Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatrics > Lecture 16: Pediatric Urology > Flashcards

Lecture 16: Pediatric Urology Flashcards

1
Q

A neonate should expect to have their entire glans covered by their foreskin by around weeks ()-()

A

18-20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A Fully developed scrotum should have (shallow/deep) rugae and testes bilaterally

A

Deep

Shallow = preemie, empty scrotum = cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The average age range of normal penile development is…

A

9-14 years

11.5 average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A parent wants to know what the first sign that shows their boy is hitting puberty. You tell them to look for…

A

Increased testicular size and volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Male menarche is characterized by having () in urine and () dreams

A
  • Sperm in urine
  • Wet dreams (nocturnal emissions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The first tanner stage that corresponds to penile enlargement is…

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

By late puberty, you would expect a normal penis to be around () cm in length

A

9.5 cm

+/- 1.12 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: Circumcision in the US is primarily a religious affair and not common.

A

False. Circumcision in the US is actually very common and its for non-religious reasons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The general age a circumcision is performed is around days () to ()

A

1-10 days

Its an elective procedure, so making sure infant is healthy first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hypospadias with foreskin abnormalities, chordee/curvature of the penis, a concealed penis, or a large suprapubic fat pad contraindicate what procedure?

A

Circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • Easier genital hygiene
  • Lower UTI rates
  • Lower viral STD rates
  • Lower penile cancer rates
  • Lower cervical cancer rates in female partners

All describe the benefits of what?

A

Circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The STDs that are NOT reduced in incidence by circumcision are () and ()

A
  • Gonorrhea
  • Chlamydia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The blind technique for circumcision uses the () clamp

A

mogen

You cut MOre in MOgen because you’re blind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: You can retract the foreskin forcibly post-circumcision

A

False, only do it gently!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is retractibility of foreskin 99%

A

Adolescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: Most phimosis is physiological

A

True!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: Smegma under the foreskin forming pearls requires intervention

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Phimosis in general is caused by ….

A

Constant irritation

Prob gunna need surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

First-line pharm tx for phimosis is

A

6 weeks of topical betamethasone + stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why might we use creams for phimosis tx?

A
  • Less invasive
  • Avoid risks of surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The surgeries done to correct phimosis are either () or ()

A

Dorsal slit surgery or circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F: Paraphimosis is an emergency

A

True!!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Swelling of glans with a collar of swollen foreskin at coronal sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Early on, paraphimosis can be treated with….

A

Manual compression

Otherwise, dorsal slit and/or punctures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Balanoposthitis is specifically inflammation of…

A

Glans penis AND foreskin

Balanitis is penis only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Generally, older adolescents with balanoposthitis got it due to….

A

STDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Your 18yo patient presents with a complaint of penile swelling. He states he is circumcised, but it has been swelling recently and smells bad. He is sexually active. Upon examination, you notice some scarring between the glans and prepuce. You suspect he has….

A

Balanoposthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Your patient with balanoposthitis does not want to use any medications. You advise him that he can use….

A

Sitz baths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The MC penile abnormality is…

A

Hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypospadias is generally characterized by the opening of the urethral meatus on the (ventral/dorsal) surface of the penis.

A

Ventral

Dorsal = epispadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Generally, hypospadias is located most commonly on the (proximal/distal) shaft of the penis.

A

Distal

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: You can perform a circumcision on someone with hypospadias

A

False.

Send to urology to surgical repair!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hypospadias should be corrected when a boy is () months to () months old.

A

6-12 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Epispadias is characterized by the urethral meatus opening on the (ventral/dorsal) side of the penis

A

Dorsal side

Like a dolphin’s dorsal fin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A more proximal epispadias is associated with urinary ()

A

incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The MC congenital abnormality of the GU tract is…

in boys

A

Cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: Your 2 month old boy currently has cryptorchidism still. You should refer him to urology ASAP.

A

False, you would expect it to spontaneously descend by 4-6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The MC side to experience cryptorchidism is…

A

Left testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3 locations describe abnormal descent of the testicles and 3 describe ectopic.

  • Abdominal
  • Inguinal
  • Suprascrotal
  • Suprapubic
  • Femoral
  • Perineal
A

Abnormal: abd, inguinal, suprascrotal.
Ectopic: Suprapubic, femoral, perineal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

You should start considering referral for cryptorchidism for bilateral nonpalpable testes, unilateral non-palpable tests with hypospadias, sex development disorder, ascending testes, or lack of descent of testes by the months of ()

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient presents with suspected cryptorchidism. You first order (imaging), along with (genetic test), (hormones), and (gonadotropins)

A
  • Pelvic US
  • Karyotyping of sex
  • Adrenal hormones and metabolites to check for CAH
  • LH, FSH, Mullerian inhibiting substance

CAH = congenital adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Orchiopexy should be done in a boy by ()

A

1 year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hCG is best with helping to descend testes that are (higher/lower) positioned

A

Lower positioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The biggest risk we are concerned about with untreated cryptorchidism is…

A

Testicular cancer

5-10x increased risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The MCC of DSD (disorder of sex development) is ….

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Resulting in ambiguous genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

At around week () of gestation, external genitalia become sexually differentiated

A

Week 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In a phenotypic female with ambiguous genitalia, you would expect a () clitoris, fused labial folds, and () gonads

A
  • Enlarged clitoris
  • Palpable gonads
48
Q

The initial workup of ambiguous genitalia consists of 4 hormones and 1 test, which are….

A
  • FSH
  • LH
  • Testosterone/DHT
  • Anti-mullerian hormone
  • Karyotyping
49
Q

The adrenal steroid lab test you would check for in workup of ambiguous genitalia is…

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone

seems important

50
Q

The most medically important thing that could potentially occur in patients with ambiguous genitalia is…

A

Adrenal crisis due to CAH

51
Q

A communicating hydrocele is characterized by fluid flowing into the ()

A

tunica vaginalis

52
Q

Physical exam of a hydrocele that is Noncommunicating should show that is (reducible/not) and (changes/not changes) in size/shape with crying straining.

A

Non reducible and non-changing

53
Q

A hydrocele is peritoneal fluid in between the layers of the…

A

tunica vaginalis

54
Q

Generally, a patient with a hydrocele will experience ()

A

No symptoms

55
Q

In order to check for a hydrocele, you can do () or ()

A
  • Scrotal illumination
  • Scrotal US

Lightbulb balls

56
Q

Tx of a hydrocele is () if not resolved by 1-2 years of age.

A

Surgery

also if symptomatic or compromising skin integrity.

57
Q

Inguinal hernias are MC in boys and children less than () months old.

A

10 months old

Usually indirect.

58
Q

A inguinal hernia is a mass that is (spontaneously reducible vs manual) and is (timing)

A
  • Manual reduction is possible
  • Intermittent bulge in the groin

Painless swelling

59
Q

Your patient has an indirect inguinal hernia that you attempt manual reduction on and it fails. You suspect…

A

Its incarcerated and may end up strangulated

60
Q

If you diagnose an inguinal hernia, you should immediately ()

A

Refer for surgery so it doesn’t end up incarcerated

61
Q

The Dx of a testicular torsion is made via…

A

Doppler US

62
Q

Detorsion within () hours will allow for 100% viability still.

63
Q

You attempt manual detorsion of testicular torsion and there is a return of blood flow and pain relief. Your next step is to…

A

Send them to surgery

64
Q

The MCC of acute epididymitis in a sexually active person is…

65
Q

Acute epididymitis is characterized by a () cremasteric reflex and () prehn’s sign

A
  • Normal cremasteric reflex
  • Positive prehn sign

Prehn sign = pain relief with elevation of testis

Differentiates this from torsion!

66
Q

In a patient presenting with high-likelihood STD epididymitis, you must order (3) labs

A
  • Gram Stain + culture OR NAATs of gonorrhea and chlamydia
  • Urine culture/first void urine for leukocytes
  • Syphilis and HIV testing
67
Q

Doppler US of acute epididymitis would show () blood flow to the affected epididymis

A

Increased blood flow

68
Q

Tx of enteric organism epididymitis is…

A

Levofloxacin 500mg for 10 days

69
Q

In younger children, UTI is the usual suspect for acute epididymitis. Therefore, they are treated with () or ()

A

Cefdinir or Bactrim

70
Q

STD epididymitis is treated with () + ()

A

Rocephin + Doxy

71
Q

Your patient with epididymitis is asking how long it should take them to improve once they start abx. You tell them it will take () days

72
Q

The most dominant feature of vulvovaginitis is…

A

Pruiritis

Burning, soreness, irritation

73
Q

Your patient with vulvovaginitis has a vaginal swab showing a pH of 4.2. She probably does not have ()

A

Bacterial vaginosis

74
Q

Candidial vaginitis is treated first-line with…

A

Fluconazole oral

One dose

75
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is treated with () or ()

A

Metronidazole or clinda

76
Q

For a child younger than 12, the preferred topical treatment for vulvovaginitis is…

A

Topical nystatin

77
Q

Labial adhesions most commonly occur in the first () years of life

A

First 5 years of life.

78
Q

Labial adhesions are diagnosed via

A

Visual inspection of the vulva

79
Q

What S/S make labial adhesions complicated?

A
  • Pain on urination/ambulation
  • Altered stream
  • Retention
  • Hx of UTI

If they affect your urine

80
Q

First-line tx of complicated labial adhesions is

A

Topical estrogen for 2 weeks.

81
Q

Once the labia are separated in labial adhesions, the next step is to…

A

Apply topical lubricant for a month.

82
Q

Unsuccessful labial adhesions treatment is characterized by lack of separation by () weeks with topical estrogen

83
Q

Minor penile adhesions are typically seen after ()

A

Circumcisions

Most are self-resolving.

84
Q

Your patient has penile adhesions. You first attempt (), but since that failed, you try ()

A
  • Start with gentle traction
  • Low-potency topical steroids
85
Q

A penile skin bridge should be referred to ()

A

Pediatric urology

86
Q

Girls older than () months have UTIs more commonly than boys.

87
Q

Uncircumcised boys () months have more UTIs

A

less than 3 months

88
Q

The MCC of UTI in young children is ()

89
Q

Generally, the classic signs of frequency, dysuria, and urgency are seen in UTIs once a child is ()

A

School-aged

Although can occur in preschool still.

90
Q

In order to evaluate for a UTI and get cultures, you must get a () sample from a child

A

Clean catch

Cannot use a bag specimen for cultures

UA can use just a bag.

91
Q

The two recommended ways of getting urine from a non-toilet trained child for UTI eval per the AAP are () and ()

A
  • Transurethral bladder catheterization
  • Suprapubic aspiration
92
Q

In order to diagnose a UTI in a child, you must obtain a ()

A

Urine culture

93
Q

In a clean void sample, a positive urine culture should show () CFU of a single pathogen, whereas a catheter sample should show () CFU of a single pathogen.

A
  • Clean-void: 100k or more CFUs
  • Catheter: 50k or more CFUs
94
Q

A child less than () must be hospitalized/IV therapy for a UTI.

95
Q

The #1 treatment for children with UTIs is

A

Third gen cephalosporins: Cefdinir, Cefpodoxime, Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime

96
Q

If a child has a UTI due to pseudomonas, you might switch the preferred ABX to…

A

Ciprofloxacin

Instead of 3rd gen cephalos

97
Q

Febrile children with UTIs require tx for () days

98
Q

If a child with a UTI fails to improve/worsens after () hours, you should consider renal US or broader ABX.

99
Q

Renal/Bladder US is recommended in UTI for… (4)

A
  • Younger than 2 with first febrile UTI
  • Recurrent UTIs
  • UTI + Fhx of renal/urologic dz, poor growth or htn
  • not responding to normal abx
100
Q

Voiding cystourethrograms are only done for a child meeting 1 of 2 indications.

A
  • 2+ febrile UTIs
  • First febrile UTI + abnormal renal US or 102.2F + non-E coli or poor growth or HTN
101
Q

Vesicouretral reflux can be ruled out by (imaging)

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

102
Q

What prenatal US finding can suggest vesicouretal reflux?

A

Hydronephrosis

103
Q

Grade 3 VUR is characterized mainly by ()

A

dilation of the ureter

104
Q

Grade 5 VUR is characterized by

A

Moderate/severe blunting of renal calyces

105
Q

Grades 1-2 VUR can be treated via…

A

Watchful waiting. ABX if not potty-trained.

106
Q

Surgery is indicated usually for grades () VUR

A

4-5

3 if non-compliant.

107
Q

Enuresis is defined as voiding in bed/clothes that occurs at least () per week for at least () months in a child aged at least () years.

A
  • twice a week
  • 3 consecutive months
  • 5 years old
108
Q

Diurnal enuresis is…

A

Wetting in daytime

109
Q

Your patient has daytime enuresis. You would characterize it as (mono/polysymptomatic)

A

Polysymptomatic

110
Q

Generally, monosympatomtic nocturnal enuresis occurs because a child has urine that ()

A

exceeds bladder capacity

111
Q

Generally, monosymptomatic enuresis is worked up with (2)

A
  • Urinanalysis
  • Urine culture
112
Q

Your patient has both day and nighttime symptoms for enuresis. Your priorty for treatment is (day/nighttime)

A

Daytime symptoms

113
Q

The two mainstays of enuresis treatment are…

A
  • Alarm therapy
  • CBT

3 months at least

114
Q

The drug mainly used to treat nighttime enuresis is…

115
Q

The anticholinergic that can help treat daytime enuresis is…

A

Oxybutynin-ditropan

Pediatrics (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions