Lecture 10.1: Myelodysplasias and Myeloproliferative Syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes are associated with what enviornmental exposures?

A

Radiation and benzene

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2
Q

What are the most common offenders associated with therapy-realted Myelodysplastic syndromes?

A
  • Alkylating agents: cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, cisplatin, busulfan, nitrosourea, or procarbazine
  • Anthracycline antibiotics: adriamycin, daunorubicin, epirubicin
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3
Q

Some myelodysplastic syndromes in adults have which recognizable germline mutation?

A

germline GATA2, RUNX1 or telomere repair gene mutations

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4
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes are disorders of which cells and are characterized by what?

A
  • Disorders of the pluripotent stem cell
  • Characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis –> pancytopenia w/ HYPERplastic marrow
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5
Q

Describe the major cytogenetic abnormalities associated with myelodysplastic syndromes?

A
  • Partial or total loss of long arm of chromosomes 5 or 7 and 20
  • Inversion of chromosome 16
  • Trisomy 8
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6
Q

Which gene mutation is strongly associatd with sideroblastic anemia?

A

Mutations in genes of RNA splicing machinery, especially SF3B1

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7
Q

What is the clinical presentation like for myelodysplastic syndromes?

A
  • Half are asymptomatic
  • Sx’s may include: fatigue, pallor, bleeding and infection due to pancytopenia
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8
Q

What are 2 lab abnormalities which may be seen in association with myelodysplastic syndromes?

A
  • Elevated serum LDH
  • Evidence (in some) of iron overload: ↑ ferritin w/ serum iron and TIBC often normal
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9
Q

What are 3 differential diagnoses that should be offered up in any patient with pancytopenia?

A
  • Hypersplenism
  • Aplastic anemia
  • Myelodysplasia
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10
Q

Which myelodysplastic syndrome is associated with the lowest risk of conversion to AML (10-15%)?

A

Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)

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11
Q

What test and potential therapy should be done on any patient with anemia and ringed sideroblasts present?

A
  • Check B6 level (pyridoxine)
  • Replace B6 for at least 6 months if deficientm then repeat marrow - if no improvement, pt. has pyridoxine resistant sideroblastic anemia (RARS)
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12
Q

What are 5 adverse prognostic features associated with Myelodysplatic Syndromes (blasts, platelets, Hgb, neutrophils, and age)?

A
  • Marrow blasts >5%
  • Platelets <100,000/uL
  • Hemoglobin <10 g/dL
  • Neutrophils <2500/uL
  • Age >60 years
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13
Q

List 3 cytogenetic related abnormalities associated with poor prognosis in myelodysplastic syndromes?

A
  • Monosomy 7
  • HYPOdiploidy
  • Multiple abnormalities
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14
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes associated with what cytogenetic abnormality is associated with a favorable prognosis?

A

5q- syndrome; which leads to heterozygous loss of a ribosomal protein gene (ribosomal protein gene mutations cause Diamond-Blackfin anemia)

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15
Q

What is considered supportive care for myelodysplastic syndromes, when are PRBCs and platelets given?

A
  • Avoid meds that damage marrow
  • Aggressive tx of infections w/ Abx
  • Transfuse PRBCs when symptomatic
  • Transfuse platelets ONLY for bleeding or in prep for surgery
  • Watch for iron-overload; give desferrioxamine or deferasirox if present
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16
Q

What is the benefit of giving EPO to pt with myelodysplastic syndromes and what level of EPO predicts poor prognosis?

A
  • May decrease or ameliorate transfusion requirement in some; but is expensive
  • Serum EPO level >500 predicts poor response
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17
Q

Which chemotherapy drug is given for 5q- syndrome (MDS) only; what is its main MOA, and what are toxicities associated with it?

A
  • Lenalidomide, an angiogenesis inhibitor; particularly effective in reversing anemia
  • Toxicities = myelosuppression + ↑ risk of DVT’s and PE’s
18
Q

Which 2 chemotherapeutic agents are frequently used in high-risk MDS patients who are not candidates for stem cell transplant, and may also be effective in lower risk patients?

A

Hypomethylating agents –> Decitabine and Azacitidine

19
Q

What is the MOA of Azacitidine and Decitabine used in some pt’s with MDS; what are the major AE’s?

A
  • Cause hypomethylation (demethylation) of DNA and direct cytotoxicity on abnormal bone marrow hematopoietic cells
  • Major toxicity = myelosuppression, leading to worsening blood counts
20
Q

What is the only treatment which offers a cure for MDS and whom should it be considered for?

A
  • Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
  • Should be considered for pt’s with MDS who are <60 and have an HLA-matching sibling donor
21
Q

ATG, cyclosporine, and the anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody alemtuzumab are especially effective in which pt’s with MDS?

A

Younger pt’s (<60) with more favorable IPSS scores and who bear HLA-DR15

22
Q

What are common presenting signs/sx’s of Primary Myelofibrosis?

A
  • Anemia
  • May have fever + night sweats + anorexia and weight loss
  • Splenomegaly may be massive (due to ↑ extramedulary hematopoiesis)
23
Q

What is the triad of Myelofibrosis?

A
  • Leukoerythroblastic anemia
  • Pokilocytosis = varying shapes i.e., tear-drop cells
  • Splenomegaly
24
Q

How is the diagnosis of primary myelofibrosis made and what is seen?

A
  • Bone marrow biopsy
  • Shows ↑ collagen and reticulin fibrosis + ↑ numbers dysplastic-appearing megakaryocytes + osteosclerosis
25
Q

What are 2 conditions that cause 2’ bone marrow fibrosis which need to be excluded before making dx of primary myelofibrosis?

A

Miliary tuberculosis and metastatic cancer

26
Q

What are 3 driver mutations which may be present and assist in the dx of primary myelofibrosis; which may have better prognosis?

A
  • JAK2 V617F mutations in about 50% of cases
  • Calreticulin (CALR) mutations: may have better prognosis
  • MPL mutations
27
Q

What are the leukocyte and platelet counts seen with Primary Myelofibrosis?

A

Normal or increased

28
Q

What are some of the complications which may arise with exuberant extramedullary hematopoiesis seen in Primary Myelofibrosis?

A
  • Portal, pulmonary, or intracranial HTN
  • Intestinal or ureteral obstruction
  • Pericardial tamponade
  • Spinal cord compression
  • Skin nodules
  • Massive splenomegaly —> splenic infarction
29
Q

How should the anemia be managed in patient with primary myelofibrosis?

A
  • Manage with transfusion
  • EPO administration if serum EPO <500
  • Transfuse platelets ONLY if bleed occurs
30
Q

What is the most common cause of death in pt’s with Myelofibrosis and how does this impact your treatment plan?

A

Overwhelming infection, so treat infections aggressively

31
Q

How should asymptomatic pt with primary myelofibrosis be managed?

A

Observation

32
Q

What are the tx options for the splenomegaly seen with primary myelofibrosis; what are the risks?

A
  • Hydroxyurea is variably effective - may be overly myelosuppressive
  • Splenic irradiation-but assoc. w/ significant risk ofneutropenia, infection, and operative hemorrhage if splenectomy is attempted
  • Splenectomy in severe cases but is dangerous
33
Q

Which drug has proved effective in reducing the splenomegaly and alleviating constitutional sx’s in cases of intermediate and high-risk myelofibrosis?

A

JAK2 inhibitor, Ruxolitinib

34
Q

What is the only curative treatment for myelofibrosis and who is it reserved for?

A

Allogenic BM transplantation; used in younger pt’s and older pt’s with high-risk disease

35
Q

What are some of the common and unique presenting sx’s of Polycythemia Vera?

A
  • Facial rubor = red facies
  • Pruritus with a hot shower or bath
  • HA + dizziness + blurred vision
  • Heaviness in the arms or legs
  • Erythromelalgia
36
Q

What are the laboratory findings indicative of polycythemia vera?

A
  • Increased RBC numbers (Hgb/Hct): may seen nucleated RBCs on smear
  • leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
  • WBC and/or platelet counts
37
Q

Virtually all cases of polycythemia vera are associated with what mutation?JAK

A

JAK2 mutation

38
Q

What are some of the complications which may arise with polycythemia vera?

A
  • Increased risk of thromboembolic and hemorrhagic disorder, including stroke and MI
  • Associated with Budd-Chiari Syndrome
39
Q

What are some of the secondary causes of elevated RBC counts which need to be excluded before making dx of polycythemia vera?

A
  • Hemoconcentration due to dehydration; check BUN/Cr levels
  • Pulmonary disease: COPD (smokers polycythemia)
  • EPO producing tumors (RCC and neuroendocrine tumors)
  • Hemoglobinopathy w/ high affinity Hgb
  • Living at high altitudes: hypoxia from decreased FiO2
40
Q

What should to work-up for suspected polycythemia vera include?

A
  • Full hx and physical exam
  • Routine CBC and biochemical profile
  • Exclusion of hemoconcentration: is pt dehydrated? BUN/Cr normal?
  • Check serum EPO level: should be decreased or normal in PCV
  • U/S of kidneys optional; but should be done if RCC suspected
  • Exclude abnormal lung function: pulse oximetry w/ ABG
  • PFT w/ DLCO: tests lung function and performance
41
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for polycythemia vera?

A
  • Phlebotomy of 250-500cc whole blood every 1-2 weeks as long as Hct >50%
  • Schedule phlebotomy chronically for pt’s as needed (usually every 6-12 weeks)
42
Q

Pt’s with polycythemia vera who are >60 y/o or who have had prior thromboembolic events remain at high risk for mobiditiy despite phlebotomy and should receive what treatment?

A

Hydroxyurea