Lec 6: Language Of Payment/Coding/Billing Flashcards

1
Q

Assignment of Benefits:

A

Payment of medical benefits DIRECTLY to the provider rather than the member/subscriber, requires written release

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2
Q

Authorization:

A

Gatekeeper/primary care provider approval for hospitalization or care

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3
Q

Balance Billing:

A

The administrative practice of holding the pt financially responsible for the remainder of medical service charges, beyond the insurer’s allowed amount.

Does not apply when a managed care contract contains a “hold harmless” clause

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4
Q

Cost sharing:

A

Patient responsible for portion or % of total charge

Methodology to reduce utilization

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5
Q

Denial:

A

Refusal by insurer to reimburse services that have been rendered

Can be for various reasons

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6
Q

Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

A

Insurer-provided description of provider services and explanation of those covered and denied

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7
Q

Policyholder:

A

Purchaser of an insurance policy

In group health insurance, this is usually the employer who purchases policy coverage for its employees

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8
Q

Pre-authorization:

A

Insurance company review of care before delivery to establish appropriateness of payment

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9
Q

Pre-existing condition:

A

Physical or mental condition of patient occurring before start of insurance coverage

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10
Q

Profiling:

A

Data collection by insurers on billing and utilization by providers

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11
Q

What is needed to get paid for professional services?

A
Professional license
Business structure
Services available
Price list
Business policies (registration and verification of info)
Reimbursement contracts, arrangement
Charge system
Billing processes
Accounting procedures
Collection procedures
Documentation system
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12
Q

PT relationship with payers: Cultivate a reputation for _________, appropriate documentation (payers track this information)

A

QUALITY care

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13
Q

Office staff relationship with payers:

A

Phone courtesy
Competence
Reliability

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14
Q

What does the client admissions process include?

A

Medical record
Business account
Authorizations/consents

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15
Q

Client Admissions Process: What is included in medical record ?

A

Demographics

Patient record

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16
Q

Client Admissions Process: What is included in business account?

A

Payment info

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17
Q

Client Admissions Process: What is included in authorizations/consents

A

Informed consent
Confidentiality/HIPAA
Assignment of benefits

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18
Q

AOB: A patient’s voluntary signed agreement to a provision such as “I hereby request assignment of payment of all insurance benefits to the ___________”

A

Provider of service

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19
Q

AOB: The provider then directly submits the claim to the ______

A

Payer

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20
Q

AOB: Provider must typically be __________

A

participating

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21
Q

AOB: Alternative- patient pays for service and submits for reimbursement from _______

A

Insurer

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22
Q

Billing for services: Bills submitted to patient or third party payer, or provided to __________ to prepare bills

A

Claims clearinghouse

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23
Q

Billing for services: most billing is now ______

A

Electronic

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24
Q

Billing for services: there is an importance of _______

A

CLEAN CLAIMS

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25
Q

Fee Determination: A provider must know their ______ in order to determine _____

A

Costs

Fees

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26
Q

Fee determination: Basing charges on ______ plus reasonable profit avoid ________________

A

COST

Anticompetitive pricing issues

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27
Q

Fee determination: A single fee schedule with fee discounts based on policy and arrangements with payers is more _________ than multiple fee schedules

A

Defensible

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28
Q

Claim submission: Must verify 4 things

A

Patient info
Person responsible for bill
Insurance info, including primary and secondary
Coordination of benefits

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29
Q

Coordination of benefits: Generic term for situations where the patient have have coverages under _________

A

More than one insurance plan

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30
Q

Coordination of benefits: Health Vs. Liability insurer:

A

Primary pay or may be decided by liability (workers comp or auto)

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31
Q

Coordination of benefits: Medicare patients with supplemental coverage – A medicare patient may have supplemental coverage, either ______ or _______

A

Medical insurance

Medicaid

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32
Q

Coordination of benefits: IF BOTH SPOUSES HAVE COVERAGE:
In adults, each spouse’s employee health insurance is the primary payer for his/her care; spouse’s family coverage is _______

A

Secondary

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33
Q

Coordination of benefits: IF BOTH SPOUSES HAVE COVERAGE: With children, if one parent has family coverage and the other only individual coverage, then the _________ is the only payer

A

Family coverage

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34
Q

Coordination of benefits: IF BOTH SPOUSES HAVE COVERAGE: If both have family coverage, most states use the ______

A

Birthday rule

The insurance of the parent with the bday earlier in the calendar year pays first

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35
Q

Coordination of benefits: Once the primary payer has processes the claim, the provider or patient must resend to _________, along with the primary insurer’s __________ or __________

A

Secondary insurer
Explanation of Benefits
Remittance Notice

36
Q

Coordination of benefits: True or false, the secondary insurance will never pay more than the patient’s liability remaining after the primary payer has processed the claim

A

True

37
Q

Copayments: May be collected when service is provided, or _____

A

Billed later

38
Q

Copayments are the expectation that

A

Is the patient responsibility

39
Q

Copayments are the same as balance billing, T/F?

A

False. They differ

40
Q

Insurers expect that having the pt share the expense of the medical care will result in the patient having an ________ to limit their own care

A

Incentive

41
Q

Medicare Advanced Beneficiary Notice is what?

A

For medicare providers, if the service is known to be non covered or not medically necessary, the provider have the the patient sign an ABN

42
Q

What is an NPI?

A

National Provider Identifier

10 digit numeric ID that must be used on claim forms submitted to payors by individual and organization health care providers who meet the definition of a covered entity under HIPAA

43
Q

What is the intent of an NPI?

A

To further streamline electronic claims processes already in place

44
Q

Out of Network Model: Limited Insurance Contracts: Collect payment directly from patients at the time of service and provide an _________ for the to submit to their health insurer

A

Itemized bill

45
Q

Out of Network Model: Limited Insurance Contracts: Collect from patients at the time of service and offer to send ________ to their insurer on their behalf

A

Courtesy bills

46
Q

Out of Network Model: Limited Insurance Contracts: Accept __________, bill the _________, and bill the ________ for the balance once the insurer has paid.

A

Assignment
Insurer
Patient

47
Q

Cash practice: No insurance contracts: Opt out of all _______ insurance contracts

A

Private

48
Q

Cash practice: no insurance contracts: Patient pay in full at the __________ or insurer is billed directly and patient is billed for the ____________

Usually ______ patient cost sharing

A

Time of service

Balance not covered by the plan

HIGHER

49
Q

Cash practice: Physical therapists are not permitted to opt out of _________ for covered services

A

Medicare

50
Q

Cash practice: Noncovered services: Providing services that are _____ covered services under most insurance plans

A

NOT

51
Q

Cash practice: Noncovered services: Practice determines the value of the service, establishes the fee, and in most cases, collects the fee at the ____________

A

Time the service is delivered

52
Q

Code for Billing: Diagnoses: When billing for services provided by a PT, must specify the ______

A

Medical Diagnosis

ICD-10 as of 10/1/15

53
Q

Codes for Billing: Interventions:

A

CPT-4

54
Q

ICD-9 and ICD-10CM are the official system of assigning codes to diagnoses and procedures associated with _______ in the US

A

Hospital utilization

55
Q

ICD-10 features about ________ codes

A

69,000

56
Q

The new ICD-10 allows clinicians to be far more specific with IDing patient health conditions and will provide better data top measure and track health care utilization and quality of care, T/F?

A

True

57
Q

ICD-10 has how many characters?

First 3 for?
Next 3 for?
7th for?

A

3-7 characters

First 3: Category of Dx
Next 3: Etiology, an anatomical site, severity, vital clinical details
7th: Type of patient encounter (initial, subsequent, sequela)

58
Q

CPT: Listing of descriptive terms and IDing codes for ________

A

Reporting medical services and procedures

59
Q

What is the purpose of CPT?

A

To provide a uniform language that accurately describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services, and thereby serves as an effective means for reliable nationwide communication among physicians and other HCP, patients, and third parties

60
Q

CPT is used for what?

A

Payment
Outcome assessments
Other data collection

61
Q

Relationship of code to payment: Existence of code does not necessarily mean that ______

A

The provider will be paid for that code

62
Q

Payment policy for coding is dependent on what?

A

Individual payors and their policies

63
Q

Who first developed CPT?

A

AMA

64
Q

There is a regulation for requiring the use of CPT for PT and OT services, T/F?

A

True

65
Q

What are the most common codes utilized by PTs?

A

Category I codes: 5 digit code

66
Q

Are Physical Medicine and Rehab Caterogry I codes exclusive to PT?

A

No

67
Q

There are three different kinds of PT Evals, what are they?

A

Low, moderate, or high complexity

68
Q

Is there a code for PT re-eval?

A

Yes, as of 1/1/2017

69
Q

Therapeutic procedures include:

A
Therex
Neuromuscular re-ed
Gait training
Manual therapy
Therapeutic activities
70
Q

Supervised modalities do not require what?

A

Do not require direct one-on-one contact by the provider

71
Q

How many supervised modalities codes can you bill per visit?

A

Only one, regardless of the number of body parts treated

72
Q

What is an example of a supervised modality?

A

Hot/cold packs
Diathemy
Unattended e-stim

73
Q

Constant attendance modalities require what?

A

That a provider have direct one-on-one contact with the patient for all of the minutes represented in billing

74
Q

What is an example of constant attendance modalities?

A

Iontophoresis
US
Contrast baths

75
Q

What is the CMS 8-minute rule?

A

For any single, time CPT code in which one unit is defined as 15 minutes, a provider is required to bull one unit of care for greater than or equal to 8 minutes and less than 23 minutes

76
Q

CMS 8 Minute Rule: Two units of care can be billed for a specific CPT code for greater than or equal to _____ minutes and less than _____ minutes

A

23 minutes

38 minutes

77
Q

CMS 8 Minute Rule: 3 units of care can be billed for a specific CPT code for greater than or equal to _____ minutes and less than _____ minutes

A

38 minutes

53 minutes

78
Q

CMS 8 Minute Rule: 4 units of care can be billed for a specific CPT code for greater than or equal to _____ minutes and less than _____ minutes

A

53 minutes

68 minutes

79
Q

CMS 8 Minute Rule: 5 units of care can be billed for a specific CPT code for greater than or equal to _____ minutes and less than _____ minutes

A

68 minutes

83 minutes

80
Q

Group Therapy Code: This is to be used when care is provided to more than one person during the same _____

A

Time interval

81
Q

What are modifiers?

A

Increase the specificity of the CPT code

Example: can be used to describe that the service was provided on both of the patient’s legs or during a distinct time interval

82
Q

What is the purpose of correct coding initiative?

A

To develop correct coding methodologies to curtail improper unbundling or services for Medicare Part B claims

83
Q

A code pair edit is a combination of ________ that cannot be billed together because either the code pair represents services that are considered mutually exclusive or one code in the pair is considered a component of a more comprehensive procedure code

A

Two CPT codes

84
Q

If the prohibited code combo is reported to the carrier, only ______ will be reimbursed

A

One code

85
Q

Medicare will only pay for ____ 15 minute codes in an hour, unless you have a PTA, you can bill for more

A

4