Lecture 2 Neuromuscular/Ganglionic Blockers Flashcards

1
Q

Ganglionic blockers are ______ receptor _____

A

nicotinic, antagonists

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2
Q

2 important ganglionic blockers to know:

Why are these not commonly used?

A

trimethaphan, mecamylamine

they block the entire ANS (ie block pupillary reflex and baro-receptor reflex)

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3
Q

Uses of trimethaphan:

Use of mecamylamine:

A

trimeth = hypotension for surgery

mecamylamine = tourette’s, smoking cessation, severe hypertension

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4
Q

In general, the ____ tone is stronger than the ____ tone. What is the exception to this and why does this exception occur?

A

parasympathetic, sympathetic;

smooth muscles of vascular tone (ie regular vasoconstriction), because the M3 receptors are not innervated

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5
Q

ganglionic blockade results in ____ and ____

A

vasodilation, tachycardia

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6
Q

Therapeutic use for neuromuscular blockers?

A

surgery and intubation

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7
Q

What was the first clinically used neuromuscular blocker, and what was the active component of it?

A

curare

d-tubocurarine

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8
Q

Without blockade, how many twitches of the thumb should be seen with the “Train of 4 test”? The train of 4 ratio is the ratio of the ____ twitch to the ____ twitch

A

4; 4th, 1st

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9
Q

Sedation is said to be complete with a TOF ratio of ___, or ____ twitches out of 4 impulses.

A

.25; 1-2

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10
Q

Recovery to a TOF ratio of ___ is needed before extubation. A ratio of ___ is for “full clinical recovery”

A

.7;

.9

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11
Q

(Depolarization/Non-depolarizing) blockers will show a decrease in response strength between subsequent stimuli, called fade.
This is absent in (non-depolarizing or depolarizing?) blockers until a TOF ratio of 0.3 is reached. This is called phase ____

A

depolarizing,
non-depolarizing

II

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12
Q

No additional dose of blocker should be given if __ twitches are observed with the TO4 test

A

no

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13
Q

Sequence of muscle paralysis by curare/neuromuscular blockers:

A

eye/speech–>extremities/limbs –> intercostals –> diaphragm

ie outside in. mimics GBS

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14
Q

_____ is a depolarizing NAchR agonist. It is ____ acting as it is rapidly metabolized by _____

A

Succinylcholine (Sux);

short, butyrylcholinesterase

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15
Q

Sux should be avoided in patients with _____ as additional release of ____ can cause cardiac arrest

A

hyperkalemia,

potassium

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16
Q

Specifically, Sux inhibits ____ of the NAchR receptor, preventing further action potentials from occuring. ___ use of the agonist will give a muscle twitch

A

repolarization;

first

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17
Q

Pancuronium./vecuronium/atracurium are _____ neuromuscular blockers that are ______ of Nicotinic receptors

A

non-depolarizing;

competitive antagonists

18
Q

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers are easily ____ and have a ____ duration of action.

A

reversable; long

19
Q

What is a short acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

A

trimethaphan

20
Q

reverseal of non-depolarizing blockade:

  1. use of an AchE inhibitor such as _____. It increases levels of Ach to compete with the antagonist.
  2. Use of ____ which binds and sequesters pancuronium
A

neostigmine,

sugammedex

21
Q

AchE inhibitors rely on the presence of Ach. ie, they have little effect on the function of ____ receptors located in ____ ____

A

M3; blood vessels

22
Q

AchE is located in ____. BuChE is located in ____ and prefers _____ and other local anaesthetics such as procaine.

A

synapses;

plasma, succinylcholine

23
Q

Three classes of AchE inhibitors:

A

carbamates, organophosphates, quarternary ammonium alcohols

24
Q

Carbamates can be tertiary or quarternary amine groups. they temporarily create a ____ ____ with AcheE, but it is rapid and reversible

A

covalent bond

25
Q

Physostigmine is a _____ amine. Does it enter the CNS? What is it used for?

A

tertiary; yes; block atropine Overdose, glaucoma, alzheimers.

26
Q

Neostigmine and pyridostygmine are _____ amines. They (do/do not) enter the CNS. They are used for _____ _____, _____ ileus, and reversal of ____ ____

A

quarternary;
do not;
myasthenia gravis, post-operative; neuromuscular blockade

27
Q

Neo vs Pyrdiostigmine: ____ is orally bioavailable has fewer side effects, and has a longer duration of action

A

pyridostigmine

28
Q

Organophosphates such as isofluorophate and echothiophate can rarely be used in treatment of _____. They bind ___ via ____ bonds to AchE and are very long lasting.

A

glaucoma;

irreversibily, covalent

29
Q

Nerve gas ( _____) and insecticides such as _____ irreversibly bind AcheE

A

sarin, parathion

30
Q

Treatment of organophsphate poisoning:
_____ is the antidote.
_____ can help treat the symptoms as it has a fast onset

A

pralidoxime,

atropine

31
Q

Aging of organophosphates is due to _____ of the covalent bond. _____ prevents aging and regenerates AchE

A

hydrolysis;

pralidoxime

32
Q
Acetycholine Esterase Inhibitor Poisoning: DUMBBELS
D= \_\_\_\_
U = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
M = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
B = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

diarrhea,
urination,
miosis,
bronchospasms

33
Q
DUMBBELS of AchE Inhibtor poisoning:
B =
E = 
L =
S = 
S =
A
bradycardia;
excitation of skeletal muscle/CNS (most worrisome)
Lacrimation;
Sweating
Salivaiton
34
Q

Edrophonium is a_______ ammonium alcohol that binds non-covalently and is ____ acting. It is used to diagnose ____ ____

A

quarternary; short

myasthenia gravis

35
Q

Myasthenia gravis:
Antibodies against?
Effect of exercise on symptoms?
Effect of edrophonium?

A

Nicotinic receptors at NMJ;
makes it worse;
improves symptoms

36
Q

Lambert Eaton:
Antibodies against?
Effect of exercise on symptoms?
Effect of edrophonium?

A

calcium channels;
improves muscle strength;
no effect

37
Q

negative edrophonium test is seen in ____ crisis. symptoms are due to ______ of receptors, leading to paralysis

A

cholinergic; overstimulation

38
Q

With parasympathetic drugs, watch for exacerbation of _____, _____, and ____ ____

A

asthma, COPD, peptic ulcers

39
Q

NE is produced in the _____.

Ach is produced in the _____

A

locus ceruleus;

nucleus basalis of meynert + medial septal nuclei

40
Q

three drugs used to treat alzheimer’s

do these slow progression of disease?

A

donepezil, rivastigmine, galatamine; no, just help manage symptoms

41
Q

____ binds to the anionic site of the AchE Inhibitor, preventing Ach binding.

A

donepezil

42
Q

_____ and ____ are reversible competitive AchE inhibitors. they ____ effectiveness as the disease progresses

A

galantamine, rivastigmine;

lose