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EPPP > Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy > Flashcards

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

learning

A

a relatively permanent change in behavior (or the capacity for behavior) due to experience

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2
Q

conditioning

A

creation of associations between environmental stimuli and the individual’s responses to those stimuli

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3
Q

classical conditioning

A

type of learning in which a stimulus acquires the ability to elicit the response that is naturally elicited by another stimulus;
useful for understanding how reflexive (automatic) responses to stimuli develop

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4
Q

operant conditioning

A

type of learning in which responses become controlled by their consequences;
useful for understanding how non-reflexive and more complex behaviors are acquired

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5
Q

unconditioned stimulus (US)

A

naturally produces the target response;
produces the response without conditioning trials

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6
Q

unconditioned response (UR)

A

response naturally produced by the unconditioned stimulus

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7
Q

conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

does not naturally produce the target response;
previously neutral stimulus that eventually triggers a learned (conditioned) response

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8
Q

conditioning trials

A

the CS is repeatedly presented with the US

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9
Q

conditioned response (CR)

A

the learned or acquired response to a conditioned stimulus

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10
Q

3 stages of Pavlov

A

Stage 1: food (US) presented alone produces salivation (UR) ringing bell (neutral stimulus) presented alone does not produce salivation
Stage 2: ringing bell (CS) and food (US) presented together produce salivation (UR)
Stage 3: ringing bell (CS) presented alone produces salivation (CR)

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11
Q

Factors That Affect the Effectiveness of Classical Conditioning

A

1) Number of Conditioning Trials: greater the number of conditioning trials (CS paired with US), the stronger the CR
2) Order and Timing of Presentation: CS and US must be presented in a way that ensures that they become associated - delay conditioning - optimal time interval between presentation of the CS and the US is usually 0.5 sec

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12
Q

delay conditioning

A

presentation of the CS precedes and overlaps presentation of the US;
optimal time interval between presentation of the CS and the US is usually 0.5 seconds

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13
Q

trace conditioning

A

CS is presented and terminated prior to presentation of the US

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14
Q

simultaneous conditioning

A

CS and US are presented at the same time

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15
Q

classical extinction

A

CS is presented repeatedly without the US, and the CR gradually disappears

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16
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

a CR that had supposedly been extinguished would sometimes suddenly return;
extinction trials don’t eliminate a CR but, instead, weaken or inhibit it

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17
Q

stimulus generalization

A

occurs when, following conditioning trials, stimuli similar to the CS elicit a CR

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18
Q

stimulus discrimination

A

the ability to discriminate between a CS and stimuli similar to the CS and respond only to the CS with a CR;

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19
Q

discrimination trials

A

repeatedly presenting the CS with the US and stimuli similar to the CS without the US

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20
Q

experimental neurosis

A

pathological condition induced in an animal during conditioning experiments requiring discriminations between nearly indistinguishable stimuli

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21
Q

higher-order conditioning

A

a conditioned response to a neutral stimulus can be established without pairing the neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus;
form of learning in which a stimulus is first made meaningful or consequential for an organism through an initial step of learning, and then that stimulus is used as a basis for learning about some new stimulus

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22
Q

blocking effect

A

didn’t attend to second paired CS during conditioning trials because it did not provide additional information about the US and, consequently, an association didn’t develop

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23
Q

Techniques Based on Classical Extinction

A

EXRP and implosive therapy;
CS-US pairing results in fear - can be extinguished by CS w/o US

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24
Q

exposure with response prevention (ERP)

A

exposing the individual to the fear- or anxiety-arousing stimulus while preventing him or her from engaging in the usual avoidance response

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25
Q

flooding

A

beginning exposure with stimuli that produce maximal fear or anxiety

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26
Q

graduated exposure

A

gradually progressing from stimuli that produce less anxiety to stimuli that produce more anxiety;
reduces the risk of paradoxically increasing a person’s anxiety

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27
Q

ERP study findings

A

1) exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli and prevention of the usual avoidance response both contribute to the effectiveness of treatment
2) prolonged exposure is more effective than brief exposure, which can sensitize the person to the stimulus and increase anxiety
3) group exposure is at least as effective as individual exposure and has the advantage of being more efficient
4) exposure conducted as a self-help program and as a partner-assisted procedure have both been found to be effective for the treatment of Agoraphobia
5) virtual reality (computer-generated) exposure overcomes some of the limitations of in vivo exposure and is as effective as in vivo exposure for flying and height phobias
6) interoceptive exposure (exposes individual to physical sensations that are associated with fear and anxiety) is effective for panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders

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28
Q

implosive therapy (Stampfl and Levis, 1967)

A

type of exposure in imagination in which the therapist exaggerates the scenes being imagined by the client so they elicit maximum anxiety and embellishes the scenes with psychodynamic themes that are believed to be the source of the client’s anxiety (e.g., hostility toward parental figures, sexual or aggressive impulses)

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29
Q

Techniques Based on Counterconditioning

A

systematic desensitization and behavioral sex therapy;
pair fear (CS) with presentation of an activity or stimulus (US) that naturally produces an incompatible response so that anxiety or fear is replaced by the incompatible response

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30
Q

systematic desensitization (Wolpe, 1958)

A

1) Training in Relaxation: taught to use progressive relaxation or other relaxation technique.
2) Construction of an Anxiety Hierarchy: client and therapist develop an anxiety hierarchy that contains 10 to 20 stimuli associated with the phobic response, beginning with the least anxiety-arousing stimulus and ending with the most anxiety-arousing stimulus.
3) Desensitization: client works through the hierarchy by pairing relaxation with each anxiety-arousing stimulus, starting with the stimulus that is least anxiety-arousing.

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31
Q

progressive relaxation

A

alternately tensing and relaxing different muscles, beginning with the face and ending with the toes

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32
Q

SUDS

A

subjective units of distress scale;
client rates each anxiety-arousing stimulus on a scale from 0 (absence of anxiety) to 100 (highest level of anxiety the client can imagine)

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33
Q

desensitization session steps

A

1) therapist instructs client to use the relaxation technique;
2) once client feels relaxed, therapist instructs client to imagine the anxiety-arousing stimulus as vividly as possible and to signal when feels anxious;
3) therapist instructs client to use the relaxation technique;
4) when client can imagine an anxiety-arousing stimulus without experiencing anxiety, moves on to the next stimulus in the hierarchy;
5) procedure repeated until the client can imagine the most anxiety-arousing stimulus without experiencing anxiety

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34
Q

dismantling strategy

A

involves comparing the effectiveness of the various components of a treatment

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35
Q

reciprocal inhibition (AKA desensitization)

A

involves inhibiting anxiety by substituting a reciprocal (incompatible) response;
incompatible responses involved in systematic desensitization are controlled by the autonomic nervous system – anxiety by the sympathetic nervous system while relaxation by the parasympathetic nervous system

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36
Q

sex therapy

A

incorporate counterconditioning and other behavioral techniques;
sensate focus: pairing activities associated with performance anxiety with activities that promote pleasurable physical sensations and relaxation. involves giving partners homework assignments that gradually progress from nongenital touching to genital pleasuring and, finally, to sexual intercourse

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37
Q

Techniques Based on Aversive Counterconditioning

A

in vivo aversive counterconditioning and covert sensitization;
used to treat substance abuse, paraphilias, and self-injurious behaviors

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38
Q

in vivo aversive counterconditioning

A

undesirable behavior or stimuli associated with the behavior are paired with a stimulus that naturally elicits pain, nausea, or other unpleasant reaction so that the undesirable behavior or associated stimuli produce the unpleasant reaction and are, therefore, avoided

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39
Q

research on aversive counterconditioning

A

effects are often short-term but can be extended when the individual returns for occasional “booster sessions” in which the target behavior is again paired with the aversive stimulus and when aversive counterconditioning is combined with other treatments

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40
Q

covert sensitization

A

conducted in imagination and may include alternating scenes in which the client engages in the target behavior with scenes in which the client engages in an alternative behavior;
therapist instructs client to imagine lighting up a cigarette and putting cigarette in mouth; when the client signals has a clear image, therapist instructs client to imagine feeling nauseous, stomach cramps, throwing up. therapist then instructs client to imagine throwing pack of cigarettes away and imagine feeling better

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41
Q

Edward Thorndike

A

investigated learning by observing cats in a puzzle box that allowed them to escape and obtain food by performing a simple act (pressing a lever, pulling a string);
cats engaged in various unproductive activities when placed in the box before they performed the response that allowed them to escape;
once cats made the correct response, they made that response sooner and sooner after being placed in the box

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42
Q

Thorndike “trial-and-error” learning

A

formation of connections that developed between responses and their consequences

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43
Q

law of effect

A

responses that are followed by a satisfying consequence are more likely to be repeated in the future, while responses that are followed by an unsatisfying consequence are less likely to be repeated

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44
Q

law of exercise

A

repeated practice (exercise) strengthens the connection between a response and its consequence

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45
Q

law of readiness

A

an organism must be ready (motivated) to act in order to form a connection between a response and its consequence

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46
Q

operant behavior

A

behaviors that operate on the environment to generate consequences;
voluntarily emitted (or not emitted) as the result of their consequences

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47
Q

respondent behavior

A

as the result of classical conditioning, are elicited by an antecedent stimulus

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48
Q

reinforcement

A

occurs when the stimulus that follows a behavior increases the likelihood that the behavior will recur;
stimulus (reinforcer);
positive reinforcer is applied following the behavior, while a negative reinforcer is removed following the behavior

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49
Q

punishment

A

occurs when the stimulus that follows a behavior decreases the likelihood that the behavior will recur;
stimulus (punisher);
positive punisher is applied following the behavior, while a negative punisher is removed following the behavior

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50
Q

Skinner box

A

contained equipment that allowed an animal to press a lever, peck a key, or perform another behavior and receive reinforcement, and it was connected to a cumulative recorder that provided information on the operant strength of the animal’s behavior (rate of the animal’s responding during acquisition trials when reinforcement was delivered following the target response and during extinction trials when reinforcement was no longer provided)

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51
Q

operant extinction

A

occurs when reinforcement is withheld from a previously reinforced behavior and, as a result, the behavior decreases or is eliminated

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52
Q

response burst

A

temporary increase in the behavior before it begins to decrease;
occurs during termination of reinforcement

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53
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

after a behavior has been extinguished, it may reappear after a period of time

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54
Q

behavioral contrast

A

when two different behaviors have been reinforced separately and reinforcement is withdrawn from one of the behaviors, there is often a temporary increase in the other behavior

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55
Q

primary reinforcers

A

inherently valuable;
their reinforcing value is not the result of prior experience;
food, water, shelter, contact comfort, sexual pleasure

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56
Q

secondary reinforcers

A

acquire their reinforcing value by being linked to a primary reinforcer

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57
Q

generalized secondary reinforcer

A

when a secondary reinforcer is linked to multiple primary and/or secondary reinforcers (e.g., money)

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58
Q

continuous schedule

A

when a behavior is reinforced every time it occurs;
rat receives a food pellet each time it presses a lever

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59
Q

continuous schedule pros and cons

A

pro: produces the quickest acquisition of a response;
cons: susceptible to satiation (reinforcer may eventually lose its reinforcing value);
associated with rapid extinction when reinforcement is no longer provided;
most effective strategy is to use a continuous schedule to establish a behavior at the desired level and then switch to an intermittent (partial) schedule

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60
Q

intermittent (partial) schedule

A

reinforcing the behavior some of the time; less susceptible to satiation and extinction

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61
Q

thinning the schedule

A

process of reducing the amount of reinforcement

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62
Q

fixed ratio (FR) schedule

A

reinforcement is provided after a fixed number of responses;
rat on an FR-10 schedule has to press the lever 10 times before getting a food pellet, piecework

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63
Q

variable ratio (VR) schedule

A

reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses;
slot machines

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64
Q

fixed interval (FI) schedule

A

reinforcement is provided after a fixed period of time regardless of whether only one response is made or multiple responses are made during that period

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65
Q

variable interval (VI) schedule

A

reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable amount of time

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66
Q

intermittent schedules outcomes

A

1) variable ratio schedule produces the fastest and steadiest rate of responding during acquisition trials and the greatest resistance to extinction when reinforcement is no longer provided
2) fixed interval schedule produces a “scallop effect” which indicates that responding increases toward the end of each interval

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67
Q

matching law

A

when an organism is simultaneously provided with two or more opportunities for reinforcement, the rate of responding will be proportional to the relative rate of reinforcement

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68
Q

stimulus control

A

when an organism emits a particular response in the presence of one stimulus (Stimulus A) but not in the presence of another stimulus (Stimulus B)

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69
Q

discriminative stimulus (SD)

A

tells the person what behavior is going to get reinforced;
signals the availability of a particular reinforcer for a particular behavior

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70
Q

extinction or S-delta stimulus (SD)

A

stimulus in the presence of which the behavior is not reinforced

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71
Q

response generalization

A

occurs when a discriminative stimulus elicits similar responses

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72
Q

escape learning

A

when the organism learns to escape an undesirable stimulus by engaging in a particular behavior

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73
Q

avoidance learning

A

when the organism learns to avoid an undesirable stimulus by engaging in a particular behavior in response to a cue that signals that the undesirable stimulus is about to be delivered

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74
Q

factors that impact effectiveness of reinforcement techniques

A

1) positive reinforcement is most effective when the reinforcer is available only after the target behavior has been performed
2) The shorter the interval between performance of the behavior and delivery of the reinforcer, the more effective the reinforcement
3) Reinforcement is most effective when the behavior is reinforced on a continuous schedule until it is well-established and is then reinforced on an intermittent schedule
4) Reinforcement is most successful when verbal, gestural, and/or physical prompts are provided to establish the behavior and are then gradually removed (faded) once the behavior is being performed at the desired level

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75
Q

shaping

A

successive approximation conditioning;
when a behavior doesn’t exist in the individual’s current repertoire and involves reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to the desired behavior

76
Q

chaining

A

used to establish complex behaviors that consist of a sequence of responses that must be linked together to form a “behavioral chain”;
can be either forward (start by teaching the first response in the chain and then each subsequent response) or backward (teaching the last response in the chain and then each preceding response)

77
Q

differences in shaping and chaining

A

shaping: only the final behavior is important - once learned, it’s no longer necessary;
chaining: each response is important

78
Q

Premack Principle

A

uses a high-frequency behavior as reinforcement for a low-frequency behavior to increase the low-frequency behavior;
video games (high frequency) used as the reinforcer for completing homework (low frequency)

79
Q

differential reinforcement

A

combine extinction and positive reinforcement by removing reinforcement from the undesirable behavior and reinforcing desirable behaviors

80
Q

factors that impact effectiveness of punishment techniques

A

1) most effective when it is immediate (delivered just as the behavior begins) and applied consistently
2) most effective when it is moderate in terms of intensity. Punishment that is too intense can elicit undesirable behaviors such as avoidance or aggression, and punishment that begins at a mild intensity and then gradually increases in intensity can lead to habituation (loss of effectiveness).
3) effectiveness of punishment is increased when verbal clarification of the relationship between the punishment and the behavior is provided
4) For punishment to be effective, reinforcement for the target behavior must be consistently withheld
5) most effective when it is combined with reinforcement for an alternative behavior

81
Q

time-out

A

negative punishment b/c it involves the temporary loss of access to reinforcers that the individual would otherwise have access to

82
Q

what makes time-out most effective

A

duration is relatively brief; all opportunities for positive reinforcement are unavailable during the time-out; child is reminded at the beginning of the time-out of its reason and duration

83
Q

response cost

A

negative punishment that involves removing a specific reinforcer (valued item or privilege) each time the target behavior is performed to reduce or eliminate that behavior

84
Q

overcorrection

A

positive punishment and involves 2 phases:
restitution phase: individual corrects the consequences of the undesirable behavior;
positive practice phase: individual practices an alternative, more desirable behavior

85
Q

contingency contract

A

a written agreement between two or more people that identifies the behaviors to be modified and the consequences that will be contingent upon those behaviors

86
Q

effectiveness of contingency contracts

A

(a) specify the short- and long-term goals of the intervention;
(b) describe the target behaviors in observable and measurable terms;
(c) indicate the reinforcers for compliance with treatment goals and sanctions for noncompliance;
(d) specify the procedures for renegotiating and terminating the contract;
(e) be agreed upon and signed by all parties

87
Q

token economy

A

structured environment in which tokens are provided to an individual when he or she engages in desirable behaviors and removed when the individual engages in undesirable behaviors;
tokens act as generalized secondary reinforcers because they can be exchanged

88
Q

setting up a token economy

A

(a) specify the target behaviors;
(b) identify what will be used as tokens
(c) identify what back-up reinforcers will be available and the number of tokens needed to exchange for each back-up reinforcer;
(d) create a system for recording the delivery and removal of tokens;
(e) specify a plan for gradually reducing the use of tokens and replacing them with praise, privileges, and other reinforcers that will be available in the natural environment

89
Q

functional behavior assessment

A

determine the function of a problem behavior by identifying its antecedents and consequences;
develop a functional behavior plan which identifies interventions that target a more appropriate replacement behavior that serves the same function as the problem behavior

90
Q

Kohler’s Insight Learning

A

Sultan the chimp was placed in a cage that contained a box and had a banana hanging from the ceiling - jumping and reaching (failed) then paced back and forth for several minutes before moved the box beneath the banana;
Sultan placed in cage with 2 short sticks, a banana was placed on floor outside the cage - used each stick to reach (failed) then while holding the sticks, he suddenly got up, joined the sticks together, and used the longer stick to reach the banana;
Sultan had an “aha” experience – i.e., he experienced insight

91
Q

insight learning

A

due to a mental restructuring or reorganization of a problem that involves:
(a) learner perceives the situation as a whole;
(b) learner perceives and tries to understand the various elements of the situation;
(c) as a result, the learner is able to suddenly grasp the solution to the problem

92
Q

Tolman’s Latent Learning

A

learning and performance are distinct and that learning can occur without reinforcement;
3 rat groups in mazes for 17 days with different reward styles;
rats learned the layout of the maze without reinforcement

93
Q

Bandura’s Observational Learning

A

behaviors are acquired by observing and imitating the behavior of others

94
Q

4 mechanisms of observational learning

A

1) Attention: observer pays attention to and accurately perceives the model’s behavior and its consequences
2) Retention: observer creates a mental representation of the model’s behavior
3) Motor Reproduction: observer transforms the mental representation into overt behavior
4) Motivation: observer is motivated to perform the behavior

95
Q

participant modeling

A

having the individual observe the model perform the behavior and then perform the behavior him/herself with assistance from the model

96
Q

coping model

A

initially exhibits some fear but eventually overcomes his or her fear and is more effective than a mastery model who exhibits no fear from the start

97
Q

more on Bandura’s research

A

observers are more likely to imitate a model’s behavior when the model is similar to the observer (especially in terms of age and gender), is respected and perceived as being competent by the observer, and was reinforced for engaging in the behavior

98
Q

Multi-Store Model of memory

A

incoming information passes through 3 memory stores:
1) Sensory Memory: provides storage of a large amount of sensory information for a brief period of time (2/3 secs).
2) Short-Term Memory: When information in sensory memory becomes the focus of attention, it is transferred to STM which holds a limited amount of information that, without rehearsal, begins to fade within about 30 seconds.
3) Long-Term Memory: When information is sufficiently rehearsed, it is transferred to LTM - essentially unlimited in terms of capacity and that memories stored in LTM are permanent

99
Q

iconic memory

A

type of short-term sensory memory in which one can recall visual images for just a few milliseconds after the physical image has disappeared

100
Q

echoic memory

A

type of short-term sensory memory of auditory stimuli you just heard

101
Q

primary memory

A

storage component of short-term memory and refers to its capacity

102
Q

working memory

A

processing component and refers to the ability to mentally manipulate information in short-term memory (e.g., to solve a simple math problem “in your head”)

103
Q

chunking

A

grouping a large amount of information into five to nine chunks

104
Q

serial position effect

A

when subjects are shown a list of words and immediately asked to recall as many words as possible in any order, they recall words from the beginning and the end of the list best;
words in the middle of the list are affected by interference from words before and after them and, consequently, are not stored in either STM or LTM

105
Q

primacy effect

A

ability to recall words from the beginning of the list;
due to the fact that there was time for those words to be rehearsed and transferred to LTM

106
Q

recency effect

A

ability to recall words from the end of the list;
due to the fact that those words are still in STM

107
Q

Levels of Processing Model

A

emphasizes the effects of depth of processing on memory and distinguishes between three levels of processing – structural, phonemic, and semantic

108
Q

structural processing

A

shallowest level of memory and involves encoding the physical properties of a stimulus (e.g., the length of a word or whether it is printed in capital or lower-case letters)

109
Q

phonemic processing

A

somewhat less shallow memory and involves encoding the sound properties of a stimulus (e.g., what a word sounds like or rhymes with)

110
Q

semantic processing

A

deepest level of processing and involves encoding information in terms of its meaning;
leads to the greatest retention and recall of information

111
Q

Multicomponent Model of Working Memory

A

describes working memory as a memory system “that provides temporary storage and manipulation of the information necessary for such complex cognitive tasks as language comprehension, learning, and reasoning”

112
Q

4 components of Multicomponent Model of Working Memory

A

1) central executive: control center of working memory - directs attention to relevant aspects of a task and supervises and coordinates 3 “slave systems”;
2) phonological loop: processes and temporarily stores verbal information;
3) visuospatial sketchpad: processes and temporarily stores visual information;
4) episodic buffer: integrates verbal and visual information and is involved in the transfer of information to and from LTM

113
Q

procedural memories

A

retrieving information necessary to perform learned skills;
memories involved in “knowing how”;
how to ride a bike, how to tie your shoes

114
Q

declarative memories

A

ability to store and retrieve both personal information (i.e., episodic memory - first date) and general knowledge (i.e., semantic memory - first US president)

115
Q

implicit memories

A

recalled automatically and without conscious awareness

116
Q

explicit memories

A

require deliberate and conscious effort to be recalled

117
Q

encoding specificity principle (Tulving & Thomson, 1973)

A

the more similar the learning and recall conditions, the easier it is to retrieve information from long-term memory

118
Q

context-specific memory

A

tendency to retrieve information more easily when recall occurs in the same environment (context) in which learning occurred

119
Q

state-dependent memory

A

tendency to retrieve information more easily when we’re in the same physical or psychological state during learning and recall

120
Q

Yerkes-Dodson law

A

predicts that there is an optimal level of arousal for performance on memory tasks;
the optimal level of arousal varies depending on the complexity of the task, with the optimal level being somewhat lower for more difficult tasks than for easier tasks

121
Q

relationship between arousal and performance

A

takes the shape of an inverted-U regardless of task difficulty;
for tasks of all difficulty levels, moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of performance, while lower and higher levels of arousal are associated with lower levels of performance

122
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

recall information acquired prior to the trauma but are unable to retain information they’re exposed to after the trauma

123
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

cannot recall information they acquired before the trauma but can retain information they’re exposed to after the trauma

124
Q

misinformation effect

A

distortions in memory about an event that are due to the incorporation of inaccurate or misleading information about the event that was acquired after it occurred

125
Q

Loftus and Palmer (1974)

A

subjects view a filmed car accident then immediately questioned each subject about what they witnessed;
subjects who were asked the question containing the word “smash” reported a significantly higher speed than those who were asked the question containing the word “hit”;
asked a week later if they saw any broken glass after the accident (there wasn’t) - subjects who asked about “smash” were more likely to say that there was broken glass;
altering only one or two words in a question about an event can significantly alter a person’s memory of that event

126
Q

maintenance rehearsal

A

involves simply repeating information and is most useful for maintaining information in STM

127
Q

elaborative rehearsal

A

involves making information meaningful (forming an association between the new information and information that is already in LTM, organizing new information into categories, creating a summary of the information in your own words);
useful for ensuring that information is transferred from short- to long-term memory

128
Q

mnemonic devices

A

verbal and visual techniques for enhancing memory

129
Q

verbal mnemonics

A

acronyms (word that is formed from the first letter of each item in the list) and acrostics (phrase or sentence in which each word begins with the first letter of an item in the list), which are useful for memorizing lists

130
Q

visual mnemonics

A

the method of loci: imagining walking through a familiar room or other location and visually associating each item in the list with a different place or object in that location;
keyword method: forming a visual image that represents both items

131
Q

Ebbinghaus theory of forgetting

A

forgetting exhibits a predictable “forgetting curve” that involves a steep loss of retention during the first several hours after learning the information with a leveling off of the curve after that

132
Q

decay theory

A

memory involves a physiological change in the brain (i.e., the formation of a memory trace) that decays over time if the memory is not accessed

133
Q

Jenkins and Dallenbach (1924)

A

subjects memorized a list of nonsense syllables then tested their memory 1, 2, 4, or 8 hours later;
between learning and recall, some subjects slept while others stayed awake and kept busy with other activities;
decay theory predicts that subjects in the sleep and awake groups would recall a similar number of syllables because they experienced the same interval of time between learning and recall; however, subjects who slept recalled more syllables

134
Q

interference theory

A

forgetting occurs when the ability to recall particular information is affected by information that was learned before or after that information

135
Q

proactive interference

A

“forward effect”;
occurs when previously acquired, similar information interferes with the ability to recall more recently acquired information;
recently moved and, when someone asks you for your current street address, you state your old address

136
Q

retroactive interference

A

“backwards effect”;
occurs when newly acquired, similar information interferes with your ability to recall previously acquired information;
learned Spanish in school and now studying French and someone asks you for the Spanish word for dog but you can only remember the French word

137
Q

forgetting

A

result of an inability to access information that is stored in LTM due to a lack of retrieval cues

138
Q

tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) phenomenon

A

we believe we know something but are unable to recall it without being provided with a cue

139
Q

attention

A

cognitive process that allows us to selectively attend to environmental and internal stimuli

140
Q

sustained attention

A

ability to direct and focus cognitive activity on a specific stimulus over an extended period of time

141
Q

divided attention

A

ability to focus attention on more than one stimulus simultaneously

142
Q

selective attention

A

focusing on one stimulus while filtering out or ignoring irrelevant stimuli

143
Q

Treisman’s (1998) feature integration theory (FIT)

A

processing of a visual stimulus involves 2 distinct stages:
1) detection of features (pre-attention) stage: occurs rapidly and automatically and involves parallel processing (simultaneous processing of the basic features of the stimulus - shape, color, orientation);
2) integration of features (attention) stage: the features of a stimulus are processed serially (one at a time) and more slowly - requires focused visual attention and results in perception of the stimulus as an integrated whole

144
Q

Broadbent’s (1958) filter theory

A

when 2+ sensory stimuli are presented simultaneously, they are maintained in a sensory buffer for a brief time;
1 of the stimuli is allowed to pass through a selective filter on the basis of its prominent physical characteristics, while the other stimuli remain in the buffer and are either processed later or lost;
stimulus that passes through the selective filter then enters STM where it is analyzed for its semantic content (meaning) and enters conscious awareness;
purpose of the filter is to prevent overload of STM and other information processing systems

145
Q

dichotic listening task

A

subjects listen to different auditory stimuli that are delivered to each ear simultaneously and to then repeat what they just heard

146
Q

metacognition

A

a person’s awareness about his or her own cognitive state and processes;
involves things like evaluating one’s own cognitive skills, using strategies to increase the efficiency of memory or learning, the ability to determine how much knowledge you have and how much you need, etc.

147
Q

Rescorla-Wagner model of learning

A

learning depends on the surprisingness of the US;
when the occurrence of the US is surprising - a larger amount of conditioning occurs;
if the occurrence of the US is less surprising - a relatively smaller amount of conditioning occurs

148
Q

functional value

A

a behavior has functional value when the person anticipates that performing it will result in desirable consequences (i.e., when the behavior serves a function)

149
Q

backwards conditioning

A

when the US is presented before the CS

150
Q

self-referencing

A

concept that involves referring to oneself or one’s own attributes, characteristics, or actions

151
Q

first wave of behavior therapy

A

traditional behavior therapy, which employs the learning principle of conditioning to replace harmful behaviors with constructive ones

152
Q

second wave of behavior therapy

A

cognitive therapy, is used to change the thoughts that cause and perpetuate problem behaviors

153
Q

third wave of behavior therapy

A

emphasizes the broad constructs of values, spirituality, relationships, and mindfulness. Traditionally non-clinical treatment techniques such as acceptance, mindfulness, cognitive defusion, dialectics, values, spirituality, and relationship development are being explored and the definition, causes and diagnosis of psychological problems and treatment goals of psychotherapy are re-examined

154
Q

eidetic imagery

A

photographic memory

155
Q

crystallized abilities

A

abilities such as vocabulary and cultural knowledge, that are a function of learning and experience in a given culture;
believed to depend on physiological condition somewhat less than do fluid abilities; thus they may be better sustained in old age;
believed by some to derive from fluid abilities

156
Q

massed practice or study (“cramming”)

A

studying in sessions of relatively long duration separated by short time intervals;
material tends to be quickly forgotten after the test is taken;
results in faster learning of material

157
Q

distributed practice

A

studying over a longer period of time, in sessions separated by relatively greater time periods;
associated with better long-term retention of the study material;
less overall time spent studying is needed to learn the same amount of material than would be required with massed learning

158
Q

automaticity

A

ability to chunk or to move information between working memory and long-term so rapidly and efficiently that the processes entails virtually no attention on the part of the individual;
developed through overlearning which minimizes cognitive load in working memory and allows for higher order processing of information

159
Q

exogenous attention

A

automatic attraction of attention, due to, among others, the sudden appearance of a stimulus;
bottom-up process, controlled by external stimulus presentation, and not under subjects’ control

160
Q

endogenous attention

A

typical top-down, attentional effort under control of the individual, for example, when attention is being focused on the basis of instructions

161
Q

covert modeling

A

technique that entails imagining another person engaging in a variety of alternative behaviors and performing the desired behaviors successfully;
enables a person to identify, refine, and practice in his/her mind the necessary steps for completing a desired behavior

161
Q

thought stopping

A

designed to interrupt the seemingly automatic chain of cognitions that are cues to acting impulsively or compulsively or lead to unwanted behavior such as through self-applying an aversive technique

162
Q

cue deflation effect

A

happens when the extinction of a response to one cue leads to an increased reaction to the other conditioned stimulus (CS)

163
Q

response deprivation theory (Timberlake and Allison)

A

when an animal’s normal response rate (e.g., eating food) is restricted (e.g., by food deprivation), that behavior becomes more preferred and therefore reinforcing

164
Q

probability-differential theory

A

Premack Principle;
an activity will have reinforcing properties when its probability of occurrence is greater than that of the behavior it is intended to reinforce

165
Q

maximizing law

A

animal will respond in a manner to achieve the maximum rate/number of rewards possible

166
Q

semantic memory

A

memory for the rules of logic and inference, as well as knowledge about language (e.g., what words mean and how they are used)

167
Q

functional amnesia

A

condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives (autobiographical information)

168
Q

Hopelessness Theory of Depression (HTD)

A

individuals with a depressogenic attribution style are more vulnerable to depression that others;
involves making internal, stable, and global attributions for, or causal explanations of, negative events, as opposed to external, unstable, and specific attributions

169
Q

reciprocal determinism (Bandura, 1986)

A

a person’s behavior both influences and is influenced by personal factors and the social environment;
relationship between personal factors or cognitions, behavior and the environment take turns influencing or being influenced by each other. As in this case, not only does the environment influence thoughts and thoughts impact actions but also actions effect the environment

170
Q

impulsive aggression

A

emotion-driven aggression produced in reaction to situations in the “heat of the moment”

171
Q

instinctual drift

A

tendency for learned behavior to drift toward instinctual behavior over time

172
Q

cognitive dissonance theory

A

a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other

173
Q

overlearning

A

practicing or rehearsing beyond the level of mastery;
most effective for simple tasks that must be remembered for a long period of time

174
Q

Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training

A

first stage is referred to as the conceptualization, education, or cognitive phase;
second stage is referred to as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase;
third phase is referred to as the application or application and follow-through phase

175
Q

spaced practice

A

study sessions which are distributed over time;
generally more effective for retention than massed practice

176
Q

reinforced practice

A

practicing approaching and confronting a feared situation or object, to make confronting it easier;
unlike exposure, reinforced practice rewards the child when he/she does so.

177
Q

Family Anxiety Management (FAM)

A

teaches parents to reward the child for confronting his/her feared situation or object, and ignore excessive complaining when confronted with his/her feared situation or object

178
Q

Seligman’s theory of learned optimism

A

attributions of optimistic people are believed to be the opposite of attributions of depressed people;
optimistic people would tend to make external, unstable, and specific attributions in response to negative event

179
Q

mediated generalization

A

special case of the facilitation of performance through mediated transfer;
term “mediated” means that the picture has never been paired with the original source of anxiety (the accident). Therefore, in order for the picture to cause anxiety, some cognitive mediation must be taking place

180
Q

transfer of training

A

similarities in the learning and performance environments (“identical elements”) resulted in better transfer

181
Q

habituation

A

a progressive decrease in the magnitude of the UR due to repeated exposure to the US;
often used to study infant perception

182
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

Wolpe’s systematic desensitization

183
Q

tension-reduction hypothesis

A

alcohol consumption reduces stress, which reinforces alcohol use, resulting in a greater likelihood of alcohol consumption in times of stress

184
Q

encoding specificity principle

A

recall for information or memory is improved when information available at encoding is also available at retrieval

185
Q

classical vs. operant

A

classical conditioning is associated with the acquisition of involuntary responses;
operant conditioning is associated with voluntary responses

186
Q

stimulus generalization vs. higher order conditioning

A

stimulus generalization: tendency to respond to a new stimulus as if it’s the original conditioned stimulus;
higher order conditioning: a neutral stimulus comes to act as a conditioned stimulus by being paired with another stimulus that already evokes a conditioned response

EPPP (11 decks)

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