Lecture 13: Anatomy of the Cavernous Sinus, Orbit, and Eye Flashcards

1
Q

What 5 things passes through the Superior Orbital Fissure?

A

1) Oculomotor n. (CN III)
2) Trochlear n. (CN IV)
3) Opthalmic division of Trigeminal n. (CN V1)
4) Abducens (CN VI)
5) Opthalmic veins

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2
Q

What 2 things pass through the optic canal?

A

1) Optic n. (CN II)
2) Opthalmic a.

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3
Q

What innervates the Oricularis Oculi and what are actions of its 2 parts?

A
  • Innervated by CN VII (Temporal and Zygomatic branches)

Palpebral part: gentle closing of lid

Lacrimal part: increased lid contact to eye, dilates lacrimal sac

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4
Q

What muscle acts as a direct antagonist of the Orbicularis Oculi and what nerve innervates it?

A
  • Levator Palpebrae Superioris (LPS)
  • Innervated by CN III (Oculomotor n.)
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5
Q

Destruction of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) or one of its branches to the Levator Palpebrae Superioris m., may lead to what?

A

- COMPLETE ptosis (eyelid completely shut)

  • Pupils will be down and out
  • Loss of pupillary constriction reflex so pupils will be dilated
  • Seen in Oculomotor (CN III) palsy
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6
Q

What is special about the Tarsal Muscle (of Muller)?

A
  • Smooth muscle that inserts on the tarsal plate of the upper lid
  • Innervated by postganglionic sympathetics originating from T1
  • Horner’s syndrome usually involved paralysis of this muscle
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7
Q

What are the 4 major signs of Horner’s syndrome and what muscle involved?

A
  • Slight ptosis (paralysis of the Tarsal muscle)
  • Miosis (pupillary constriction due to paralysis of dilator pupillae muscle)
  • Enopthalamos (paralysis of the orbitalis muscle of Muller which has slight protrusion function
  • Anhidrosis and blushing
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8
Q

What is the tear drainage pathway from the orbit into the nose? (the flow chart!)

A

Lacrimal gland —> Lacrimal Canaliculi —> Lacrimal Sac —–(Nasolacrimal duct) —-> Inferior Concha

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9
Q

What 2 nerves form the Vidian n and what are their sources, where do these nerves synapse and how do we get to the Lacrimal gland?

A
  • Greater Superficial Petrosal N. from Superior Salivatory nucleus (preganglionic parasympathetic) + Deep Petrosal N. from SCG (postganglionic sympathetic) = Vidian N.
  • Vidian N. synapses on Sphenopalatine Ganglion.
  • Postganglionic fibers travel to the lacrimal gland via: Maxillary N., Zygomatic N. (V2), and Lacrimal N (V1).
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10
Q

What are the 3 branches of V1 seen during the superior orbit dissection?

A

1) Nasociliary
2) Frontal
3) Lacrimal

*NFL*

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11
Q

What is a Le Forte fracture?

A

Fractures of the Maxillary region of the skull

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12
Q

What is a Le forte fracture type I?

A
  • Above the alveolar processes. Avoids the orbit.
  • Lower lip swelling/ecchymosis, damaged teeth
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13
Q

What is a Le Forte fracture type II?

A
  • Pyramidal- shaped fracture. Involves medial portion of orbit
  • Periorbital edema, CSF rhinorrhea, nasal disfigurement
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14
Q

What is a Le Forte fracture type III?

A
  • Transverse fracture across both orbits and nasofrontal sutures
  • Leads to separation from base of skull
  • Craniofacial Dysjunction
  • Panda facies, complete mobility of facial skeleton, antimongoloid slant
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15
Q

Which muscle and sinus is commonly affected with a blow-out fracture of the orbit?

A
  • Floor of orbit displaced or a depressed fracture of the zygomatic bone may cause:
  • Entrapment of Lateral rectus m. causes Diplopia (downward gaze)
  • Displacement of structures into Maxillary sinus
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16
Q

What are the contents of the Cavernous Sinus (Mnemonic)?

A

OTOM CAT

- Oculomotor (CN III)

  • Trochlear (CN IV)

- Opthalmic (CN V1)

  • Maxillary (CN V2)
  • ICA
  • Abducens (CN VI)
17
Q

Where do the Opthalmic veins drain?

A
  • The Cavernous Sinus —> Petrosal Sinus —–> IJV
  • Infections of the orbit have chance to spread to the brain!
18
Q

What are the clinical signs of Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis (CST); which nerve at risk for impingement?

A
  • Acute onset of unilateral periorbital edema and proptosis (displacement of eye)
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Impingement syndrome (CN VI)
19
Q

What is Papilledema; why is it clinically significant?

A
  • Swelling of the optic disc due to increases in CSF
  • CSF increase could be due to: venous obstruction, mass effect secondary to tumor, edema (vasogenic, infection)
20
Q

What is the input and output for the Corneal Reflex?

A

Input: Cornea —-> Nasociliary n./Long Ciliary (CN V1)

Output: Facial n. –> Orbicularis Oculi m. (CN VII)

21
Q

What controls the ipsilateral and contralateral pupillary constriction when shining light in someones eye; what is the connecting point; what nucleus is utilized for the response?

A
  • Direct light stimulus sensed by retina and info sent to brainstem via CN II
  • Information sent from Superior Colliculus to Pretectum

- Posterior Commisure is the connecting point and causes a response in the contralateral eye as well

  • Edinger-Westphal Nucleus delivers the motor response (CN III) to the Ciliary Ganglion and finally the Sphincter Pupillae

*IN BY 2 OUT BY 3*

22
Q

What portion of the ANS control pupillary constriction (miosis) versus dilation (mydriasis)?

A
  • Constriction = parasympathetics (remember your pupils don’t need to be huge when resting/digesting)
  • Dilation = sympathetics (want to be able to see far when running from the dianosaur!)
23
Q

What is accomodation of the eye; what type of response; and what 3 things happen?

A
  • Cortically mediated reflex to focus on structures/objects that are close (near vision)
    1) Convergence (pupils ADduct)
    2) Pupillary constriction
    3) Lens Thickening (nearsightedness)
24
Q

What is the chief artery of the orbit?

A
  • Opthalmic artery, the first branch off the ICA
25
Q

What branches off the Opthalmic artery supply the optic nerve?

A
  • Posterior ciliary artery
  • Central artery of the retina
26
Q

Which branches off the Opthalmic arteries supply the eyelid and scalp?

A
  • Supraorbital artery
  • Supratrochlear artery
27
Q

Which branch off the opthalmic artery supplies the nasal cavity and external nose?

A

Anterior ethmoidal artery

28
Q

What is the key player that allows for the consensual light reflex?

A

Posterior Commisure

29
Q

What is Argyll-Robertson Pupil?

A
  • Also known as the Prostitue sign
  • Eyes are accomodating, but unreactive to light.
  • You will get slight pupil constriction upon accomodation, but pupils will NOT be reactive to light
  • Tertiary Neurosyphylis = Lesion of the Pretectum!
30
Q

What’s Holmes-Adie Pupil?

A
  • A benign situation with a tonic pupil that slowly constricts on covergence
  • Parasympathomimetic drugs will constrict the tonic pupil, but have no effect on the normal pupil
31
Q

Explain the paraympathetic innervation of the lacrimal gland?

A
  • Superior salivatory nucleus sends preganglionic fibers via the Facial (VII), Greater superficial petrosal, and Vidian nerve to sphenopalatine ganglion
  • Postganglionic fibers course to the lacrimal gland via the Maxillary, Zygomatic and Lacrimal nerves
32
Q

Explain the sympathetic innervation of the lacrimal gland?

A
  • The deep petrosal nerve arises from the internal carotid plexus and fuses with the greater superficial petrosal nerve to form the Vidian n.
  • Postganglionic fibers course through sphenopalatine ganglion without synapsing and distribute to the lacrimal gland via the maxillary-zygomatic-lacrimal nerve route
33
Q

Increased intracranial pressure may compress which nerve to the eye; what’s the effect?

A
  • Compress the abducens nerve and result in paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle
  • Inability to aBduct the affected eye
34
Q

What is the main sensory (GSA) nerve to the orbit (eyeball)?

A

Nasociliary nerve

35
Q

What is commonly seen with Trochlear nerve palsy?

A
  • Superior Oblique muscle is denervated so patient cannot adduct and depress the affected eye
  • Patient tends to compensate with head tilt and tucking chin

- CN IV dysfunction