Developmental

Question 1

epigenetic view (Gottlieb, 2004)

Answer 1

proposes that development is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional exchange between heredity and the environment

Question 2

critical period

Answer 2

a limited period of time during which an organism is biologically prepared to acquire certain behaviors but requires the presence of appropriate environmental stimuli for development to occur

Question 3

sensitive period

Answer 3

optimal times for the development of certain human capacities during which the individual is particularly sensitive to environmental influences, but those capacities can also develop to some degree at an earlier or later time

Question 4

canalization

Answer 4

traits are highly influenced by genotype and relatively resistant to environmental forces (e.g., motor milestones)

Question 5

range of reaction

Answer 5

genotype sets boundaries on the range of possible phenotypes a person may exhibit, while environmental factors determine where in that range the phenotype falls

Question 6

secular trends

Answer 6

generational differences in physical growth and development

Question 7

gene-environment correlation

Answer 7

refers to associations that are often found between people’s genetic makeup and the environmental circumstances they are exposed to

Question 8

niche-picking

Answer 8

tendency of people to seek out environments that are compatible with their genetic makeup

Question 9

heritability index

Answer 9

used to estimate the degree to which a particular trait can be attributed to genetic factors;
ranges from 0 to +1.00, with a larger value indicating a higher impact of heredity

Question 10

polygenic

Answer 10

characteristics that are determined by multiple gene pairs rather than a single gene pair
(e.g., skin color, eye color, temperament, intelligence, susceptibility to cancer)

Question 11

Huntington’s disease

Answer 11

a degenerative central nervous system disorder in which there is a progressive breakdown (degeneration) of nerve cells in the brain;
caused by a single autosomal dominant gene so a child of an afflicted parent has a 50% chance of inheriting this disorder

Question 12

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Answer 12

recessive gene disorder in which individuals lack the enzyme needed to digest the amino acid phenylalanine which, in its undigested form, acts as a toxic agent in the brain and causes severe mental retardation

Question 13

recessive gene-linked abnormalities

Answer 13

PKU, Tay-Sachs disease, sickle-cell anemia, cystic fibrosis

Question 14

Prader-Willi syndrome

Answer 14

rare chromosomal abnormality that usually involves a deletion (loss of a segment) on the paternal chromosome 15;
mental retardation, chronic overeating and obesity, hypogonadism, obsessive-compulsive behaviors, distinctive physical features

Question 15

Klinefelter syndrome

Answer 15

affects males and is caused by an extra X chromosome;
develop a normal male identity but have incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics and are often infertile

Question 16

Turner syndrome

Answer 16

affects females and occurs when all or part of an X chromosome is missing;
females don’t develop secondary sex characteristics, are infertile, and have a short stature, stubby fingers, and a webbed neck

Question 17

Fragile X syndrome

Answer 17

due to a weak site on the X chromosome and occurs in males and females, although its negative effects are usually more evident in males who lack the influence of a normal X chromosome;
characterized by moderate to severe mental retardation, facial deformities, and a rapid, staccato speech rhythm

Question 18

teratogens

Answer 18

substances and conditions that interfere with normal prenatal development and include drugs, toxins, malnutrition, maternal infections, and maternal stress

Question 19

germinal period

Answer 19

extends from conception to implantation (8 to 10 days following conception);
exposure to a teratogen during this period may damage only a few cells and have little or no effect on development; or, alternatively, it may affect many cells and cause the organism’s death

Question 20

embryonic period

Answer 20

extends from the end of the 2nd week after conception to the end of the 8th week;
developing organs are most susceptible to major structural defects as the result of exposure to a teratogen (except the CNS, which is vulnerable throughout the embryonic and fetal periods)

Question 21

fetal period

Answer 21

extends from the beginning of the 9th week until birth;
organ systems are less affected by teratogens during this period, but exposure can cause impaired organ functioning, delayed growth, and, when it affects the brain, impaired intellectual and emotional functioning

Question 22

effects of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) on development

Answer 22

growth retardation, skeletal and organ malformations, impaired motor skills, facial deformities (e.g., small eyes, flat cheeks, thin lips), microcephaly, irritability, hyperactivity, and mental retardation

Question 23

effects of nicotine on development

Answer 23

prematurity, low birth weight, respiratory problems, and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS);
tend to be less responsive to the environment and more irritable;
during childhood, they may exhibit hyperactivity, a short attention span, and poor academic achievement

Question 24

effects of cocaine on development

Answer 24

spontaneous abortion in the first trimester, retarded fetal growth, prematurity, seizures, and malformations in the brain, intestines, heart, and genital-urinary tract;
highly reactive to environmental stimuli and difficult to soothe and exhibit excessive irritability, an abnormally shrill cry, and abnormal reflexes;
concentration and memory impairments, language delays, and social problems

Question 25

effects of rubella on development

Answer 25

low birth weight, heart defects, eye cataracts, deafness, gastrointestinal anomalies, and mental retardation

Question 26

effects of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) on development

Answer 26

most often transmitted from the mother to infant during delivery;
elevated risk for death, brain damage, seizures, breathing difficulties, visual problems, and skin lesions

Question 27

effects of Cytomegalovirus (CMV) on development

Answer 27

type of herpes virus that can be passed from mother to baby during pregnancy, delivery, or breast-feeding
prenatal infection can cause death;
microcephaly, seizures, cardiovascular disease, neuromuscular defects, hearing loss, and/or mental retardation

Question 28

effects of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) on development

Answer 28

risk of transmission from mother to baby during pregnancy and delivery ranges from 15 to 30% without preventive treatment;
elevated rates of prematurity and are often small for gestational age;
about 20% develop a serious illness in the first year of life and most of these babies die by age 4;
common effects of the disease include delays in motor and cognitive development and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections (toxoplasmosis, pneumonia, candidiasis)

Question 29

effects of prenatal malnutrition on development

Answer 29

1st trimester: spontaneous abortion, neural tube defects, structural abnormalities of major organs;
3rd trimester: low birth weight and low brain size and weight due to smaller neurons, less extensive branching of dendrites, and reduced myelination;
long-term consequences: increased risk for cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and other chronic diseases; delays in motor development; intellectual deficits; and behavioral problems

Question 30

effects of maternal stress on development

Answer 30

spontaneous abortion, premature delivery, and difficult labor;
elevated risk for low birth weight, respiratory problems, higher-than-normal levels of irritability and hyperactivity, certain physical defects (e.g., cleft lip and palate), and sleep and eating problems

Question 31

premature

Answer 31

infant born before 37 weeks;
increased risk linked to lack of prenatal care, malnutrition, younger maternal age (esp younger than age 15), drug use, low SES, and multiple births

Question 32

Small-for-Gestational-Age (SGA)

Answer 32

birth weight below the tenth percentile of the expected weight;
greater risk than premature infants for severe problems, including asphyxia during birth, developmental delays, respiratory disease, and impaired vision and hearing

Question 33

fetal distress

Answer 33

abnormal condition of the fetus immediately before or during birth and is detected by an abnormal slowing of labor, abnormal substances in the amniotic fluid, or an irregular heart rate

Question 34

Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Model

Answer 34

1) microsystem: child’s immediate environment and includes family, peers, and school
2) mesosystem: interconnections between components of the microsystem
3) ecosystem: aspects of the environment that the child is not in direct contact with but is affected by and includes each parent’s workplace, neighbors, and community services
4) macrosystem: sociocultural context in which the other systems are embedded and includes aspects of society that affect the child’s development (e.g., racism, socioeconomic conditions, culture).
5) chronosystem: represents time and includes the child’s life stages and historical events that impact development

Question 35

Rutter’s (1985) 6 family characteristics that contribute to the likelihood that a child will develop a psychiatric disorder

Answer 35

severe marital discord, low SES, large family size or overcrowding, parental criminality, maternal psychiatric disorder, and placement of the child outside the home
MMPCLS

Question 36

factors that increase children’s resistance to psychopathology even when they are exposed to multiple risk factors

Answer 36

experienced only a few stressors following birth, were temperamentally “easy” and socially responsive as infants, and had a parent or other caregiver who provided them with consistent care and support

Question 37

microcephaly

Answer 37

small, underdeveloped brain

Question 38

brain development

Answer 38

following birth involves the growth of new dendrites, creation of new synapses (synaptogenesis), and myelination (nerve fibers become covered in myelin that acts as an insulator and increases the speed of nerve impulses)

Question 39

neurogenesis

Answer 39

production of new neurons

Question 40

major infant reflexes

Answer 40

1) Palmar grasp reflex: grasps a finger that is pressed against the surface of his/her palm.
2) Babinski reflex: extends their big toe and fans out their small toe when the sole of the foot is stroked
3) Moro (Startle) reflex: When held in a horizontal position, the infant arches his/her back, extends his/her legs outward, and then brings them back toward the body in response to his/her head being allowed to drop or to a sudden loud noise
4) Rooting: The infant turns his/her head toward the source of stimulation when his/her cheek is stroked near the corner of the mouth

Question 41

major motor milestones at 1 month

Answer 41

Gross Motor Skills: Turns head from side to side when prone;
Fine Motor Skills: Has strong grasp reflex

Question 42

major motor milestones at 3 months

Answer 42

Gross Motor Skills: Holds head erect when sitting but head bobs forward; regards own hand;
Fine Motor Skills: Holds rattle; pulls at clothes; brings objects in hand to mouth

Question 43

major motor milestones at 5 months

Answer 43

Gross Motor Skills: When sitting, holds head erect and steady; reaches and grasps; puts foot to mouth when lying facing upwards
Fine Motor Skills: Plays with toes; takes objects directly to mouth; grasps objects voluntarily

Question 44

major motor milestones at 7 months

Answer 44

Gross Motor Skills: Sits, leaning forward on both hands; stands with help
Fine Motor Skills: Transfers objects from one hand to the other

Question 45

major motor milestones at 9-10 months

Answer 45

Gross Motor Skills: Creeps on hands and knees; pulls self to standing position while holding onto furniture.
Fine Motor Skills: Uses thumb and index finger to grasp

Question 46

major motor milestones at 11-15 months

Answer 46

Gross Motor Skills: Walks holding onto furniture; stands alone; walks without help (12-14 mos.).
Fine Motor Skills: Removes object from tight enclosure; turns pages in book; uses a cup; builds a tower of three or four blocks

Question 47

major motor milestones at 18-24 months

Answer 47

Gross Motor Skills: Runs clumsily; walks up stairs with hand held (18 mos.); walks up stairs alone (24 mos.); kicks and throws ball; uses toilet during the day.
Fine Motor Skills: Uses a spoon; turns doorknobs; builds a tower of six or seven blocks

Question 48

effects of early training (McGraw, 1975)

Answer 48

early training can affect the age at which babies achieve certain motor milestones;
early training does not affect long-term consequences for basic skills but may affect more complex skills (generally more skilled and interested in the activities)

Question 49

gender differences in development

Answer 49

boys do better on motor tasks requiring power and strength, run faster, throw a ball farther;
girls are better at tasks that depend on fine motor skills or flexibility and in some activities that require a combination of good balance and foot movement;
by adolescence, boys excel in terms of most motor skills

Question 50

sleep consolidation

Answer 50

ability to sleep for longer periods of time during the night with shorter periods of daytime sleep

Question 51

sleep regulation

Answer 51

ability to control internal states of arousal in order to fall asleep at bedtime and fall back to sleep after arousal during the night

Question 52

“progressive waiting method” (AKA “Ferberizing”)

Answer 52

parent puts the child to bed; and if the child cries, the parent reassures the child verbally and pats the child on the back but does not pick him/her up
If the child cries again later, the parent waits for a brief period before returning and repeats the same procedure
On subsequent nights, the wait period is gradually increased

Question 53

vision development

Answer 53

prefer facial to non-facial images within a few days following birth; can discriminate the face of their mother or other caregiver from the faces of strangers by one month; detect basic colors by two or three months; have some depth perception by six months; and have visual acuity that comes close to the normal adult level (20/20) by one year

Question 54

hearing development

Answer 54

newborns prefer the human voice to other sounds, recognize their mother’s voice, and can distinguish between the vowels “a” and “i”
Soon after birth, infants exhibit auditory localization (turning their head toward the direction of a sound), but this ability disappears between two to four months and then re-emerges and becomes fully developed by about 12 months of age

Question 55

taste and smell development

Answer 55

newborns can distinguish between all four tastes at birth (bitter, sweet, sour, and salty) and show a preference for sweet tastes
They respond differently to pleasant and unpleasant odors during the first days following birth

Question 56

pain development

Answer 56

infants are sensitive to pain at birth;
some research has shown that early exposure to pain affects future responses to pain

Question 57

presbyopia

Answer 57

a loss of near vision that makes it difficult to focus on close objects

Question 58

presbycusis

Answer 58

a decrease in the ability to hear high-frequency sounds that makes it difficult to understand human speech

Question 59

effects of early vs. later maturation for boys

Answer 59

early: associated with positive consequences including better overall adjustment (positive self-image, greater popularity with peers) and superior athletic skill; linked to an increased risk for drug use and antisocial behavior.
late: more attention-seeking behaviors, lower levels of self-confidence and popularity, and poorer academic achievement

Question 60

effects of early vs. later maturation for girls

Answer 60

early: negative consequences (poorer self-concept, lower academic achievement, and higher risk for MDD, ED, and substance use).
late: higher levels of sociability, popularity, and academic achievement.
negative consequences of early or late maturation are most significant when adolescents view themselves as being different from their peers

Question 61

chronic illness research outcomes

Answer 61

(a) Children with conditions that involve brain functioning have more behavior problems and poorer social functioning
(b) Family functioning, and in particular family cohesion and support for the child, is positively correlated with adjustment in chronically ill children
(c) Parental adjustment is also positively correlated with adjustment in chronically ill children
(d) Chronically ill boys (esp 6 to 11) are at greater risk for behavioral problems than chronically ill girls, while girls are at greater risk for self-reported symptoms of distress
(e) Adolescents are at particularly high risk for not adhering to treatment regimens, in part because of their increased concern about “being different” from their peers

Question 62

characteristics associated with increased risk for drug abuse during adolescence

Answer 62

male gender, low SES, a history of physical or sexual abuse, and low parental warmth and involvement

Question 63

Piaget’s Constructivist Theory

Answer 63

children actively construct their understanding of the world, and this ability depends on a combination of biological maturation and experience;
equilibration (the drive toward a state of cognitive equilibrium) provides the underlying motivation for cognitive development.
disequilibrium occurs when there is a discrepancy between reality and the person’s understanding of reality; resolved through adaptation, which consists of 2 complementary processes: assimilation & accommodation

Question 64

assimilation

Answer 64

incorporating and interpreting new information in terms of existing mental schemas

Question 65

accommodation

Answer 65

modifying an existing schema to take into account new information

Question 66

Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

Answer 66

4 invariant and universal stages (emerge in the same sequence for all children), with each stage building upon the earlier one;
1) Sensorimotor Stage (birth to 2 years): child learns about objects through sensory information (how objects look, feel, sound, and taste) and motor activity (grasping, hitting)
2) Preoperational Stage (2 to 7 years): development of the symbolic function, which is the ability to use one thing (words and images) to stand for another and which leads to the increasing use of language, participation in symbolic (pretend) play, and the ability to solve problems mentally
3) Concrete Operational Stage (7 to 12 years): development of decentration and reversibility, which enables the child to conserve; thinks logically when dealing with concrete information but cannot process abstract information very well
4) Formal Operational Stage (12 years +): process abstract information ; characterized by hypothetical-deductive reasoning and propositional thought; adolescent egocentrism

Question 67

sensorimotor stage substages

Answer 67

1) Early Reflexive Reactions (birth to 1 month): gain control over and practice reflexive behaviors
2) Primary Reflexive Reactions (1 to 4 months): discover pleasurable actions involving their own bodies by accident and then repeat them
3) Secondary Circular Reactions (4 to 8 months): discover actions involving objects and people in the environment and then reproduce those actions
4) Coordination of Secondary Circular Reactions (8 to 12 months): intentionally combine secondary circular reactions to achieve a goal - object permanence
5) Tertiary Circular Reactions (12 to 18 months): deliberately change an action to discover the consequences of doing so
6) Emergence of Representational Thought (18 to 24 months): begin to develop mental representations that allow them to think about the past and objects that are not present

Question 68

object permanence

Answer 68

understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible

Question 69

deferred imitation

Answer 69

ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time

Question 70

transductive reasoning

Answer 70

leads preoperational children to believe that two events that occur at the same time are causally related

Question 71

magical thinking

Answer 71

erroneous belief that one has control over objects or events or that thinking about something will actually cause it to occur

Question 72

animism

Answer 72

belief that objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities

Question 73

centration

Answer 73

tendency to focus on one detail of a situation to the neglect of other important features

Question 74

conserve

Answer 74

understand that the underlying properties of an object may not change even when its physical appearance changes

Question 75

transitivity

Answer 75

the ability to mentally sort objects

Question 76

hierarchical classification

Answer 76

the ability to sort objects into hierarchies of classes and subclasses based on their similarities and differences

Question 77

hypothetical-deductive reasoning

Answer 77

the ability to arrive at and test alternative explanations for observed events

Question 78

propositional thought

Answer 78

the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without making reference to real-world circumstances

Question 79

imaginary audience

Answer 79

belief that others are as concerned with and critical of the adolescent’s behavior as the adolescent is him/herself

Question 80

personal fable

Answer 80

an adolescent’s belief that he or she is unique and indestructible

Question 81

information processing theories

Answer 81

focus on specific cognitive processes (e.g., memory, attention, comprehension) and emphasize quantitative changes in cognition.
propose that humans process information through logical rules and strategies and have a limited capacity in terms of the nature and amount of information that can be processed.
children become better information processors through a combination of changes in biological systems and experience

Question 82

Neo-Piagetian theories

Answer 82

combine Piaget’s approach with information processing theories;
recognize the roles of both biological and environmental factors in cognitive development;
development is divided into stages that represent qualitative changes in specific cognition processes

Question 83

Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory

Answer 83

cognition as being dependent on the social, cultural, and historical context;
learning always occurs on 2 levels: first between the child and another person (interpersonal) and then within the child (intrapersonal)

Question 84

zone of proximal development

Answer 84

the gap between what a child can currently do alone and what they can accomplish with help from parents or more competent peers;
learning occurs most rapidly when teaching is within this zone

Question 85

scaffolding

Answer 85

support provided to a child by others and involves modeling, providing physical and verbal prompts, asking questions, etc.

Question 86

infantile amnesia

Answer 86

adults cannot recall anything that occurred prior to 3 or 4 years of age;
attributed to incomplete development of the brain (esp hippocampus) and a lack of language that is needed to encode and store memories in a way that allows them to be retrieved in adulthood

Question 87

memory in infancy and childhood

Answer 87

infants have recognition memory for familiar stimuli soon after birth and cued recall memory by 2 to 3 months;
2 or 3 YOs exhibit episodic memory (can recall experiences that happened weeks or months earlier);
as we age, get increased STM capacity; use of rehearsal and other memory strategies, improvements in metamemory and metacognition

Question 88

memory in adulthood

Answer 88

greatest age-related declines in recent long-term memory followed by working memory;
greater negative effect on episodic memory;
more apparent in unfamiliar tasks;

Question 89

Spearman’s Two-Factor Theory

Answer 89

all mental tasks require two kinds of ability – general ability (“g”) which is common to all intellectual tasks and specific ability (“s”) which is specific to a given task

Question 90

Guilford’s Structure-of-Intellect Theory

Answer 90

using factor analysis, initially derived 120 intellectual abilities (which he later expanded to 180 abilities).
convergent thinking involves the use of rational, logical processes to derive the single correct answer to a problem;
divergent thinking relies on flexibility and non-logical processes to derive multiple solutions to a problem.

Question 91

Horn and Cattell’s Gc-Gf Theory

Answer 91

distinguished between crystallized and fluid intelligence.
crystallized intelligence (Gc): consists of acquired knowledge (e.g., facts and rules) and the ability to apply that knowledge to specific situations;
fluid intelligence (Gf): unaffected by experience and underlies the ability to reason and adapt to new situations

Question 92

Carroll’s Three-Stratum Theory

Answer 92

3 levels (strata) of intelligence:
1) Stratum III represents g (general intelligence);
2) Stratum II consists of 8 broad abilities (fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, general memory, learning);
3) Stratum I consists of specific abilities that are each linked to one of the second stratum abilities

Question 93

Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) Theory of Cognitive Abilities

Answer 93

combines concepts from Horn and Catell’s and Carroll’s theories;
10 broad cognitive abilities and over 70 narrow cognitive abilities

Question 94

Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences

Answer 94

8 intellectual abilities (linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalist);
used simultaneously and complement one another as people solve problems or develop skills

Question 95

Sternberg’s Triarchic Model

Answer 95

3 interacting facets of intelligence:
1) componential (analytical) aspect: methods that are used to process and analyze information
2) experiential (creative) aspect: how unfamiliar circumstances and tasks are dealt with
3) practical (contextual) component: how people respond to their environment

Question 96

genetic influences on intelligence

Answer 96

• Identical twins reared together: .85
• Identical twins reared apart: .67
• Fraternal twins reared together: .58
• Biological siblings reared together: .45
• Biological parent and child (together): .39
• Biological parent and child (apart): .39
• Biological siblings reared apart: .24
• Adoptive parent and child: .18

Question 97

confluence model (Zajonc, 1976)

Answer 97

as the number of children in a family increases, the amount of intellectual stimulation and other important resources decreases, which gives first-borns an advantage in terms of intellectual development

Question 98

“Flynn effect” (Flynn, 1987, 1998)

Answer 98

IQ test scores had consistently increased over the previous 70 years in the United States and other industrialized countries has been attributed to improved nutrition, better education, and other environmental factors

Question 99

gender differences in intelligence

Answer 99

while males and females do not differ significantly in terms of average performance on IQ tests, they differ somewhat in terms of specific abilities.
females do better than males on measures of verbal ability, while males do better on measures of spatial and math skills;
may be affected by environmental factors (boy engage in labor jobs and video games that use these skills)

Question 100

race and ethnicity differences in intelligence

Answer 100

Whites tend to outperform African Americans by about one standard deviation on the Stanford-Binet, Wechsler tests, and other standard IQ tests with a similar gap on achievement tests;
unclear if due to genetic factors, environmental factors, or test bias

Question 101

cohort effects

Answer 101

the confounding effects of educational and other differences between different age groups

Question 102

Seattle Longitudinal Study

Answer 102

younger people are better educated than older people and are more likely to have had experiences that contribute to higher scores on measures of intelligence;
(a) only perceptual speed declined substantially prior to age 60
(b) numeric ability did not show a substantial decline until after age 60
(c) the other 4 abilities were fairly stable until about age 70 or 75

Question 103

aging effects on intelligence

Answer 103

age-related declines on measures of cognitive ability are due largely to declines in the speed and efficiency with which older adults process information;
older adults do better when they are given as much time as they need to complete cognitive tasks;
better on cognitive tasks when they are given training that improves their efficiency

Question 104

synchrony effect

Answer 104

performance times align with peaks in circadian arousal;
older adults in the morning, while younger adults in the evening

Question 105

behaviorist theory of language development

Answer 105

emphasize the role of environmental factors and describe language acquisition as the result of reinforcement and imitation;
caregivers and others use techniques that facilitate language development when talking to young children

Question 106

motherese

Answer 106

talking in simple sentences at a slow pace and with a high-pitched voice

Question 107

recasting

Answer 107

rephrasing a child’s sentence in a different way (e.g., turning the child’s statement into a question)

Question 108

Nativist theories of language development

Answer 108

emphasize the role of innate, biologically determined factors;
children quickly learn to apply very complex grammatical rules to sentences they have never heard before and that these rules are so complex that they cannot be directly taught to or independently discovered by a cognitively immature child

Question 109

language acquisition device (LAD)

Answer 109

enables children who have acquired sufficient vocabulary to combine words into novel but grammatically consistent utterances and understand the meaning of what they hear

Question 110

cognitive theories of language development

Answer 110

view language development as part of cognitive development;
propose that language acquisition is motivated by a child’s desire to express meaning

Question 111

phonemes

Answer 111

smallest units of sound that are understood in a language (d, m, and th)

Question 112

morphemes

Answer 112

smallest units of meaning in a language and include simple words (go, car) and suffixes and prefixes (pre, ed, ing)

Question 113

syntax

Answer 113

the rules of grammar that determine how to order words to form sentences and phrases

Question 114

semantics

Answer 114

the meanings expressed in words and sentences (whether certain words can go with other words and still make sense)

Question 115

pragmatics

Answer 115

knowledge about how to use language to communicate effectively with others and includes being familiar with rules of conversation (taking turns, staying on topic) and knowing how to change language to fit the needs of the listener or situation (how to talk to a baby vs adult)

Question 116

3 distinct baby cries

Answer 116

1) basic cry: usually associated with hunger
2) pain cry
3) angry cry

Question 117

sequence of language development

Answer 117

1) Cooing (beginning at 1 to 2 months): vowel-like sounds
2) Babbling (beginning at 4 to 6 months): repetition of consonant-vowel combinations
3) Echolalia and Expressive Jargon (beginning at 9 months): imitate adult speech sounds and words without an understanding of their meaning followed by vocalizations that sound like sentences but have no meaning
4) First Words (10 to 15 months): usually refer to people, moving objects, social interactions, actions
5) Holophrastic Speech (12 to 18 months): combining a single word with gestures and intonation to express a phrase or sentence
6) Telegraphic Speech (18 to 24 months): two-word sentences that contain the most critical words
7) Rapid Vocabulary Growth (30 to 36 months): use about 1,000 words, ask questions, use sentences containing 3 or 4 words
8) Development of Complex Grammatical Forms (36 to 48 months): correctly use verb “to be,” possessive, prepositions, and construct longer and complex sentences

Question 118

overextension

Answer 118

occurs when a child uses a word too broadly

Question 118

underextension

Answer 118

occurs when a child uses a word too narrowly

Question 118

overregularization

Answer 118

when the child misapplies general rules for plurals or past tense to exceptions “runned”

Question 119

code switching

Answer 119

changing to another language during a conversation

Question 120

functions of code switching

Answer 120

a) If a bilingual speaker cannot express themself adequately in one language they may change to the other language
b) A bilingual speaker may switch to the minority language as a sign of solidarity with members of the minority group
c) Code switching is a way for a bilingual speaker to express their attitude toward the listener

Question 121

gender differences in communication

Answer 121

men talk for longer periods, are more likely to ignore previous remarks made by others, and interrupt more often to gain control of the discussion;
females interrupt to provide support or express interest, use modifiers and qualifiers (e.g., “It’s kind of warm in here”), and attach “tag questions” to statements (e.g., “It’s warm in here, isn’t it?”)

Question 122

temperament

Answer 122

a person’s basic behavioral patterns and style;
believed to have a strong genetic component and to be a contributor to personality;
most stable over the lifespan when the initial measure is administered when the child is at least 2

Question 123

Thomas and Chess (1989) 3 temperament groups

Answer 123

1) Easy children: cheerful, adapt easily to change, have regular feeding and sleeping schedules
2) Slow-to-warm-up children: sad or tense, take time to adapt to change and initially withdraw from new experiences, have variable feeding and sleeping schedules
3) Difficult children: respond to new experiences with irritability, are difficult to soothe, have irregular feeding and sleeping schedules

Question 124

goodness-of-fit model

Answer 124

healthy psychological development depends on a match between the child’s temperament and environmental factors, especially the behaviors of the child’s parents

Question 125

Freud’s Theory of Psychosexual Development

Answer 125

a person’s sexual impulses are centered in a different area of the body in each psychosexual stage of development, and too much or too little gratification of these impulses during a stage can result in fixation at that stage

Question 126

Freud’s 5 stages of psychosexual development

Answer 126

1) Oral Stage (birth to 1 year): Sensual pleasure obtained through the mouth, tongue, and lips. The newly emerging ego directs the baby’s sucking activities toward the breast or bottle to satisfy hunger and obtain pleasant stimulation. Fixation may result in habits such as thumb sucking and fingernail biting beginning in childhood and overeating and smoking later in life
2) Anal Stage (1 to 3 years): Pleasure derived from the anal and urethral areas of the body. The child must learn to postpone release of feces and urine, and toilet training becomes a major conflict. Fixation produces anal retentiveness (obsessive punctuality, orderliness, cleanliness) or anal expulsiveness (messiness and disorder)
3) Phallic Stage (3-6 years): derives pleasure from genital stimulation. The Oedipal (boys) or Electra (girls) conflict occurs, which involves experiencing unconscious sexual desire for the opposite-sex parent and repressing this desire due to fear of punishment by the same-sex parent. If the conflict is resolved successfully, the child identifies with the same-sex parent and the superego is formed
4) Latency Stage (6 years to puberty): Sexual instincts are repressed and dormant. The child works on solidifying the superego by playing and identifying with same-sex children and assimilating social values from society
5) Genital Stage (post-puberty): sexual drive of the early phallic stage is reactivated but now gratified through love relationships outside family. If development proceeded appropriately, this stage is characterized by mature sexuality

Question 127

Erikson’s Theory of Psychosocial Development

Answer 127

each stage of development as involving a different psychosocial conflict;
placed greater emphasis on the ego and viewed personality development as continuing throughout the lifespan

Question 128

Erikson’s 8 Stages of Psychosocial Development

Answer 128

1) Trust vs. Mistrust (birth though first year): Due to warm, responsive parental care and pleasurable sensations while feeding, the infant becomes confident that caregivers are predictable, good, and gratifying. Mistrust of others results when the infant has to wait too long for comfort and is handled harshly.
2) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (1 to 3 years): Increasing motor control and cognitive skills lead to greater exploration and independence. Autonomy is fostered when parents offer guided opportunities for free choice and do not overly restrict or shame the child.
3) Initiative vs. Guilt (3 to 6 years): Through make-believe play, children learn about the roles and institutions of society and gain insight into the type of person they can become. Initiative (a sense of ambition and responsibility) develops when parents support the child’s emerging sense of purpose and direction. Too many parental demands for self-control may lead to excessive guilt.
4) Industry vs. Inferiority (6 years to puberty): Children develop the capacity for productive work and cooperation with others. Inferiority develops when experiences in school, in the peer group, or with parents do not foster feelings of competence and mastery.
5) Identity vs. Identity Confusion (adolescence): transition between childhood and adulthood. The earlier tasks become integrated into a lasting sense of identity. positive outcome: development of a coherent sense of who one is and one’s place in society. negative outcome: confusion about identity.
6) Intimacy vs. Isolation (young adulthood): Relationships with others enhance the person’s sense of identity and provide gratifying feelings of connectedness. Unsuccessful resolution results in an inability to establish close relationships, an intense fear of rejection, and isolation.
7) Generativity vs. Stagnation (middle adulthood): child-rearing, serving as a mentor or teacher, and productive work. Failure to contribute in one or more of these ways results in a sense of stagnation and boredom
8) Ego Integrity vs. Despair (old age): look back at who they are and what they’ve done. Integrity and wisdom result from the feeling that life was worthwhile; despair and regret result from a sense of dissatisfaction

Question 129

Authoritative parenting style

Answer 129

high in both acceptance/responsiveness and demandingness/control;
warm and nurturing, set high standards for their children and expect them to comply with rules. gain control by explaining rules to their children and seeking children’s input into family decisions;
children have the best outcomes - independent, achievement-oriented, friendly, and self-confident

Question 130

Authoritarian parenting style

Answer 130

low in acceptance/responsiveness and high in demandingness/control;
insensitive to their children’s feelings and have many rules that they expect their children to obey in an unquestioning manner;
when children are disobedient, respond with punitive measures;
children are often insecure, timid, and unhappy, and they may grow up to be dependent and lacking in motivation

Question 131

Permissive parenting style

Answer 131

high in acceptance/responsiveness and low in demandingness/control;
nurturing but fail to assert their authority;
children have difficulty controlling their impulses, ignore rules and regulations, and are not very involved in academic and work activities

Question 132

Uninvolved parenting style

Answer 132

low in both acceptance/responsiveness and demandingness/control;
nondemanding and either indifferent toward or rejecting of their children;
children are often noncompliant and demanding, lack self-control, and are prone to antisocial behavior;
characteristics include weak parental supervision, lack of reasonable rules, lax or erratic discipline, and a parent-child relationship characterized by hostility, indifference, or apathy (most predictive of delinquency in adolescence)

Question 133

race/ethnicity effects on parenting style

Answer 133

while African American and Hispanic parents are considerably more authoritative than Asian American parents, the children of African American and Hispanic parents, on average, perform more poorly in school;
due, in part, to peer influence: AAs receive little support from their peers for academic achievement, while Asian are encouraged and rewarded by peers for academic excellence

Question 134

identity development

Answer 134

refers to “the ways in which individuals view themselves in relation to the world around them”

Question 135

Self-Awareness in Infants and Toddlers

Answer 135

18 months: self-recognition as infants begin to recognize themselves in pictures and mirrors - related to cognitive development and social experiences;
19 - 30 months: self-description and evaluation emerge (physical -> active -> social -> psychological self);
30 - 40 months: exhibit emotional responses to wrongdoing. This reaction signals the beginning of the development of a sense of conscience

Question 136

gender role identity

Answer 136

a person’s identification as male or female

Question 137

Hall and Halberstadt (1980) research on gender identity

Answer 137

by 3 , have an established gender role identity, identify themselves as either a girl or boy, recognize what is expected of them as a girl or boy, notice that others are of the same or opposite sex;
gender role identity has a greater impact than biological sex on children’s self-esteem;
androgyny is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem;
masculinity is associated with higher levels of self-esteem than femininity for both boys and girls

Question 138

major theories of gender role identity development

Answer 138

1) Psychodynamic: development occurs when the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage is resolved by identifying with the same-sex parent
2) Social Learning: focuses on the role of social factors (rewards, punishments children receive for gender-appropriate and gender-inappropriate behaviors), observation and imitation of same-sex models
3) Gender Schema: children develop schemas of masculinity and femininity that they use to perceive and encode information about themselves and others. result of social learning and active cognitive processes
4) Cognitive-Developmental: changes in cognitive processes that underlie gender-role identity development and describes it in 3 stages: a) Gender identity develops at about 2/3 when the child recognizes that they are either male or female. b) gender stability when the child realizes that gender identity is consistent over time c) gender constancy, gender doesn’t change because of a change in appearance, behavior, or situation

Question 139

Marcia’s (1966) 4 identity statuses

Answer 139

1) identity diffusion: have not undergone an identity crisis and are not committed to an identity
2) identity foreclosure: strong commitment to an identity that was not the outcome of an identity crisis but was suggested by a parent or other
3) identity moratorium: identity crisis, actively exploring different options and beliefs
4) identity achievement: individual resolved their identity crisis and is committed to a particular identity

Question 140

Gilligan’s Relational Crisis

Answer 140

at 11/12, girls can experience relational crisis that involves abandoning their own strengths and interests in response to cultural pressure to fit feminine stereotypes and to maintain relationships with others;
experience a “loss of voice” when they realize that their opinions are not valued;
parents, teachers, and others working with adolescent girls must provide them with experiences that help them remain connected to themselves and others

Question 141

personality in adulthood

Answer 141

considerable continuity for some traits, especially after age 30;
women experience increases in self-efficacy and assertiveness and a decline in dependence;
men experience increase in nurturance and interpersonal orientation;
agreeableness and conscientiousness continue to increase, while neuroticism decreases

Question 142

Levinson’s “Seasons of a Man’s Life”

Answer 142

1) early adult transition (ages 17 to 22): become emotionally and financially independent from their parents and assume adult roles as become involved in college, job, marriage. leads to the formation of “the dream,” (image of an ideal life that guides major life choices)
3) age 30 transition (28 to 33): re-evaluate earlier choices, become more realistic, and revise their life structure. This is followed by a period of “settling down”
4) mid-life transition (40 to 45): experience significant stress and reorganization as they evaluate their successes and failures in terms of “the dream”
5) late adult transition (ages 60 to 65): reconcile “the dream” with the reality of their lives, accept their mortality, and prepare for retirement and old age

Question 143

attachment

Answer 143

“strong, affectional tie we have with special people in our lives that leads us to experience pleasure and joy when we interact with them and to be comforted by their nearness during times of stress”

Question 144

Harlow and Zimmerman (1959) contact comfort

Answer 144

the pleasant tactile sensation provided by a soft, cuddly parent, is a more important determinant of attachment than feeding

Question 145

Bowlby’s (1969) ethological theory

Answer 145

infants and their mothers are biologically programmed for attachment;
infants are endowed with innate attachment-related behaviors (sucking, crying, smiling, cooing), that serve to keep the mother in close proximity and increase the infant’s chance of survival

Question 146

Bowlby’s 4 stages of attachment that occur during the first 2 years of life

Answer 146

1) preattachment
2) attachment-in-the-making
3) clearcut attachment
4) formation of reciprocal relationships

Question 147

signs of attachment

Answer 147

1) Social Referencing (6 months): “read” the emotional reactions of mothers and caregivers, esp in uncertain situations, and use that information to guide their own behaviors (AKA “visual cliff”)
2) Separation Anxiety (6 months): respond with distress to separation from their primary caregiver(s). intensity of separation anxiety peaks 14-18 months and gradually decreases in intensity through preschool
3) Stranger Anxiety (8-10 months): strong negative reaction to strangers. reaches its peak at 18-24 months then gradually declines. intensity is affected by situational factors -less apprehensive of strangers when their mother is nearby

Question 148

Strange Situation (Ainsworth, et al., 1978)

Answer 148

baby spends time alone, with his/her mother, and with a stranger

Question 149

4 patterns of attachment

Answer 149

1) Secure Attachment: actively explore the environment when alone or with mother. friendly to a stranger when their mother is present but clearly prefer their mother to a stranger and may show distress when their mother leaves and seek physical contact with her when she returns. Mothers are emotionally sensitive and responsive.
2) Anxious/Avoidant Attachment: uninterested in the environment; show little distress when their mother leaves and avoids contact with her when she returns; may or may not be wary of strangers. Mothers are either impatient and nonresponsive or overly responsive, involved, and stimulating.
3) Anxious/Resistant Attachment: anxious when mother is present, become very distressed when she leaves; ambivalent when she returns and may resist her attempts to make physical contact; wary of a stranger even when their mother is present. Mothers are inconsistent in their responses to their child, indifferent and other times enthusiastic.
4) Disorganized/Disoriented Attachment: conflicting reactions to mother that alternate between avoidance/resistance and proximity-seeking, overall behavior is dazed, confused, and apprehensive. observed in children who have been maltreated by their caregiver(s)

Question 150

Adult Attachment Interview (Main et al., 1985)

Answer 150

used to investigate the intergenerational transmission of attachment patterns;
interviewees are asked to describe their relationships with their parents during childhood and provide specific memories to support their evaluations

Question 151

adult attachment patterns

Answer 151

1) Secure-Autonomous: provide a coherent description of early attachment relationships and value those relationships. don’t idealize parents or feel angry about their childhood and can integrate positive and negative experiences. Most of their children have a secure attachment pattern.
2) Dismissing: guarded and defensive when asked about childhood, devalue the importance of attachment relationships. idealize their parents but cannot support their positive evaluations with concrete examples. 3/4ths of their children have an avoidant attachment pattern.
3) Preoccupied: confused and incoherent when describing their early attachment relationships, seem angry, fearful, or passive. describe childhood as involving disappointment, frustrated attempts to please their parents, and role reversals. Most of their children have a resistant/ambivalent attachment pattern.
4) Unresolved: experienced severe trauma and/or early losses, have not adequately resolved the trauma or mourned the loss. tend to have negative and dysfunctional relationships with their own children and are often abusive or neglectful. Their children tend to have a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern

Question 152

3 stages of friendship in childhood

Answer 152

1) Stage 1 (4-7 years): based on similarities and shared activities (play)
2) Stage 2 (8-10 years): based on mutual trust and assistance
3) Level 3 (11+): based on intimacy and loyalty (understand you and don’t deceive or abandon you)

Question 153

gender differences on friendship in childhood

Answer 153

female: “enabling style” that serves to increase intimacy and equality between peers - expressing agreement, making suggestions, providing support;
boys: “restrictive style” that tends to interfere with continuing interactions. characterized by bragging, contradicting, and interrupting;
While girls place more importance on the intimate, emotional aspects of their friendships, boys are more interested in sharing activities and interests

Question 154

popularity with peers

Answer 154

good social skills – outgoing, exhibit high levels of empathy, frequently share and cooperate with others;
more intelligent, self-confident, and enthusiastic, better able to control their negative emotions

Question 155

rejected children

Answer 155

actively disliked and may be bullied by their peers;
disruptive, have poor social skills, and report feeling lonely

Question 156

neglected children

Answer 156

shy, have fewer-than-average interactions with peers, rarely engage in disruptive behaviors;
being alone is desirable, and they do not feel particularly lonely or unhappy

Question 157

socioemotional selectivity theory (Carstensen,1993)

Answer 157

person’s social relationships decrease in number with increasing age due to a change in social goals that is related to a change in the perception of time left in life from being open-ended to constrained;
social goals have 2 main functions – knowledge acquisition (open-ended) and emotion regulation (constraint)

Question 158

early emotion development

Answer 158

1) basic (primary) emotions: interest, disgust, distress – apparent in an infant’s facial expressions; followed by sadness, joy, surprise, anger, and fear
2) self-conscious (social) emotions: envy, empathy, embarrassment; and later, guilt, shame, pride
self-conscious emotions are attributable to several factors including the child’s awareness of rules and ability to evaluate themself against those rules

Question 159

aggressive act

Answer 159

“any form of behavior designed to harm or injure a living being who is motivated to avoid such treatment”;
1) hostile: goal is to harm another person
2) instrumental: use aggression as a means to another end

Question 160

coercive family interaction cycle

Answer 160

reliance on coercion by both children and their parents to gain compliance and inadequate parental monitoring of children’s activities;
becomes increasingly aggressive over time as children imitate parents’ aggressive behaviors and are reinforced for acting aggressively when a parent eventually “gives in” or “gives up” in response to the child’s aggressive behavior

Question 161

cognitive contributions to aggression

Answer 161

believe that it is easier to perform aggressive acts than to inhibit them;
expect aggressive behavior to have positive outcomes;
exhibit little or no remorse after committing an aggressive act

Question 162

Dodge and Crick (1990) model of aggression

Answer 162

aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous acts of others as intentionally hostile.
encoding of social cues; interpretation of social cues; response search; response evaluation; and response enactment

Question 163

gender differences on aggression

Answer 163

boys become more aggressive, while girls become less aggressive;
boys likely to engage in overt (physical and verbal) forms of aggression, girls commonly engage in relational aggression (teasing, excluding).
prenatal androgen exposure (greater in boys than girls) increases the predisposition to aggression, and environmental factors then determine whether or not the potential for aggression is realized

Question 164

reducing aggression

Answer 164

teaching children alternative ways of resolving conflicts; using cognitive strategies to help them accurately interpret the statements and behaviors of others; and empathy training, in which children are encouraged to identify the feelings of others and express their own feelings in non-aggressive ways

Question 165

effects of divorce on parents

Answer 165

many exhibit a “diminished capacity to parent” that continues for about 2 years after the divorce;
ordinary household routines are disrupted, parents become inconsistent in their discipline and vacillate between being detached and highly punitive
mothers may show less affection toward their children, especially their sons, and may start to treat their sons more harshly;
fathers become more indulgent and permissive

Question 166

effects of divorce on children

Answer 166

experience painful emotions and exhibit behavioral problems during the period surrounding their parents’ divorce;
age - preschool children have most short-term negative outcomes as they cannot understand the reasons for the divorce, so blame self for it, revert to immature behaviors, develop intense separation anxiety. Long-term worse for older children - painful memories and fears about their own ability to have a happy marriage;
gender - boys experience more severe short- and long-term consequences than girls - increased noncompliance, demandingness, hostility. girls likely to exhibit withdrawal, self-criticism, internalizing behaviors

Question 167

“sleeper effect”

Answer 167

girls who were in preschool or elementary school at the time of the separation may have few problems initially but, as adolescents, exhibit noncompliance, low self-esteem, emotional problems, and antisocial behavior;
more likely than those from intact families to marry young, be pregnant prior to marriage, and choose a psychologically unstable husband

Question 168

better outcomes for children of divorce

Answer 168

children maintain a positive relationship with both parents, have frequent contact with the noncustodial parent, extended family is available as a support system, school environment is positive, the divorce does not cause substantial upheaval in the children’s daily routines;
children who have serious adjustment problems following the divorce of their parents are often those who already had difficulties before the divorce

Question 169

effects of stepparents

Answer 169

children living with a biological parent and stepparent have worse outcomes than those living with both biological parents;
often reduced when the effects of certain antecedent factors (e.g., family instability, child’s preexisting adjustment problems) are controlled and when the custodial parent has an authoritative parenting style and the stepparent is warm and involved and supports the custodial parent’s decisions without trying to exert their own control over the child

Question 170

age factors that impact effects of stepparents

Answer 170

younger children accept stepparents more readily than older children and adolescents;
problems most severe when remarriage occurs when child is early adolescence, as also dealing with normal problems of adolescence;
addition of a stepfather for younger boys reduces anxiety, anger, and other adjustment problems;

Question 171

gay or lesbian parents

Answer 171

does not increase the risk for negative developmental outcomes in children;
children do not differ in terms of gender identity, sexual orientation, personality characteristics, psychological well-being, or academic achievement;
do not differ on measures of adjustment and are no more likely to be homosexual than children of heterosexual parents

Question 172

effects of maternal employment

Answer 172

in families where both parents are employed, maternal employment is associated with greater life satisfaction for both low- and middle-income mothers as long as the mother’s employment status is consistent with her and her partner’s preferences;
children of employed mothers tend to have higher levels of self-esteem, better family and peer relations, less gender-stereotyped in their beliefs and attitudes;
daughters of employed mothers have higher levels of emotional maturity, independence, assertiveness, career and achievement orientation;
in traditional dual-earner families, children exhibit more anxiety and depression, rate themselves lower in peer acceptance and school achievement

Question 173

father-child relationships

Answer 173

spend considerably less time with their children than mothers do;
spend more time with children in play activities. the play tends to be “rough-and-tumble” while maternal interactions revolve around caregiving

Question 174

sibling relationships

Answer 174

most interactions between young siblings involve prosocial, play-oriented activities;
middle childhood - siblings rely on each other for support and companionship, but sibling rivalry increases (most intense among same gender who are 1.5-3 years apart)
adolescence - spend less time together as peer relationships become more important, begin to view each other as equals;
later adulthood - vary considerably. had a close relationship as children are likely to be even closer in late adulthood

Question 175

effects of daycare

Answer 175

high-quality daycare (provides sensitive caregiving, language and cognitive stimulation) has no negative effects on children;
may improve IQ of low-income children;
while some children who attend daycare may be less compliant with adults and more aggressive, they also are more self-sufficient, cooperative with peers, adaptable to new social situations;
infant’s attachment security affected more by quality of the mother-child relationship than attending daycare

Question 176

Montessori Method

Answer 176

the purpose of education is to provide an environment that facilitates a child’s natural initiative, abilities, and interests;
1) Practical life skills: opportunities to develop practical skills to nurture independence and self-reliance (serving food, dishes, sweeping)
2) Sensory skills: special materials and activities are used (discriminate between different sounds, colors, textures)
3) Language and Math Skills: alphabet is introduced with individual sandpaper letters that children trace, and beads, geometric shapes, and other physical materials are used to introduce children to abstract number concepts
4) Physical, social, and cultural skills:individualized physical activities and activities designed to promote shared responsibility (caring for plants and animals), respect, tolerance, compassion)

Question 177

Head Start

Answer 177

preparing preschool children from low SES backgrounds for school by providing a combination of educational programs, health services, opportunities for parent involvement, and social services;
less likely to be placed in special education classes, have better attitudes toward school, have higher achievement test scores, less likely to repeat a grade and drop out of high school;
lower risk for teen pregnancy, unemployment, and committing criminal acts

Question 178

teacher behaviors

Answer 178

from elementary through graduate school, male students are more likely to receive attention, praise, and feedback from teachers that fosters academic achievement;
teachers are more likely to describe a “good male student” as active, aggressive, assertive, adventurous, curious, energetic, independent, and inventive and “a good female student” as calm, conscientious, appreciative, cooperative, sensitive, dependable, mature, and mannerly

Question 179

Piaget’s theory of moral development

Answer 179

1) premoral stage (birth to about 5 years): children have limited understanding of rules and other aspects of morality
2) heteronomous stage (which begins at about age 5 or 6): children view rules as absolute and unchangeable and believe in imminent justice (violations of rules inevitably lead to punishment). base judgments primarily on the act’s consequences (more negative the consequences, worse the act)
3) autonomous stage (begins at about age 10 or 11): recognize that rules are determined by agreement between individuals and, consequently, are alterable. consider the intentions of the actor to be most important

Question 180

“Heinz dilemma”

Answer 180

better to steal a drug to save a person’s life or to obey the law by not stealing the drug and thereby risk the person’s life

Question 181

Kohlberg’s Theory of Moral Development

Answer 181

Level I, Preconventional
o Stage 1, Punishment and Obedience Orientation: The correct act is the one that allows the person to avoid punishment.
o Stage 2, Instrumental Hedonistic Orientation: The correct act is the one that provides the person with rewards or satisfies their needs.
Level II, Conventional
o Stage 3, “Good Boy-Good Girl” Orientation: The correct act is the one that is approved of or liked by others.
o Stage 4: Law and Order Orientation: The correct act is the one that is consistent with laws and rules set by legitimate authorities.
Level III, Postconventional
o Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation: The correct act is the one that is consistent with democratically chosen laws which can be changed for a valid reason.
o Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles Orientation: The correct act is the one that is consistent with fundamental universal ethical principles (esp justice and fairness).

Question 182

age kids lie intentionally, according to Piaget

Answer 182

7 or 8

Question 183

bilateral otitis media

Answer 183

inflammation of the left and right middle ear which impacts hearing loss

Question 184

Kubler-Ross (1969) 5 stages when faced with their own death

Answer 184

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
DABDA

Question 185

Identity process theory

Answer 185

adjustment to aging can be conceptualized as involving 3 processes
1) identity assimilation (maintaining self-consistency)
2) identity accommodation (making changes in the self)
3) identity balance (maintaining a sense of self but changing when necessary)

Question 186

age children generally begin to understand the concept of death

Answer 186

between 7 and 9

Question 187

most valid predictor of post-divorce adjustment in children two years after the divorce

Answer 187

continued exposure of children to parental conflict – whether it be while their parents are married, during the divorce process, or after a divorce

Question 188

inductive vs deductive reasoning

Answer 188

inductive reasoning - reasoning from a particular fact to a general rule;
deductive reasoning - reasoning from a general law to a particular case

Question 189

symbolic thought

Answer 189

understanding that one thing can stand for another

Question 190

Speech-act theory

Answer 190

understanding the detail of what is being said or uttered, people will understand and communicate better with others

Question 191

verbal utterance

Answer 191

defined in terms of its content, the intention of the speaker, and the effect on the listener

Question 192

locutionary act

Answer 192

an utterance of a meaningful sentence or statement, the act of saying something

Question 193

illocutionary act

Answer 193

intends to communicate - the way in which something is said

Question 194

perlocutionary act

Answer 194

seeks to change behavior - the effect of what was said on the listener or speech acts that affect the feelings, thoughts or actions of either the speaker or the listener

Question 195

propositional act

Answer 195

something referenced, but no communication may be intended

Question 196

increased risk for prematurity

Answer 196

lack of prenatal care, malnutrition, younger maternal age (especially younger than age 15), drug use, low SES, and multiple gestations;
majority of premature infants survive; and, with appropriate medical attention and a supportive environment, those without significant abnormalities often catch up to full-time peers in terms of cognitive, language, and social skills by 2 or 3

Question 197

infants develop depth perception in a predictable sequence

Answer 197

1) kinetic: based on movements of objects in the environment or the body (3 weeks)
2) binocular: 2-3 months
3) pictorial: three-dimensional (7 months)

Question 198

Fanaticism

Answer 198

person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others

Question 199

Repudiation

Answer 199

adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity

Question 200

equifinality

Answer 200

a final state or given outcome may be reached from different initial conditions and in different ways

Question 201

multifinality

Answer 201

phenomenon in which similar initial conditions may lead to different outcomes

Question 202

reminiscence bump

Answer 202

increased number of autobiographical memories older adults have for events that happened between the ages of 15-25

Question 203

gender stability

Answer 203

understanding that one’s gender does not change over time

Question 204

gender constancy

Answer 204

understanding that gender stays the same despite changes in appearance;
achieved by age 5 or 6

Question 205

Dewey

Answer 205

constructivist theory of learning;
emphasizes the experiential aspects of learning, proposing learning is the result of experiences and attempts to make sense of those experiences;
each learner individually and socially constructs meaning or knowledge for themselves as he or she learns;
focus is on the learner

Question 206

For children of divorce, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father usually results in

Answer 206

fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement if the noncustodial father is supportive and authoritative

Question 207

drug most often abused by teenagers is

Answer 207

alcohol

Question 208

Maslow’s 5 basic needs

Answer 208

arranged in hierarchical order of importance, are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization

Question 209

children’s ethnic perspective-taking ability (EPTA) stages

Answer 209

1) 3-4: begin to describe ethnicity in terms of physical traits (e.g. skin color, clothes, physical features)
2) 5-9: accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others
3) 7-12: express a social perspective of ethnicity, including prejudice
4) 10-15: begin to immerse themselves into their ethnic group

Question 210

Delinquency in adolescence is most associated with

Answer 210

weak parental supervision and parental rejection; hostile relationship between parent and adolescent

Question 211

separation anxiety timeline

Answer 211

sometimes begins as early as 5 or 6 months;
typically has its onset at 8 or 9 months;
rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months

Question 212

Research on infants who were raised by multiple changing caregivers until at least two years old were found to

Answer 212

maternal deprivation in the first few years of life doesn’t necessarily prevent children from developing strong attachments to their adopted parents - even when the adoption occurs as late as 4 to 6 years of age;
a strong attachment was more likely to develop among adopted children than children who were restored to their biological parents;
children showed “overfriendliness” toward unfamiliar adults, had more difficulties with peers, and had fewer close relationships than non-institutionalized children

Question 213

effective interventions for aggressive children

Answer 213

teach aggressive children alternative, nonaggressive, prosocial behaviors, which is a component of social-skills training

Question 214

adolescents who successfully resolve the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit

Answer 214

fidelity

Question 215

terminal drop

Answer 215

refers to findings indicating in the months before death, a substantial drop in all facets of intelligence occurs

Question 216

most associated with problem adolescent drug use

Answer 216

alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress

Question 217

esearch suggests that minority adolescents score higher than white adolescents in which stage of ethnic identity development

Answer 217

foreclosure

Question 218

stranger anxiety timeline

Answer 218

first appears in infants between 8 and 10 months of age;
intensity of stranger anxiety typically peaks at about 18 months of age and then gradually declines during the end of the second year

Question 219

rates of divorce are highest for women who

Answer 219

marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation

Question 220

most predictive of retirement satisfaction

Answer 220

engaged in activities such as paid work, volunteering, or caregiving activities, have higher levels of subjective well-being than those who are unengaged - independent of age, sex, race, marital status, education, mental and physical health, and income

Question 221

Marfan syndrome and Von Willebrand disease

Answer 221

caused by an autosomal dominant gene;
Marfan: blood clotting defects - most common hereditary bleeding disorder (1% of population)