Lec 26 Influenza Flashcards

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1
Q

What is uncomplicated influenza?

A
  • acute, self limited
  • febrile
  • due to URI by influenza A or B
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2
Q

What are most common symptoms of uncomplicated influenza

A
  • fever
  • cough
  • malaise
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3
Q

What symptoms separate influenza from common cold?

A

systemic symptoms

  • fever +/- chills
  • headache, myalgias
  • malaise, anorexia

both can have:cough, sore throat, rhinorrhea

sneezing more frequent with common cold than flu

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4
Q

What is onset of flu systemic symptoms? how long do they last? Compared to respiratory?

A

systemic: abrupt onset, last for first 3 days of illness
respiratory: 7-8 days, persist or worsen after resolution of systemic symptoms

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5
Q

What are the respiratory symptoms of flu?

A
  • dry cough, sore throat, rhinorrhea

- usually sneeze more frequent with common cold than flu

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6
Q

What are the 2 pulmonary complicationf of influenza?

A
  • primary viral pneumonia
  • secondary bacterial pneumonia
  • acute exacerbation of asthma or COPD
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7
Q

What is primary viral pneumonia / signs of disease?

A
  • extension of URI into URI
  • monophasic illness:
  • — starts like typical influenza but instead of getting better develop symptoms of pneumonia [dyspnea, hypoxemia, cyanosis +/- hemoptysis]
  • CXR shows diffuse, bilateral/multilobar opacities
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8
Q

Who is at most risk for primary viral pneumonia?

A
  • CV diseases [esp rheumatic disease with mitral stenosis]
  • elderly esp w/ chronic CV or pulmonary comorbidities
  • pregnant
  • immunosuppressed
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9
Q

What is the most rare but most severe complication of influenza?

A

primary viral pneumonia

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10
Q

What is secondary bacterial pneumonia?

A
  • bacterial pneumonia following seemingly uncomplicated influenza
  • biphasic illness
  • — initial improvement after typical influenza, then 4-14 days later have bacterial pneumonia symptoms [fever/chills, cough with sputum, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain]
  • crx: lobar/focal consolidation
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11
Q

What are the bacterial pathogens associated with secondary bacterial pneumonia?

A
  • strep pneumo
  • staph aureus
  • less commonly: haemophilus influenza
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12
Q

Who is at risk for complicated influenza?

A
  • older adults

- chronic pulmonary, cardiac, metabolic, or renal disease

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13
Q

What is effect of acute exarcebation of asthma or COPD related to viral influenza?

A
  • very common

- may result in permanent decrease in pulm function

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14
Q

What are the non-pulmonary complications of influenza?

A
  • myositis and myoglobinuria [in childrens]
  • myocarditis and pericarditis, MI [mostly with pre-existing cardiac disease]
  • toxic shock syndrome
  • guillan-barre, tranverse myelitis, encephalitis
  • reye’s syndrome
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15
Q

Whos is at most risk for reye’s syndrome?

A

kids taking aspirin

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16
Q

What are complications of influenza in pregnancy?

A
  • fetal loss + pre-term labor

- neural tube defects

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17
Q

What is structure of influenza?

A
  • family orthomyoviridae, genera A, B, C
  • negative sense
  • segmented
  • enveloped
  • RNA
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18
Q

What is nucleoprotein NP in influenza?

A
  • binds genomic viral RNA
  • NP + vRNA = ribonucleoprotein complex [RNP]
  • genetically stable protein across strains
  • target of most diagnostic tests
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19
Q

What is algorithm for diagnosing influenza clinically? who does it not work as well for?

A
flu season + fever + cough = influenza
= 60-80% sensitive, 55-80% specific
not as good of a marker in:
- elderly/immunosuppressed/comorbid
- young children
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20
Q

how is influenza diagnosed besides clinical symptoms?

A
  • rapid influenza diagnostic testing [RIDT] = usually enzyme immunoassay for NP
  • direct fluorescent antigen [DFA] test = best test
  • nucleic acid amplification test [NAAT]
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21
Q

What does a positive RIDT tell you? A negative?

A

positive tells you its the flu = very speicifc test

negative does not ruel out the flu = only 62% sensitive so may miss some cases, higher sensitivity in children

22
Q

What is DFA?

A
  • epithelial cells from nasopharyngeal specimen fixed to glass slide, stained with fluorescent labeled NP specific antibodies, viewed under fluorescence microscope
  • best test for flu
23
Q

What is NAAT?

A
  • detection of influenza viral RNA [usually NP or M genes] by qRT-PCR
  • becoming gold standard test
24
Q

What is neuraminidase [NA]?

A
  • glycoprotein on influenza viral surface
  • increases ability of progeny virus to bud and be released from infected cell
  • enzymes that cleaves bond between sialic acid and galactose to allow progency of virus to leave
  • propeller-shaped tetramer
  • sialic acid is enzymatic subtstrate
25
Q

What is NA the target of?

A
  • neuraminidase inhibitor antivirals –> oseltamivir, zanamivir
26
Q

What is matrix 2 [M2]?

A
  • ion channel in influenza viral envelope

- helps in fusion/uncoating

27
Q

What is M2 the target of?

A
  • adamantane [M2 inhibitor] antivirals:
  • – amantadine
  • – rimantadine
28
Q

What is hemagglutinin [HA]?

A
  • receptor binding glyocoprotein on viral surface
  • helps in fusion
  • binds celllular glycoconjugates to initiated infection of host cell
29
Q

What is life cycle of influenza?

A
  1. attachment [HA]
  2. entry into cell
  3. fusion and uncoating [M2]
  4. goes into nucleus
  5. RNA synthesized
  6. leaves nucleus
  7. translation and post-translation processing in cyto
  8. assembly of virus
  9. budding and released [NA]
30
Q

What is oseltamivir [tamiflu]? mech? type of administration? side effects?

A
  • NA inhibitor
  • given orally
  • ester prodrug, cleaved by hepatic esterases
  • side effects: nausea/vomitting
31
Q

What is zanamivir [relenza]? mech? type of administration? contraindications?

A
  • NA inhibitor
  • inhaled
  • poor oral bioavailability –> inhaled gives direct delivery
  • contraindications:
  • —- reactive airway disease due to bronchospasm [asthma/COPD]
  • —- kids < 7 yrs
32
Q

What is mech of NA inhibitors?

A
  • act as sialic acid analogs, bind enzyme’s catalytic site and prevent it binding natural substrate
33
Q

What is mech of M2 inhibitors? what are they active against? type of administration? side effects?

A
  • oral administration
  • target M2 ion channel
  • – inhibit pH depedent virus-endosome membrane fusion and genome uncoating
  • – active only against influenza A
  • side effects: CNS [sleep disruption, weakness, dizziness], nausea/vomiting, anorexia
34
Q

Why are adamantanes [M2 inhibitors] not clinically useful?

A
  • all influenza A viruses currently circulating in humans are amantadine resistant
35
Q

What are the two M2 inhibitors?

A

amantadine

rimantadine

36
Q

Are oseltamivir/zanamivir safe for pregnancy?

A

pregnancy class C = inadequate data to assess safety, need to weigh fetal risk vs maternal benefit

oseltamivir preferred in pregnancy
both compatible with breastfeeding

37
Q

What is the target of the majority of neutralizing antibody response?

A

HA

38
Q

What is antigenic drift in HA?

A
  • over time accumulate AA mut in HA that allow it to escape from anitbody recognition and thus get reinfection
  • novel HA genes from animal reservoir can make new virus and introduce to human population causing pandemic influenza
39
Q

What is the polymerase complex?

A

PA, PB1, and PB2

  • RNA dependent RNA polymerase
  • transcribes neg sense genomic vRNA into + sense mRNA and complementary RNA
    • sense mRNA then used for translation of viral proteins by cellular machinery
  • complement RNA is intermediated in synthesis of vRNA
  • very error-prone = has no proofreading capability
40
Q

What do mutations in HA cause?

A

antigenic drift

41
Q

What do mutations in M2 or NA cause?

A

drug resistance

42
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

accumulation of random point mutation in major antigenic parts of HA and NA surface proteins allowing drifted virus to escape pre-existing antibody recognition

43
Q

Whare are requirements for pandemic influenza?

A
  1. segmented genome: get antigenic shift mix/match of genome segments from different animals creating new virus expressing HA that humans have no baseline immunity to
  2. antigenically novel surface proteins HA and NA
  3. animal reservoir [source of novel HA/NA]
44
Q

What is the immunogen in inactivated influenza vaccine?

A

inactivated HA

45
Q

What is the newest influenza vaccine?

A

QIV = quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine

46
Q

What is a split virus vaccine?

A
  • egg grown virus disrupted with detergent to solubilize viral membrane
  • releases surface HA/NA
47
Q

what is subunit vaccine?

A
  • after detergent treatment, HA/NA separated out from rest of virus components
48
Q

What are contraindications of influenza vaccine?

A
  • severe allergic rxn to influenza vaccine
  • anaphylactice hypersensitivity to eggs
  • history of guillain-barre within 6 wks of prior flu vaccine [ascending paralysis]
  • current fever
49
Q

What is fluzone high-dose? for who?

A
  • 4x the HA antigen per dose of normal inactivated influenza vaccine
  • showed improved antibody response in elderly
50
Q

What is the live-attenuated flu vaccine?

A
  • backbone is influenza virus that is cold-adapted
  • get it to express vaccine strain HA/NA antigens
  • give intranasally
51
Q

What are contraindications for live-attenuated flu vaccine?

A
  • < 2 or > 49 yrs
  • chronic pulm, cardio, renal, hepatic, neuro, hematologic, or metabolic disease
  • immunosuppression
  • close contact with immunosuppressed
  • < 18 yrs old on long term aspirin
  • pregnant
  • egg allergy
52
Q

What is the recombinant HA influenza vaccine [RIV]? who should get it?

A
  • antigens are recombinant cell culture-grown HA proteins
  • give IM
  • shorter shelf life, rapid production
  • similar efficacy/contraindications as conventional
  • give to adults with egg allergies