IO

Question 1

personnel psychology

Answer 1

concerned with theory and applications related to evaluating, selecting, and training workers

Question 2

organizational psychology

Answer 2

focuses on individual and group processes within organizations and is concerned with the factors that affect such outcomes as job satisfaction, motivation, work effectiveness, and quality of work life

Question 3

engineering psychology

Answer 3

deals with the relationships between workers and the work context (AKA human factors psychology and ergonomics)

Question 4

job-oriented techniques

Answer 4

focus on the task requirements of the job (e.g., lifting, repairing, installing)

Question 5

worker-oriented techniques

Answer 5

identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and personal characteristics that are required for successful job performance (e.g., high school education, manual dexterity, 20/20 vision, adaptability)

Question 6

objective measures

Answer 6

direct, quantitative measures of performance;
cons: don’t measure motivation or ability to cooperate, limited by situational factors (e.g., equipment difficulties, number of coworkers, the economy), not useful for evaluating performance in complex jobs

Question 7

subjective measures

Answer 7

rely on the judgment of a rater;
useful for assessing complex, less concrete aspects of job performance (motivation);
cons: raters not motivated to provide accurate ratings, don’t understand the rating scale, rater biases

Question 8

“360-degree” performance measures

Answer 8

incorporate ratings from multiple raters such as supervisors, supervisees, peers, subordinates, and customers

Question 9

personnel comparison systems (PCS)

Answer 9

involve rating an employee by comparing him/her to other employees in a rank-ordered system, from best to worst;
pro: reduce the effects of certain rater biases (central tendency, leniency, strictness)

Question 10

critical incidents

Answer 10

descriptions of specific job behaviors that are associated with very good and very poor performance

Question 11

halo effect

Answer 11

tendency to judge all aspects of a person’s behavior on the basis of a single attribute or characteristic

Question 12

central tendency bias

Answer 12

tendency to assign average ratings to all ratees

Question 13

leniency bias

Answer 13

tendency to give all ratees positive ratings

Question 14

strictness bias

Answer 14

tendency to assign negative ratings to all ratees

Question 15

contrast effect

Answer 15

tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees

Question 16

frame-of-reference training

Answer 16

help raters recognize the multidimensional nature of job performance and to ensure that different raters have the same conceptualizations of job performance

Question 17

average validity coefficient for job knowledge tests

Answer 17

.62

Question 18

criterion contamination

Answer 18

when a rater’s knowledge of a person’s performance on a selection instrument (e.g., performance in the assessment center) affects how the rater evaluates the person’s performance once he or she is on the job

Question 19

big 5 personalities

Answer 19

extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability, and conscientiousness

Question 20

average validity coefficient of cognitive ability tests when used to:
predict performance ratings;
predict performance on a work sample

Answer 20

.51
.75

Question 21

adverse impact

Answer 21

a substantially different rate of selection for different groups that are defined on the basis of gender, race/ethnicity, age, etc

Question 22

80 percent (4/5ths) rule

Answer 22

adverse impact is occurring when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group

Question 23

bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)

Answer 23

there is a valid reason for hiring a substantially larger proportion of a particular subgroup; if an employer can demonstrate that it is job-related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure

Question 24

unfairness

Answer 24

one group consistently scores lower than another group on a selection test, but both groups perform equally well on the job

Question 25

within group norming

Answer 25

converting raw scores to standard scores, percentile ranks, or other norm-referenced scores within each group and then using the same predetermined cutoff for both groups. When using this technique, members of different groups can obtain different raw scores on a test but the same norm-referenced score

Question 26

banding

Answer 26

treating scores within a given score range (or band) as equivalent

Question 27

incremental validity

Answer 27

usefulness of a selection test in terms of decision-making accuracy;
incremental Validity = Positive Hit Rate - Base Rate;
base rate = proportion of employees hired using current techniques who are successful

Question 28

utility analysis

Answer 28

assess the cost-effectiveness of a selection procedure;
dollar gain in job performance when using the selection procedure of interest as opposed to using a prior or alternative procedure

Question 29

compensatory technique

Answer 29

an applicant who gets a low score on one predictor can “make up for it” by doing very well on another predictor

Question 30

Kirkpatrick’s evaluation criteria levels

Answer 30

1) reaction criteria: participants’ response to the training or intervention
2) learning criteria: quantifiably measure what has been learned
3) behavior criteria: impact of the intervention on the individual’s behavior or performance
4) results criteria: measure the impact of training on the broader organizational goals and objectives
Phillips’ return on investment (ROI), is a “level 5” evaluation: calculate the ROI of an intervention or training

Question 31

Holland’s Personality & Environment Typology types

Answer 31

6 personality types are depicted in a hexagon so that those adjacent to each other are most similar (e.g., realistic and investigative), and those opposite each other are most dissimilar (e.g., realistic and social); RIASEC
1. realistic: prefers activities involving the manipulation of machinery or tools
2. investigative: analytical, curious, methodical, and precise
3. artistic: expressive, nonconforming, original, and introspective
4. social: enjoys working with others and avoids ordered, systematic activities which involve tools or machinery
5. enterprising: leans toward activities that entail manipulating others to attain organization goals or economic gain
6. conventional: enjoys systematic manipulation of data, filing records, or reproducing materials

Question 32

Roe’s Fields and Levels Theory

Answer 32

links children’s experiences with their parents to their later occupational choice and the level they achieve within that occupation

Question 33

personal authoritative reality

Answer 33

a thought, act, direction, or behavior that the individual feels is right for him or herself

Question 34

common reality

Answer 34

what “they” say you should do, for example, “if you don’t get a good education, you can’t get a good job.”

Question 35

circumscription

Answer 35

the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work

Question 36

compromise

Answer 36

the expansion of occupational preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences

Question 37

Krumboltz’s Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM)

Answer 37

career transitions result from learning experiences from planned and unplanned encounters with the people, institutions and events in each person’s particular environment

Question 38

Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology

Answer 38

all behaviors (including career choice) are a function of personality and the social environment

Question 39

Super’s Career and Life Development Theory

Answer 39

assumptions that career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of stages and that the tasks of each stage must be mastered in order for the individual to progress to the next stage

Question 40

Taylor’s Scientific Management

Answer 40

1) use scientific methods to determine the best way of doing a particular job
2) divide jobs into their most elementary components
3) use a piece-rate incentive system in which pay depends on output as a way to motivate workers

Question 41

Theory Z

Answer 41

consensual decision-making, slow promotion, holistic knowledge of the organization, individual responsibility, long-term employment, and a moderately specialized career path

Question 42

human relations approach

Answer 42

worker performance is affected primarily by social factors including attitudes toward supervisors and co-workers and informal work group norms

Question 43

total quality management (TQM)

Answer 43

1) Skill Variety: workers are cross-trained to increase their range of knowledge and skills; constant learning and development is required
2) Task Variety: workers work on a whole product or component of a product and see how their work fits into the “bigger picture”
3) Autonomy, Participation, and Empowerment: workers have a high degree of decision-making authority
4) Task Significance: contact and communication with external customers is part of the work process
5) Feedback: feedback comes directly from the work process (rather than from management)

Question 44

systems approach

Answer 44

emphasizes that an organization is an open system that receives input from both within and without; that changes in one part of the organization affect all other parts; and that the whole organization is an entity greater than the sum of its constituent parts

Question 45

autocratic leaders

Answer 45

make decisions alone and instruct subordinates what to do

Question 46

Democratic leaders

Answer 46

involve subordinates in the decision-making process

Question 47

laissez-fare leaders

Answer 47

allow subordinates to make decisions on their own with little guidance or help

Question 48

consideration leader

Answer 48

person-oriented and focus on the human relations aspects of supervision

Question 49

initiating structure leader

Answer 49

task-oriented and focus on setting goals, ensuring that subordinates follow rules, and clarifying subordinate and leader roles

Question 50

Theory X leader

Answer 50

beliefs that work is inherently distasteful; that most workers lack ambition and need to be directed; and that motivation is dominated by lower-level needs

Question 51

Theory Y leader

Answer 51

believe that, under the proper conditions, work is “as natural as play”; that most workers are self-directed, responsible, and ambitious; and that workers require freedom and autonomy

Question 52

Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory

Answer 52

High LPC leaders describe their least preferred co-worker in positive terms and are primarily relationship-oriented.
Low LPC leaders describe their least preferred co-worker negatively and are task and achievement-oriented

Question 53

House’s Path-Goal Theory of Leadership

Answer 53

predicts that subordinates’ satisfaction and motivation are maximized when they perceive that their leader is helping them achieve desired goals

Question 54

House’s 4 leadership styles

Answer 54

1) instrumental (directive) leaders: provide specific guidelines and establish clear rules and procedures.
2) supportive leaders: focus on establishing supportive relationships with subordinates.
3) participative leaders: include subordinates in decision-making.
4) achievement-oriented leaders: set challenging goals and encourage higher levels of performance

Question 55

Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model

Answer 55

the optimal style depends on the job maturity of subordinates, which is determined by the subordinate’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility
telling, selling, participating, delegating

Question 56

transformational leadership

Answer 56

influence and motivate subordinates by activating subordinates’ higher-order needs, appealing to higher ideals and values (e.g., justice and equality), encouraging subordinates to sacrifice self-interest for the sake of the organization, and clarifying what is needed to accomplish the change

Question 57

transactional leaders

Answer 57

focus more on stability than change and leadership is by contingent reinforcement in which the subordinates are motivated by the leaders’ use of rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments

Question 58

Vroom and Yetton’s Normative (Decision-Making) Model

Answer 58

AI (autocratic) leaders: don’t consult subordinates and make decisions on their own

AII (autocratic) leaders: obtain information from subordinates but make the final decision on their own

CI (consultative) leaders: discuss problems with each subordinate individually but make the final decision on their own

CII (consultative) leaders: discuss problems with subordinates as a group but make the final decision on their own

GII (group decision) leaders: discuss problems with subordinates as a group and reach a group decision through discussion and consensus

Question 59

Leader Member Exchange (LMX) Theory

Answer 59

conceptualizes leadership as a process that is centered on the interactions between leaders and members, with the dyadic relationship between them being the focal point;
emphasizes that not all members of an organization achieve the same quality of relationship with leaders and explains how relationships with various members can develop;
in-group vs. out-group;
encourages leaders to become aware of their attitudes toward members

Question 60

7 phases of organizational development (OD)

Answer 60

entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning, intervention, and evaluation (ECDFPIE)

Question 61

quality circles (QCs)

Answer 61

small groups of workers from the same department or division who meet regularly to discuss how their work can be improved;
short-term improvements so workers should be assured that they won’t be penalized for making suggestions, and the QC should be supported by management

Question 62

process consultation

Answer 62

efforts to help team members understand and alter processes that are undermining their interactions

Question 63

empirical-rational strategies

Answer 63

based on the assumption that people are basically rational and, if they have all relevant information about a situation, will act in accord with their self-interest

Question 64

normative-reeducative strategies

Answer 64

based on the assumption that social norms underlie patterns of behavior in organizations

Question 65

power-coercive strategies

Answer 65

using rewards, punishment, or legitimate authority to coerce employees to comply with change

Question 66

goals-based program evaluation

Answer 66

measures how well a program is meeting objectives

Question 67

process-based program evaluation

Answer 67

analyzes the effectiveness of the systems and processes that are used to carry out the program’s objectives

Question 68

outcomes-based program evaluation

Answer 68

focuses on the results and benefits received by clients who participate in the program

Question 69

centralized communication network

Answer 69

all communication must pass through one person or one position;
more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple

Question 70

decentralized communication network

Answer 70

information flows more freely between individuals

Question 71

rational-economic model

Answer 71

AKA “maximizing”;
attempt to find the optimal solution by searching for all possible solutions and weighing alternatives until they make the decision that results in the greatest benefit for the organization

Question 72

administrative model

Answer 72

AKA “satisficing”;
evaluating solutions as they become available and selecting the first solution that is minimally acceptable

Question 73

Driver’s Decision-Making Styles

Answer 73

two key factors that determine an individual’s style of decision-making:
1) amount of information considered (analysis of the situation)
2) focus or number of alternative decisions identified (formulation of a solution)

Question 74

Driver, Brousseau, & Hunsaker’s 5 basic decision-making styles

Answer 74

1. decisive style: satisficing, uni-focus style (speed and efficiency)
2. flexible style: satisficing, multi-focus style
3. hierarchic: maximizing, uni-focus style
4. integrative style: maximizing, multi-focus style
5. systemic: maximizing style, that can be uni-focused or multi-focused

Question 75

loss aversion

Answer 75

tendency to be influenced more by potential losses than potential gains when making decisions

Question 76

prospect theory

Answer 76

people are adverse to loss (Tversky and Kahneman);
people are more willing to take a risk to avoid suffering any loss

Question 77

organizational justice

Answer 77

the degree to which employees believe they are being treated fairly

Question 78

distributive justice

Answer 78

the perceived fairness of outcomes such as hiring, performance appraisals, raise requests, or layoff decisions

Question 79

procedural justice

Answer 79

the perceived fairness of the process or procedure by which outcomes are allocated

Question 80

interactional justice

Answer 80

the perceptions of the interpersonal exchange between an individual and supervisor or third party

Question 81

informational justice

Answer 81

the amount of information or the appropriateness of the explanations provided about why procedures were used or outcomes were distributed in a certain way

Question 82

interpersonal justice

Answer 82

how an individual is treated by a supervisor or third party involved in executing procedures or determining outcomes

Question 83

organizational culture

Answer 83

the shared assumptions, values, norms and tangible signs of organization members taught to new members through formal statements and informal behaviors

Question 84

performance =

Answer 84

ability + motivation

Question 85

need theories of motivation

Answer 85

people are willing to exert effort when that effort will lead to fulfillment of certain deficiencies or needs

Question 86

Maslow’s 5 basic needs

Answer 86

1) physiological needs (water, food, etc.)
2) safety needs (security)
3) social needs (company of and acceptance by others)
4) esteem needs (recognition from others)
5) self-actualization needs (self-fulfillment)

Question 87

Alderfer’s ERG Theory

Answer 87

1) existence - physiological, safety
2) relatedness - social, esteem
3) growth - self-actualization

Question 88

McClelland’s Need for Achievement

Answer 88

people with a high need for achievement desire autonomy and personal responsibility, prefer moderately difficult goals, and seek recognition for their efforts;
highly motivated to put effort into their work and tend to stay on the job longer and perform better

Question 89

The Job Characteristics Model

Answer 89

1) Skill variety: The more skills required by a job, the more meaningful it is
2) Task identity: Jobs that constitute a whole piece of work are more meaningful than those that consist of some portion of the whole job
3) Task significance: Jobs that have clear importance to others are more meaningful than those that don’t
4) Autonomy: Jobs are more meaningful to the degree that they allow for worker independence, freedom, and decision-making authority
5) Feedback: Jobs providing built-in feedback are more meaningful than those that do not

Question 90

Goal-Setting Theory

Answer 90

the most important contribution to a worker’s willingness to work to achieve goals is conscious acceptance of and commitment to the goals by making challenging but attainable goals and receiving feedback

Question 91

Locke’s 2 purposes of goals

Answer 91

basis for motivation and they direct behavior

Question 92

Management by Objective (MBO)

Answer 92

having an employee and their superior agree to specific, measurable goals that the employee will accomplish during a specific time period

Question 93

equity theory

Answer 93

people assess both their inputs (contributions to the work situation) and their outcomes (the rewards they receive for their work) compared to that of other workers to see if it is equal (AKA equity) or unequal (AKA inequity);
employees are motivated to create equity

Question 94

outcome justice

Answer 94

the fairness of outcomes such as raises and promotions

Question 95

expectancy theory

Answer 95

1) the belief that effort will lead to successful performance (expectancy beliefs);
2) the belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes (instrumentality beliefs);
3) the desirability of those outcomes (valence)

Question 96

reinforcement theories of behavior

Answer 96

1) ppl keep doing things that have rewarding outcomes
2) ppl avoid doing things that have negative outcomes
3) ppl eventually stop doing things that don’t have rewarding outcomes

Question 97

personal characteristics related to job satisfaction

Answer 97

older age, higher level in the organization hierarchy, white

Question 98

the strongest predictor of job success

Answer 98

skill utilization

Question 99

organizational commitment

Answer 99

the extent to which a person identifies with an organization and is willing to work to help the organization achieve its goals

Question 100

Baltes and colleagues (1999) research on compressed work week (CWW)

Answer 100

positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule;
however, it was not found to have a strong impact on job performance or absenteeism

Question 101

causes of work stress

Answer 101

quantitative overload (too much work to do in the time available), qualitative overload (work that is too difficult), work underload (too little work to do or work that is too easy), having no control over one’s work or the work environment, violence, downsizing

Question 102

factors that can reduce the effects of job-related stress

Answer 102

high job satisfaction; high autonomy and power; social support; good physical health; and sufficient ability to perform the job

Question 103

those at high risk for burnout

Answer 103

women, single and divorced employees, people who have little opportunity for promotion, and professionals who deal frequently with other people

Question 104

performance evaluation

Answer 104

AKA performance appraisal or merit rating;
process of evaluating a person’s job performance;
determine whether an employee is entitled to a raise or bonus, provide employees with feedback about their performance, make decisions related to promotions, placement, transfers, or dismissals

Question 105

research on peer ratings

Answer 105

they are valid as predictors of job performance, particularly for predicting supervisor ratings, promotions, and training success

Question 106

paired comparison system

Answer 106

each employee is compared with every other employee on each job behavior;
the larger the number of employees, the more impractical this method is to use

Question 107

forced distribution system

Answer 107

rater categorizes employees into a predetermined distribution (e.g., the top 10%, the next 25%, the middle 30%, the next 25%, the bottom 10%)

Question 108

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)

Answer 108

employees are rated on several dimensions of job performance;
for each dimension (e.g., motivation, decision-making), a set of “behavioral anchors” (critical incidents) is created, with each anchor being tied to a numerical point on a Likert-type scale
pros: produces information that is useful for employee feedback, its format and development process may improve rating accuracy
cons: time-consuming to construct, specific to the particular job for which it was developed

Question 109

Behavioral-Observation Scales (BOS)

Answer 109

rater indicates how often the employee performs each critical incident (e.g., always, sometimes, never)

Question 110

Forced-Choice Checklists (FCCL)

Answer 110

presents the rater with a series of statements that have been grouped so that the statements in each group are similar in terms of social desirability and ability to distinguish between successful and unsuccessful job performance;
pros: reduce social desirability and other rater biases

Question 111

negative halo

Answer 111

negative overall impression of a person influences the perception of their specific traits or abilities;
opposite of halo effect

Question 112

best way to reduce bias

Answer 112

adequately train raters;
training is most effective when it focuses less on rating errors and more on accuracy - teaching raters to recognize the multiple contributors to good job performance and to evaluate behavior in an objective way

Question 113

most valid predictors of job performance across jobs and settings

Answer 113

cognitive ability tests;
validity increasing as the complexity of the job increases

Question 114

research on work samples

Answer 114

1) mean correlation between work sample tests and measures of job performance of .33;
2) work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills;
3) acceptable to applicants, less likely than other methods to unfairly discriminate against members of minority groups;
4) used as trainability tests (identify ppl who are likely to benefit from training)
5) part of a realistic job preview, which reduces turnover

Question 115

research on interviews

Answer 115

1) moderately accurate in predicting job performance - average validity coefficient is .37
2) validity depends on the content of the interview (situational, job-related, or psychological), the nature of the criterion (job performance, training performance) and how the interview is conducted (structured vs. unstructured; individual vs. panel)
3) situational interviews have higher validity than job-related interviews, which have higher validity than psychologically based interviews
4) structured interviews have higher predictive validity than unstructured interviews, and structured board interviews using consensus ratings are associated with the highest corrected validity

Question 116

Biographical Information (Biodata)

Answer 116

ask for information about an applicant’s work history, education, and personal interests and skills;
only slightly less valid than cognitive ability for predicting job performance;
pros: particularly useful for predicting turnover, equally valid for members of different racial/ethnic groups;
cons: specific to the job and to the organization for which they were devised, lack face validity

Question 117

in-basket test

Answer 117

simulation exercises (work samples) seeing how a participant responds to the kinds of tasks (memos, reports, messages) that he or she would actually encounter on the job

Question 118

differential validity

Answer 118

the validity coefficients for two subgroups differ significantly

Question 119

ADA and illicit drug use

Answer 119

specifically excludes individuals who are “currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs” from protection under its provisions;
protect past substance abusers as long as they are participating in or have completed a supervised rehabilitation program and are not currently using drugs;
drug testing is not prohibited by the ADA

Question 120

multicollinearity

Answer 120

predictors are highly correlated;
several independent variables in a model are correlated

Question 121

multiple regression

Answer 121

used to estimate an applicant’s score on a criterion on the basis of his or her scores on two or more predictors;
compensatory technique

Question 122

multiple hurdle

Answer 122

applicants must also meet a minimum level of performance on multiple predictors in order to be selected;
predictors are administered one at a time, in a predetermined order, with each predictor being administered only if the applicant was successful on the previous one;
noncompensatory

Question 123

4 components of needs assessment

Answer 123

1) organization analysis: “Is training what the organization needs to solve its problems?”
2) task analysis: determining what knowledge, skills, and abilities are required to perform the job satisfactorily - yields a set of objectives that form the instructional goals
3) person analysis: determine if employees have deficits in the areas identified by the task analysis
4) demographic analysis: determine the training needs of employees from different groups (i.e., younger vs. older employees)

Question 124

pros and cons of on-the-job training

Answer 124

pros: job rotation, no training facility or trainers,
cons: carelessly planned, poorly implemented, danger that production rates will be slowed and that accident rates will increase, current workers may not make the best trainers

Question 125

vestibule training

Answer 125

providing training in a physical replication or simulation of the actual work environment and conditions

Question 126

Programmed instruction

Answer 126

presents information that has been broken down into logical, organized sequences;
not effective for teaching many complex skills, but it is useful for teaching content knowledge

Question 127

Super’s Career and Life Development Theory 5 stages

Answer 127

1) Growth (Birth - 15 years): begin to develop capacities, attitudes, interests, and needs associated with the vocational self-concept
2) Exploration (15-24 years): career choices are narrowed but not finalized
3) Establishment (25-44 years): effort is made to establish a permanent place in the chosen occupational field
4) Maintenance (45-64 years): continuation of the person’s established pattern
5) Decline (65+ years): a decline in work output and eventual retirement - finding non-vocational sources of satisfaction, modification of the self-concept

Question 128

career maturity

Answer 128

extent that a person has mastered the tasks related to his or her developmental stage (Super)

Question 129

life space

Answer 129

varied social roles adopted at different points during the life span (e.g., child, student, worker, spouse)

Question 130

Tiedeman and O’Hare’s Decision Making Model

Answer 130

career-related correlates to each of Erikson’s 8 psychosocial crisis resolutions over a lifespan;
differentiation comes from realizing that an occupation is not “fitting” with a person’s personality - different choice would be considered, and action eventually taken

Question 131

Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman’s Decision Making Model

Answer 131

two kinds of reality (personal reality and common reality);
for individuals to enhance the development of their careers, they must be aware of the two realities

Question 132

Gottfredson’s Theory of Circumscription and Compromise

Answer 132

gender and prestige influence and limit career choice;
expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise

Question 133

Hersey and Blanchard’s 4 types

Answer 133

1) telling: ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low (high task orientation and low relationship orientation)
2) selling: low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility (high task orientation and high relationship orientation)
3) participating: high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility (low task orientation and high relationship orientation)
4) delegating: ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both high (low task and low relationship orientation)

Question 134

incentive theory

Answer 134

focus on incentives which motivate employees to be most productive;
orgs which rely on external, material rewards (e.g., salary, fringe benefits) are viewed as being the most flexible, since the same type of reward can be used for different activities or behaviors;
raised productivity by 6%

Question 135

fairness of pay

Answer 135

1) extent to which pay is related to level of performance;
2) comparable worth, or the extent to which pay is perceived to be equitable relative to what others in similar jobs or with similar qualifications are making

Question 136

low selection ratio

Answer 136

lots of applicants to choose from (which is preferable to having only a few to choose from)

Question 137

base rate

Answer 137

how selection in place now is doing;
moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate b/c there’s room for improvement in the selection process;
when base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn’t need a new predictor;
when base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem (e.g., the company’s performance standards are too high or there just aren’t enough good applicants to choose from)

Question 138

Holland and a highly differentiated person

Answer 138

someone who scored high on only one of the personality types;
Holland believed that high differentiation would best predict the outcome of a personality and occupational match

Question 139

passive management-by-exception

Answer 139

leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers’ mistakes have been called to their attention

Question 140

which predictor has the highest correlation with turnover

Answer 140

biographical information

Question 141

group cohesiveness and group productivity

Answer 141

associated with higher productivity when management is supportive of the group’
high levels of support being associated with higher levels of productivity and management hostility or indifference being associated with lower productivity

Question 142

personality variables correlated with job performance

Answer 142

conscientiousness

Question 143

work-family conflicts

Answer 143

1) time-based: role pressures stemming from the two different domains compete for the individual’s time (most common);
2) strain-based: the strain experienced in one role domain interferes with effective performance of role behaviors in the other domain;
3) behavior-based: conflict stemming from incompatible behaviors demanded by competing roles

Question 144

flextime outcomes

Answer 144

positive effects on employee absenteeism (i.e., improved attendance), productivity, satisfaction with work schedule, and job satisfaction

Question 145

Cleary model

Answer 145

a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is different for one subgroup than for another;
effect is that differences between subgroups on predictor scores wouldn’t be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion - low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup

Question 146

mixed standard scale

Answer 146

tries to overcome rater biases by arranging, in a non-hierarchal manner, items that describe performance as either good, average, or poor - then the rater rates whether the individual performs better, equal to, or worse (+, 0, -) than the behavior described in the item;
items are arranged in a way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases

Question 147

criterion deficiency

Answer 147

what is missed or deficient in the criterion used;
degree to which the actual criterion fails to overlap with the conceptual criterion

Question 148

formative evaluations

Answer 148

conducted during the delivery of the intervention to identify ways to improve it

Question 149

summative evaluations

Answer 149

conducted at the end of the intervention to evaluate its effectiveness and participants’ reactions to it

Question 150

Research has generally found that job enrichment

Answer 150

leads to increased job satisfaction, decreased absenteeism and turnover, and in some cases, increased job performance in terms of quality rather than quantity;
benefits are greatest among younger, well-educated, employees who have a high need for achievement

Question 151

when jobs are redesigned according to the job characteristics model

Answer 151

improvements in satisfaction, absenteeism, turnover, and motivation;
work quality is less likely to be affected

Question 152

valence

Answer 152

the desirability of the consequences of performance

Question 153

Landy’s (1978) Opponent Process Theory

Answer 153

when a person experiences an extreme emotional state, his or her central nervous system mechanisms attempt to bring him or her back to a state of emotional equilibrium or neutrality;
in returning to neutrality, the emotional state may even surpass equilibrium and progress to the opposite emotional state

Question 154

Lawler’s (1973) Model of Facet Satisfaction

Answer 154

workers compare what their jobs should provide in terms of job facets to what they currently receive from their jobs

Question 155

Warr’s (1987) Vitamin Model

Answer 155

certain features in the workplace act in much the same way as vitamins;
the level and combination of stressors have an effect on well-being and as with vitamins, some of the features start to have a negative effect if they increase beyond a recommended daily dose

Question 156

goal-setting theory

Answer 156

when people accept goals, they intend to achieve them and, therefore, are willing to put forth the effort to do so

Question 157

career anchor

Answer 157

his or her self-concept consisting of self-perceived talents and abilities, basic values, motives, and needs as they pertain to the career

Question 158

organizational developmental intervention called team building

Answer 158

designed to improve the problem-solving abilities of goal-oriented work groups

Question 159

Dawis and Lofquist’s (1964) Theory of Work Adjustment

Answer 159

defines satisfaction as an individual’s satisfaction with a job based on how well it meets the individual employee’s needs

Question 160

expectancy

Answer 160

belief that effort will lead to success performance

Question 161

instrumentality

Answer 161

beliefs that successful performance will result in certain outcomes

Question 162

self-efficacy and work-related performance

Answer 162

self-efficacy positively related to work-related performance;
moderated by task complexity and situational factors present in work environments

Question 163

Guttman scale

Answer 163

items are arranged in an order so that an individual who agrees with a particular item also agrees with items of lower rank-order

Question 164

three forms of job commitment

Answer 164

1) affective commitment: psychological attitudes toward the organization;
2) continuance commitment: costs of leaving the company;
3) normative commitment: perceived obligation to stay with the company