Lecture 2 Martin Flashcards

1
Q

Peptidoglycan percentage

A

60-80% of the cell wall

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2
Q

Helps bacteria resist phagocytosis

A

Capsule

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3
Q

May hide surface antigens on bacteria

A

Capsule

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4
Q

Sometimes assist in bacterial attachment

A

Capsule

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5
Q

Long slender threadlike appendages

A

Flagellum

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6
Q

Purpose of flagellum

A

Motility

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7
Q

Types of locomotion in flagellum

A

Chemotaxis or phototaxis

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8
Q

Composition of flagellum

A

Protein

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9
Q

Highly resistant dehydrated bacterial form resistant to environmental effects

A

Endospore (spore)

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10
Q

What uses axial filaments for motility?

A

Spirochetes

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11
Q

Composition of a spore

A

Concentrated dehydrated densely packed nucleic acids and metabolic proteins with a thick spore coat

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12
Q

Short thin threadlike glycoprotein strands

A

Fimbriae

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13
Q

Function of Fimbriae

A

Aid in attaching to the appropriate cell

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14
Q

Specialized fimbrae involved in DNA transfer during conjugation

A

Sex pili

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15
Q

Organism that utilizes non living organic matter

A

Saprophyte

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16
Q

Organism which lives in or on a host organism

A

Parasite

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17
Q

Organisms that have elaborate requirements for specific nutrients which they cannot synthesize

A

Fastidious

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18
Q

Bacteria that require oxygen 21%

A

Aerobic

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19
Q

Bacteria that require reduced oxygen concentration 5-10%

A

Microaerophillic

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20
Q

Bacteria that require the absence of oxygen

A

Anaerobic

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21
Q

Bacteria able to grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

A

Facultative

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22
Q

Optimal growth conditions for bacteria

A

Temp: 35C
PH: 6.8-7.4
Humidity: 60-80%
CO2: most medically significant bacteria do not require CO2

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23
Q

Substance containing organic nutrients and water and possibly enrichments

A

Culture media

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24
Q

Clump of a few million identical bacteria originating from the same bacterium

A

Colony

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25
Q

1-3mm diameter, smooth, shiny, and often with a butter like consistency

A

Colony

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26
Q

30-60minutes

A

Average bacterial cell generation, some can take up to 15-30hrs

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27
Q

15-48hrs

A

Average time to form a bacterial colony, some need days or weeks

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28
Q

Size of atypical bacteria

A

0.1 - 0.3 um

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29
Q

Obligate, intracellular parasites

A

Atypical bacteria, typically lacking specific genes

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30
Q

Modified cell wall structures

A

Atypical bacteria

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31
Q

Possesses a complicated or modified reproductive method

A

Atypical bacteria

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32
Q

Requirements for lab cultivation of atypical bacteria

A

Living host or special highly enriched media

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33
Q

Three important atypical bacteria

A

Mycoplasma, rickettsia, chlamydia

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34
Q

Classification of moulds and yeast

A

Fungi

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35
Q

Cell type of fungi

A

Eucaryotic

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36
Q

Single cell organism with an oval or spherical shape. Reproduces by budding from existing cell or by spore formation

A

Yeast

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37
Q

Size of yeast

A

4-15um

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38
Q

Colony with a smooth, shiny surface similar to bacteria

A

Yeast

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39
Q

Multicellular long filamentous cells that branch and intertwine

A

Hyphae

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40
Q

Size of hyphae

A

2 to 15um diameter

up to 30um in length

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41
Q

Size of mould spores

A

1-10um

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42
Q

Visible mass of hyphae

A

Mycelium

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43
Q

Average growth time for yeast

A

2 to 5 days

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44
Q

Average growth time for mould colonies

A

5 to 21 days

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45
Q

Growth media requirements for fungi

A

Similar to bacteria growth media but contains antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth

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46
Q

Obligate, intracellular parasite

A

Virus

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47
Q

Obligate

A

Takes control of the host cell

Requires metabolic processes of living cell to reproduce virus

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48
Q

What nucleic acid do viruses posess?

A

RNA or DNA, not both

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49
Q

A complete, fully developed individual virus particle

A

Virion

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50
Q

Size of virus

A

18 to 300 nm

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51
Q

Enveloped virus

A

Helical

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52
Q

Non-enveloped virus

A

Isocahedral

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53
Q

Helical viruses posses what structures?

A

Nucleic acid
Capsid protein
Envelope
Antigen spikes

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54
Q

Icosahedral viruses posses

A

Nucleic acid

Capsid protein

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55
Q

Two shapes of virus

A

Isocahedral

Helical

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56
Q

Purpose of the capsid

A

Contain and protect the nucleic acid

Proteins serve as antigens in infection and as site for attachment

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57
Q

Composition of viral envelope

A

Lipid bilayer acquired from host cell or nuclear membrane

Glycoproteins

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58
Q

Function of viral envelope

A

General protection from environment
Primary site of attachment to host cell
Serve as antigens during infection and as site for antibody attachment

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59
Q

Bacteriophage

A

Bacterial virus

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60
Q

Head of bacteriophage

A

Core - nucleic acid

Capsid - protective protein

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61
Q

Tail of bacteriophage

A

Connects the head to the base

Becomes tube when virus attaches to bacteria

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62
Q

What determines the viral attachment site of bacterial cells?

A

Tail fibers, polysaccharide tips

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63
Q

How does a virus get through the bacterial cell wall?

A

The base with enzymatic pins, allows the nucleic acid to enter the bacteria

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64
Q

Sequence of events during virus infection

A
Attachment
Penetration and uncoating of nucleic acid
Eclipse or synthesis phase
Maturation
Release
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65
Q

Eclipse or synthesis phase

A
Nucleic acid transcribed into mRNA
MRNA translated into viral proteins
Inhibits the host's synthetic mechanism
Viral nucleic acid copies produced
Viral capsids are produced
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66
Q

How do encapsulated viruses release?

A

Bud through the cell membrane

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67
Q

How do non enveloped viruses release?

A

Lysis of the host cell

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68
Q

DNA incorporated into the host DNA and hidden for a period of time

A

Latency/Lysogeny

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69
Q

Latent virus DNA removed from the host DNA and producing new viruses in bacteria

A

Lytic

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70
Q

Icosahedral

A

Soccer ball shaped

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71
Q

Capsid

A

Protein
Protection
Attachment

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72
Q

Single celled organisms with intracellular organelles

A

Protozoa

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73
Q

4 types of protozoa

A

Amoebae
Flagellates
Ciliates
Apicomplexans (sporozoans)

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74
Q

Motility of amoebae

A

Pseudopodia

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75
Q

Motility of flagellates

A

Flagella

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76
Q

Motility of ciliates

A

Cilia

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77
Q

Motility of apicomplexans

A

Non motile in mature form

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78
Q

General size of protozoa

A

2um to1mm

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79
Q

Cell type of protozoa

A

Eucaryotic

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80
Q

Two stages of protozoa

A

Trophozoite

Cystic

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81
Q
Protozoa
Active
Vegetative
Motile
Feeding stage
A

Trophozoite

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82
Q

Stage of protozoa responsible for major pathological conditions

A

Trophozoite

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83
Q

Protozoa
Dormant
Nonmotile
Non feeding stage

A

Cystic

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84
Q

Multiple divisions of the nucleus before the cell divides

A

Schizogony

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85
Q

Two cells fuse, fertilizing the other, followed by division

A

Conjugation

86
Q
Animal
Eucaryote
Multicellular
Possess specialized simple body system
Locomotion reduced or lacking
A

Helminths

87
Q

Flatworms

A

Playhelminths

88
Q

The flukes

A

Trematodes

89
Q

One body part, non segmented, leaf shaped

A

Trematode

90
Q

Size of trematodes (flukes)

A

500um to 60mm

91
Q

Reproduction of trematodes

A

Monoecious, male and female structures in one organism

92
Q

Tapeworms

A

Cestodes

93
Q

Multiple body parts, segmented

A

Cestode, tapeworm

94
Q

Size of cestodes

A

2mm to over 12m

95
Q

Reproduction of cestodes

A

Monoecious

96
Q

Nematodes

A

Aschelminthes, the true roundworms

97
Q

Unsegmented and cylindrical

A

Aschelminthes, nematode

98
Q

Size of aschelminthes

A

300um to 1m

99
Q

Reproduction of aschelminthes

A

Dioecious, sexes separated into male and female

100
Q

Alimentary track of aschelminthes

A

Complete

101
Q

Alimentary tract of cestodes

A

Absent

102
Q

Alimentary track of trematodes

A

Partial, mouth esophagus caeca but no anus

103
Q

Study of chemical and cellular defense against foreign substances

A

Immunology

104
Q

Body’s resistance to disaes causing mircoorganisms and damage by foreign substances

A

Immunity

105
Q

Two types of host protective responses

A

Innate and adaptive

106
Q

Non specific general recognition and response to foreign substance, physical and chemical barriers

A

Innate host response

107
Q

Specific response to foreign substance

A

Adaptive

108
Q

Foreign substance, such as a microorganism which triggers teh immune response

A

Antigen

109
Q

Antigen specific proteins which bind to the antigen and assist in inactivating the antigen

A

Antibody

110
Q

Certain white blood cells that ingest and digest invading microbes

A

Phagocytes

111
Q

Site of immune response activities

A

Spleen and lymph nodes

112
Q

Where do stem cell originate?

A

Bone marrow

113
Q

What are the primary phagocytic cells?

A

Neutrophils

114
Q

How quickly do neutrophils mature?

A

About 10^10/day

115
Q

What type of cell is active in allergic response?

A

Eosinophils

116
Q

What type of blood cell are involved in inflammation?

A

Basophils

117
Q

These cells are:
Moderately phagocytic
Mature into macrophages and dendritic cells
Respond to inflammation signals

A

Monocytes

118
Q

These cells are PRECOMMITTED to respond to specific antigens

A

Lymphocytes

119
Q

What are the three types of lymphocytes?

A

T cells, B cells, Natural killer cell

120
Q

Describe the circulation process of neutrophils

A

Circulate about 6.5hrs then adher to endothelium of blood vessels and wait to respond to inflammation

121
Q

How long does it take for the average lymphocyte to circulate the blood and lymphatic systems?

A

About 1 to 2 days

122
Q

What percentage of lymphocytes are present in the circulating blood?

A

1%

123
Q

Large phagocytic cells which mature from monocytes

A

Macrophages

124
Q

How much larger are macrophages compared to monocytes?

A

About 10 times the size

125
Q

This cell posseses many broad specificity receptors enabling it to capture a wide range of pathogens

A

Macrophages

126
Q

These cells are a major line of defense (via phagocytosis and anitgen presention) against incading microbes and abnormal or defective host cells

A

Macrophages

127
Q

Nonspecific general response to foreign substance including inflammatory response

A

Innate host response

128
Q

Three types of physical and chemical barriers

A

Skin & mucous
Certain proteins in blood from specific tissue cells
Phagocytosis

129
Q

What determines the nature of the immune response?

A

Route of transmission or portal of entry and type of microbe

130
Q

Vasodilation and increased permeability of capillaries are what kind of response

A

Inflammatory

131
Q

Causes the formation of pus and swelling

A

Phagocytosis

132
Q

Kinins, fibrinopeptides, clotting factors, lysozyme, histamin, cytokines are what?

A

Chemicals released in serum & tissue in response to antigen presence

133
Q

Primary cells involved in phagocytosis

A

Macrophage

Neutrophil

134
Q

Movement of phagocyte toward the site of inflammation/intrusion

A

Chemotaxis

135
Q

Phagocyte adheres to antigen/intruder

Hindered by bacterial capsule or surface protein

A

Adherence

136
Q

Describe the ingestion of a microbe by phagocytosis

A

Pseudopod of phagocyte surrounds the foreign material

Phagocyte encloses the foreign material into a phagosome

137
Q

How do phagocytes digest intruders?

A

Lysosomes contining powerful digestive enzymes and bactericidal substances
Lysosomes combine with phagosomes forming phagolysosomes in which the foreign material is digested
Waste is discharged

138
Q

Specific foreign substance which STIMULATES AN IMMUNE RESPONSE when introduced into the body and REACTS WITH ANTIBODIES OR T-CELL RECEPTORS

A

Antigens

139
Q

Four steps of phagocytosis

A

Chemotaxis
Adherence
Ingestion
Digestion

140
Q

What type of cells can be phagocytized by the body?

A

Foreign

Malfunctioning or damaged self cells

141
Q

A protein with complex 3D configuration

A

Chemical nature of an antigen

142
Q

The specific part of the immunogen that specifiees or determines the exact antibody to be produced

A

Epitope

143
Q

What is the portion fo the antigen that combines with a specific antibody or T-cell receptor

A

Epitope

144
Q

What determines the quality of an epitope?

A

Its exposure to the immune system as well as the 3 dimensional shape of the molecule

145
Q

Two letter symbol for immunoglobulin

A

Ig

146
Q

Antigen specific proteins which bind to specific sites on antigens and assist in inactivating the antigen by attaching to it

A

Immunoglobulin (Ig)

147
Q

What percentage of Ig is construed of carbohydrate?

A

4-18%

148
Q

What percentage of plasma proteins are immunoglobulins?

A

20%

149
Q

5 classes of immunoglobulin

A
A
D
E
G
M
150
Q

Antigen specific binding sites “lock and key”

A

Fab sites

2 sites per monomeric molecule

151
Q

Binding site for phagocyte

A

Fc region

152
Q

What shapes are Ig antibodies

A

Y shaped with ends designated as Fab and Fc

153
Q

A macrobolecule consisting of at least one monomer comprised of two heavy chains and two light chains

A

Immunoglobulin

154
Q

What comprises the Fab ends of an Ig?

A

Two light chains and two heavy chains

155
Q

What comprises the Fc region of an Ig?

A

Two heavy chains

156
Q

How many constant regions are on the heavy chains of Ig?

A

3-4

157
Q

How many variable regions on the light chains of Ig?

A

1

158
Q

Light chains have how many constant regions?

A

1

159
Q

Light chains have how many variable regions?

A

1

160
Q

What is the function of the variable region of Ig?

A

Recognize and bind with a particular epitope

161
Q

What cells are procommitted

A

Lymphocytes

162
Q

The site of antigen processing

A

Spleen and lymph nodes

163
Q

Lymphatic fluid containing antigens and antigen presenting cells flow through

A

Lymph nodes

164
Q

This organ filters blood and traps blood borne antigens

A

Spleen

165
Q

MALT

A

Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue

166
Q

GALT

A

Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue

167
Q

Appendix and peyer’s patches

A

GALT

168
Q

BALT

A

Bronchus Associated Lymphoid Tissue

169
Q

Lymphoid nodules on outer wall of intestines

A

Peyer’s Patches

170
Q

Proteins on the surface of tisue and blood cells which identify cells belonging to a specific individual

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex proteins (MHC)

171
Q

What type of MHC proteins are found on virtually every cell in the body

A

Class I

172
Q

These MHC proteins are found only on immunocompetent cells, particularly B-cells and Macrophages

A

Class II

173
Q

What cell recognizes antigens when presented by MHC

A

T cells

174
Q

What three cells are lymphocytes?

A

T cells
B cells
Natural Killer cells

175
Q

How are lymphocytes identified and differentiated?

A

Clusters of Differentiation (CD)

176
Q

T cells and B cells have what type of receptors?

A

Antigen Specific Surface Receptors, precommitted to specific types of foreign antigen molecules

177
Q

Protein molecule complec on the surface of lymphocyte
Serve as receptors or attachment sites
Identify different stages of lymphocyte development

A

Clusters of Differentiation

178
Q

Immune tolerance

A

Mature lymphocytes are tolerant of antigens on our own self MHC molecules

179
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

Thymus, then concentrate in lymph nodes

180
Q

CD3
CD28
CD40
LFA-1

A

T cell surface markers

181
Q

CD3

A

Identifies mature T Cell

182
Q

CD 28

A

Receives activation co signal from CD80/86 on APC

183
Q

CD40

A

Receptor, binds with CD40 on B cell

184
Q

LFA1

A

Leukocyte function associated antigen 1, adhesion molecule on t cells

185
Q

Where do B cells develop?

A

Bone marrow

186
Q

CD40
CD19, CD20, CD 21
Produces CD80/86

A

B Cell Receptors

187
Q

CD40

A

B-cell marker significant for binding with T-cells

188
Q

CD19, CD20, CD21

A

Used for identification of B Cells

189
Q

CD80/86 in B cells

A

Produced when B cells act as Antigen Presenting cells (APC)

190
Q

Subpopulation of T Cells

A
CD4= Helper T Cell
CD8= Cytoxic T Cell
191
Q

ICAM-I

A

Intercellular Adhesion Molecule 1

192
Q

What does ICAM-I bind to?

A

LFA-1

193
Q

What binds to CD2?

A

LFA-3

194
Q

Location of alveolar macrophage

A

Lung

195
Q

Location of kupffer cells

A

Liver

196
Q

Location of microglial cells

A

Brain

197
Q

Location of langerhans cells

A

Skin

198
Q

Location of interdigitating dendritic cells

A

Lymph nodes and spleen, most frequent APC

199
Q

Interleukin-1, IL-1

A
  • Macrophages, APC’s
  • Co-stimulates Th cell activation.
  • Promotes T cell proliferation (stimulates IL-2 receptors)
  • Inflammation
200
Q

Interleukin-2, IL-2

A

CD4 Cells
T & B Cell growth factor
Activates & enhances T, B, and NK cells

201
Q

Interleukin-3, IL-3

A

Activated CD-4 Cells

Promotes proliferation of a variety of cells (colony stimulating factor)

202
Q

Interleukin-4, IL-4

A

Activated CD4 Cells
Co-stimulates B Cells
Promotes B cell growth and differentiation
Promotes IgE reactions

203
Q

Interleukin-5, IL-5

A

Activated CD4 cells
Stimulates differentiation of B cells & Eosinophils
Promotes IgA & IgE

204
Q

Interleukin-6 IL-6

A

Macrophage, T Cells
Mediates acute phase response
Enhances b cell growth
Induces b cell differentiation to plasma cell

205
Q

Interleukin-8, IL-8

A

Macrophages
Chemoattracts neutrophils
Promotes neutrophil adherence to vascular endothelial cells

206
Q

Interleukin-10, IL-10

A

CD4 Cells
Inhibits cytokine synthesis
Down regulates cellular response
Enhances immunoglobulin secretion

207
Q

Interleukin-12, IL-12

A

Macrophages

Activates NK, CD4, Th1 cells

208
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor, TNF

A
Macrophages, T Lymphocytes
Inflammation
Activate macrophages, granulocytes, cytotoxic cells
Kills tumor cells
Enhance phagocytosis
209
Q

MIF

A

T cells

Macrophage inhibition factor

210
Q

MAF

A

T Cells

Macrophage activating factor

211
Q

Interferon, IF

A

Leukocytes
Antiviral activity
Enhance MHC-1
Activate NK

212
Q

Interferon-y

A

T cells
Enhance & activate macrophages, CTL, and NK cells
Promotes inflammation