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Surgery I > Lec 25: Principles of Ortho Surgery > Flashcards

Lec 25: Principles of Ortho Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

veterinarians should be aware of their limitations in surgery and ____ complicated cases when necessary

A

refer

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2
Q

bone transplanted from one animal to another of the same species is called a ___graft.

A

allo

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3
Q

procedures to enhance surgical exposure of a joint are called _____ osteotomies.

A

apophyseal

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4
Q

bone transplanted from one site to another in the SAME animal is called ___graft.

A

auto

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5
Q

when the insertion point of a tendon or ligament is fractured and distracted from the rest of the bone, this is called an ____ fracture.

A

avulsion

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6
Q

a span comminuted fracture is called

A

bridging plates

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7
Q

____ wire is an orthopedic wire placed around the circumference of bone to compress an oblique fracture.

A

cerclage

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8
Q

a _____ reduction is a fractured bone alignment performed without surgical exposure.

A

closed

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9
Q

_____ plates act to compress the fracture.

A

compression

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10
Q

the diaphysis or metaphysis of a bone is cut, realigned and stabilized until union occurs, this is called a _____ osteotomy, and it is an elective procedure.

A

corrective

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11
Q

____ ____ is an abnormal movement of the stifle joint elicited during physical examination, and is caused by the tibia sliding cranially in relationship to the femur.

A

cranial drawer

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12
Q

when we have a cranial drawer, this means that the ____ cruciate ligament is deficient in the stifle.

A

deficient

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13
Q

______ is a “grating feel” or sound when manipulating a fractured bone or arthritic joint.

A

crepitation

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14
Q

____ unions are fractures that heal more slowly than anticipated.

A

delayed

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15
Q

_____ bone union is when the bone formed without evidence of callus

A

direct

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16
Q

________ formation, is when the bone forms on the cartilaginous precursor.

A

endochondral

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17
Q

external _____ is when we fix a fracture with casts or splints.

A

coaptation

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18
Q

external _____ is when we fix a fracture with pins that penetrate the bone and skin, and are connected externally.

A

fixation

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19
Q

a _____ fracture is an incomplete fracture where the portion of the cortex is intact.

A

greenstick

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20
Q

this type of wire is placed through predrilled holes in the bone: _______-

A

hemicerclage wire or interfragmentary wire

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21
Q

the process of restoring fragment and limb alignment by distracting major bone segments by using the animal’s weight is called _____ reduction.

A

indirect

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22
Q

fracture fixation using internal implants to secure the bone is called _____ fixation

A

internal

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23
Q

________ pins are implants positioned in the medullary canal of long bones.

A

intramedullary pins

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24
Q

_______ bone formation is direct differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts, and the bone forms without a cartilagenous precursor.

A

intramembranous

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25
Q

_____ is the complete dislocation of a joint.

A

luxation

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26
Q

a ___union is a healed fracture where the anatomic bone alignment was not achieved or maintained during healing.

A

mal

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27
Q

a ______ plate supports a reconstructed fracture.

A

neutralization

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28
Q

a ___union is a fracture with an arrested repair process which requires surgical intervention to created an environment conductive to bone healing.

A

non

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29
Q

a ______ placement is a pin which is started at one end of the bone and driven into the fracture area, and then seated at the other end of the bone.

A

normograde

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30
Q

a ____ fracture is exposed to the external atmosphere.

A

open

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31
Q

an ____ (direct) reduction is a fracture repair that is performed after surgical approach to bone.

A

open

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32
Q

_____ maneuver is manipulation used to subluxate a dysplastic hip.

A

ortolani

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33
Q

an ______ is the removal of a segment of bone.

A

ostectomy

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34
Q

______ is an inflammatory condition of the bone and medullary canal.

A

osteomyelitis

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35
Q

_______ is a procedure where bone is cut into two segments

A

osteotomy

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36
Q

the cranial bowing of a bone is called ______.

A

procurvatum

37
Q

______ is partial dislocation of a joint

A

subluxation

38
Q

_____ deformity is the angulation of a distal portion of the limb laterally

A

valgus

39
Q

_____ deformity is the angulation of the distal portion of the limb medially

A

varus

40
Q

the goal for treating a fracture, nonunion or bone deformities is always bone ______, and the patient’s return to ______ function.

A

union ; normal

41
Q

surgical planning is important to avoid implant ___, ____ healing, _____, and ___union.

A

failure ; delayed ; infection ; nonunion

42
Q

fracture _____ allows for accurate communication with owners and colleagues to aid in appropriate treatment planning.

A

classification

43
Q

the ___ and ______ are evaluated accurately in order to classify the fracture

A

limb ; radiographs

44
Q

Basis of Fracture Classification
1. Whether the fracture is ___ or ____ to the enviornment.
2. Degree of _____ and _______ of fragments.
3. ____ of fracture
4. Reducible or ______
5. _____ of fracture.

A
  1. open ; closed
  2. damage ; displacement
  3. type
  4. nonreducible
  5. location
45
Q

whether or not the fracture fragments can be reconstructed to provide a load bearing

A

reducible or nonreducible

46
Q

a ____ fracture:
- occurs in immature animals
- incomplete fracture where portion of the cortex is intact
- partially stabilized bone
- generally splintable

A

greenstick

47
Q

a ____ fracture occurs when the fracture line is perpendicular to the long axis of bone.

A

transverse

48
Q

a/an ____ fracture lines run at an angle to a line perpendicular to the long axis of the bone.

A

oblique

49
Q

short oblique fractures are ___ degrees or less.

A

45

50
Q

long oblique fractures are greater than ___ degrees to the perpendicular to long axis of the bone.

A

45

51
Q

a/an ____ fracture is similar to long oblique fractures but wrap along the axis of the bone.

A

spiral

52
Q

____ fractures have ONE fracture line.

A

single

53
Q

______ fractures have MULTIPLE fracture lines

A

comminuted

54
Q

comminuted fracture can range from having ___ piece fractures with butterfly fragment to highly comminuted fractures with ___ or more pieces.

A

3 ; 5

55
Q

reducible or non reducible?

A

reducible

56
Q

reducible or non reducible?

A

nonreducible

57
Q

diaphyseal, metaphyseal, physeal, articular, are all ____ classfications of the fracture.

A

location

58
Q

___-velocity forces create single fractures with little energy dissipated into soft tissue.

A

low

59
Q

___-velocity forces create comminuted fractures with high energy dissipated through fracture propagation & surrounding soft tissue injury

A

high

60
Q

open fractures are classified according to:
1. ____ of puncture
2. ____ of soft tissue injury

A
  1. mechanism
  2. severity
61
Q

grade __ open fractures have a small puncture hole located in skin in the proximity of the fracture caused by bone penetrating to the outside. bone may or may not be visible in the wound.

A

I

62
Q

grade __ open fractures have variably sized skin wounds associated with the fracture that resulted from EXTERNAL trauma.
- there is more damage to soft tissue here than with grade I open fractures.
- fracture is minimally or not comminuted

A

II

63
Q

grade __ open fractures have severe bone fragmentation with extensive soft tissue injury, with or without skin loss.
- usually high velocity comminuted fractures like ___ injuries, and ____ type injuries of the distal extremities.

A

III ; gunshot ; shearing

64
Q

salter harris type __ fractures run through the physis

A

I

65
Q

salter harris type __ fractures run through the physis & portion of the metaphysis

A

II

66
Q

salter harris type __ fractures run through the physis & epiphysis and are generally articular

A

III

67
Q

salter harris type __ fractures are articular running through the epiphysis, across the physis, and through the metaphysis

A

IV

68
Q

salter harris type __ fractures are crushing injuries of the physis
- not visible radiographically but become evident several weeks later when the physeal function ceases

A

V

69
Q

salter harris type VI classification is used to describe ___ physeal closures from damage to a portion of the physis, which causes an asymmetric closure.

A

partial

70
Q

what type of force acted on this fractured bone?

A

bending

71
Q

what type of force acted this fractured bone?

A

torsion

72
Q

what type of force acted on this fractured bone?

A

axial loading

73
Q

what forces acted on this fractured bone?

A

axial compression and bending

74
Q

what type of force acted on this fractured bone?

A

high energy

75
Q

what data should we include in our fracture assessment score?

A

patient info, rads, client info

76
Q

FAS reflects three factors:
_____ factors
_____ factors
_____ factors

A

mechanical, biologic, clinical

77
Q

the clinical factors include the environment where _____ must function, and owner ______.

A

implants ; compliance

78
Q

mechanical, biological, clinical factors from FAS score guide the type of _____ chosen

A

implants

79
Q

mechanical factors for patient assessment:
conditions on the left: are ______ (reducible/non-reducible) and multiple limb injury
- _____ stress on implant system which requires careful ____ choice and application

A

non-reducible ; maximum ; implant

80
Q

mechanical factors for patient factor assessment:
conditions on right
- ___ (more/less) stress to implant system
____ risk of complications

A

LESS ; reduced

81
Q

biologic factors determining FAS
on the left: ___ (do/do not) favor rapid healing
- implant system must function for _____ (prolonged/short) period.

A

DO NOT ; prolonged

82
Q

biologic factors determining FAS
on the right: ___ (do/do not) favor rapid healing
- implant system must function for _____ (prolonged/short) period.

A

DO ; short

83
Q

clinical factors determining patient FAS
- clinical factors on the left require _______(comfortable/any) implant system
- requires ____ (lots/little) postoperative maintenance

A

comfortable ; little

84
Q

clinical factors determining patient FAS
- clinical factors on the right require _______(comfortable/any) implant system

A

ANY ; regardless of post-op maintenance

85
Q

8-10 would be considered (high/mod/low) on FAS

A

HIGH

86
Q

4-7 would be considered (high/mod/low) on FAS

A

mod

87
Q

1-3 would be considered (high/mod/low) on FAS

A

low

88
Q

fractures with ___(high/low) scores generally heal successfully with few complications

A

high

89
Q

fractures at the (lower/higher) and of the scale potentially are less successful with more complications

A

lower

Surgery I (10 decks)

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