Lecture 8 2/4/25 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differentials for disorders of the stifle?

A

-cranial cruciate ligament rupture
-medial meniscus injury
-caudal cruciate ligament rupture
-collateral ligament damage
-deranged stifle joint
-patella luxation
-OCD of the lateral femoral condyle
-trauma/fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the signalment for cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

A

-any breed
-common in labrador, rottweiler, bassett, and daschund
-dogs over 22 kg in weight; obesity plays a role
-females > males
-neutered > intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the potential components of a cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

A

-complete tear/avulsion
-partial tear
-meniscal damage
-contralateral tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the characteristics of CCL rupture prognosis?

A

-leads to progression of OA
-surgical treatments are associated with improved function and stabilization of the stifle
-no treatment has been proven to be effective in preventing OA development following rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why should librela not be used in CCL rupture patients?

A

the innervation is needed so the dog continues to protect the damaged joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the clinical presentation of CCL rupture?

A

-usually insidious in onset
-lameness
-pain on passive motion of stifle
-joint effusion
-thickened joint
-cranial drawer instability
-meniscal click

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the potential pathophysiologies of cranial cruciate lig. rupture?

A

-trauma
-structural deformity
-pre-existing degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common cause of CCL rupture in dogs?

A

slow, gradual degradation followed by complete rupture; sometimes involves relatively mild forces on the stifle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which radiographic views are used to assess the stifle in a suspected CCL rupture?

A

-lateral
-VD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the use of radiographs when assessing a patient for CCL rupture?

A

-evaluate for secondary OA
-evaulate tibial plateau angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the pathogenesis of medial meniscal injury in CCL rupture?

A

firm attachment of medial meniscus to tibia renders it susceptible to damage from cranial tibial subluxation along with greater weightbearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which injuries can occur to the medial meniscus in conjunction with CCL rupture?

A

-tears
-subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the characteristics of surgical management of CCL rupture?

A

-nearly all dogs with CCL rupture should have a stabilization procedure
-exceptions are dogs that cannot tolerate GA, dogs with terminal disease, and dogs with no lameness or joint effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the characteristics of the modified retinacular imbrication technique?

A

-heavy monofilament nonabsorbable material is used for fabellar-tibial sutures
-scar tissue forms that increases joint stability
-size of suture should be appropriate for size of dog
-quick procedure with comparable results to other techniques
-post-op strength of repair is immediate and good
-risk to intra-articular structures is minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the characteristics of the tibial plateau leveling osteotomy technique?

A

-attempts to overcome the tendency for cranial tibial thrust during weight bearing
-changes the angle of the tibial plateau
-evidence of better outcome compared with other techniques
-rehabilitation must be delayed for 3 to 4 weeks while structures in stifle adjust to new joint angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristics of the CORA-based leveling osteotomy technique?

A

-new technique
-similar result as TPLO in terms of leveling the tibial plateau
-osteotomy is made more distal to the stifle joint than in the TPLO technique

17
Q

What are the characteristics of the tibial tuberosity advancement technique?

A

-moves the tibial tuberosity so that pull from the quadriceps during weightbearing is perpendicular to the joint surface
-allows for compression at the joint rather than shear forces
-greater risk of meniscal damage/injury
-requires great infection prevention; implant is difficult to remove in the face of infection

18
Q

What provides stability of the femoropatellar joint?

A

alignment of the quadriceps muscle and underlying bone

19
Q

What can cause medial patella luxation?

A

-malalignment of the quadriceps complex
-malrotation of femur and tibia
-osseous deformity of femur and/or tibia

20
Q

What is the progression of medial patella luxation?

A

-animal is born with a reduced patella/patella is in the correct place
-laxity of the femoropatellar joint worsens over time

21
Q

What are the grades for medial patella luxation?

A

grade 1: intermittent luxation; goes right back
grade 2: intermittent luxation; easily moves in and out
grade 3: luxated, but can go in
grade 4: luxated, cannot reduce

22
Q

What are the characteristics of medial and lateral patella luxation presentation?

A

-medial patella luxation is the most common presentation (70-80% of luxations)
-toy and miniature breeds are the most common breeds to experience MPL
-large and giant breeds make up the majority of LPL cases
-MPL is still the most common type of luxation in large and giant breeds

23
Q

What are the clinical signs of medial patella luxation?

A

-little to no lameness with grade 1 luxation
-may walk with abnormal limb carriage
-intermittently carries limb, stretches it back, then is normal
-not wanting to jump
-potential for consistent lameness
-rapid progression of lameness with secondary cruciate ligament rupture

24
Q

How is medial patella luxation diagnosed?

A

-history
-palpation of tibial tuberosity and patellar ligament
-palpation of trochlear groove relative to patella
-internally (externally) rotating tibia and applying lateral (medial) pressure on patella to luxate it while in different degrees of ROM (parentheses are for lateral luxation maneuver)

25
Q

What are the surgical treatment options for patellar luxation?

A

-recession trochleoplasty if groove is shallow
-transplantation of tibial tuberosity
-capsulectomy
-desmotomy
-tenotomy
-suture restraint (puppies)

26
Q

What are the types of recession trochleoplasty?

A

-V-wedge recession; triangular wedge of cartilage and bone is recessed
-block recession; rectangular wedge of cartilage and bone is recessed

27
Q

What are the characteristics of tibial tuberosity transposition?

A

-changes the alignment of extensor mechanism relative to femoral trochlea
-used to correct both medial and lateral luxations
-tuberosity is moved laterally to correct medial luxations and medially to correct lateral luxations

28
Q

What are the characteristics of a capsulectomy?

A

-arthrotomy is done on redundant side (side patella luxates away from)
-strip of joint capsule is removed
-suturing is done with opposing or overlapping pattern to close joint capsule

29
Q

What are the characteristics of a desmotomy?

A

-releases excessive tension
-incision of shortened femoropatellar ligament
-no closure of the joint capsule