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Pediatrics > Lecture 19: Febrile Illness/ID > Flashcards

Lecture 19: Febrile Illness/ID Flashcards

1
Q

Rise in hypothalamic set-point due to endogenously produced pyrogens explains the etiology of a…

A

Fever

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2
Q

MC cytokines that function as endogenous pyrogens

A

IL-1 and IL-6

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3
Q

Core temperature is specifically defined as the temperature of blood within the () artery

A

Pulmonary artery

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4
Q

Fever () the amount of iron available to invading bacteria

A

Decreases

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5
Q

Generally, we prefer a rectal temp (most accurate) from birth to () years

A

Birth to 3 years

Same period as when fevers are MC

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6
Q

Tympanic temperatures are unreliable in children () months

A

Under 6 months of age

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7
Q

T/F: A well-appearing, well-hydrated child with evidence of a routine viral infection can be safely sent home with symptomatic treatment and careful return precautions

A

True

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8
Q

Most febrile illnesses are (viral/bacterial)

A

Viral

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9
Q

The MC reason to treat fever is if a child is…

A

Uncomfortable

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10
Q

NSAIDs should generally not be used in child younger than () months and Tylenol should not be used in children younger than () months

A
  • NSAIDs should be avoided in 6 months and younger.
  • Tylenol should be avoided in 3 months and younger.

NO ASA DUE TO REYE’S SYNDROME

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11
Q

You should see a child immediately if any of these are present.

  • Child is less than () months of age
  • Fever is greater than () celsius
  • Child is crying ()
  • Child cries when ()
  • Child is difficult to ()
  • () spots or dots are present on the skin
A
  • Less than 3 months of age
  • Greater than 40.6C
  • Crying INconsolably/whimpering
  • Crying when moved or even touched
  • Difficult to awaken
  • Stiff neck
  • Purple spots
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12
Q

You should a see a child within 24 hours if:

  • Child is () to () months old (unless fever occurred within 48h of dtap with no other symptoms)
  • Fever exceeds () C
  • Burning or pain with ()
  • Fever subsided for 24h but then ()
  • Fever has persisted longer than ()
A
  • 3-6 months old
  • Exceeds 40C/104F
  • Urination
  • Returning fever
  • Longer than 72h
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13
Q

On average, a (viral/bacterial) infection usually disseminates faster in a younger child

A

Bacterial infection

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14
Q

Fever is MC between the ages of…

A

Birth to 3 years

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15
Q

() account for most bacterial infections in infants under 90 days

A

UTIs

They can’t clean down there themselves

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16
Q

You should be especially concerned for a serious viral infection in an infant if they lack () vaccine or ()

A
  • HiB
  • Pneumococcal
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17
Q

T/F: Presence of petechiae/purpura in a viral illness is very sus

A

True

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18
Q

T/F: As long as child is 90 days old, their ill appearance does not require a full eval.

A

False

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19
Q

The mainstay diagnostics for any child under 21 days old with a fever >= 38C are (3)

A
  • UA
  • Blood cultures
  • LP

Inflammatory markers are optional.

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20
Q

In order for a 21 day or younger neonate to be D/C’d off of IV abx and discharged, they must meet all of this criteria:

  • Culture results are negative for ()
  • Infant appears ()
  • ()
A
  • Negative culture results for 24-36h
  • Infant appears well or is improving
  • No other reason to hospitalize.
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21
Q

For a 22-28 day old or a 29-60 day old, feverish, but well-appearing infant, the 3 diagnostics you must order initially are:

A
  • UA
  • Blood culture
  • Inflammatory markers
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22
Q

Generally, you want to order a procalcitonin alongside an ANC or CRP. If you CANNOT order procalcitonin, then you should obtain both ()

A

CRP and ANC

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23
Q

T/F: You can treat a urine only infection in a 29-60 day old via oral abx.

A

True

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24
Q

A 61-90 day old infant needs a full septic work-up if:

  • They appear ()
  • Signs of a () infection AND Abnormal (), (), or ()
A
  • They appear toxic/ill
  • They have signs of a focal infection.
  • Abnormal WBC, inflammatory markers, or UA
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25
Q

One of the most important history things in a child with a fever of unknown source is…

A

Immunization status

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26
Q

T/F: In an infant aged 3 months to 36 months, full-workup is indicated if incompletely immunized.

A

True

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27
Q

Febrile seizures are highest risk between the ages of () months and () years

A

6 months to 5 years

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28
Q

A generalized tonic/tonic-clonic seizure of less than 15 minutes and occurring within 24 hours of fever onset is most commonly known as a () and is most commonly caused by ()

A

Simple febrile seizures, MCC: Viral illness

Complex is focal or b2b or > 15 mins

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29
Q

T/F: Prophylactic anticonvulsants are recommended for children with febrile seizures.

A

False

Simple ones have no long-term adverse consequences

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30
Q

A Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO) is defined as a daily temp greater than () for 8 days with no apparent diagnosis.

A

38.3C or 101F

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31
Q

The top 3 MCC of FUOs, in order of frequency, are:

A
  1. Infectious diseases
  2. CT/Rheumatologic disrders
  3. Neoplasms
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32
Q

The MC autoimmune disease in children that can result in a FUO is…

A

Systemic JIA (juvenile idiopathic arthritis)

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33
Q

The MC malignancies in children that result in FUOs are (2)

A
  • Leukemias
  • Lymphomas
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34
Q

T/F: Most evaluations of FUOs begin inpatient.

A

False.

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35
Q

Ideally, a physical exam of a febrile infant is done when the infant is currently ()

A

Febrile

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36
Q

What might bilateral red eyes in a pediatric patient suggest in terms of underlying disease?

A

Kawasaki’s disease

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37
Q

T/F: It is reasonable to order serological testing for FUOs.

A

True.

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38
Q

If an infant is ill with persistent fever and NO diagnosis, you could order ()

A

IgG, IgA, IgM

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39
Q

Generally, empiric antimicrobial therapy (is/is not) indicated in FUO.

A

Is NOT (unless life-threatening)

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40
Q

If () occurs more than 24h prior to delivery, Bacterial sepsis in newborns increases 10x.

Normal rate is 1-2 in 1000

A

PROM (1 in 100 births)

PROM + Chorioamnionitis = 1 in 10 live births!

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41
Q

The MCC of bacterial sepsis in a newborn are (4)

A
  1. GBS
  2. E. coli
  3. Listeria
  4. S. Aureus
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42
Q

Generally, bacterial sepsis of the newborn appears on day () of life

A

Day 1

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43
Q

T/F: An intrapartum maternal temperature of 100.4F or higher is a risk factor for Bacterial sepsis of the newborn.

A

True.

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44
Q

The MC presenting sign of bacterial sepsis in a newborn is…

A

Respiratory distress d/t PNA

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45
Q

The Dx of PNA in bacterial sepsis is via…

A

Pleural fluid from effusion

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46
Q

Tx of early bacterial sepsis in newborns is…

A
  • Ampicillin
  • Gentamicin/cefotaxime

Q12 hrs

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47
Q

Tx of late bacterial sepsis in a newborn is…

A
  • Ampicillin
  • Gentamicin/Cefotaxime
  • Add on Vancomycin for staph

Late bacterial sepsis is MC due to staph aureus

10-14 days IV for proven sepsis.

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48
Q

Late onset bacterial sepsis of the newborn occurs after () days of life.

A

7 days of life.

Most likely due to staph.

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49
Q

Prevention of neonatal GBS infection is usually achieved via intrapartum delivery of () more than () hours prior to delivery.

A

Penicillin, 4 hours prior to delivery.

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50
Q

GBS cultures are obtained from both () and () at ()-() weeks.

A
  • Vaginal and rectal GBS cultures
  • 35-37 weeks
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51
Q

Prophylaxis with pencillin is indicated for women who are () or who have () GBS status at delivery.

A
  • GBS positive
  • Unknown GBS status at delivery
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52
Q

The MCC of aseptic/viral meningitis is…

A

Non-polio enteroviruses

MC before the age of 1

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53
Q

A full anterior fontanelle in the sitting position, a maculopapular rash, marked fever, irritability, and lethargy with an acute onset is suggestive of…

A

Viral meningitis

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54
Q

T/F: Meningeal signs are typically seen in pediatric patients.

A

False, generally only seen in older patients.

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55
Q

In both older and younger children, certain strains of () can cause flaccid paralysis in viral meningitis

A

Enteroviruses

Similar to polio

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56
Q

The most useful diagnostic lab for viral meningitis is…

A

PCR of enteroviruses

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57
Q

In 95% of cases, protein should be less than () mg/dl and glucose more than () of serum values in viral meningitis.

A
  • Protein less than 80 mg/dl
  • Glucose MORE than 60% of serum values
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58
Q

The general tx for an infant with viral meningitis is…

A
  • Admit
  • Isolate
  • Fluids
  • Antipyretics
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59
Q

In an infant younger than 1 month, you should consider () in your differential alongside viral meningitis and start () until you have a diagnosis.

A
  • You should consider herpes virus encephalitis
  • Start empiric acyclovir until diagnosis is made.
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60
Q

The MOST important sign in very young infants when it comes to bacterial meningitis is…

A

A tense, bulging fontanelle

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61
Q

CSF of bacterial meningitis should show () WBCs, () glucose, () protein

A
  • Elevated WBCs
  • Decreased glucose
  • Increased protein
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62
Q

One might see G() diplococci on smears of CSF sediment for bacterial meningitis

A

G+ diplococci

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63
Q

Empiric abx for bacterial meningitis in newborns is…

A
  • IV Vanco
  • IV Cefotaxime/Rocephin
  • Steroids prior to abx to reduce cerebral edema and lower likelihood of hearing loss per viv / I wrote IF no hx of HiB vaccine, maybe its both?
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64
Q

The two MC time periods to contract neisseria meningitidis are…

A
  • First year of life
  • Teen years
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65
Q

In order to qualify for chemoprophylaxis for neisseria meningitis, you must have () exposure

A

Direct exposure to respiratory secretions

Household members are high risk

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66
Q

MC agent for chemoprophylaxis for neisseria meningitis is…

A

Rifampin

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67
Q

A purpuric/petechieal rash in association with bacterial meningitis means it is most likely…

A

Meningococcemia w/ similar symptoms

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68
Q

T/F: You should treat meningococcemia in a newborn/kid as shock.

A

True

Im guessing this is for meningococcemia

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69
Q

T/F: Pneumococcal meningitis and meningococcemia (meningitis due to N. meningitidis) are treated the same.

A

True.

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70
Q

MC bacteria for bacterial conjunctivitis

A
  • Strep Pneumo
  • H flu
  • M cat

Same as AOM top 3

Pseudomonas if contact lens wearer

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71
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by () discharge from the eye, and kids often complain that when they wake up, they feel as if their eyes are ().

A
  • Mucopurulent discharge
  • Eyes feel stuck together
72
Q

A child remain contagious for bacterial conjunctivitis until they have taken their abx for at least () hrs.

73
Q

T/F: Bacterial conjunctivitis requires abx tx.

A

False. Self-resolving, abx speeds it up.

74
Q

MCC of viral conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus

75
Q

Viral conjunctivitis is (very/not very) contagious, is (unilateral/bilateral), and has () discharge, and sometimes shows () on the conjunctiva

A
  • Very contagious
  • Starts unilaterally, then spreads
  • Watery discharge
  • Hyperemic conjunctivitis

Can combine with URI and bilateral conjunctivitis

76
Q

T/F: Preauricular LAN is seen in pharyngoconjunctival fever

77
Q

Besides the usual viral conjunctivitis S/S, epidemic keratoconjunctivitis also has ()

78
Q

The only treatment for viral conjuncitivitis is…

A

Just isolate for 2 weeks + supportive care.

No antivirals indicated.

79
Q

Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis are often associated together, and they are type () HSR.

A

Type 1 HSR.

80
Q

Eye drops for allergic conjunctivitis

A

Olopatadine BID

Antihistamine + Mast cell stabilizer

81
Q

Severe allergic conjunctivitis is also known as… () conjunctivitis, and includes giant papillae of upper tarsal conjunctiva, ptosis, keratitis, and characteristic white dots.

A

Vernal conjunctivitis

Recurrent, bilateral allergic conjunctivitis

82
Q

The characteristic white dots within vernal conjuncitivits are accumulations of…

A

Eosinophils (mostly)

83
Q

Tx of vernal conjunctivitis

A

Same as allergic: Olopatadine drops

84
Q

Atopic conjunctivitis is most commonly associated with…

85
Q

The condition that is the #1 reason children get abx in the US is…

86
Q

Top 3 organisms for AOM

This better be engraved onto your brain by now

A
  1. Strep Pneumo
  2. H flu
  3. M Cat

Viral URI also often precedes AOM

87
Q

Top RFs for AOM (4)

A
  • Prior Viral URI
  • Smoke exposure
  • Eustachian tube dysfunction
  • Cleft palate
88
Q

If you smell something funky during your otoscopic exam for AOM and see purulent material, you should suspect ()

A

Perforated tympanic membrane

89
Q

According to the AAP, a diagnosis of AOM requires:

  1. A () of abrupt signs and symptoms
  2. Presence of () effusion indicated by () of the TM, () of the TM, or ().
  3. S/S of middle ear inflammation by either erythema of the () or () resulting in decreased sleep and normal activity.
A
  1. Hx of abrupt S/S
  2. Middle ear effusion
  3. Bulging of TM
  4. Absent mobility of TM
  5. Otorrhea
  6. Distinct erythema of the TM
  7. Otalgia resulting in decreased sleep/normal activity
90
Q

The only age range you need to immediately treat with AOM is… or if they have 48hrs of ear pain, fever, otorrhea.

A

24 months or younger

91
Q

A patient with AOM but incomplete HiB vaccination history should be treated preferably with…

A

A cephalosporin (H Flu more likely): Cefdinir

Idk i wrote this in

92
Q

First line tx for AOM is:
2nd line tx for AOM is:

A
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Augmentin if amoxicillin failed
93
Q

For those with severe allergies to penicillins, AOM is treated with (3)

A
  • Macrolides
  • Clindamycin
  • Bactrim
94
Q

Presence of tympanostomy tubes with infection but NO systemic symptoms can use ()

A

Drops (ciprodex, ofloxacin)

95
Q

A white, plaque-like appearance on the TM due to chronic inflammation is known as…

A

Tympanosclerosis

96
Q

A pearly/greasy mass seen in a retraction pocket in the ear or perforation is a …. and is treated primarily with…

A
  • Cholesteatoma
  • Surgical repair

Usually perfs heal within 2 weeks

97
Q

Generally, a child should improve within ()-() hours after starting abx for AOM.

A

48-72 hours

98
Q

Generally, you would expect a child to follow up ()-() weeks after AOM dx. The one exception is if they are aged 2 or older and ()

A
  • Normal followup: 8-12 weeks.
  • Exception: age 2+ WITHOUT language/learning delays
99
Q

Recurrent AOM is () or more episodes in 6 months, or () in a year

A
  • 3+ eps in 6 months
  • 4 in a year
100
Q

Chronic OM with effusion is defined as lasting greater than () months or failing to respond to initial abx therapy.

101
Q

The initial tx for effusions that occur after an episode of AOM is…

A

Watchful waiting

102
Q

Generally, if a child has MEE (middle ear effusions?) that persist over 3 months and start causing delays in language, you should refer them to…

A

Audiology

Hearing => language

103
Q

The MC pediatric infectious disease overall is…

A

Viral rhinitis (common cold)

104
Q

The top cause of viral rhinitis is…

A

Rhinovirus

hehe

105
Q
  • Sudden onset of clear/mucoid rhinorrhea
  • Nasal congestion, sneezing
  • Sore throat and cough
  • Fever
  • Feeding changes

All suggest what pediatric illness?

A

Viral rhinitis

106
Q

The two symptoms that tend to persistent for 2-3 weeks in viral rhinitis are…

A
  • Cough
  • Rhinorrhea
107
Q

You should not treat cough with honey in someone younger than…

A

1 year old

108
Q

The MC form of HSV-1 infection in children is…

A

Acute gingivostomatitis

Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base

109
Q

LAN in the () region and () region are common in acute gingivostomatitis

A
  • Cervical region
  • Submandibular region
110
Q

High fever, irritability, and drooling often occur in infants infected with HSV-1 because they have…

A

Acute gingivostomatitis

111
Q

You want to avoid () or () foods with active herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

Acidic or salty foods

Bland diet

112
Q

The mainstay of tx for herpetic gingivostomatitis is…

A

Supportive tx.

Antivirals are only indicated if severe.

113
Q

Oral candidiasis/thrush (can/can’t) be washed off

114
Q

A common atopic condition, (), can predispose a child to thrush because it uses ()

A

Asthma due to inhaled corticosteroids.

115
Q

Tx of oral thrush is via…

A

Oral nystatin rinse

116
Q

Hand Foot Mouth disease is caused by…

A

Coxsackie Virus

117
Q

HFMD is usually (pruiritic/not)

A

Non-pruiritic

118
Q

HFMD is treated primarily with…

A

Supportive care.

Resolves in 3-5 days usually.

119
Q

Herpangina is caused by…

A

Coxsackie Virus

Same as HFMD

120
Q

A linear pattern of ulcers with erythematous halos on the anterior tonsillar pillars, soft palate, and uvula with none on the anterior mouth is most likely….

A

Herpangina

121
Q

Herpangina is treated with…

A

Supportive care.

Same as HFMD

122
Q

You would expect more atypical findings in strep pharyngitis if the child is aged () or younger

A

3 yo or younger

123
Q

You should NOT test a child for strep pharyngitis if they show:
* (c)
* (c)
* (c)
* Anterior (s)
* Ulcers/vesicles in the ()
* Diarrhea

A
  • Cough
  • Congestion
  • Coryza
  • Anterior stomatitis
  • Throat
124
Q

In a child younger than 3, you should test them for strep pharyngitis if…

  • Prolonged () drainage
  • Tender () LAN
  • () fever
A
  • Prolonged nasal drainage
  • Tender anterior cerivcal LAN
  • Low grade fever
125
Q

The preferred tx for strep pharyngitis is…

A

Amoxicillin

its yummier

126
Q

Patient education for strep pharyngitis:

  • You are contagious for () hours after your first dose
  • You should change your toothbrush after () days
A
  • 24 hours after first dose
  • 1 day
127
Q

You perform a rapid antigen strep test which comes back negative. You still suspect strep pharyngitis. Your next step is to…

A

Send for bacterial cultures

128
Q

Infectious mononucleosis is caused by…

129
Q

Although strep pharyngitis and mono have similar symptoms, the LAN in mono is located ()

A

Posterior cervical LAN is more Mono

130
Q

Besides URI stuff, Mono also affects (organ)

A

Hepato and splenomegaly.

131
Q

A child being treated for suspected strep pharyngitis with amoxicillin develops a rash. You suspect that the reason for their rash is…

A

They actually have mono

132
Q

Under the age of (), mono causes mild symptoms.

133
Q

If a monospot test is negative but you still suspect mono, you should order () next

A

Anti-EBV antibodies

134
Q

The most notable lab finding on CBC for mono would be….

A

Atypical lymphocytosis

135
Q

Tx of mono is via…

A
  • Supportive tx
  • NO CONTACT SPORTS for 4-5 weeks
136
Q

Viral pharyngitis is MCC by…

A

Adenovirus

137
Q

Viral pharyngitis is very similar to strep pharyngitis, but can also lead to ()

138
Q

Viral pharyngitis is treated primarily with…

A

Supportive care.

139
Q

MCC of viral croup is…

A

Parainfluenza virus

140
Q

MC age range for viral croup is () months to () years

A

3 months to 3 years

141
Q
  • Clinical diagnosis
  • Seal like cough
  • Prodrome of URI followed by cough
  • Inspiratory stridor

Most likely suggests…

A

Viral croup

142
Q

Pertussis is treated with…

A
  • Erythromycin for 14 days
  • Clarithomycin for 7 days
  • Azithromycin for 5 days (also rec if younger than 1)

Bactrim for allergies

143
Q

T/F: Pertussis contacts need prophylaxis

144
Q

The MCC of CAP in children older than 6 months is…

A

Strep Pneumo

Chlamydia if younger than 6, v weird. Often follows a lower resp infxn.

145
Q

A febrile child younger than 3 months with pneumonia should be treated empirically with 2 abx:

A
  • Ampicillin
  • Gentamicin

Bc PNA is the first sign of sepsis in newborn?

146
Q

An afebrile infant aged 1-6 months of age with pneumonia due to chlamydia is treated with…

A

Azithromycin

147
Q

Amoxicillin is first line tx for pneumonia in children aged () months to () years

A

6 months to 5 years

148
Q

Atypical pneumonia, more common in children older than 5 years, sometimes presents with a () rash and is caused usually by ()

A
  • Erythema multiforme rash
  • Mycoplasma
149
Q

,

1st line tx for atypical pneumonia is..

A

Azithromycin

Augment 2nd

150
Q
  • Koplik spots
  • Cough, coryza, Conjunctivitis
  • Maculopapular rash beginning on forehead

What childhood exanthem is this

A

Rubeola/measles

Has an O because its the ORIGINAL measles

151
Q

The fever in rubeola/measles peaks when the rash ()

A

When rash appears

152
Q

Anyone with exposure to measles/rubeola within the past 72 hours is treated with…

A

Vaccine

If they’re at least 6 months old.

153
Q

Rubella’s main clinical significance is due to…

A

Congenital defects

its very rare since theres a vaccine.

154
Q

Congenital rubella causes primarily:
* (eye)
* (cardiac)
* (ear)

A
  • Cataracts/glaucoma
  • VSD/PDA
  • Sensorineural hearing loss

EYE HEART (RUB)Y (EAR)RINGS

I heart ruby earrings is how i remember the main congenital rubella things

155
Q

Erythema infectiosum/Fifth’s disease is caused by…

A

Parvovirus B19

156
Q

Slapped cheek rash describes…

A

Erythema infectiosum/Fifth’s disease

High Fived the cheeks

157
Q

Getting infected with erythema infectiosum while pregnant may cause…

A

Hydrops fetalis

158
Q

The more systemic complications of fifth’s disease are… (2)

A
  • Arthritis
  • Aplastic crisis
159
Q

Roseola infantum is caused by…

A

HHV6 and HHV7

160
Q

The main characteristic of roseola is…

A

Acute febrile illness

Abrupt onset of high fever, followed by a rash.

MCC of exanthemous fevers in age group.

161
Q

The MC age range for roseola is… () months to () years)

A

6 months to 3 years.

162
Q

The only thing you treat in roseola is…

A

Fever with tylenol.

Otherwise its benign.

163
Q

Jones Criteria is used to diagnose rheumatic fever. To be diagnosed with rheumatic fever, you need () major criteria or () major + () minor criteria.

A
  • 2 major criteria
  • 1 major + 2 minor criteria
164
Q

Major Jones criteria mnemonic for rheumatic fever is JONES, which stands for…

A
  • Joint involvement
  • O = heartshaped, myocarditis
  • Nodules, subcutaneous
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Sydenham chorea

Sydenham chorea mainly involves jerky, uncontrollable and purposeless movements of the hands, arms, shoulder, face, legs, and trunk

165
Q

Minor Jones criteria for rheumatic fever is CAFEPAL, which stands for…

A
  • CRP
  • Arthralgia
  • Fever
  • ESR
  • Prolonged PR
  • Anamnesis of rheumatism
  • Leukocytosis

Anamnesis just means history of

167
Q

The underlying cause of rheumatic fever is…

168
Q
  • GABHS is eradicated via (abx)
  • Arthritis is managed via (NSAIDs)
  • Sydenham chorea is self-limited

in Rheumatic fever

A
  • Penicillin G IM
  • Aspirin or Naproxen
169
Q

Who gets secondary prevention of rheumatic fever and what is the regimen?

A
  • Anyone with an attack and risk for recurrence.
  • Long acting PCN G every 3-4 weeks.
170
Q

The main cause of acquired heart disease in the US for children is…

A

Kawasaki’s disease

Peaks at age 2.

171
Q

Kawasaki’s disease requires 4 of out 5 criteria + fever, which are:
1. () cavity changes
2. Bilateral, painless, nonexudative ()
3. () LAN >= 1.5 cm and unilateral
4. Polymorphous ()
5. () changes

A
  1. Oral/lip cavity (cracking, strawberry tongue)
  2. Conjunctivitis
  3. Cervical
  4. Polymorphous Exanthema (stocking-glove)
  5. Extremity changes (redness/swelling/desquamation)
172
Q

As soon as you suspect Kawasaki’s Disease, the initial imaging you need is…

A

Echocardiogram

Lots of heart complications.

173
Q

What lab findings are abnormal with Kawasaki’s?

  • CBC
  • LFTs
  • CRP and ESR
  • UA
A
  • CBC showing leukocytosis + thrombocytosis
  • Elevated LFTs with hypoalbuminemia
  • ESR > 40, CRP > 3
  • UA with > 10WBCs/hpf
174
Q

Initial tx of kawasaki’s is with () and ()

A

High dose IVIG and ASA

175
Q

After level () risk, Kawasaki’s must be followed by a pediatric cardiologist.

A

Level 2 or higher risk.

Pediatrics (23 decks)

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