Lec 25: Principles of Ortho Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

veterinarians should be aware of their limitations in surgery and ____ complicated cases when necessary

A

refer

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2
Q

bone transplanted from one animal to another of the same species is called a ___graft.

A

allo

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3
Q

procedures to enhance surgical exposure of a joint are called _____ osteotomies.

A

apophyseal

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4
Q

bone transplanted from one site to another in the SAME animal is called ___graft.

A

auto

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5
Q

when the insertion point of a tendon or ligament is fractured and distracted from the rest of the bone, this is called an ____ fracture.

A

avulsion

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6
Q

a span comminuted fracture is called

A

bridging plates

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7
Q

____ wire is an orthopedic wire placed around the circumference of bone to compress an oblique fracture.

A

cerclage

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8
Q

a _____ reduction is a fractured bone alignment performed without surgical exposure.

A

closed

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9
Q

_____ plates act to compress the fracture.

A

compression

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10
Q

the diaphysis or metaphysis of a bone is cut, realigned and stabilized until union occurs, this is called a _____ osteotomy, and it is an elective procedure.

A

corrective

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11
Q

____ ____ is an abnormal movement of the stifle joint elicited during physical examination, and is caused by the tibia sliding cranially in relationship to the femur.

A

cranial drawer

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12
Q

when we have a cranial drawer, this means that the ____ cruciate ligament is deficient in the stifle.

A

deficient

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13
Q

______ is a “grating feel” or sound when manipulating a fractured bone or arthritic joint.

A

crepitation

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14
Q

____ unions are fractures that heal more slowly than anticipated.

A

delayed

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15
Q

_____ bone union is when the bone formed without evidence of callus

A

direct

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16
Q

________ formation, is when the bone forms on the cartilaginous precursor.

A

endochondral

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17
Q

external _____ is when we fix a fracture with casts or splints.

A

coaptation

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18
Q

external _____ is when we fix a fracture with pins that penetrate the bone and skin, and are connected externally.

A

fixation

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19
Q

a _____ fracture is an incomplete fracture where the portion of the cortex is intact.

A

greenstick

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20
Q

this type of wire is placed through predrilled holes in the bone: _______-

A

hemicerclage wire or interfragmentary wire

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21
Q

the process of restoring fragment and limb alignment by distracting major bone segments by using the animal’s weight is called _____ reduction.

A

indirect

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22
Q

fracture fixation using internal implants to secure the bone is called _____ fixation

A

internal

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23
Q

________ pins are implants positioned in the medullary canal of long bones.

A

intramedullary pins

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24
Q

_______ bone formation is direct differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts, and the bone forms without a cartilagenous precursor.

A

intramembranous

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25
_____ is the complete dislocation of a joint.
luxation
26
a ___union is a healed fracture where the anatomic bone alignment was not achieved or maintained during healing.
mal
27
a ______ plate supports a reconstructed fracture.
neutralization
28
a ___union is a fracture with an arrested repair process which requires surgical intervention to created an environment conductive to bone healing.
non
29
a ______ placement is a pin which is started at one end of the bone and driven into the fracture area, and then seated at the other end of the bone.
normograde
30
a ____ fracture is exposed to the external atmosphere.
open
31
an ____ (direct) reduction is a fracture repair that is performed after surgical approach to bone.
open
32
_____ maneuver is manipulation used to subluxate a dysplastic hip.
ortolani
33
an ______ is the removal of a segment of bone.
ostectomy
34
______ is an inflammatory condition of the bone and medullary canal.
osteomyelitis
35
_______ is a procedure where bone is cut into two segments
osteotomy
36
the cranial bowing of a bone is called ______.
procurvatum
37
______ is partial dislocation of a joint
subluxation
38
_____ deformity is the angulation of a distal portion of the limb laterally
valgus
39
_____ deformity is the angulation of the distal portion of the limb medially
varus
40
the goal for treating a fracture, nonunion or bone deformities is always bone ______, and the patient's return to ______ function.
union ; normal
41
surgical planning is important to avoid implant ___, ____ healing, _____, and ___union.
failure ; delayed ; infection ; nonunion
42
fracture _____ allows for accurate communication with owners and colleagues to aid in appropriate treatment planning.
classification
43
the ___ and ______ are evaluated accurately in order to classify the fracture
limb ; radiographs
44
Basis of Fracture Classification 1. Whether the fracture is ___ or ____ to the enviornment. 2. Degree of _____ and _______ of fragments. 3. ____ of fracture 4. Reducible or ______ 5. _____ of fracture.
1. open ; closed 2. damage ; displacement 3. type 4. nonreducible 5. location
45
whether or not the fracture fragments can be reconstructed to provide a load bearing
reducible or nonreducible
46
a ____ fracture: - occurs in immature animals - incomplete fracture where portion of the cortex is intact - partially stabilized bone - generally splintable
greenstick
47
a ____ fracture occurs when the fracture line is perpendicular to the long axis of bone.
transverse
48
a/an ____ fracture lines run at an angle to a line perpendicular to the long axis of the bone.
oblique
49
short oblique fractures are ___ degrees or less.
45
50
long oblique fractures are greater than ___ degrees to the perpendicular to long axis of the bone.
45
51
a/an ____ fracture is similar to long oblique fractures but wrap along the axis of the bone.
spiral
52
____ fractures have ONE fracture line.
single
53
______ fractures have MULTIPLE fracture lines
comminuted
54
comminuted fracture can range from having ___ piece fractures with butterfly fragment to highly comminuted fractures with ___ or more pieces.
3 ; 5
55
reducible or non reducible?
reducible
56
reducible or non reducible?
nonreducible
57
diaphyseal, metaphyseal, physeal, articular, are all ____ classfications of the fracture.
location
58
___-velocity forces create single fractures with little energy dissipated into soft tissue.
low
59
___-velocity forces create comminuted fractures with high energy dissipated through fracture propagation & surrounding soft tissue injury
high
60
open fractures are classified according to: 1. ____ of puncture 2. ____ of soft tissue injury
1. mechanism 2. severity
61
grade __ open fractures have a small puncture hole located in skin in the proximity of the fracture caused by bone penetrating to the outside. bone may or may not be visible in the wound.
I
62
grade __ open fractures have variably sized skin wounds associated with the fracture that resulted from EXTERNAL trauma. - there is more damage to soft tissue here than with grade I open fractures. - fracture is minimally or not comminuted
II
63
grade __ open fractures have severe bone fragmentation with extensive soft tissue injury, with or without skin loss. - usually high velocity comminuted fractures like ___ injuries, and ____ type injuries of the distal extremities.
III ; gunshot ; shearing
64
salter harris type __ fractures run through the physis
I
65
salter harris type __ fractures run through the physis & portion of the metaphysis
II
66
salter harris type __ fractures run through the physis & epiphysis and are generally articular
III
67
salter harris type __ fractures are articular running through the epiphysis, across the physis, and through the metaphysis
IV
68
salter harris type __ fractures are crushing injuries of the physis - not visible radiographically but become evident several weeks later when the physeal function ceases
V
69
salter harris type VI classification is used to describe ___ physeal closures from damage to a portion of the physis, which causes an asymmetric closure.
partial
70
what type of force acted on this fractured bone?
bending
71
what type of force acted this fractured bone?
torsion
72
what type of force acted on this fractured bone?
axial loading
73
what forces acted on this fractured bone?
axial compression and bending
74
what type of force acted on this fractured bone?
high energy
75
what data should we include in our fracture assessment score?
patient info, rads, client info
76
FAS reflects three factors: _____ factors _____ factors _____ factors
mechanical, biologic, clinical
77
the clinical factors include the environment where _____ must function, and owner ______.
implants ; compliance
78
mechanical, biological, clinical factors from FAS score guide the type of _____ chosen
implants
79
mechanical factors for patient assessment: conditions on the left: are ______ (reducible/non-reducible) and multiple limb injury - _____ stress on implant system which requires careful ____ choice and application
non-reducible ; maximum ; implant
80
mechanical factors for patient factor assessment: conditions on right - ___ (more/less) stress to implant system ____ risk of complications
LESS ; reduced
81
biologic factors determining FAS on the left: ___ (do/do not) favor rapid healing - implant system must function for _____ (prolonged/short) period.
DO NOT ; prolonged
82
biologic factors determining FAS on the right: ___ (do/do not) favor rapid healing - implant system must function for _____ (prolonged/short) period.
DO ; short
83
clinical factors determining patient FAS - clinical factors on the left require _______(comfortable/any) implant system - requires ____ (lots/little) postoperative maintenance
comfortable ; little
84
clinical factors determining patient FAS - clinical factors on the right require _______(comfortable/any) implant system
ANY ; regardless of post-op maintenance
85
8-10 would be considered (high/mod/low) on FAS
HIGH
86
4-7 would be considered (high/mod/low) on FAS
mod
87
1-3 would be considered (high/mod/low) on FAS
low
88
fractures with ___(high/low) scores generally heal successfully with few complications
high
89
fractures at the (lower/higher) and of the scale potentially are less successful with more complications
lower