Lecture 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What is vasculogenesis? In which stage of life does it primarily occur?

A

Vasculogenesis is the de novo formation of blood vessels, primarily occurring during embryogenesis.

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2
Q

What is angiogenesis, and what triggers it?

A

Angiogenesis is the formation of new blood vessels from pre-existing vessels. It is triggered by ischemia, which causes hypoxia and stimulates the release of pro-angiogenic factors like VEGF.

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3
Q

What are two modes of angiogenesis, and how do they differ?

A
  1. Sprouting angiogenesis: Endothelial cells migrate and proliferate to form new capillary branches. 2. Intussusceptive angiogenesis: An existing capillary splits into two through endothelial growth along its length.
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4
Q

What role does hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) play in angiogenesis?

A

HIF activates transcription of pro-angiogenic genes like VEGF in response to hypoxia. HIF is degraded in the presence of oxygen, so its expression is hypoxia-dependent.

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5
Q

What is the function of VEGF in angiogenesis, and which cells express its receptor?

A

VEGF is the main pro-angiogenic factor that stimulates endothelial cell proliferation. Its receptor is expressed specifically on endothelial cells (ECs).

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6
Q

How does ischemia lead to angiogenesis? What is the role of oxygen availability?

A

Ischemia reduces oxygen supply, leading to hypoxia. Under hypoxia, HIF stimulates VEGF production, driving angiogenesis to restore blood flow. In oxygen-rich environments, this process is suppressed.

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7
Q

What is arteriogenesis, and how does it differ from angiogenesis?

A

Arteriogenesis is the development of collateral arteries from pre-existing arterioles. Unlike angiogenesis, it is triggered mechanically by increased shear stress, not ischemia.

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8
Q

How does shear stress stimulate arteriogenesis?

A

Shear stress stretches the endothelial cell plasma membrane, activating intracellular signaling pathways through the cytoskeleton to upregulate growth factors.

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9
Q

Which types of molecules drive arteriogenesis, and how do they affect endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells?

A

Growth factors like CSFs, FGFs, and TGF, along with adhesion molecules, are upregulated. These promote endothelial cell proliferation and smooth muscle cell growth in the vessel wall (tunica media).

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10
Q

What is an anastomosis, and what role does it play in arteriogenesis?

A

An anastomosis is a small channel connecting two larger vessels. During arteriogenesis, blood flow is diverted through anastomoses, which then enlarge to form collateral arteries.

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11
Q

Define anaemia. How does it affect oxygen transport?

A

Anaemia is a reduction in red blood cell count or functionality, leading to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

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12
Q

What are three symptoms of anaemia, and why do they occur?

A
  1. Pallor (reduced hemoglobin), 2. Fatigue (low oxygen delivery), 3. Icterus (if RBC destruction occurs, leading to bilirubin buildup).
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13
Q

What are the main causes of anaemia? List one example for each.

A
  1. Bleeding (e.g., trauma), 2. Hemoglobin defects (e.g., thalassaemia), 3. RBC destruction (e.g., hemolysis), 4. Bone marrow failure (e.g., leukaemia).
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14
Q

Why does thalassaemia cause microcytic anaemia?

A

Thalassaemia is caused by defective hemoglobin synthesis, leading to small (microcytic), poorly functional red blood cells.

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15
Q

How does leukaemia cause anaemia?

A

In leukaemia, malignant cells displace erythroid precursors in the bone marrow, impairing erythropoiesis and causing anaemia.

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16
Q

What are cytopenias? Provide definitions for neutropenia and thrombocytopenia.

A

Cytopenias are reductions in specific blood cell types. Neutropenia: Low neutrophil count; increases infection risk. Thrombocytopenia: Low platelet count; increases bleeding risk.

17
Q

A patient on chemotherapy presents with fever and neutropenia. What is the likely diagnosis and treatment?

A

Infection secondary to chemotherapy-induced neutropenia. Treatment: Broad-spectrum antibiotics and G-CSF prophylaxis.

18
Q

What are the three alleles of the ABO system, and how do they interact?

A

The alleles are A, B, and O (recessive). A and B are co-dominant. Genotypes like AO result in blood group A, while OO results in blood group O.

19
Q

What enzymes do the A and B alleles encode, and how do they modify the H antigen?

A

A allele: Encodes an enzyme that adds N-acetylgalactosamine. B allele: Adds galactose. O allele produces no functional enzyme, leaving the H antigen unmodified.

20
Q

Why do individuals with blood group O have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

A

Blood group O individuals lack A and B antigens, so their immune system produces anti-A and anti-B antibodies during early development.

21
Q

What is the Bombay phenotype, and why can it cause transfusion problems?

A

The Bombay phenotype (hh) lacks the H antigen required for ABO antigen expression. These individuals produce anti-H antibodies and are incompatible with all blood types except their own.

22
Q

Why is blood group O negative considered the universal donor?

A

O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, preventing immune reactions in recipients of any blood group.

23
Q

Explain how paternity was disproven in the case of Charlie Chaplin using the ABO system.

A

Chaplin (blood group O) could not be the father of a child with blood group B, as B antigen requires at least one B allele.

24
Q

What determines whether someone is rhesus positive or negative?

A

Rhesus positivity is determined by the presence of the RHD gene, which encodes the RhD antigen on red blood cells. A deletion or nonfunctional RHD gene results in rhesus negativity.

25
Q

Why is rhesus incompatibility a concern during pregnancy?

A

An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus can generate anti-Rh antibodies, which may attack fetal red blood cells in subsequent pregnancies, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.

26
Q

How is rhesus incompatibility managed during and after pregnancy?

A

Anti-D immunoglobulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers to prevent sensitization. If hemolytic disease occurs, fetal blood transfusion or postnatal transfusions are performed.

27
Q

What are the three main types of haematological neoplasias?

A
  1. Leukaemia (arises in bone marrow), 2. Lymphoma (originates in lymph nodes), 3. Myeloma (cancer of plasma cells).
28
Q

How does leukaemia disrupt normal blood cell production?

A

Malignant cells occupy bone marrow niches, displacing normal haematopoietic progenitors and causing bone marrow failure.

29
Q

How does Hodgkin’s lymphoma differ morphologically from non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, multinucleated abnormal B cells.

30
Q

Describe a case presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. What features suggest the diagnosis?

A

Symptoms: Fatigue, night sweats, enlarged lymph nodes. Diagnosis: Biopsy showing Reed-Sternberg cells against a reactive leukocyte background.

31
Q

What is myeloma, and how does it affect the bone marrow and blood?

A

Myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that causes abnormal immunoglobulin production, bone lesions, and reduced normal blood cell production.