Lecture 14 [Exam 4] Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of defenses mammals have against disease-causing microbes?

A

Physical, chemical, and immunological defenses

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2
Q

What is the fundamental question of microbial pathogenesis?

A

How can an organism too small to be seen with the unaided eye kill a human a million times larger?

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3
Q

Who discovered that Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax?

A

Robert Koch

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4
Q

Define parasite.

A

An organism that receives benefits at the expense of a host. It refers to disease-causing protozoa and worms.

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5
Q

What are ectoparasites?

A

Parasites that live on the surface of the host.

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6
Q

Give an example of an ectoparasite.

A

Trichophyton rubrum, causes athlete’s foot

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7
Q

What are endoparasites?

A

Parasites that live inside the host’s body.

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8
Q

Give an example of an endoparasite.

A

Wuchereria bancrofti, causes elephantiasis

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9
Q

What does the term ‘infection’ imply?

A

A pathogen or parasite enters or begins to grow in or on a host.

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10
Q

What are primary pathogens?

A

Disease-causing microbes that can breach the defenses of healthy hosts.

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11
Q

Give an example of a primary pathogen.

A

Shigella flexneri, causes bacillary dysentery

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12
Q

What are opportunistic pathogens?

A

Pathogens that cause disease only in compromised hosts or unprotected sites.

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13
Q

Give an example of an opportunistic pathogen.

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii, causes pneumonia in AIDS patients

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14
Q

What is a latent infection?

A

An infection where microbes enter a dormant state and cannot be found by culture.

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15
Q

Give an example of a latent infection.

A

Herpesvirus, which remains dormant in peripheral nerves

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16
Q

Define pathogenicity.

A

An organism’s ability to cause disease.

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17
Q

What are the two components of pathogenicity?

A
  • Infectivity
  • Virulence
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18
Q

What does virulence measure?

A

The degree or severity of disease caused by a pathogen.

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19
Q

What is the lethal dose (LD50)?

A

The dose required to cause death in 50% of an experimental group of animal hosts.

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20
Q

What is the infectious dose (ID50)?

A

The dose required to cause disease, but not death, in 50% of an experimental group of animal hosts.

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21
Q

What is horizontal transmission?

A

Passage of infection from one person or animal to another. Can be occur through direct contact or indirect transmission.

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22
Q

What are fomites?

A

Inanimate objects that can transmit infectious agents.

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23
Q

Define vertical transmission.

A

Passage of infection from a mother to her fetus during pregnancy or birth.

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24
Q

What is a reservoir in the context of infection?

A

An environment or animal that harbors a pathogen.

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25
Q

What is an asymptomatic carrier?

A

A person who harbors a potential disease agent but has no symptoms.

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26
Q

List the portals of entry for infectious agents.

A
  • Oral
  • Respiratory tract
  • Conjunctiva and mucous membranes
  • Wounds, injuries, and skin lesions
  • Parenteral route
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27
Q

What is immunopathogenesis?

A

The immune response to a pathogen that causes major tissue and organ damage. It is a calculated risk taken by the host to eradicate the pathogen making it a major contributor to pathology and disease.

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28
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

Factors employed by pathogens to enter a host, find a niche, avoid defenses, multiply, and transmit.

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29
Q

What are Molecular Koch’s postulates?

A

Criteria to confirm a suspected virulence gene’s role in pathogenicity.

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30
Q

What are pathogenicity islands?

A

Clusters of pathogenicity genes in the chromosome of bacterial pathogens.

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31
Q

What are pili?

A

Hairlike appendages that promote attachment of bacteria to host cells.

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32
Q

What are the two types of pili?

A
  • Type I: adhere to carbohydrates
  • Type IV: involved in twitching motility
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33
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Proteins produced and secreted by bacteria that kill host cells and take their nutrients.

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34
Q

What are endotoxins?

A

Parts of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of Gram-negative bacteria that hyperactivate host immune systems.

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35
Q

What are the two types of toxins based on the producing organism?

A

Exotoxins and endotoxins

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36
Q

What type of bacteria produce endotoxins?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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37
Q

What is the size range of exotoxin proteins?

A

50 to 1,000 kDa

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38
Q

True or False: Exotoxins can be denatured by boiling.

A

True

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39
Q

What is the toxicity level of exotoxins?

A

High (1 microgram quantities)

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40
Q

What is the immunogenicity of exotoxins?

A

Highly antigenic

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41
Q

Endotoxins are poorly antigenic and are the primary cause of _______.

A

Gram-negative sepsis

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42
Q

List the nine categories of microbial exotoxins based on their mechanisms of action.

A
  • Plasma membrane disruption
  • Cytoskeleton alterations
  • Protein synthesis disruption
  • Cell cycle disruption
  • Signal transduction disruption
  • Disrupt cell-cell adherence
  • Alter vesicular traffic
  • Inhibit exocytosis
  • Superantigens
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43
Q

What are the two types of exotoxins that disrupt host cell membranes?

A
  • Pore-forming proteins
  • Phospholipase
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44
Q

What is the function of hemolysins?

A

Lyse red blood cells

45
Q

What type of toxin is produced by Staphylococcus aureus that forms pores in host cells?

A

Hemolytic alpha toxin

46
Q

What is the structure of AB exotoxins?

A

Consist of 2 subunits, A and B

47
Q

What role does the A subunit of AB exotoxins play?

A

Toxicity-associated factor

48
Q

What is the mode of action of cholera toxin?

A

Increases cAMP levels, leading to watery stools

49
Q

True or False: Vibrio cholerae invades host cells.

50
Q

What are the two A subunits in anthrax toxin?

A
  • Edema factor (EF)
  • Lethal factor (LF)
51
Q

What does the Shiga toxin target in host cells?

A

Disrupts protein synthesis by cleaving 28S rRNA

52
Q

What disease is caused by diphtheria toxin?

A

Diphtheria

53
Q

What is a microbe-associated molecular pattern (MAMP)?

A

Molecules that bind to Toll-like receptors

54
Q

What symptoms can result from the release of endotoxins?

A
  • Fever
  • Activation of clotting factors
  • Vasodilation
  • Shock
  • Death
55
Q

What is a significant effect of sepsis-related endotoxin release?

A

Massive depletion of clotting factors

56
Q

What are the types of secretion systems used by pathogens?

A
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV
57
Q

What is the role of the type III secretion system (T3SS)?

A

Injects proteins directly into host cells

58
Q

Type I pili are used for _______ attachment.

59
Q

How do intracellular pathogens avoid destruction?

A

Employ molecular tricks to misdirect the immune system

60
Q

What distinguishes primary pathogens from opportunistic pathogens?

A

Primary pathogens cause disease in normal hosts; opportunistic pathogens require immunocompromised hosts

61
Q

What are adhesins?

A

Molecules that mediate bacterial attachment to host cells

62
Q

How many categories do exotoxins fall into based on their mechanisms of action?

A

Nine categories (*Plasma membrane disruption, *Protein synthesis disruption, *Signal transduction disruption)

63
Q

What is a characteristic feature of two-subunit AB toxins?

A

They may use ADP-ribosylation to disrupt signaling processes or protein synthesis in the host

64
Q

What type of bacteria produces endotoxin (LPS)?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

65
Q

What are the three examples of protein secretion pathways used by pathogens to deliver toxins?

A
  • Type II (pilus-like)
  • Type III (syringe-like)
  • Type IV (conjugation system-like)
66
Q

What are molecular mechanisms bacteria use to avoid the immune system?

A
  • Molecular mimicry
  • Interfering with autophagy
  • Redirecting ubiquitylation signals
67
Q

What are intracellular pathogens capable of doing once inside the phagosome?

A

Escaping both innate and humoral host cell immune mechanisms

68
Q

What are the three options for bacteria to avoid being killed by a phagolysosome?

A
  • Grow inside the phagolysosome
  • Prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion
  • Escape the phagosome
69
Q

What strategies do pathogens use to avoid extracellular immune factors?

A
  • Production of a thick polysaccharide capsule
  • Production of proteins that bind to antibodies
  • Induction of apoptosis of phagocytic cells
  • Alteration of surface antigens
70
Q

_______________ refers to bacteria, virus, and fungi.

71
Q

True or False: Most infections go unnoticed.

72
Q

True or False: Latent infections can emerge to suddenly cause cold sores.

73
Q

_____________ is how easily an organism causes disease.

A

infectivity

74
Q

True or False: The infectivity and virulence of a pathogen is shaped by the specific
genetic makeup of the pathogen.

75
Q

___________ is highly virulent (50% fatality rate)

76
Q

_______ (cause of the common cold) are highly infective, but have a low virulence.

A

Rhinoviruses

77
Q

________________ is the route of transmission of an infectious organism.

A

Infection cycle

78
Q

In what three ways can transmission occur through arthropod vectors?

A

Transovarial, Accidental, or Mechanical transmission

79
Q

A _______________ is an infection that normally affects animals but can be transmitted to human

A

Zoonotic disease

80
Q

Give four examples of transmission vectors.

A
  • through arthropod vectors (insect or
    tick) feeding on animal reservoir hosts.
    -. a mosquito vector (Aedes), transfers
    yellow fever causing virus horizontally
    from infected to uninfected individuals
    when it feeds on a new host
    -Infected insects involve vertical
    transmission in the egg
    -a host (not part of the normal infection
    cycle) unintentionally encounters an
    animal host-insect vector cycle
    -a pathogen on the body surface of a vector
    (ex. a fly after landing on fecal matter) is
    transported to a susceptible host.
    18
81
Q

True or False: A reservoir is critically important for the survival of a pathogen and as a
source of infection.

82
Q

__________ uses monkey as reservoir.

A

Yellow fever

83
Q

_______________ uses birds as a reservoir.

A

The virus causing eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)

84
Q

To fully understand any infectious disease study both ____________ and _____________.

A

pathogenic mechanisms, disease symptoms/immunopathogenesis

85
Q

______________ is affected by pathogen’s growth and the host’s resulting immune response.

A

Host’s normal microbiome

86
Q

True or False: Diarrhea reduces the overall numbers of gut microbiota.

87
Q

True or False: Intestinal pathogens occupy host binding sites and alter
available nutrients.

88
Q

To cause disease, all pathogens must:

A
  1. Enter a host
    * 2. Find their unique niche
    * 3. Avoid, circumvent, or subvert normal host defenses
    * 4. Multiply
    * 5. Transmit to a new susceptible host
89
Q

Summarize Koch’s postulates.

A
  1. The phenotype under study should be associated with
    pathogenic strains of a species.
  2. Specific inactivation of the suspected virulence gene(s) should
    lead to a measurable loss in virulence or pathogenicity. The
    gene(s) should be isolated by molecular methods.
  3. Reversion or replacement of the mutated gene should restore
    pathogenicity.
90
Q

Most pathogenicity islands are horizontally transmitted via ____________________.

A

conjugation or transduction

91
Q

Some virulence genes reside on _________ or ___________.

A

plasmids or phage genomes

92
Q

Pathogenicity islands may possess
several anomalies:

A
  • Unique GC/AT ratio
  • Linkage to a tRNA gene (integrase)
  • Association with genes homologous
    to phage/plasmid genes (movement from one organism to another)
93
Q

Pili are composed of ____________.

A

pilinproteinsubunits

94
Q

Tipscontain ___________ to attach to specific host cell receptors

A

receptors(FimH)

95
Q

______________pili grow from outer membrane of certain Gram-negative bacteria and produce a static attachment to host cell

96
Q

____________ pili produce a dynamic attachment via assembly and disassembly
Grow from inner membrane of many Gram-negative bacteria.

97
Q

_______________ is the modelofpilus assembly anddisassembly that involves dozens of proteins.

A

Type IV pili

98
Q

True or False: Type IV pili involve theelongationof the pili (attaches to asurface
the retractionofthepili ) and depolymerizesfromthebase,whichshortensthepilusandpullsthecell forward

99
Q

True or False :Streptococcus pyogenes has the M protein which binds to host cell fibronectin (glycoprotein).

100
Q

True or False: Bordetella pretussis has pertactin that binds to host cell integrin and also use pilus to bind to cells

101
Q

True or False: Hostreceptorsdictatesusceptibilitytopathogens

102
Q

True or False: Person-to-person differences in receptor structures are possible.

103
Q

Individuals lacking ____________ are resistant to HIV infection.

104
Q

__________________ insert themselves into membranes by binding cholesterol and membrane receptors.

A

Pore-forming proteins

105
Q

True or False: Panton-Valentine toxin of MRSA and Listeriolysin O of Listeria monocytogenes are pore-forming proteins (exotoxins).

106
Q

________________ hydrolyze phospholipids into fatty acids

A

Phospholipase

107
Q

True or False: Clostridium perfringens has phosplipidase C.

108
Q

_______________ lyse white blood cells (leukocytes)

A

Leukocidins

109
Q

True or False: Some exotoxins function as both hemolysins and leukocidins (e.x. Ex. Streptolysin S of Streptococcus pyogenes)