Lecture 3: Characteristics and Classification of Microorganisms Flashcards

1
Q

Involves the study, not of a single cell, but of a population of identical cells

A

Microbial Identification

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2
Q

Prerequisite of microbial identification

A

pure culture

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3
Q

_______ means that the isolate is free from other organisms and therefore containing only one species of the organisms

A

Pure culture

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4
Q

it involves the study of the organism’s size, shape of cells, their arrangement, differentiation and identification of structures and organization

A

Microscopic characteristics

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5
Q

__________ organisms have morphological features that are generally stable w/ environmental changes compare to ________

A

Eukaryotic, prokaryotic

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6
Q

Enumerate factors that can result to variation in the morphological features of the microorganism

A

Changes in the temperature, pH, medium composition

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7
Q

A valuable tool in studying morphological features

A

Microscope

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8
Q

Enumerate the morphological features observed under the microscope (10)

A

cell shape, cell size, colonial morphology, cellular inclusions, spore morphology (location & enlargement), color, staining behavior, arrangement, mode of reproduction, internal structures

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9
Q

Enumerate the usual shapes of bacteria (6)

A

Coccus, rod, spirillum, spirochete, budding and appendaged bacteria, filamentous bacteria

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10
Q

three basic shapes of bacteria

A

coccus, bacilli and spiral

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11
Q

inherent characteristics of an organism

A

shape and the cell arrangement

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12
Q

The genus that exhibits coccus (round or spherical) form

A

Staphylococcus

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13
Q

The genus that exhibits bacillus or rod form

A

Bacillus

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14
Q

The genus that exhibits elongated form

A

Fusobacterium

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15
Q

The genus that exhibits curved for

A

Vibrio sp

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16
Q

The genus that exhibits comma form

A

Bdelvibrio

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17
Q

The genus that exhibits club rod form

A

Cornybacterium

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18
Q

The genus that exhibits helical form

A

Helicobacterium

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19
Q

The genus that exhibits corkscrew form

A

Borrelia

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20
Q

The genus that exhibits filamentous form

A

Frankia

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21
Q

The genus that exhibits spiral form

A

Spirillum

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22
Q

The genus that exhibit stalk

A

Caulobacter

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23
Q

Enumerate unique or unusual shapes of microorganisms (2)

A

Star and square

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24
Q

An example of microorganism with star-shaped cells

A

Stella

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25
Q

An example of microorganism with square-shaped cells

A

Haloarcula and Haloquadratum

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26
Q

Two representatives of microorganism with star-shaped cells

A

S. humosa and S. vacuolata

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27
Q

Cells of genus Stella are gram _____, _______ and ______

A

negative, nonmotile and asporogenic

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28
Q

Where does genus Stella commonly found?

A

Freshwater, soil , sewage in widely separated geographical areas

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29
Q

The genus Stella has a group of ____, with ______ star-shaped ________

A

flat, six-pronged, prosthecobacteria

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30
Q

____________ is an extreme halophilic archaeon

A

Haloarcula

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31
Q

Haloarcula appears in sheets of ____ cells often in the shape of a square or triangle

A

65

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32
Q

Haloarcula are characterized by their _______ of _____ shaped, gram ____ cells that grow optimally at ____ °C

A

box, rectangular, negative,

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33
Q

____________ extremely halophilic obligately aerobic archaeon

A

Haloquadratum

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34
Q

Optimum salt concentration and pH level that Haloquadratum grows

A

18% salt and neutral pH

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35
Q

One validly published species of Haloquadratum

A

Haloquadratum walsbyi C23T

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36
Q

Cells of Haloquadratum are gram ____ and ___ and ____ and can form _____ sheets.

A

negative, square, flat, large

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37
Q

Division patterns among cocci w/ a single division plane and the cells generally occur in pairs

A

Diplococci

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38
Q

Division patterns among cocci with a single division plane, but the cells remain attached to form chains of variable length.

A

Streptococci

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39
Q

Division patterns among cocci formed from two perpendicular division planes

A

Tetrads

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40
Q

Division patterns among cocci that is divided in three perpendicular planes to produce a regular cuboidal arrangement of cells

A

Sarcinae

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41
Q

Division patterns among cocci that is divided in more than 3 planes to produce a characteristic grape-like cluster of cells

A

Staphylococci

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42
Q

Division patterns among cocci with single/individual cells distinctly separated from other cells

A

Solitary

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43
Q

Two other genus that Streptococci pattern is seen

A

Enterococcus and Lactococcus

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44
Q

microbes with tetrads pattern

A

Micrococcus luteus

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45
Q

microbes with sarcinae pattern

A

Sarcina maxima

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46
Q

microbes with staphylococcus pattern

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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47
Q

Which division pattern among cocci is shown (with attached image)

A

Diplococci

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48
Q

Which division pattern among cocci is shown (with attached image)

A

Sarcinae

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49
Q

Which division pattern among cocci is shown (with attached image)

A

Staphylococci

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50
Q

Which division pattern among cocci is shown (with attached image)

A

Streptococci

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51
Q

Which division pattern among cocci is shown (with attached image)

A

Tetrads

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52
Q

The smallest bacterium is approximately ____ μm in size and viruses are more or less ____ μm

A

1 , 0.1

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53
Q

The largest known bacterium with 400-750 μm in diameter

A

Thiomargarita namibiensis

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54
Q

the bacterium that reach up to 600 μm in size

A

Epulopiscium fishelsonii

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55
Q

Unit of measure of the size of microorganisms

A

micrometers (μm)

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56
Q

The Israeli scientist who first discovered the Epulopiscium

A

Lev Fishelson

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57
Q

Where does Lev Fishelson first discovered the Epulopiscium?

A

inside the intestines of a brown surgeonfis

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58
Q

The Epulopiscium was initially classifies as a _____ because of its ______ size

A

protist, gargantuan

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59
Q

_________ _________ was discovered by Linn Montgomery

A

Epulopiscium fishelsoni

60
Q

____________ _________ is the largest heterotrophic bacterium

A

Epulopiscium fishelsoni

61
Q

The one who performed an rRNA analysis in Epulopiscium fishelsoni which confirmed that it is actually bacteria but not validly published according to list of prokaryotic names with standing nomenclature

A

Norman Pace

62
Q

The largest bacterium that could reach a diameter of 750 μm that can be seen by a naked eye

A

Thiomargarita namibiensis

63
Q

Thiomargarita namibiensis was 1st isolated from the ocean sediments in the continental shelf of the ___________

A

Republic of Namibia

64
Q

_________ ______ is a colorless, sulfur and nitrate storing gram negative coccus (_____________)

A

Thiomargarita namibiensis, gammaproteobacterium

65
Q

Thiomargarita means “______ _____” in reference to the appearance of the cells containing microscopic sulfur granules that scatter incident light resulting to the cells pearly luster.

A

sulfur pearl

66
Q

______ ______ are granules of organic or inorganic material in the cytoplasmic matrix that are stainable and visible in light compound microscope

A

inclusion bodies

67
Q

Inclusion bodies are usually enclosed by a _______ membranes that separates from the cytoplasmic matrix.

A

single-layer

68
Q

Functions (including special functions) of inclusion bodies,

A

energy and/or carbon reserves, reduces osmotic stress, (magnetosomes) navigation, (gas vacuole) buoyancy

69
Q

How does inclusion bodies reduces osmotic stress in the cell?

A

When the production of insoluble form of the inclusion body matches the amount of substances dissolved in the cytoplasmic matrix

70
Q

examples of organic type of inclusion bodies that act as stored carbon and energy sources

A

glycogen (amlylopectin-like) and starch

71
Q

glycogen (amylopectin-like) and starch are easily detected after staining the cells with what soln? what colors are manifested after staining and observed under light microscope?

A

iodine, dark-blue and brown bodies

72
Q

The most common inclusion body of prokaryotes

A

Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid

73
Q

When does Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acids (PHB) are produced?

A

When there is an excess carbon source in the cells

74
Q

Monomers of Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid and its polymers are easily stained by what dye?what colors are manifested after staining and observed under light microscope?

A

Lipophilic dye like sudan black, black

75
Q

___________ the only known non-protein nitrogen polymer in cyanobacteria

A

Cyanophycin or cyanophycin granule polypeptide (CGP)

76
Q

Cyanophycin or cyanophycin granule polypeptide are produced by most cyanobacteria and a few heterotrophic bacteria such as _________

A

Acinetobacter sp

77
Q

cyanophycin or cyanophycin granule polypeptide are produced by cyanobacteria cells during _______.

A

stress (during phosphate or sulfate starvation)

78
Q

cyanophycin granule polypeptide can be visualized using a staining method based on the ______ _____ _____, according to Watzer et al. (2015)

A

arginine-selective sakaguchi reaction

79
Q

These are bacterial compartments consisting of polyhedral protein shells filled with what enzyme

A

Carboxysomes, ribulose-1 5-bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO)

80
Q

The predominant enzyme in carbon fixation and the rate limiting enzyme in the Calvin Cycle and a carbonic anhydrase

A

ribulose-1,5-biphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCo)

81
Q

The carboxysomes functions to restrict access of RuBisCo to ___, an alternative substrate for this enzyme, and this ensures that RuBisCo ______ rather than ____ ribulose biphosphate.

A

O2, carboxylates, oxygenates

82
Q

Name 6 organic inclusion bodies

A

gas vesicles, crystal proteins, carboxysomes, cyanophycin, Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid, glycogen/starch

83
Q

A microorganism that forms crystal protein

A

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)

84
Q

________ are pore-forming toxins used to control insect pests that range from caterpillars and beetles that infest crops to black flies and mosquitoes that transmit human diseases

A

crystal proteins / crystal toxin proteins

85
Q

_____ are conical-shaped structures made of protein. They are impermeable to water and solutes but permeable to gases. Provides buoyancy for aquatic bacteria.

A

gas vacuoles

86
Q

Microorganisms with gas vacuoles

A

Microcystis and Anabaena

87
Q

Gas vacuoles appear as ___ ___ ___ under light microscopy

A

irregular bright inclusions

88
Q

Name 3 inorganic inclusion bodies

A

magnetosomes, volutin, sulfur granules

89
Q

Other term for magnetosomes

A

magnetic storage inclusions

90
Q

This aids some bacteria to orient themselves within a magnetic field

A

Magnetosomes

91
Q

Magnetosomes are made of intracellular particles of ___ ___ ___ or ________ _____ _______

A

oxide mineral magnetite (Fe3O4), sulfur-containing mineral greigite

92
Q

True or false: magnetosomes are energy storage

A

False: allows only orientation for favorable conditions (where the oxygen concentration is low)

93
Q

Other term for volutin granules

A

polymetaphosphate or metachromatic granules or polyphosphate reservoirs

94
Q

inclusion bodies that are stored phosphate in the form of linear chains of inorganic pyrophosphate

A

volutin granules or polymetaphosphate or metachromatic granules or polyphosphate reservoirs

95
Q

The staining dye that gives darker shade of blue in volutin granule

A

methylene blue

96
Q

Volutin is derived from the specific epithet ________ ______ to which granules are particularly common

A

Spirillum volutans

97
Q

Volutin granules are common to _____, especially _____, and in the ______

A

corynebacteria, C. diphteria, mycobacteria

98
Q

this inclusion bodies are common in bacteria that uses hydrogen sulfide as electron source

A

Sulfur granules

99
Q

Provide an example species of bacteria with sulfur granules

A

Thiomargarita namibiensis

100
Q

9 structural, biochemical and physiological features of microorganisms

A

cell wall structure, cell wall lipids, whole cell composition, antigenic characteristics, photosynthetic and carotenoid pigments, growth requirements, metabolic characteristics, luminescence, antibiotic sensitivity

101
Q

True or false: The Gram-negative bacteria have thicker peptidoglycan layer compared to Gram-positive bacteria

A

False

102
Q

The simplest method to determine the characteristics of the bacterial cell wa

A

Gram staining

103
Q

True or false: Gram positive bacteria retain the crystal violet – iodine complex (CV-I, primary and mordant dyes, respectively) in their thick peptidoglycan layer upon the addition of the decolorizer (75% ethanol) and won’t take up significantly the counterstain, safranin and retains the blue-violet color.

A

False: 95% instead of 75%

104
Q

True or false: Gram negative bacteria are decolorized by ethanol due to its thin peptidoglycan layer. Gram negative cells will take up the red color of the counterstain.

A

True

105
Q

______ _______ is used to describe the antibody response triggered by the antigens on a particular bacterium.

A

antigenic properties

106
Q

True or false: When B pertussis antiserum, B parapertusis antiserum or saline is added to the suspensions. A positive result is indicated by no agglutination with one specific antiserum and by agglutination with saline

A

False: A positive result is indicated B agglutination with one specific antiserum and by NO agglutination with saline

107
Q

Examples under antigenic characteristic

A
  1. Combination of known antiserum and unknown bacterium 2. Slide agglutination 3. ELISA 4. Western bl
108
Q

ELISA stands for

A

Enzyme link immunoSorbent Assay

109
Q

____ are the observable characteristics or traits of an organism which can be used in species differentiation

A

phenotype

110
Q

These methods are often used in phenotypic analyses

A

Rapid ID kits and FAME

111
Q

FAME stands for

A

Fatty acid methyl ester

112
Q

Rapid ID kits are designed to test the _____, _____ ______, and subsequently determine the identity of a bacterium to certain level of accuracy.

A

nutritional, metabolic properties

113
Q

Provide the FAME workflow (5 steps)

A

Bacterial culture, saponification and methylation, extraction, GC analysis peak naming and profile comparison to database, identification of bacteria by pattern recognition

114
Q

Commonly employed molecular methods (5)

A
  1. direct gene and gene products 2. Comparison of proteins 3. Nucleic acid (G+C content and sequencing) 4. DNA-DNA hybridization 5. Genome finger printing (ribotyping)
115
Q

______ ____ is a rapid approach for evaluating polymorphisms (genetic variation) b/w strains since it does not require lengthy process of sequencing.

A

genome fingerprinting

116
Q

_______ are generally fragments of DNA generated from individual genes or whole genome

A

fingerprints

117
Q

_________ is a discontinuous genetic variation resulting in the occurrence of several different forms or types of individuals among the members of a single species.

A

Polymorphism

118
Q

______ a method of gene fingerprinting that exploits the unique DNA sequences of different organisms/strains.

A

ribotyping

119
Q

provide the ribotyping workflow (6 steps)

A
  1. different strains of bacteria 2. extract DNA 3. cut DNA with restriction enzyme 4. do gel electrophoresis 5. transfer DNA to nylon filter 6. hybridize with DNA probes
120
Q

what enzymes are used in restriction digest of DNA, wherein these genomic DNA is cut at specific sites and generates different lengths

A

restriction endonuclease enzymes

121
Q

Provide the PCR amplification of the 16S rRNA gene (8 steps)

A
  1. Isolate DNA 2. Amplify 16S rRNA gene 3. Run on agarose gel to check for correct size 4. fluorescent dye labelling 5. sequencing 6 alignment of sequences 7. blast 8. generate phylogenetic tree
122
Q

Provide phylogenetic tree generating programs

A

MEGA, ClustalW

123
Q

MEGA stands for

A

Molecular Evolutionary genetic analysis

124
Q

_______ ____ is a method of DNA sequencing based on the selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides by DNA polymerase during in vitro DNA replication

A

sanger sequencing

125
Q

______ ________ acts like a copying machine that produces lots of copies of DNA

A

PCR machines

126
Q

________- is a visual chart generated during DNA analysis by electrophoresis

A

electropherogram

127
Q

True or False: in electropherogram, a good peak will be recording 1 amino acids and two peaks rising together or very low peak signal will be recording a N or unknown amino acid

A

true

128
Q

_________ finds regions of local similarity between sequences. This program compares nucleotide or protein sequence to sequence databases and calculates the statistical significance of matches. This also can be used to infer functional and evolutionary relationships between sequences as well as help identify members of gene families.

A

BLAST

129
Q

BLAST stands for

A

Basic local alignment search tool

130
Q

_____ creates public databases, conducts research in computational biology, develops software tools for analyzing genome data and disseminates biomedical info etc

A

NCBI

131
Q

______ simplest method in the determining the DNA base composition

A

mol % G+C

132
Q

mol % G+C is determined by ____ _____ __ ___

A

Melting point of DNA

133
Q

What type of chromatography is utilized in determining the melting point of DNA

A

High pressure liquid chromatography

134
Q

True or False: the mol % G+C will be very far to the same in closely related organisms

A

False, mol % G+C will be very close to the same in closely related organisms

135
Q

What does G+C content by more than about 10% mean in two organisms?

A

The genome of the two organisms have quite different base sequences, indicating that they are not closely related

136
Q

Is it safe to assume that organisms with the same G+C content also have similar DNA base sequences?

A

No, because, two very different base sequences can be constructed from the same proportions of A+T and G+C base pairs

137
Q

Other name for DNA-DNA hybridization

A

nucleic acid hybridization

138
Q

_____ ______ directly compares the similarity of the genomes of the microorganisms to determine the relatedness or similarity b/w closely related strains

A

DNA-DNA hybridization

139
Q

at what percent of the shared 16S rRNA gene sequence similarity it is suggested at which the DNA-DNA reassociation experiments should be done? why at this point it is being done?

A

98.7-99%, for testing the genomic uniqueness of a novel isolates

140
Q

Determination of degree of hybridization: organisms identical

A

complete hybridization

141
Q

Determination of degree of hybridization: organisms related

A

partial hybridization

142
Q

Determination of degree of hybridization: organisms unrelated

A

no hybridization

143
Q

The DNA segments whose identity is already known and used in hybridization are called ___ ___ ____ or ____?

A

nucleic acid probes, probes

144
Q

DNA-DNA hybridization values ranging from 70-100% means

A

two strains belong to the same species

145
Q

DNA-DNA hybridization values ranging from <70-25%

A

two strains belong to the same genus

146
Q

DNA-DNA hybridization values ranging from <25-7%

A

two strains belong to the different genera

147
Q

enumerate ecological properties with taxonomic significance (4)

A

1.life cycle patterns
2. nature of symbiotic relationship
3. ability to cause disease in the host
4. preferred habitat