible perspiration

A

The amount of water we lose (500 ml/day)

104
Q

Daiphoresis

A

Visible sweat

105
Q

Bromhidrosis

A

Body odor produced by bacteria breaking down sweat

106
Q

First degree burn

A

Partial thickness burn, only involve epidermis

107
Q

Second degree burns

A

Partial thickness burn, involves epidermis & part of dermis

108
Q

Debridement

A

Removal of eschar

Anatomy Physiology 201 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions