Lecture 1: Introduction to Module Flashcards

1
Q

Who developed germ theory?

A

Robert Koch, Anton van Leeuwenhoek and Louis Pasteur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is germ theory?

A

The theory that disease is caused by pathogenic microorganisms. Replication is the direct cause of disease. As well as the fact that environmental/genetic factors can affect severity of it.
Germ theory also states that disease can be cured by targeting these microorganisms.
It evolved from Koch’s postulates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who developed terrain theory?

A

Claude Bernard, and later Antoine Bechamp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does terrain theory state?

A

That disease is a result of change to internal environment, and inability to maintain homeostasis.
Implies that general health protects against disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What functions does a functional immune system perform?

A
  • Protection against pathogens
  • Development of body tissues
  • Repair and maintenance of tissues
  • Removal of ‘worn out’ cells and debris
  • Wound healing and subsequent tissue repair
  • Maintenance of stem cell niches and pools
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can happen when the immune response is not balanced?

A

Overreaction can lead to severe consequences such as death and permanent damage such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Underreaction can lead to death by pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the level of protection of the immune system change over time?

A

Immune system is strong in post-nates, due to maternal antibodies. After dropping swiftly, the immune system will get stronger until it plateaus at around 20. At around 65 years old, immune system will drop drastically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What sites of infection are there in the human body?

A
  • Interstitial spaces, blood and lymph
  • Epithelial surfaces
  • Intracellular cytoplasmic
  • intracellular vesicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 5 major groups of pathogens?

A

Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and helminths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the key aspects of the human immune system?
(4R)

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Reaction
  3. Regulation
  4. Remembering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe “Recognition” (4R)

A

Occurs through use of receptors.

Innate immune system uses germline encoded receptors to produce immediate or induced response against broad range of potential pathogens.

Adaptive immune system generates specific receptors on T/B cells to respond to repeat infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe “Reaction” (4R)

A

The response by the immune system.
This can include:
- Leukocytes and lymphocytes
- Antimicrobial agents (enzymes and peptides)
- Complement system components
- Antibodies (produced by B-cells)
- Cell signalling molecules - Cytokines, chemokines, interferons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe “Regulation” (4R)

A

The regulation of the immune system to prevent autoimmune response, or insufficient response.
Regulatory cells (Regulatory T cells) and soluble components such as cytokines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe “Remember” (4R)

A

The ability of the immune system to remember pathogenic antigens from previous infections.
Classical immunological memory is only generated by the adaptive immune system. Mostly consists of B and T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 2 “arms” of the immune system?

A

The innate immune system and the active immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What 4 general stages are there in infection? And at what time do they roughly take place in an infection?

A
  1. Innate responses by non-specific and broadly specific factors. 0-4 hours
  2. Induced innate response and the activation of the immune response, recruitment of effector cells. 4-96 hours
  3. Adaptive response (recognition by naive B and T cells and clonal expansion/differentiation to effector cells). >96 hours.
  4. After infection, memory cells have been created from B and T cell activation, allow for faster and stronger immune response upon reintroduction of pathogen.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the first line of defence for the innate immune system?

A

Barriers, chemicals, and ‘normal’ microbiota.
These factors can prevent attachment of pathogens.
Normal microbiome can affect pathogenic colonisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do epithelial cells and phagocytes respond to infection?

A

They can produce antimicrobial proteins (AMPs)
AMPs are secreted from cell or into phagosome.
Secreted in an inactivated state, activated by proteolytic cleavage, where pro-region is separated from the amphipathic domain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are alpha and beta defensins produced?

A

Alpha defensins are produced by both neutrophils and epithelial cells.
Beta defensins are only produced by epithelial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of defensins?

A

The cationic properties of these molecules allow them to position themselves in the lipid bilayer, creating holes in cell membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can deregulation of antimicrobial peptides result in?

A

Chronic inflammatory syndromes such a psoriasis, among other tissue pathologies, beta-defensin gene copy number is increased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are interferons?

A

Interferons, or IFNs are signalling molecules that provide protection against virus and bacterial infections.
They are produced by infected cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What effect do interferons have on immune response?

A
  • Prevent viral replication in infected cells
  • Alerting ‘uninfected’ cells by cell to cell signalling.
  • Enhances immune attack by enhanced action of NK cells, T cells, B cells
  • Increased presentation of viral antigen.
  • Stimulates interferon stimulated genes on the cells that they bind to, effects can be viral replication prevention, apoptosis, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the types of IFNs?

A

Type 1 IFNs (20 subtypes)
- IFN alpha (13 subtypes - mainly secreted by leukocytes)
- IFN beta (1 subtype - secreted mainly by fibroblasts)
- 6 other subtypes with poorly defined roles
- All type 1 IFNs use IFNAR1 and IFNAR2 heterodimer receptors.

Type II IFNs (1 subtype)
- IFN gamma - secreted mainly by specialised immune cells: natural killer cells, NKT cells and specific T cell subclasses.

Type III IFNs (4 subtypes)
IFN lambda 1, IFN lambda 2, IFN lambda 3 (IL-29, IL-28A and IL-28B) and IFN lambda 4.
- Type II IFNs have similar functions to type 1 IFN family but leukocytes are largely unresponsive to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When are interferons released?

A

When a virus enters a cell and attempts to reproduce, it produces biological markers that can alert a cell. Once a cell is alerted, it will begin producing interferons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What potential negative effects can there be with interferons?

A

If there is an overproduction of interferons, this can lead to overstimulation of the immune system leading to negative effects such as apoptosis of cells.

27
Q

What is the complement system?

A

A collection of over 30 different heat-labile, soluble proteins. They are present in blood plasma, with the components mostly being produced by the liver. They are responsible for a chain reaction in response to an outside antigen, this amplifies a small signal to a large one.

28
Q

What do most complement proteins do?

A

A lot of complement proteins that are produced are ‘zymogen proteases’ that are activated by cleavage, these will go on the further cleave more proteins and amplify the cascade?

29
Q

What end result is produced from the complement system?

A

Effector complement proteins will be the last proteins activated in the complement cascade, these proteins can either directly kill pathogens through the use of MACs (membrane attack complexes), or by signalling immune cells to phagocytose target cells (opsonisation), or by acting in a chemokine role, attracting immune cells to infection / playing a role in inflammation response.
Extra effects include:
- Agglutination
- Neutralisation of viral toxins
- Release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.

30
Q

Name 3 complement system pathways.

A

The classical pathway.
Lectin pathway.
Alternative pathway.

31
Q

What do each of the complement system pathways detect?

A
  • The classical pathway detects host antibodies that are bound to a pathogen or directly recognize a microbial surface.
  • The lectin pathway detects certain carbohydrates that are mainly associated with pathogens.
  • Alternative pathway, in which spontaneous hydrolysis and activation of C3 allows it to bind to proteins on ‘any’ cell surface.
32
Q

At what point do all the complement systems converge, and what does this achieve?

A

All three complement system pathways can result in the formation of a C3 Convertase enzyme complex which in turn leads to covalent attachment of C3b protein fragments to cell surface proteins.

The two effects of C3 are to either alert the immune system to a pathogen or to stimulate the production of an MAC.

33
Q

What components make up the membrane attack complex

A

C5b, C6, C7. C8, C9
or C5b-C9

34
Q

What roles do C3a and C5a play in the immune system?

A

They will both act as chemokines to attract phagocytes to sources of infection. C5a will also work with C3b, as pathogens coated with C3b that bind to C3b receptors on a macrophage will not be opsonized unless C5a binds to C5a receptors on the macrophages surface.

35
Q

What effect can C3a, C4a and C5a have on the vascular system?

A

These complement components can stimulate capillaries to become more permeable, and to vasodilate. This effect leads to more leukocytes and immunoglobulins to be able to travel to site of infection and pass into tissues.

36
Q

Describe the key steps in the complement cascade in which the three pathways converge.

A

The proteins that make up the start of the complement system come together to make C3 convertase, splitting C3 into C3a and C3b. C3b will go on to combine with previous components that made up C3 convertase to make C5 convertase, which will lyse C5 to release C5a and C5b. C5b will go on to start the formation of the MAC.

37
Q

Draw the process of the classical complement pathway.

A

https://ibb.co/tHqshyC

38
Q

Draw the process of the lectin complement pathway.

A

https://ibb.co/HCsZfzX

39
Q

Draw the process of the alternative complement pathway.

A

https://ibb.co/vJHptfq

40
Q

What can happen if there is a problem with the complement system?

A

With a C3 deficiency, individuals can have low levels of complement to help fight pathogens, individuals with only one allele might only be affected later on in life when they get an overactive immune system.

41
Q

What is the second line of defence for the innate immune system?

A

Proteins such as interferons, defensins and serum complement can signal to the immune system that there is an infection, prevent viruses from reproducing, destroying pathogens directly, and other effects.

42
Q

Describe the histology of stem cell niches in trabecular cavities.

A

Haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are located near sinusoids, along with mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) and CXCL12-abundant reticular cells (CAR), which also appear most frequently and are a population of MSCs. Most sinusoids are near the endosteal lining, but not directly next to it. The endosteum consists of endosteal osteoblasts, osteoclasts and Nestin+ MSC. The perivascular MSCs are also Nestin+. The role of osteoclasts and osteoblasts is to remodel endosteum to suit stem cell niches, as well as osteoblasts maintaining HSCs. Both MSCs and CARs promote HSC maintenance.

43
Q

Draw the lineage of a multipotential haematopoietic stem cell.

A

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hematopoietic_stem_cell

44
Q

How do you stain the granulocytes?

A

Basophils (Basic dye - blue cytoplasm)

Eosinophils (Acidic dye - Eosin - red/pink cytoplasm)

Neutrophils (no cytoplasm colour “neutral”)

45
Q

What are the functions of neutrophils?

A

Chase: Receptor mediated chemotaxis (cytoskeleton movement)

Eat: Receptor mediated phagocytosis

Trap: NETosis (Neutrophil Extracellular Traps)

46
Q

Name different types of receptors present on neutrophils.

A

Mannose receptor - Recognises various carbohydrates that are present on microbes.

Complement receptors - Detect complement a molecules.

Dectin-1 - Detects fungal beta-glucans

Toll-like receptors - Bind to pathogen associated molecular patterns.

47
Q

What is NETosis?

A

A slow autolysis of the neutrophil, involving the decondensation of the chromatin and subsequent breakdown of plasma membrane that releases NETs (chains of neutrophil DNA and globular proteins that have multiple anti-microbial functions, and require production of reactive oxygen species). Pus is mostly neutrophils surrounded by NETs.

48
Q

How are innate immune cells generated?

A

Through the action of cytokines in the haematopoietic bone marrow. G-CSF (granulocyte-colony stimulating factor). This stimulates granulopoiesis.

49
Q

How long is the lifecycle of a neutrophil and how many neutrophils in grams are exported into the bloodstream?

A

The life cycle is around 24 hours. With a half-life in blood of around 6 hours.

1 x 10^11 neutrophils are produced a day.

50
Q

What is a macrophage?

A

An immune cell that either is native to certain tissues (microglia, kupffer cells, red pulp macrophages in spleen, alveolar macrophage). Or is the result of differentiation of monocytes.

51
Q

What do PAMPs, DAMPs and PRRs stand for?

A

PRRs are Pattern Recognition Receptors

PAMPs are Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns

DAMPs are Damage Associated Molecular Patterns

52
Q

Give an example of a PAMP.

A

Lipopolysaccharides. As they are part of gram negative cell walls.

53
Q

Name examples of PRRs for PAMPs on a macrophage.

A

CD14 receptors (LPS receptors)

Toll-like receptors

Mannose receptors

C-type lectins

Fc receptors

RIG-I-like receptors (RLRs)

Scavenger receptors

54
Q

What are Toll-like Receptors?

A

Receptors that recognise a wide range of PAMPs, including LPSs, flagellin and dsDNA. Some TLRs are present on plasma membrane, and some are present on membrane of endosome.

55
Q

What are Fc receptors?

A

Receptors that recognise pathogen bound immunoglobulins.

56
Q

What are C-type lectins?

A

A large family of PRRs that recognise different types of carbohydrates on pathogens.

57
Q

What are mannose receptors?

A

A sub-type of C-type Lectins that specialises in recognising mannose and mannose-containing carbohydrate patterns.

58
Q

What are CD14 receptors?

A

A receptor that recognises LPS, and acts as a co-receptor for TLR4. Leading to production of inflammatory cytokines and immune system activation. Other functions besides co-receptors.

59
Q

What are RIG-I-like receptors?

A

These receptors recognise viral RNA and play a role in induction of antiviral responses.

60
Q

Name which TLRs recognise which PAMPs.

A

TLR1/2 - Triacyl lipopeptides (present on bacteria)

TLR2 - Many molecules, one example being peptidoglycan (present in both gram + and -)

TLR2/6 - Diacyl lipopeptides (bacteria)

TLR3 - dsRNA (present on viruses).

TLR4 - Lipopolysaccharides (gram-negative bacteria)

TLR5 - Flagellin (component of flagella in bacteria)

TR7- Single-stranded DNA (viruses)

61
Q

What signalling function do macrophages play?

A

Upon stimulation, inflammatory cytokines are secreted from them.

62
Q

What inflammatory cytokines are released by macrophages?

A

IL-6 - Activates lymphocytes, so increased antibody production. also stimulates release of histamine and prostaglandins, and other inflammatory cytokines.

TNF-a - activates vascular endothelium and permeability, so more antibodies, complement, and cells can enter, and more fluid is secreted to lymph nodes. Can stimulate T, B, and killer cells. Also responsible for secretion of histamine, prostaglandins and other inflammatory cytokines. Can induce apoptosis in damaged or infected cells.

IL-1-beta - Activates vascular endothelium, increases permeability of endothelium. Also responsible for stimulating secretion of COX-2 in many cells (one example is thrombocytes), and stimulating the secretion of histamines.

63
Q

What are 2 non-inflammatory cytokines?

A

CXCL8 - Chemotactic factor that attracts neutrophils, basophils and T-cells.

IL-12 - Activates NK cells and induces differentiation of CD4+ T cells into Th1 cells, which secrete cytokines such as TNF and IFN-gamma (type II interferon, primary activator of macrophages, also stimulates NK cells and neutrophils).

64
Q

What proteins are made because of inflammatory cytokines? Name two important types.

A

Acute phase proteins. The production of which is induced by pro-inflammatory cytokines, with IL-6 being a potent inducer in the liver. Two important types are mannose-binding lectin and C-reactive protein.