Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DM > Lecture 5+6 > Flashcards

Lecture 5+6 Flashcards

1
Q

The layers of the peritoneum?

innervation? pain type? embryo tissue type?

A

parietal peritoneum- Line the internal surface
somatopleure
innervated by somatic afferents
pain is well localized

visceral peritoneum: overlie the abdominal organs
splanchnopleure
innervated by visceral afferents
pain is poorly localized; discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ascites

A

excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pneumoperitoneum

A

Abnormal presence of air/gas in the peritoneal cavity

generally due to a ruptured hollow viscus organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Peritonitis

A

inflammation of the peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Intraperitoneal organs

A

have a mesentery

stomach 
liver
spleen 
small intestine (1st part of duodenum)  
cecum and appendix 
transverse and sigmoid colon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Primarily Retroperitoneal

A

posterior body wall behind peritoneum

kidney
ureter 
sympathetic trunks 
IVC 
aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Secondarily Retroperitoneal

A 
pancreas 
duodenum (2nd,3rd,4th parts) 
ascending colon 
descending colon 
rectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pouch of Morison or hepatorenal recess

A

most likely space for pathological fluid accumulation in supine patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complex I: NADH dehydrogenase

A

will oxidize NADH and reduce coenzyme Q

bound riboflavin-5-phosphate and iron-sulfur clusters accept and release electrons

pumps 4 protons across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complex II: Succinate-Q-Reductase

A

Will oxidize succinate and reduce CoQ

electrons come from succinate, FAO, or glycerol phosphate shuffle

bound FAD prosthetic group and iron-sulfur clusters

contains binding site for succinate and CoQ

Does not span membrane and does not translocate protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complex III: Cytochrome b-c1 complex

A

Will oxidize CoQ and reduce Cyt-c
spans the membrane

used to pump 4 protons across the membrane

flow of electrons will regenerate CoQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Complex IV: Cytochrome C Oxidase

A

oxidize cytochrome c and reduces oxygen to water

O2 is the final electron acceptor

spans the membrane

movement of electrons, allows the movement of 2 protons across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the adenine nucleotide translocase?

what inhibits it?

A

unidirectional exchange of ATP for ADP (antiport)

atractyloside binds to the outward facing portion of the ANT and inhibits it

bongkrekic acid binds to the inward facing portion of the ANT and inhibits it

ETC will shit down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do uncouplers do to oxidative phosphorylation?

A

destroy the proton gradient

decrease ATP synthesis, increase ETC and oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

synthetic uncouplers or proton ionophores

A

lipid soluble act by destroying the proton gradient

examples:
DNP and ASA (aspirin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Valinomycin: mobile ionophores

A

antibiotic that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane permeable to K

pH gradient is normal, but dissipates the membrane potential

17
Q

Gramicidin

A

forms a helical pore through the membrane that makes it permeable to H

18
Q

UCP-1 themogenin

A

physiological uncoupler that is expressed in brown adipose tissue

generation of heat or non-shivering form of heat production

dissipates the H+ gradient

19
Q

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

A

degeneration of retinal ganglion cells and atrophy of the optic nerve

usually begins between 25-35; leads to legal blindness

defect in complex I

90% mutated

20
Q

Deafness induced by aminoglycoside

antibiotics

A

moderate to profound hearing loss

maternally inherited by mitochondrial rRNA

mutation leads to predisposition to aminoglycoside toxicity

hearing loss will be few day to weeks after administration

21
Q

Kearns-sayer

A

deletion within mitochondrial DNA
affects the systems with higher energy requirements

onset before age 20: 
paralysis of eye muscles and retinal degeneration 
cardiac problems (CHF) 
muscle weakness 
ataxia 
diabetes or other mental health issue
22
Q

MELAS

A

Mitochondrial Myopathy
Encephalopathy
Lactic Acidosis
Stroke-like episodes

Most common mito disease
usually seen around 14-15 years
mutation in Mitochondrial tRNA

23
Q

MERRF

A

Myoclonic Epilepsy
Ragged Red Fibers

most common mutation in mito tRNA gene
begin between 6-16 years

can have worsening eye sight, hearing loss, ataxia, muscle weakness, seizures

24
Q

inhibitors of complex 1 or NADH dehydrogenase

A

amytal
rotenone
piericidin A

25
Q

inhibitors of complex III or cytochrome reductase

A

antimycin A

26
Q

inhibitors of complex IV or cytochrome c oxidase

A

cyanide
azide
hydrogen sulfide
carbon monoxide

27
Q

complex V inhibitor or ATP synthase

A

oligomycin

inhibition of H+ channeling

28
Q

synthetic uncouplers of proton gradient

A

DNP or 2,4 dinitrophenol
ASA or aspirin

dissipate H gradient

DM (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions