Lecture 31 Flashcards

1
Q

List the characteristics of cancer cells

A

Cells growing out of control

The become self sustaining (dont need signals to grow bc they secrete their own via autocrine secretion of growth factors)

ignore anti-growth signals and apoptosis signals

angiogenesis in order to feed the rapidly dividing cells that make up the tumor

gets help from stromal cells

do not show replicative-senescence (immortal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Compare benign tumors to malignant tumors

A

Benign tumors: a group of cells that exhibits abnormal growth, yet is NOT invasive

Malignant tumors: a group of cells that exhibits abnormal growth but IS invasive (usually bloodstream invasion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe Metastases

A

metastases exhibit the “invasiveness” characteristic of cancer by traveling to new areas of the body and forming secondary tumors

this is the major reason people die from cancer (not easy for the cells to do however)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe tumor development and progression

A

All tumors come from a single ancestor cell that became abnormal due to a mutation

tumors begin as benign, and then slowly develop the ability to successfully metastasize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List and describe the environmental causes of cancers

A

Tobacco: leads to lung, kidney, and bladder cancer

Diet high in fat and low in fiber: leads to bowel, pancreatic, prostate, and breast cancer

Chemicals/UV light/X-Rays: cause a variety of cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List and describe an example of viral cause of cancer

A

AIDs, which causes Kaposi’s sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Compare oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

A

oncogenes: are “gain of function” genes formed by a single mutation event that occurs to a proto-oncogene
oncogenes cause exaggerated proliferation, and is a dominant allele

Tumor suppressor genes: are “loss of function” genes formed by 2 mutation events
Tumor suppressor genes only lead to cancer when both alleles are mutated (recessive) and tumors can no longer be suppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe the process by which oncogenes are activated by a virus

A

Retroviruses inject their RNA information into the host where it is reverse transcribed into the host DNA

viral oncogenes (v-src) are very similar to normal cellular genes (c-src) which code for proto-oncogenes

v-src hijack the c-src and activate proto-oncogenes into oncogenes by either over expression or mutation

oncogenes then drive cell over-proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between oncogenes vs. tumor suppressor genes

A

oncogenes are “gain of function genes”

tumor suppressor genes are “loss of function genes”

both can lead to cancer via a different method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name and describe the 4 mechanisms in which proto-oncogenes are activated into oncogenes

A

Deletion/point mutation: creates a hyperactive protein

Regulatory mutation: a promoter mutation that causes an abnormally excessive expression/production of the normal protein

Gene amplification: several copies of genes are created instead of one. This causes an overproduction of normal protein

Chromosomal rearrangement: brings in a new regulatory sequence that causes over production OR creates overactive fusion protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give an example of the deletion/point mutation mechanism for oncogene activation

A

Ras codon 12 Gly to Val

this keeps the Ras protein in the active state bc it can no longer be hydrolyzed from it’s GTP form to it’s GDP form (which would normally inactivate it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the 3 stages (omit normal epithelium) of cervical cancer) and state the most effect weapon against cervical cancer

A

low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia

high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia

invasive carcinoma

early detection (via pap smear) is the best weapon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the 3 stages (omit normal epithelium) of cervical cancer) and state the most effect weapon against cervical cancer

A

low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia

high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia

invasive carcinoma

early detection (via pap smear) is the best weapon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Compare neovascularization and angiogenesis. which of these is more associated with cancer?

A

neovascularization: the formation of new blood vessels from scratch
angiogenesis: sprouting new/more blood vessel branches from pre-existing blood vessels

angiogenesis is more associated with cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare neovascularization and angiogenesis. which of these is more associated with cancer?

A

neovascularization: the formation of new blood vessels from scratch
angiogenesis: sprouting new/more blood vessel branches from pre-existing blood vessels

angiogenesis is more associated with cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Ames test, and how is it conducted?

A

it tests a cell sample for DNA-mutation (cause of cancer)

histidine dependent salmonella, the sample, and liver extract are all mixed into the same agar

after culturing this mix, the higher the colony count of salmonella, the more mutagens were present in the sample

(this is bc mutagens produce histidine, which salmonella feeds off of)

17
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome? what does it cause?

A

Philadelphia chromosomes are formed from a translocation even between Chr 9 and 22

this yields a small, mutate version of the 22nd chromosome that causes chronic myelogenous leukemia

18
Q

DNA maintenance genes are a subset of ____ ____ ____, and involve the inactivation of caretaker genes that promote genomic stability. list 2 examples of these type of genes

A

tumor suppressor genes

DNA repair genes

Checkpoint genes

19
Q

define “transformed cells”

A

small colonies of abnormally proliferating cells caused by an oncogene

(related to oncogenes formed by viral infections)

20
Q

What occurs in a “truncated EGF receptor” as opposed to a normal EGF receptor? what is this issue associated with?

A

Truncated EGF receptors lose their extracellular domain and become active without the binding of it’s ligand

this signals for a constant signal for the cell to divide and is associated with glioblastoma (brain tumor)

21
Q

What occurs in a “truncated EGF receptor” as opposed to a normal EGF receptor? what is this issue associated with?

A

Truncated EGF receptors lose their extracellular domain and become active without the binding of it’s ligand

this signals for a constant signal for the cell to divide and is associated with glioblastoma (brain tumor)

22
Q

In B cell lymphoma, Bcl2 genes on chromosome 18 undergo a ____ translocation with chromosome ____. This causes the _____ of Bcl2 in B cells and prevents ____ of damaged cells

A

reciprocal

14

over-expression

apoptosis

23
Q

In B cell lymphoma, Bcl2 genes on chromosome 18 undergo a ____ translocation with chromosome ____. This causes the _____ of Bcl2 in B cells and prevents ____ of damaged cells

A

reciprocal

14

over-expression

apoptosis

24
Q

Describe methods that oncogenes can manipulate/over stimulate cell growth pathways that require a ligand to signal for cell proliferation

A

the can produce ligands constitutively (ligand-autocrine signaling)

RTKs (receptor tyrosine kinases) can be constitutively produced in such a way that they no longer require a ligand to signal for cell proliferation