Lecture 12: Adjunct Drugs & Interactions (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What are adjunct drugs to anesthesia & analgesia

A

Drugs that may or may not be common for clinical use but play a supportive role by the benefit that they provide the px

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2
Q

Describe balanced anesthesia

A

Simultaneous use of multiple drugs & tech to produce anesthesia

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3
Q

Describe multimodal analgesia

A

Using 2 or more different drugs or techniques to manage pain

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4
Q

What can be given to limit nausea & vomiting? What can it lead to?

A
  • Antiemetics
  • May lead to aspiration pneumonia
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5
Q

Describe maropitant (cerenia)

A
  • Neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist
  • Often used for motion sickness
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6
Q

What are the perioperative period benefits of maropitant

A
  • Reduced incidence of vomiting from certain premed drugs
  • Improvement in recovery quality & a faster return to feeding
  • Potential MAC lower effects when admin as a CRI
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7
Q

What can happen if maropitant is given IV instead of SQ

A
  • Faster onset
  • Potential for hypotension
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8
Q

T/F: Maropitant prevents gastoesophageal reflux (GER)

A

False it does not

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9
Q

Who is generic & other formulation of maropitant FDA approved for

A

Use in dogs older than 4 M for motion sickness & acute vomiting

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10
Q

What is a common side effect of generic & other formulations of maropitant

A

Excessive drooling

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11
Q

Describe vomiting

A
  • Forceful ejection of stomach & upper intestinal contents
  • Can contain yellow bile or partially digested dog food
  • Usually smells sour & involves heaving
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12
Q

Describe regurgitation

A
  • Mild ejection of undigested food from the esophagus
  • Does not involve abdominal heaving
  • Tends to happen just after eating
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13
Q

Describe Ondansetron

A
  • 5HT3 receptor antagonist
  • Antiemetic that works @ the level of the vomiting center in the brain particularly useful for prevention of vomiting due to chemotherapy drugs or from anesthetic drugs that induce vomiting
  • Ava in tablet form, oral solution, & injectable solution
  • Less effective than maropitant in prevention of vomiting but oral admin can reduce incidence of nausea
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14
Q

Describe metoclopramide

A
  • Block dopamine D2 receptors in chemoreceptor trigger zone & also blocks serotonin receptors to contribute to antiemetic effects
  • Prokinetic effects reduce the amount of gastric fluid via increasing the rate of gastric emptying
  • Increase lower esophageal sphincter tone
  • May increase CNS depressant effects of anesthetic drugs
  • Do not give if there is a GI obstruction suspected, hx of seizure, or pheochromocytoma is present
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15
Q

Describe histamine receptor antagonists

A
  • Given to decrease acid production in the stomach
  • H2 antagonists such as famotidine or ranitidine
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16
Q

When is diphenhydramine commonly given

A

Prior to mast cell tumor removal to competitively counter the effects of histamine (H1 antagonist)

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17
Q

Describe proton pump inhibitors

A
  • Decrease gastric acid production by irreversibly blocking H+/K+ATPase
  • Omeprazole & pantoprazole are most commonly used
  • Long-acting drugs
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18
Q

What is the effect of NSAIDs on MAC

A

They have a sparing effect

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19
Q

When should NSAIDs be given

A

Give them postoperatively in case of hypovolemia or hypotension occurs during anesthetic period, leading to decreased renal blood flow

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20
Q

Describe glucocorticoids

A
  • Never give concurrently w/ NSAIDs
  • Used for anti-inflammatory, analgesic, immunosuppressive, & for physiologic support of Addisonian px
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21
Q

What antibiotics are used w/ anesthesia

A
  • Cefazolin
  • Unasyn (ampicillin/sulbactam)
  • Gentamicin
  • K-pen
  • PPG
  • Naxcel
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22
Q

How should cefazolin be given

A

In an IV slowly over 5 min

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23
Q

How should unasyn be given

A

IV slowly over 15 - 30 min

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24
Q

How should gentamicin be given

A

IV & administered slowly

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25
Q

How should K-pen be given

A

IV slowly

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26
Q

How should PPG not be given

A

IV

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27
Q

What animals is Naxcel used on

A

Food animals

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28
Q

Describe aminocaproic acid

A
  • Anti-fibrinolytic agent
  • Can be given to greyhounds to decrease postop bleeding by enhancing clot formation & increasing clot strength
  • Oral or injectable formulas
  • Give slowly IV after diluting in saline to prevent CV effects
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29
Q

What breed of dogs have a higher than norm rates of bleeding 24 - 48 H post op

A

Greyhounds

30
Q

Describe Desmopressin

A
  • Hormone given to temporarily increase von willebrand factor in dogs w/ a deficiency prior to surgery
  • Promotes vWf secretion from endothelium storage sites
  • Desmopressin is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (a hormone that reduces urine production)
  • A nasal spray typically
  • Expensive
31
Q

Describe Dantrolene

A

Peripherally acting muscle relaxant (works on skeletal muscle but can cause cardiac depression)

32
Q

What is the MOA of Dantrolene

A

Ryanodine receptor antagonism -> reducing Ca2+ release from the SR into the cytoplasm

33
Q

What is the indication of Dantrolene

A

For the tx & prevention of malignant hyperthemia & exertional rhabdomyolysis

34
Q

Describe Doxapram

A
  • CNS stimulant
  • Arousal from sedation/anesthesia (controversial), stimulation of respiration in neonates, & the assessment of laryngeal function (dogs & horses)
35
Q

What is the MOA of Doxapram

A

Likely due to both central & peripheral effects -> increased activity of the respiratory nuclei of the medulla (significant increase in minute ventilation through an increase in RR & tidal vol)

36
Q

What can an increased dosage of Doxapram lead to

A

Convulsions due to cortical stimulation

37
Q

Describe Guaifenesin (aka GG)

A
  • Central acting muscle relaxant w/ sedative properties
  • Likely works both in the brain & the spinal cord
  • Co-administered w/ IV anesthetics in horses & ruminants to induce & maintain anesthesia
  • No known analgesic properties
  • Wide therapeutic margin w/ mild cardiorespiratory effects
38
Q

Define lidocaines

A

An amide local anesthetic drug used to provide locoregional analgesia & also used systemically to treat ventricular arrhythmias

39
Q

What effects does lidocaine have

A
  • MAC sparing
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Analgesic
  • Prokinetic effects on the GI tract by stimulating intestinal motility
40
Q

T/F: Lidocaine is not typically used in cats as a CRI due to potential toxicity

41
Q

What does Lidocaine CRI treat in equine

A
  • Ileus - stimulates intestinal muscle contraction (in vitro) + analgesia
  • Impactions
  • Duodenitis-jejunitis
  • Inflammation (preserves microvascular integrity, prevents neutrophil migration, & inhibits cytokine production)
42
Q

How long is lidocaine CRI given

A

For 1 to 3 D

43
Q

What are the signs of lidocaine toxicity

A
  • Muscle fasicuulations
  • Weaknes
  • Recumbency
    When lidocaine is discontinued imm signs will quickly disappear
44
Q

Describe a ketamine CRI

A
  • NMDA receptor antagonist given as an intraoperative CRI binds @ the CNS receptors & prevents “wind up”
  • Best used to manage neuropathic types of pain (esp if the pain is chronic & the px has not responded well to other analgesic options)
  • Always combine w/ an opioid &/or lidocaine infusion
45
Q

What opioids can be used for an opioid CRI

A
  • Fentanyl
  • Remifentanil
  • Morphine
  • Hydromorphone
  • Butorphanol
  • Buprenorphine
46
Q

How is an opioid CRI done

A
  • Typically a loading dose is given first followed by the CRI
  • The drug is diluted in fluids & admin in a syringe pump or as part of the IVF given during during anesthesia (recommend an IV fluid pump over a free drip rate)
47
Q

T/F: Morphine-lidocaine-ketamine (MLK) lowers the MAC of Isoflurane by at 48%

48
Q

How is a MLK made

A
  • In a 500ml bag of fluid @ 5ml/kg/hr add 24 mg of Morphine, 60 mg of ketamine (100mg/mL), & 300mg of Lidocaine (20mg/mL)
49
Q

What will inhibit concious perception

A
  • General anesthetics
  • Opioids
  • Alpha 2 agonist
50
Q

What inhibits spinal cord sensitization

A
  • Opioids
  • NSAIDs
  • NMDA antagonists
  • Alpha 2 agonists
  • Local anesthetics
51
Q

What inhibits transmission along the peripheral nerves

A

*local anesthetics
* Alpha 2 agonists

52
Q

What inhibits nociceptor/painful stimulus?

A
  • Local anesthetics
  • Opioids
  • NSAIDs
53
Q

Calculate the following:

A

https://ivapm.org/professionals/cri-calculator/

54
Q

What are some additional analgesic adjuncts

A
  • Gabapentin
  • Pregabalin
  • Tramadol
  • Amantadine
  • Amitriptyline
  • Acetaminophen
  • Localregional anesthesia
  • Dexmedetomidine CRI
55
Q

What pharmaceutical interactions can occur in vitro (syringe or vial)

A
  • Drug precipitate
  • Toxic product
  • Inactivate one of the drugs
  • Acid-base interactions
  • Chemical incompatibilities
56
Q

What PK & PD can be affected by in vivo drug interactions

A
  • Absorption
  • ABCB 1
  • Hepatic clearance
  • drug protein binding
57
Q

What is the MDR1 gene mutation (ABCB1)

A

Some herding-breed dogs have a single mutation in a gene for a protein (p-glycoprotein) that drastically affects absorption, distribution, metabolism, & excretion of drugs

58
Q

What is the P-glycoprotein

A
  • An important part of the blood-brain barrier
  • Protects the body from toxic accumulations of substances
59
Q

What drugs are affected by the MRD1 gene

A
  • butorphanol
  • Acepromazine
60
Q

Why does knowing if a dog has a MDR1 gene mutation matter

A
  • Dog w/ this mutation may have more serious side effects such as CNS &/or respiratory depression from certain anesthetic drugs
  • Recovery may take longer & px may still appear sedated long after drugs should have norm worn off
  • Generally recommend reducing the norm dose by 25-50% in dogs that are homozygous for the mutation
61
Q

What is incompatible w/ diazepam

A
  • Precipitation will occur w/ aques solutions & significant absorption into soft plastic w/in 24 H
  • Heparin flush
62
Q

What drugs are incompatible w/ alkaline solutions

A
  • Epinephrine
  • Dobutamine
  • Dopamine
63
Q

What is incompatible w/ phenylbutazone

A

Aqueous solutions

64
Q

What should not be mixed w/ sodium bicarbonate

A

W/ solutions that contain calcium b/c precipitation may occur

65
Q

Define addition

A

Simple additivity of fractional doses of two or more drugs

66
Q

Define synergism

A

Response to fractional doses is greater than the response to the sum of the fractional doses

67
Q

Define potentiation

A

Enhancement of action of one drug by a second drug that has no detectable action of its own

68
Q

Define antagonism

A

Opposing action of one drug toward another

69
Q

Define competitive antagonism

A

drugs that compete for the same receptor site

70
Q

Define noncompetitive antagonism

A

Drugs act via different receptors