Learning Theory

Question 1

Variable A is paired with Variable B so that, eventually the response automatically produced by variable A is also produced by variable B. Then variable B is paired with variable C so that it too produces the same response. When variable B is paired with variable C, variable B is being treated as a(n):

Select one:

a. Secondary reinforcer

b. Unconditioned stimulus

c. Primary reinforcer

d. Conditioned stimulus

Answer 1

Unconditioned Stimulus

• the technique described in the question is known as higher-order conditioning. When the original CS (Variable B) is paired with a second CS (Variable C) the original CS is acting as a US

Question 2

Research using the dismantling strategy suggests that the benefits of systematic desensitization are due to:

Select one:

a. Counterconditioning

b. Trace conditioning

c. Fading

d. Extinction

Answer 2

Extinction
- Although systematic desensitization is based on counterconditioning, research using a dismantling strategy suggests that its effects are actually due to exposure to the CS without the US (i.e., classical extinction).

Question 3

Use of Wolpe’s “reciprocal inhibition” involves:

Select one:

a. Pairing anxiety-inducing stimuli with relaxation

b. Replacing external attributions with internal attributions

c. Pairing an undesirable behavior with an aversive stimulus

d. Narrowing the cues that trigger the target response

Answer 3

Pairing anxiety-inducing stimuli with relaxation

-Reciprocal inhibition is used to reduce fear and anxiety responses and involves pairing stimuli that evoke fear with stimuli that produce relaxation or another incompatible response.

Question 4

When using in vivo aversion therapy to eliminate a client’s shoe fetish, an electric shock or other unpleasant stimulus acts as a(n):

Select one:
a. Negative punisher

b. Conditioned stimulus

c. Positive punisher

d. Unconditioned stimulus

Answer 4

Unconditioned stimulus

-In this situation, the shoe is the conditioned stimulus (CS) and will be paired with electric shock or other stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant reaction so that, eventually, the shoe also produces the unpleasant reaction. The electric shock or other stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant reaction is the unconditioned stimulus (US).

Question 5

In the context of operant conditioning, “fading” refers to which of the following?

Select one:
a. The gradual removal of prompts

b. A reduced response to punishment

c. The gradual reduction of reinforcement

d. The elimination of stimulus generalization

Answer 5

The gradual removal of prompts

-When teaching a new response, nonverbal and verbal prompts may be used to help elicit that response. Because the ultimate goal is for the response to occur independently, prompts are gradually removed once the response is well-established. This procedure is referred to as fading. For the exam, you want to be sure not to confuse fading with thinning, which refers to a reduction in reinforcement.

Question 6

In the context of operant conditioning, “thinning”, refers to which of the following?

Select one:
a. The gradual removal of prompts

b. A reduced response to punishment

c. The gradual reduction of reinforcement

d. The elimination of stimulus generalization

Answer 6

reduction in reinforcement

Question 7

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

Select one:
a. A child keeps whining because of the negative attention he receives whenever he does so

b. A boy stops fighting with his sister because, whenever he fights with her, his parents subtract 50 cents from his weekly allowance

c. A college student cleans his dorm room in order to keep his roommate from nagging him about how sloppy he is

d. A truck driver stops speeding after receiving her third ticket for driving over the speed limit

Answer 7

A college student cleans his dorm room in order to keep his roommate from nagging him about how sloppy he is

-Negative reinforcement is occurring when a behavior is performed (increases) to escape or avoid a stimulus. In this case, the student cleans his room to avoid his roommate’s nagging. Negative reinforcement, like positive reinforcement, results in an increase in a behavior. In responses “a” and “d”, a behavior is not being performed (i.e., is decreasing) because of the consequences. Both of these situations are examples of punishment. Response “b” is an example of positive reinforcement: The boy’s whining is increasing because of the stimulus that is applied following the whining.

Question 8

Skinner attributed the “superstitious” behaviors of his experimental animals to which of the following?

Select one:

a. Successive approximation conditioning

b. Higher-order conditioning

c. Overcorrection

d. Accidental reinforcement

Answer 8

Skinner found that the odd behaviors exhibited by pigeons in his study were the result of accidental pairing of reinforcers with those behaviors. For example, if a pigeon was accidentally reinforced with food while it was pecking at the floor, it would continue pecking at the floor even though it had never been deliberately reinforced for doing so. Skinner concluded that the superstitious behaviors of humans can be attributed to accidental reinforcement.

The correct answer is: Accidental reinforcement

Question 9

The parents of a 7-month-old complain that he whines constantly and that he will only stop whining when they pick him up. The psychologist tells them to stop picking the boy up when he whines. When the parents do so, which of the following is most likely to occur?
Select one:

a. The child’s whining will be replaced by another undesirable behavior

b. The child’s whining will continue to increase

c. The child’s whining will first increase, then decrease

d. The child’s whining will gradually decrease

Answer 9

Use of extinction to eliminate a previously reinforced response often results in a temporary extinction (response) burst.

The correct answer is: The child’s whining will first increase, then decrease

Question 10

You reward a child whenever he does not exhibit the target behavior but, instead, engages in other activities during a prespecified period of time. This is called:
Select one:

a. Response cost

b. Time out

c. Differential reinforcement

d. Overcorrection

Answer 10

Differential reinforcement for other behaviors (D.R.O.) involves reinforcing a person when he/she exhibits other, alternative behaviors to the target behavior during a prespecified period of time (e.g., every 10 minutes).

The correct answer is: Differential reinforcement

Question 11

Mrs. Ichthys teaches her son to feed his pet goldfish by first showing him how to put the fish food into the aquarium. Once the boy has mastered that task, she teaches him to open the container of fish food and then put it into the aquarium. Finally, she teaches her son to open the cupboard, take out the container of fish food, open it, and put the food into the aquarium. The procedure that Mrs. Ichthys has used is best described as:
Select one:

a.Forward chaining

b.Sequential training

c.Stimulus control training

d.Backward chaining

Answer 11

Mrs. Ichthys’s son has been taught a complex behavior by teaching him the individual responses in the “behavior chain.” Since Mrs. Ichthys has started with the last behavior and “worked backward” from there, this is best described as an example of backward chaining.

The correct answer is: Backward chaining

Question 12

In their revision of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989) emphasize the role of:
Select one:

a.Genetic predisposition

b.Internal attributions

c.Punishment

d.Feelings of hopelessness

Answer 12

In their version of the learned helplessness hypothesis, Abramson et al. de-emphasize the role of attributions (emphasized in the previous version) and emphasize the role of hopelessness in the development of depression.
60’s - Uncontrollable (-) events
70’s - Attributions
80’s - Hopelessness

The correct answer is: Feelings of hopelessness

Question 13

When relying on the therapeutic approach of Beck, a cognitive therapist would emphasize use of which of the following?
Select one:

a. Socratic questioning

b.Circular questioning

c.Positioning

d.Deflection

Answer 13

An essential technique in Beck’s cognitive therapy is guided discovery, which makes use of Socratic questioning that is designed to help the individual identify the impact of cognitions on emotions and behavior.

The correct answer is: Socratic questioning

Question 14

As described by Beck, automatic thoughts involve:
Select one:

a.Seeing causal connections between unrelated events

b.Interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways

c.Enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced

d.“shoulds,” “musts,” or “oughts.”

Answer 14

As the name implies, automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also have an interpretive (evaluative) component – e.g., “this is awful.”

The correct answer is: Interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways

Question 15

The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation training are:

Select one:

a.Cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction

b.Education, skills acquisition, and application

c.Formulation, problem focus, and termination

d.Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Answer 15

Unfortunately, the names given to the three stages of stress inoculation vary somewhat in the literature. The first stage is referred to as the education, conceptualization, or cognitive phase; the second stage as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase; and the third phase as the application or application and follow-through phase.

The correct answer is: Education, skills acquisition, and application

Question 16

Thermal biofeedback would be most effective as a treatment for:
Select one:

a.Hyperventilation

b.Raynaud’s disease

c.Gerstmann’s syndrome

d.Stuttering

Answer 16

Raynaud’s disease is a disorder of the blood vessels that limits circulation to certain areas of the body (usually the fingers and toes). Thermal (temperature) biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for this disorder.

The correct answer is: Raynaud’s disease

Question 17

One of your closest friends recently changed her e-mail address and, when you begin to compose an e-mail message to her, you accidentally type her old e-mail address. Which of the following best explains your error?
Select one:

a.Decay theory

b.Cue-dependent forgetting

c.Proactive interference

d.Retroactive interference

Answer 17

Proactive interference occurs when previously acquired information (your friend’s old e-mail address) interferes with the ability to learn or recall recently or newly acquired information (your friend’s new e-mail address).
Retroactive interference occurs when recently acquired information interferes with your ability to recall previously acquired information. According to decay theory, forgetting is due to the fading of memory traces over time. Cue-dependent forgetting occurs when there are insufficient retrieval cues.

The correct answer is: Proactive interference

Question 18

According to decay theory, forgetting is due to…

Answer 18

the fading of memory traces over time

Question 19

Cue-dependent forgetting occurs when

Answer 19

there are insufficient retrieval cues.

Question 20

You are given a list of 12 unrelated words to remember. After reviewing the list several times, the list is taken away and you engage in a distracting task for ten seconds. After a brief delay, you are then asked to recall the words in any order. Your recall will be best for:

Select one:

a.Words that have only one syllable

b.Words in the middle of the list

c.Words at the end of the list

d.Words in the beginning of the list

Answer 20

This question is asking about the serial position effect. Research on this phenomenon has found that when there is a delay between learning and recall, words at the beginning of the list are remembered best. (When there is no delay, words in the beginning and end of the list are remembered best and to about the same degree.)

The correct answer is: Words in the beginning of the list

Question 21

Sensory memory:

Select one:

a.Holds a large amount of sensory data for a long period

b.Holds a very small amount of sensory data for a long period

c.Holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period

d.Holds a very small amount of sensory data for a brief period

Answer 21

Sensory memory seems to be able to store a large number of sensory events, but it does so for only a very brief period of time (.5 to 1 second).

The correct answer is: Holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period

Question 22

As described by the levels of processing model of memory (Craik & Tulving, 1975),__________ processing is the deepest level.
Select one:

a.Semantic

b.Structural

c.Iconic

d.Implicit

Answer 22

The levels of processing model distinguishes between three levels of information processing which, from shallowest to deepest, are structural, phonemic, and semantic. Semantic processing produces the best recall and involves processing terms, concepts, etc. in terms of their meaning.

The correct answer is: Semantic

Question 23

Classical extinction occurs when:
Select one:

a.the CS is repeatedly presented alone.

b.the US is repeatedly presented alone.

c.the US and CS are presented simultaneously.

d.the CS is presented after the US.

Answer 23

Extinction refers to the elimination of a conditioned response (CR).

Answer A is correct: Extinction of a CR occurs when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (US).

The correct answer is: the CS is repeatedly presented alone.

Question 24

Dr. Daniel Daggett presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that, eventually, a participant in his study reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Daggett then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:
Select one:

a.stimulus generalization.

b.higher-order conditioning.

c.response generalization.

d.shaping.

Answer 24

In this situation, a conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the former eventually elicits a conditioned response. Then a second conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with the original conditioned stimulus so that it also elicits the conditioned response.

Answer B is correct: This procedure is referred to as higher-order conditioning and, in the second step, involves treating the original conditioned stimulus like an unconditioned stimulus when is paired with the second conditioned stimulus.

The correct answer is: higher-order conditioning.

Question 25

In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following?
Select one:

a.overshadowing

b.spontaneous recovery

c.experimental neurosis

d.learned helplessness

Answer 25

This question is describing trials that required dogs to make difficult discriminations.

Answer C is correct: Pavlov found that difficult discriminations produced experimental neurosis – i.e., uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression. Additional information on experimental neurosis is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: experimental neurosis

Question 26

In Watson’s research, Little Albert’s fear of white fur and cotton was the result of:
Select one:

a.spontaneous recovery.

b.higher-order conditioning.

c.stimulus generalization.

d.experimental neurosis.

Answer 26

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. These terms are defined in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer C is correct: Watson used classical conditioning to establish a fear reaction in Little Albert to a white rat. Subsequently, Albert exhibited a great deal of stimulus generalization – i.e., he also exhibited a fear response to other white furry objects.

The correct answer is: stimulus generalization.

Question 27

Rescorla and Wagner (1972) contend that “blocking” occurs because:
Select one:

a.the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.

b.one neutral stimulus is more salient than the other neutral stimulus.

c.the new neutral stimulus is similar to the original CS.

d. one of the neutral stimuli is “overshadowed” by the US.

Answer 27

Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus and an established CS are presented together prior to the US.

Answer A is correct: According to Rescorla and Wagner, the new neutral stimulus does not elicit a CR when presented alone because it provides redundant information and, as a result, an association between that stimulus and the US is not made.

The correct answer is: the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.

Question 28

To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:
Select one:

a.a conditioned stimulus.

b.an unconditioned stimulus.

c.a negative punisher.

d.a negative reinforcer.

Answer 28

In this situation, two stimuli are being “paired” in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. This procedures describes classical conditioning, would eliminates Answers C and D since punishers and reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning.

Answer B is correct: The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus (US).

Answer A is incorrect: The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in this situation. By being paired with stale cigarette smoke, it eventually elicits nausea.

Answer C is incorrect: A Skinnerian might describe the stale cigarette smoke as a positive (not negative) punishment, but a Skinnerian would not claim that a new response to smoking had been established, only that the person avoids cigarettes in order to avoid the punishment.

Answer D is incorrect: See explanations above.

The correct answer is: an unconditioned stimulus.

Question 29

Davidson and Parker’s (2001) meta-analysis of the research indicated that the effectiveness of EMDR as a treatment for PTSD is attributable to which of the following?
Select one:

a.positive self-statements

b.lateral eye movements

c.in vivo counterconditioning

d.exposure to feared stimuli in imagination

Answer 29

EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD but has since been applied to other disorders including panic attacks, depression, and substance use.

Answer D is correct: Based on their meta-analysis of the research, Davidson and Parker concluded that “eye movements are unnecessary and that EMDR may be viewed as an imaginal exposure technique” (2001, p. 2).

The correct answer is: exposure to feared stimuli in imagination

Question 30

In vivo aversion therapy would be most effective as a treatment for which of the following?
Select one:

a.Specific Phobia

b.Paraphilia

c.PTSD

d.Factitious Disorder

Answer 30

In vivo aversion therapy is used to eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing that behavior (or stimuli associated with it) with a stimulus that naturally elicits an undesirable response.

Answer B is correct: In vivo aversion therapy is used to treat paraphilias, addictions, and self-injurious behaviors.

The correct answer is: Paraphilia

Question 31

In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:
Select one:

a.mediated generalization.

b.graded desensitization.

c.counterconditioning.

d.classical extinction.

Answer 31

Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US.

Answer D is correct: Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response and involves presenting the CS without the US.

Answer A is incorrect: Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization, which involves responding to similar stimuli with the same conditioned response.

Answer B is incorrect: As its name implies, graded desensitization involves a gradual exposure to the feared stimulus. Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposure to a high intensity stimulus.

Answer C is incorrect: Counterconditioning entails presenting a US that is incompatible with the CS so that the current response (e.g., anxiety) is eventually replaced by the desired response (e.g., relaxation).

The correct answer is: classical extinction.

Question 32

When using covert sensitization:
Select one:

a.the CS and US are presented in imagination.

b.the CS and US are presented simultaneously.

c.the least anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.

d.the most anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.

Answer 32

Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning.

Answer A is correct: When using covert sensitization, the CS and US are presented in imagination rather than in vivo (reality).

The correct answer is: the CS and US are presented in imagination.

Question 33

Question ID:26341 Which of the following treatments combines exposure to a feared stimulus with a psychodynamic interpretation of the fear?
Select one:

a.overcorrection

b.implosive therapy

c.covert sensitization

d.flooding

Answer 33

Of the responses given, only one consists of a combination of behavioral techniques and psychodynamic principles.

Answer B is correct: Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors.

Answer A is incorrect: Overcorrection is an operant technique that is usually classified as a type of punishment.

Answer C is incorrect: Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning that is conducted in imagination. It does not incorporate psychodynamic interpretation.

Answer D is incorrect: Flooding is a type of in vivo exposure with response prevention that involves exposing the individual to the most anxiety-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time.

The correct answer is: implosive therapy

Question 34

According to the __________, the relative frequency of responding to an alternative corresponds to the frequency of reinforcement for responding to that alternative.

Select one:

a.law of effect

b.matching law

c.law of contiguity

d.Premack Principle

Answer 34

Although this sentence is difficult to “translate,” it is basically saying that the frequency of responding matches the frequency of reinforcement.

Answer B is correct: The statement in the question defines the matching law (Herrnstein, 1970), which states that the frequency of responding to two or more alternatives (e.g., pressing two or more levers) matches the frequency of being reinforced for doing so.

Answer A is incorrect: According to Thorndike’s law of effect, a behavior that is followed by a “satisfying consequence” will be likely to occur again.

Answer C is incorrect: The law of contiguity states that learning depends on the proximity of stimuli in space and time.

Answer D is incorrect: The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement that involves using a high frequency behavior as a reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.

The correct answer is: matching law

Question 35

A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period of time. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy to get him to leave his sister alone. The boy is influencing his mother’s behavior (yelling) through:
Select one:

a.negative punishment.

b.positive punishment.

c.negative reinforcement.

d.positive reinforcement.

Answer 35

In this situation, the mother’s yelling is increasing because, when she yells, the boy stops picking on his sister.

Answer C is correct: The mother’s yelling is increasing, which means that it is being reinforced; and it is being reinforced by the removal of her son’s undesirable behavior, which means that it is being negatively reinforced. Additional information about reinforcement and punishment is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A is incorrect: By definition, punishment decreases a behavior – but, in this situation, the mother’s behavior is increasing.

Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answers A and C.

Answer D is incorrect: Positive reinforcement involves the application (rather than withdrawal) of a stimulus following a behavior.

The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.

Question 36

A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says “please” following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says “please” will:
Select one:

a.quickly decrease.

b.slowly decrease.

c.temporarily increase.

d.stay the same.

Answer 36

Removal of reinforcement following a behavior ordinarily leads to a gradual extinction of that behavior. However, the termination of the behavior is not immediate.

Answer C is correct: When reinforcement for a previously reinforced response is removed, there is often a temporary “extinction burst” (increase in the response) before it begins to decrease.

The correct answer is: temporarily increase.

Question 37

A “scallop” in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?
Select one:

a.fixed interval

b.fixed ratio

c.variable interval

d.variable ratio

Answer 37

Each intermittent schedule of reinforcement is associated with a different pattern of responding.

Answer A is correct: On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a “scallop” in the cumulative recording.

The correct answer is: fixed interval

Question 38

During the initial stages of a behavior change intervention, verbal or nonverbal prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behavior. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as:
Select one:

a.blocking.

b.shaping.

c.thinning.

d.fading.

Answer 38

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question.

Answer D is correct: The term “fading” is used to describe the gradual removal of a prompt.

The correct answer is: fading.

Question 39

Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:
Select one:

a. a signal is provided that indicates that positive reinforcement will be withheld.

b. a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.

c. the target behavior is positively reinforced.

d. the discriminative stimulus is removed.
Feedback

Answer 39

Escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between them.

Answer B is correct: Avoidance conditioning is more complex than escape conditioning and involves presenting a cue immediately before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented. Additional information about escape and avoidance conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.

Question 40

In the context of stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus:
Select one:

a.signals that a behavior will be reinforced.

b.signals that the individual can choose between two or more reinforcers.

c.is a type of primary reinforcer.

d.is a type of secondary reinforcer.

Answer 40

When the occurrence of a behavior is affected by the presence of a discriminative stimulus, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control.

Answer A is correct: A positive discriminative stimulus indicates that the behavior will be reinforced, while a negative discriminative stimulus indicates that it will not be reinforced.

The correct answer is: signals that a behavior will be reinforced.

Question 41

Thorndike’s research with cats in puzzle boxes provided information about:
Select one:

a.trial-and-error learning.

b.insight learning.

c.generative learning.

d.overlearning.

Answer 41

Thorndike was interested in the slow, trial-and-error nature of the cats’ learning.

Answer A is correct: He concluded that learning was not due to mental events but to connections that develop between stimuli and responses as the result of trial-and-error.

The correct answer is: trial-and-error learning.

Question 42

A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach this sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee?
Select one:

a.forward conditioning

b.differential reinforcement

c.shaping

d.chaining

Answer 42

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer D is correct: Chaining is used to establish a complex sequence of behaviors (i.e., a “behavioral chain”) like the one described in this question.

The correct answer is: chaining

Question 43

An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as:
Select one:

a.response cost.

b.overcorrection.

c.time-out.

d.classical extinction.

Answer 43

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer C is correct: Time-out is also known as “time-out from positive reinforcement” and involves removing all reinforcement for a specified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease or eliminate that behavior.

The correct answer is: time-out.

Question 44

A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever students in his class misbehave in order to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following?
Select one:

a.positive punishment

b.negative punishment

c.positive reinforcement

d.negative reinforcement

Answer 44

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between the different types of punishment and reinforcement so that you can answer questions like this one. Additional information about punishment and reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A is correct: Verbal reprimands are used to reduce an undesirable behavior and involve applying a stimulus following that behavior – i.e., they are a form of positive punishment.

Answer B is incorrect: Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Answer C is incorrect: Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.

Answer D is incorrect: Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.

The correct answer is: positive punishment

Question 45

Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as which of the following?
Select one:

a.a combination of punishment and positive reinforcement

b.a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement

c.a straightforward application of positive reinforcement

d.a straightforward application of negative reinforcement

Answer 45

Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing all behaviors except the target behavior.

Answer B is correct: When using differential reinforcement, the individual receives positive reinforcement for desirable behaviors while the target behavior is ignored. In other words, desirable behaviors are positively reinforced while the target behavior is extinguished. An example of differential reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement

Question 46

“Grandma’s rule” – e.g., “You must eat your string beans before you can go outside to play” – is most similar to which of the following techniques?
Select one:

a.Premack Principle

b.escape conditioning

c.response cost

d.negative practice
Feedback

Answer 46

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A is correct: Use of a high-frequency behavior (going out to play) to reinforce a low-frequency behavior (eating string beans) to increase the low-frequency behavior is referred to as the Premack Principle.

The correct answer is: Premack Principle

Question 47

In a token economy, the tokens are:
Select one:

a.back-up reinforcers.

b.generalized secondary reinforcers.

c. discriminative stimuli.

d.unconditioned stimuli.

Answer 47

A token economy is a structured environment in which desirable behaviors are reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged for desired items, activities, etc.

Answer B is correct: Tokens are generalized secondary reinforcers that have value only because they can be exchanged for primary reinforcers.

Answer A is incorrect: The items and activities that can be “purchased” with tokens are back-up (primary) reinforcers.

Answer C is incorrect: Discriminative stimuli signal whether or not a particular behavior will be reinforced.

Answer D is incorrect: Tokens are conditioned (not unconditioned) stimuli since they have no reinforcing value on their own but are reinforcing only because they can be exchanged for desirable items, activities, etc.

The correct answer is: generalized secondary reinforcers.

Question 48

The technique known as “overcorrection” consists of:
Select one:

a.education, behavioral rehearsal, and generalization.

b.positive punishment, positive practice, and generalization.

c.restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance.

d.restitution, behavioral rehearsal, and differential reinforcement.

Answer 48

Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it.

Answer C is correct: Overcorrection consists of two phases – restitution and positive practice. In addition, it may also require physically guiding the individual through the corrective behaviors.

The correct answer is: restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance.

Question 49

You would conduct a functional behavioral assessment to:
Select one:

a.identify an examinee’s strengths and weaknesses with regard to a specific content domain.

b.identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior.

c.determine the expectations of others (e.g., parents or teachers) regarding a child’s performance.

d.determine the knowledge and skills required to perform a job or task successfully.

Answer 49

As its name implies, a functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is conducted to identify the functions of a behavior.

Answer B is correct: An FBA is conducted to identify the environmental factors (antecedents and consequences) that control the target behavior.

The correct answer is: identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior.

Question 50

A researcher designs a study to investigate college students’ expectations regarding their ability to master a new skill, achieve a particular goal, or produce a particular outcome. Apparently, this researcher is interested in which of the following phenomena?
Select one:

a.locus of control

b.need for achievement

c.self-actualization

d.self-efficacy

Answer 50

Answer D is correct: Bandura used the term self-efficacy to refer to an individual’s beliefs or expectations regarding his or her ability to perform specific behaviors. For example, a person has high self-efficacy beliefs when she believes that she has the knowledge or skills necessary to successfully complete a particular task. Of the phenomena listed in the answers, self-efficacy best describes the researcher’s interest.

Answer A is incorrect: Rotter used the term locus of control to refer to a person’s beliefs about the factors that control his or her outcomes, and he distinguished between an internal and external locus of control.

Answer B is incorrect: McClelland used the term need for achievement to refer to an acquired characteristic that motivates individuals to undertake tasks when there is a moderate probability for successful performance.

Answer C is incorrect: As defined by Maslow, self-actualization refers to the full use or development of one’s potential.

The correct answer is: self-efficacy

Question 51

Bandura’s notion of reciprocal determinism is useful for explaining:
Select one:

a.how a more desirable response can be used to replace an undesirable response.

b.how the individual and his or her environment influence each other.

c.how learning can occur without being manifested in performance.

d.why a behavior is performed without being internally or externally reinforced.

Answer 51

As defined by Bandura, reciprocal determinism refers to the interactions between a person’s characteristics, the person’s behavior, and the environment.

Answer B is correct: Bandura rejected the behavioral view of the environment as a one-way determinant of behavior and proposed, instead, that there is a reciprocal (influential and interactive) relationship between the person’s cognitive, affective, and other characteristics, the person’s behavior, and the environment.

Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes Wolpe’s notion of reciprocal inhibition.

Answer C is incorrect: Although Bandura believed that learning can occur without being manifested in performance, this is not a prediction or assumption of his notion of reciprocal determinism.

Answer D is incorrect: Bandura’s social learning theory addresses the role of reinforcement in the acquisition of a behavior, but this part of his theory is not directly relevant to the notion of reciprocal determinism. In addition, the theory states that learning of a behavior can occur without reinforcement but performance of that behavior is more likely when the behavior is reinforced.

The correct answer is: how the individual and his or her environment influence each other.

Question 52

Bandura’s research on the effects of modeling for treating snake phobia found that which of the following was the most effective strategy?
Select one:

a.symbolic modeling

b.participant modeling

c.covert modeling

d.vicarious modeling

Answer 52

Bandura’s research on observational learning included comparing the effectiveness of several types of modeling.

Answer B is correct: Bandura found that participant modeling (observing a model followed by guided participation) was the most effective method for eliminating phobic reactions. Additional information about Bandura’s theory and research is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: participant modeling

Question 53

From the perspective of the reformulated version of the learned helplessness model, depression results when a person attributes negative events to:
Select one:

a.external, stable, and global factors.

b.external, unstable, and specific factors.

c.internal, unstable, and specific factors.

d.internal, stable, and global factors.
Feedback

Answer 53

Abramson et al.’s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model.

Answer D is correct: According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives – i.e., they make internal, stable, and global attributions.

The correct answer is: internal, stable, and global factors.

Question 54

Kohler’s (1925) research with chimpanzees led to his description of which of the following?
Select one:

a.cognitive maps

b.observational learning

c.insight learning

d.”superstitious” behavior

Answer 54

Kohler’s research led him to conclude that learning can be the result of an “aha” experience.

Answer C is correct: Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an “aha” experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.

Answer A is incorrect: Tolman concluded that rats in his studies had developed cognitive maps of the mazes they were allowed to explore.

Answer B is incorrect: Bandura is associated with observational learning.

Answer D is incorrect: Skinner found that accidental, noncontingent reinforcement can lead to “superstitious” behavior.

The correct answer is: insight learning

Question 55

Tolman used the notion of “cognitive maps” as support for which of the following?
Select one:

a.the law of effect

b.insight learning

c.latent learning

d.observational learning

Answer 55

Answer C is correct: Tolman’s notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze – i.e., they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and he referred to this as latent learning.

The correct answer is: latent learning

Question 56

According to Beck (1967, 1984), ideas or images that come without effort and that elicit an emotional reaction are:
Select one:

a.cognitive distortions.

b.automatic thoughts.

c.prototypes.

d.schemata.

Answer 56

Beck distinguishes between automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions, and cognitive schemas.

Answer B is correct: This is an accurate description of automatic thoughts, which occur automatically and elicit an emotional response.

Answer A is incorrect: Cognitive distortions are maladaptive ways of processing information and may underlie automatic thoughts.

Answer C is incorrect: Prototypes are models that contain the most salient or typical features of an event, object, etc.

Answer D is incorrect: Schemata are cognitive structures that guide an individual’s perceptions and appraisals.

The correct answer is: automatic thoughts.

Question 57

A practitioner of Beck’s cognitive therapy uses __________ questions to help clients identify and correct their logical errors and biases.
Select one:

a.Socratic

b.exception

c.circular

d.scaling

Answer 57

Socratic questioning (dialogue) involves asking questions designed to help the client identify and replace maladaptive beliefs.

Answer A is correct: Examples of Socratic questions include “Is there any evidence for this belief?” and “What are the advantages and disadvantages of thinking this way?”

Answer B is incorrect: Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapies to help identify times in a client’s life that were not problematic.

Answer C is incorrect: Circular questions are used by Milan systemic therapists to help family members recognize similarities and differences in their perceptions.

Answer D is incorrect: Scaling questions are used by solution-focused therapists to measure changes in attitude, motivation, feelings, etc.

The correct answer is: Socratic

Question 58

A therapy client says, “I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless, incompetent person.” As described by Aaron Beck, this is an example of:
Select one:

a.selective abstraction.

b.overgeneralization.

c.personalization.

d.emotional reasoning.

Answer 58

Answer D is correct: Emotional reasoning occurs when a person believes that things are a certain way because he or she feels they are that way (i.e., “I feel, therefore I am”).

The correct answer is: emotional reasoning.

Question 59

Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following?
Select one:

a.lower back pain

b.hypertension

c.insomnia

d.Raynaud’s disease

Answer 59

Researchers have compared the effectiveness of biofeedback and relaxation training for a number of disorders including those listed in the answers to this question.

Answer D is correct: As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, the research has found relaxation training to be as effective or more effective than biofeedback for lower back pain, hypertension, and insomnia. However, thermal biofeedback is more effective for Raynaud’s disease.

The correct answer is: Raynaud’s disease

Question 60

Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are the three overlapping phases of which of the following strategies?
Select one:

a.problem-solving therapy

b.attribution retraining

c.stress inoculation

d.self-instructional training

Answer 60

Answer C is correct: Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through).

The correct answer is: stress inoculation

Question 61

In Albert Ellis’s A-B-C model, B refers to:
Select one:

a.behaviors and emotions that occur in response to an antecedent event.

b.beliefs about an antecedent event.

c.behaviors and emotions that occur in response to beliefs about an antecedent event.

d.biological (physiological) responses to an antecedent event.

Answer 61

Ellis’s Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) is based on the assumption that emotional and behavioral reactions are the result of a chain of events.

Answer B is correct: In Ellis’s model, A refers to the antecedent event;
B is the person’s belief about the antecedent event; and
C is the emotional or behavioral consequence (response) to B.

The correct answer is: beliefs about an antecedent event.

Question 62

Rehm’s self-control therapy focuses on which of the following?
Select one:

a.self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

b.self-esteem, self-determination, and self-evaluation

c.self-monitoring, self-management, and self-actualization

d.self-evaluation, self-determination, and self-acceptance

Answer 62

Rehm’s self-control therapy is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control can increase a person’s vulnerability to depression.

Answer A is correct: Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement are the three targets of self-control therapy.

The correct answer is: self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Question 63

The notion of “collaborative empiricism” is associated with:
Select one:

a.Ellis.

b.Beck.

c.Adler.

d.Perls.

Answer 63

Collaborative empiricism refers to the collaborative relationship between client and therapist that involves working together to gather data and test the logic of the client’s thoughts and beliefs.

Answer B is correct: Collaborative empiricism is a key strategy of Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this strategy, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client’s beliefs.

The correct answer is: Beck.

Question 64

A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble:
Select one:

a.remembering a future meeting with a co-worker.

b.remembering what she did on her last birthday.

c.recalling how to play the violin after not doing so for several years.

d.recalling the information needed to answer this question.

Answer 64

Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future.

Answer A is correct: A person with deficits in prospective memory would have trouble remembering a future meeting or appointment.

Answer B is incorrect: Deficits in episodic memory would affect the ability to recall a personally experienced event that occurred in the past.

Answer C is incorrect: Deficits in procedural memory might affect a person’s ability to recall how to play a musical instrument.

Answer D is incorrect: Deficits in semantic memory might affect the ability to recall the answer to this question.

The correct answer is: remembering a future meeting with a co-worker.

Question 65

A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room while memorizing and then recalling the list (e.g., one item on the TV, one under the coffee table, one on the chair). This is referred to as:
Select one:

a.the keyword method.

b.the method of loci.

c.the serial position effect.

d.elaborative rehearsal.

Answer 65

Answer B is correct: The method of loci (“method of places”) is a mnemonic device that makes use of visual imagery.

The correct answer is: the method of loci.

Question 66

As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch’s (1974) multi-component model, the ________ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information.
Select one:

a.cognitive sketchpad

b.sensory coding system

c.central executive

d.episodic buffer

Answer 66

According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems – the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.

Answer C is correct: The central executive is the primary component of working memory and acts as an “attentional control system.” Additional information about this model is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: central executive

Question 67

Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels-of-processing model:
Select one:

a.describes memory in terms of a “dual store.”

b.implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.

c.focuses on the biological correlates of sensory, short-term, and long-term memory.

d.implies that the duration of rehearsal is more important than the depth of rehearsal.

Answer 67

As its name suggests, the levels-of-processing model assumes that memory for information is affected by the depth of processing of that information.

Answer B is correct: The levels-of-processing model distinguishes between three levels – structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic (“meaning”) level, and elaborative rehearsal involves encoding information at the semantic level.

The correct answer is: implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.

Question 68

Echoic is to iconic as:
Select one:

a.procedural is to declarative.

b.temporary is to permanent.

c.external is to internal.

d.auditory is to visual.

Answer 68

The terms echoic and iconic provide cues as to what they refer to – i.e., “echo” suggests sound, while “icon” suggests an image.

Answer D is correct: The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories and refer, respectively, to memory for auditory stimuli and memory for visual stimuli.

The correct answer is: auditory is to visual.

Question 69

In high school, Stuart S. took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During his first year of college, Stuart took French and, at the end of the year, he found that he had trouble remembering many Spanish words. This is best explained by which of the following?
Select one:

a.retroactive interference

b.proactive interference

c.anterograde decay

d.retrograde decay

Answer 69

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between retroactive and proactive interference so that you can answer questions like this one. The Learning Theory chapter includes diagrams that may help you distinguish between them.

Answer A is correct: Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with the ability to recall something learned in the past.

Answer B is incorrect: Proactive interference occurs when something learned in the past interferes with the ability to learn or recall something learned in the present.

Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer A.

Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer A.

The correct answer is: retroactive interference

Question 70

Studies on the “serial position effect” have provided information on:
Select one:

a.primacy and recency effects.

b.retrograde and anterograde amnesia.

c.echoic and iconic memory.

d.proactive and retroactive interference.

Answer 70

The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list.

Answer A is correct: Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of a list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect.

The correct answer is: primacy and recency effects.

Question 71

The phenomena known as retroactive and proactive interference are most useful for understanding which of the following?
Select one:

A.Habituation versus satiation

B.Anterograde amnesia

C.Memory consolidation

D.Forgetting (loss of memory)

Answer 71

Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information hinders the ability to recall information learned more recently; while retroactive interference occurs when information acquired more recently hinders the ability to recall previously acquired information. Retroactive and proactive interference provide an alternative explanation to trace decay theory for the inability to recall previously acquired information.

Answer A: Habituation occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness, whereas satiation occurs when a reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value.

Answer B: Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new long-term memories.

Answer C: Memory consolidation refers to the process whereby learning experiences in short-term memory are transformed into long-term memory.

Question 72

All of the following techniques are based on principles of classical conditioning except:
Select one:

A.systematic desensitization

B.covert sensitization

C.response cost

D.implosive therapy

Answer 72

The correct answer is C.

Note that this question is asking which technique is NOT based on classical conditioning. Response cost is a type of negative punishment (operant conditioning) that involves removing a reinforcer following a target behavior to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Answer A: Incorrect. Systematic desensitization is an evidence-based therapy approach for treating phobias and other anxiety by exposing patients to progressively more anxiety-provoking stimuli while teaching the use of relaxation techniques. It aims to substitute the anxiety response with a relaxation response using counter conditioning.

Answer B: Incorrect. Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning that involves pairing the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (US) in imagination.

Answer D: Incorrect. Implosive therapy is a behavior therapy for anxiety that combines classical extinction with psychodynamic principles. Additional information on the techniques listed in the answers to this question is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Question 73

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement:
Select one:

A. A mom gives her 2-year-old son a sticker every time he picks up his toys.

B. A mom takes away her 16-year-old daughter’s car keys every time she fails a test at school.

C. A teacher gives students extra credit every two weeks to students who have perfect attendance for that period of time.

D. A teacher makes the weekly essay assignment optional if students complete all homework assignments for the week.

Answer 73

The correct answer is D.

Negative reinforcement is the removal of an aversive stimulus following a target behavior in order to increase the frequency of the target behavior. In this case, if students complete their homework for the week, they do not have to do the extra work of writing an essay that week. The removal of the aversive stimulus (i.e., writing the essay) will increase the frequency or likelihood that students will complete their homework (i.e., the target behavior).

Answer A: This is an example of positive reinforcement on a continuous reinforcement schedule; the son is rewarded each time the target behavior (i.e., picking up his toys) occurs, which will likely increase this behavior.

Answer B: This is an example of punishment by removal. The mom hopes that by taking away her daughter’s car keys, it will decrease the number of tests she fails.

Answer C: This is an example of positive reinforcement on a fixed interval reinforcement schedule (i.e., reward every two weeks if the target behavior of perfect attendance occurred).

Question 74

When using punishment to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior, it is important to keep in mind that gradually increasing the intensity or severity of a punishment will likely reduce its effectiveness. This reduction in the effectiveness of punishment is referred to as:
Select one:

A.satiation

B.habituation

C.sensitization

D.extinction

Answer 74

The correct answer is B.

The question describes habituation which, in the context of punishment, occurs when the punisher loses its effectiveness. Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time is usually ineffective because it leads to habituation.

Answer A: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value because the individual has received too much reinforcement.

Answer C: In the context of punishment, sensitization occurs when an individual’s response to a neutral (innocuous) stimulus increases after the individual has been exposed to a punishing (aversive) stimulus.

Answer D: In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when a previously reinforced response is no longer reinforced and, as a result, the response decreases or no longer occurs.

Question 75

As originally described by Wolpe (1958), reciprocal inhibition involved replacing:
Select one:

A.an automatic response with an intentional response

B.a dysfunctional thought with a more functional one

C.an anxiety response with a relaxation response

D.an external attribution with an internal attribution

Answer 75

Reciprocal inhibition involves using classical conditioning to replace an undesirable response with an incompatible response. The term reciprocal inhibition is often used interchangeably with counterconditioning. Wolpe originally used reciprocal inhibition to reduce anxiety. This involved pairing, in imagination, anxiety-arousing events with relaxation, which is incompatible with anxiety.

Answer A: This answer sounds most like self-instructional training (SIT) developed by Meichenbaum and Goodman (1971). The main goal of the treatment is to teach hyperactive and impulsive children to insert more adaptive and self-controlling thoughts between a stimulus situation and their behavioral response to the situation.

Answer B: A target of Beck’s (1967, 1984) cognitive therapy is to identify cognitive dysfunctions and modify them.

Answer D: The goal of attribution retraining is to alter the individual’s perceptions of the causes of his or her problematic behavior. Seligman’s theory of learned optimism seeks to help clients attribute their failures to external, unstable, and specific factors and successes to internal, stable, and global factors.

Question 76

Question ID #10868: Research on primacy and recency effects has shown that:
Select one:

A.memory for the first item in a list decreases while memory for the last item increases as the delay between study and recall increases

B.memory for the first item in a list increases while memory for the last item decreases as the delay between study and recall increases

C.memory for the first and the last item decreases as the delay between study and recall increases

D.memory for the first and the last item increases as the delay between study and recall increases.

Answer 76

The correct answer is B.

This question is asking about research on the serial position effect, which identified a “recency-primacy shift.” Specifically, the research has shown that, as the delay between study and recall increases, memory for the last item in a list decreases but memory for the first item increases – i.e., there is a shift from a recency effect to a primacy effect.

Answer A: This is the opposite of what the recency-primacy shift indicates, as memory for the first item in a list increases and memory for the last item in a list decreases.

Answer C: As the delay between study and recall increases, only memory for the last item decreases.

Answer D: As the delay between study and recall increases, only memory for the first item increases.

Question 77

Implosive therapy would be most useful as a treatment for which of the following?
Select one:

A.Specific Phobia

B.Major Depressive Disorder

C.Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder

D.Reactive Attachment Disorder

Answer 77

The correct answer is A.

Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation and is used to treat anxiety reactions. Knowing that implosive therapy is used to extinguish a phobic or other anxiety response would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer B: Major Depressive Disorder is most effectively treated with a combination of an antidepressant and psychotherapy (usually CBT or IPT).

Answer C: Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder is most effectively treated with sex therapy and medications.

Answer D: Reactive Attachment Disorder is usually treated with psychotherapy for the child, family therapy, and parenting education.

Question 78

When using ________ as a memory aid, a phrase or rhyme is constructed from the first letter of each word in the list of words that is to be recalled.
Select one:

A.the chunking strategy

B.the keyword method

C.an acronym

D.an acrostic

Answer 78

The correct answer is D.

An acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word or phrase that is to be remembered. For example, the acrostic “my very educated mother just sent us nachos” is used to memorize the names of the eight planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune).

Answer A: Chunking involves grouping related items of information. To remember a string of 21 numbers, for instance, you might chunk the numbers into groups of three, resulting in seven distinct units of information. Chunking is useful for maintaining information in working memory.

Answer B: The keyword method is an imagery mnemonic that is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images. As an example, to remember that the French word for church is eglise, you could form an image of a church with a giant egg outside the church doors.

Answer C: An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. For example, the acronym HOMES is used to remember the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and Superior).

Question 79

In a study on learning and memory, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of nonsense syllables (first List A, then List B) and were then asked to recall List A. Participants in the control group also learned List A but, instead of learning List B, were asked to count backward from 10 numerous times before being asked to recall List A. Results of the study indicated that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than did participants in the experimental group. These results are best explained by which of the following principles?

Select one:

A.Proactive interference

B.Retroactive interference
Correct

C.Trace decay

D.Serial position effect

Answer 79

The correct answer is B.

The purpose of the study described in this question was to investigate how subsequent experience affects prior learning. Retroactive interference occurs when subsequent (new) learning interferes with prior (old) learning. It is most likely to occur when the new and old learning are similar in terms of content. In the study described in this question, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of similar content (i.e., nonsense syllables). In contrast, participants in the control group engaged in an unrelated task after learning the list of nonsense syllables to ensure that they did not continue to rehearse the list prior to recall testing. The finding that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than participants in the experimental group is evidence that retroactive interference contributes to difficulty with the recall of the original list.

Answer A: Incorrect. Proactive interference occurs when prior (old) learning interferes with subsequent (new) learning; this is the opposite of what was observed in this study.

Answer C: Incorrect. Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time. The amount of time between learning List A and being tested on recall was the same for both the experimental and the control group, so the difference in the accuracy of recall between groups cannot be explained by this theory.

Answer D: Incorrect. The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall the first and last items in a list better than items in the middle of the list, and therefore, it does not pertain to the results of this study.

Question 80

Using a tachistoscope, a researcher flashes a rectangle containing 12 letters of the alphabet to a participant for 50 milliseconds and then asks the participant to say what he or she has just seen. Apparently, the researcher is investigating which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Flashbulb memory

B.
Recognition memory

C.
Iconic memory

D.
Echoic memory

Answer 80

The correct answer is C.

Iconic memory is a component of the visual memory system. It refers to visual sensory memory or memory of brief (<1 second) visual images (i.e., icons).

Answer A: Flashbulb memories are vivid memories of surprising, emotional events.

Answer B: Recognition memory refers to the ability to recall information from long-term memory on the basis of recognition when given appropriate cues.

Answer D: Echoic memory refers to auditory sensory memory or memory of brief exposure to auditory information.

Question 81

You are hired by an organization to develop an incentive program for salespeople. You decide to give each salesperson a bonus after every sixth sale which means that most salespeople will receive a bonus every six to eight weeks. Your incentive program represents which schedule of reinforcement?
Select one:

A.Variable interval

B.Variable ratio

C.Fixed interval

D.Fixed ratio

Answer 81

The correct answer is D.

This incentive represents a fixed ratio schedule. Do not be misled by the statement “every six to eight weeks” because it is the number of responses (i.e., number of sales), NOT the time interval, that determines when salespeople will receive a bonus. Additionally, this example represents a fixed schedule because the reward follows a consistent number of responses (i.e., after every sixth sale).

Answer A: Variable schedules of reinforcement involve unpredictable or inconsistent number of responses or amount of time that must occur in order for a reward to be given. Interval schedules of reinforcement mean that the schedule is based on the time between reinforcements, which is not the case in this example.

Answer B: An incentive program would have a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement if rewards were given after an unpredictable number of responses or sales.

Answer C: Fixed interval schedules are reinforcement schedules in which rewards for a response are given only after a specified amount of time has elapsed.

Question 82

Betsy’s parents give her a quarter each time she practices her violin and another quarter each time she completes her homework. Betsy is 9 years old. If Betsy’s parents stop paying her for completing her homework, they are most likely to find that Betsy will:
Select one:

A.spend less time doing homework and less time practicing the violin

B.spend less time doing homework but more time practicing the violin
Correct

C.spend less time doing homework but about the same amount of time practicing the violin

D.Spend about the same amount of time doing homework but more time practicing the violin

Answer 82

The correct answer is B.

In this scenario, Betsy receives reinforcement for two different behaviors, but the reinforcement for one behavior will be terminated. This question describes a “behavioral contrast,” which occurs when a change in the reinforcement schedule of one part of the reinforcement changes a behavior in the opposite direction in the other component of the schedule. In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced (i.e., the homework completion) will decrease while the behavior that continues to be reinforced (i.e., the violin playing) will increase.

Answer A: The behavior that is still being reinforced will not decrease.

Answer C: In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced (i.e., the homework completion) will decrease while the behavior that continues to be reinforced (i.e., the violin playing) will increase.

Answer D: The behavior that is no longer being reinforced will decrease.

Question 83

You witness a four-car collision on your way to work and find yourself thinking about the incident frequently during the next several weeks. Which aspect of your long-term memory is responsible for your memory of the accident?
Select one:

A.Implicit memory

B.Semantic memory

C.Episodic memory

D.Sensory memory

Answer 83

The correct answer is C.

In this situation, you are recalling a personally experienced event, which is the definition of episodic memory.

Answer A: Implicit memory is one type of long-term memory, also known as unconscious memory; it is memory that occurs automatically. Examples include typing on a computer or riding a bike.

Answer B: Semantic memory is memory for the meaning of words and concepts. For example, recalling the names of colors or the sounds of letters or other basic facts uses semantic memory.

Answer D: Sensory memory is the shortest-term type of memory. It refers to brief impressions formed by input from the senses.

Question 84

Which type of reinforcement schedule causes a behavior to be most resistant to extinction?
Select one:

A.Fixed ratio

B.Variable ratio

C.Fixed interval

D.Variable interval

Answer 84

The correct answer is B.

A variable ratio schedule produces behaviors that are most resistant to extinction because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is unpredictable.

Answer A: The acquisition of a response is rapid when using a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. However, because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is predictable, extinction happens faster for this schedule than for the variable ratio schedule.

Answer C: In the fixed interval schedule, resistance to extinction increases as the interval lengthens in time. However, the rate of extinction is faster with this schedule than with the variable ratio schedule.

Answer D: The rate of extinction with a variable interval schedule is faster than with the variable ratio schedule. Each of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement is associated with different rates of acquisition and extinction. Additional information about these schedules is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Question 85

An example of using stimulus control for the treatment of obesity is to:
Select one:

A.replace the client’s pleasurable sensations related to eating with unpleasant sensations

B.ensure that the client is consistently reinforced for appropriate eating behaviors

C.replace eating behaviors with alternative activities

D.limit the client’s exposure to events and objects that prompt overeating

Answer 85

The correct answer is D.

As its name implies, stimulus control occurs when the probability of a behavior is greater under certain environmental conditions than others. In treatment, it involves bringing a behavior under the control by focusing on or reducing exposure to specific stimuli or cues. In the behavioral treatment of obesity, stimulus control involves strengthening appropriate cues for eating while weakening inappropriate cues by, for example, having the individual eat only in certain locations and at specific times of the day that have not been previously associated with overeating.

Answer A: This response is an example of aversive conditioning.

Answer B: This is an example of positive reinforcement on a fixed ratio schedule.

Answer C: This is an example of using replacement behaviors to facilitate behavior change.

Question 86

Bandura’s social learning theory posits that:
Select one:

A.people can acquire behaviors without performing them

B.reinforcement is unnecessary for learning to occur

C.learning reflects a series of internal stimulus-response connections

D.learning is facilitated when a person is provided with adequate “social scaffolding”

Answer 86

The correct answer is A.

Bandura’s social learning theory is distinguished from behavioral theories by its recognition of the role of cognitive factors in learning. Bandura distinguished between learning and performance and proposed that people can learn (acquire) behaviors without actually performing them but by observing others perform the behavior.

Answer B: Although Bandura downplays the importance of external reinforcement, he does not entirely abandon the idea that reinforcement enhances the acquisition and performance of behaviors.

Answer C: Stimulus-Response connections are not part of Bandura’s theory.

Answer D: Scaffolding is an element of Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory of cognitive development.

Question 87

Whenever Bahir, age 5, has tantrums in his kindergarten class, his teacher removes him from all opportunities for reinforcement by having him sit in a small empty room adjacent to the classroom for five minutes. The teacher is using which of the following techniques to reduce Bahir’s tantrums?
Select one:

A.
Positive punishment

B.
Negative reinforcement

C.
Negative punishment

D.
Overcorrection

Answer 87

The correct answer is C.

Interventions based on operant conditioning aim to increase behaviors through reinforcement or decrease behaviors through punishment or extinction. Negative punishment involves taking something desirable away to reduce the occurrence of a behavior. In this case, the teacher is using a time-out to remove the child from all possible sources of positive reinforcement for a brief period whenever the unwanted behavior (i.e., tantrum) occurs to reduce its frequency.

Answer A: Positive punishment involves applying an undesirable stimulus following a behavior to decrease the occurrence of that behavior. In the situation described in the question, opportunities for reinforcement are being removed following the behavior.

Answer B: Negative reinforcement involves removing an undesirable stimulus following a behavior to increase the occurrence of that behavior.

Answer D: Overcorrection is a type of punishment that involves having an individual practice an appropriate behavior multiple times after engaging in an undesirable behavior.

Question 88

Rehm’s (1977) self-control therapy for depression focuses on which the following?
Select one:

A.
Beliefs about the self, the world, and the future

B.
Thoughts, feelings, and actions

C.
Knowledge, skills, and abilities

D.
Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Answer 88

The correct answer is D.

Rehm’s self-control therapy focuses on three aspects of self-control that contribute to depression. According to Rehm, deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement increase a person’s vulnerability to depression.

Answer A: According to Beck, depression involves the cognitive triad of a negative view of oneself, the world, and the future.

Answer B: There are a number of therapies that address thoughts, feelings, and actions in treating depression; however, this answer option is very broad and does not reflect the components of Rehm’s self-control therapy.

Answer C: Worker-oriented methods of a job analysis provide information about the knowledge, skills, and abilities that a worker needs to perform a job successfully.

Question 89

A functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is conducted to identify _______ variables or behaviors.
Select one:

A.
undesirable

B.
moderator

C.
dependent

D.
organismic

Answer 89

The correct answer is A.

A functional behavioral assessment is conducted to identify the factors that are maintaining or controlling an undesirable behavior and identify a more desirable substitute behavior that serves the same purpose.

Answer B: FBA is used to identify the factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those factors can be altered. A moderator is a variable that changes the strength or direction of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

Answer C: A dependent variable is a variable that changes in response to changes in the independent variable; in an FBA, the dependent variable may be the undesirable target behavior.

Answer D: Organismic variables are internal forces that cause animals to engage in behavior appropriate to their species (e.g., birds to fly).

Question 90

Whenever four-year-old William whines, his parents try to ignore him. Occasionally, however, William’s mother or father picks him up when he whines. As a result, William’s whining has increased. The increase in William’s whining is due to which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Differential reinforcement

B.
Response generalization

C.
Intermittent reinforcement

D.
Response discrimination

Answer 90

The correct answer is C.

William’s parents are reinforcing the boy’s whining on an intermittent schedule (i.e., not every time), which is producing an increase in his behavior.

Answer A: Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing a specific behavior while withholding reinforcement for other behaviors. Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors can be used to decrease a target behavior by reinforcing a behavior for which the target behavior cannot be completed simultaneously, but that is not what is occurring in this example.

Answer B: Response generalization occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) produces responses similar to the conditioned response (CR) or when a learned behavior is demonstrated in a novel way (i.e., in response to new conditions).

Answer D: Response discrimination is the opposite of response generalization and occurs when the individual responds to the CS only with a specific response (the original CR).

Question 91

Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) as a technique for reducing performance anxiety related to sexual intercourse. If viewed as a behavioral technique, sensate focus is best described as a form of:
Select one:

A.
classical extinction

B.
operant extinction

C.
counterconditioning

D.
covert sensitization

Answer 91

The correct answer is C.

Counterconditioning is based on the principles of classical conditioning and involves pairing two incompatible responses in order to eliminate one of the responses. In sensate focus, pleasurable sensations are paired with performance anxiety in order to reduce the latter.

Answer A: Classical extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without the unconditioned stimulus, and as a result, they are no longer associated with one another and the conditioned response ceases to occur.

Answer B: Operant extinction occurs when reinforcement is no longer provided in response to a specific behavior; as a result, the target behavior eventually stops.

Answer D: Covert sensitization occurs when the client imagines engaging in the maladaptive behavior and then imagines (rather than actually confronts) an aversive stimulus.

Question 92

“If a child’s whining and crying secures his parents’ attention, the child is likely to whine and cry again.” Which of the following individuals is most likely to agree with this statement?
Select one:

A.
Bandura

B.
Ebbinghaus

C.
Watson

D.
Thorndike

Answer 92

The correct answer is D.

The statement in this question asserts that a behavior followed by a positive (satisfying) consequence will increase in frequency. This is a type of operant conditioning referred to as positive reinforcement. The first name that may have come to mind when you read this question was Skinner. Thorndike was a predecessor of Skinner and proposed the law of effect, which predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences will tend to occur again.

Answer A: Although Bandura recognizes the role of reinforcement in the acquisition and performance of behavior, his social learning theory proposes that people can acquire behaviors simply by observing others perform those behaviors. In addition, Bandura places more emphasis on the role of internal (versus external) reinforcement.

Answer B: Ebbinghaus is associated with research on memory and forgetting.

Answer C: Watson is associated with classical conditioning, not operant conditioning.

Question 93

Within the Pavlovian paradigm, experimental neurosis is the result of:
Select one:

A.
unavoidable aversive stimuli

B.
difficult discriminations

C.
accidental conditioning

D.
higher order conditioning

Answer 93

The correct answer is B.

Experimental neurosis is an abnormal behavior condition (e.g., erratic behavior mimicking a mental disorder) displayed in laboratory settings when the scenario is difficult or impossible. It was exhibited by dogs in Pavlov’s research when they were presented with stimuli very similar to the original conditioned stimulus; the normally docile animals became very agitated.

Answer A: Unavoidable aversive stimuli (i.e., exposure to negative stimuli that one cannot avoid or control) is a term related to the process by which learned helplessness is developed.

Answer C: Accidental conditioning refers to the unintentional pairing of a CS and unconditioned stimulus that results in a conditioned response.

Answer D: Higher order conditioning occurs when a stimulus that was previously neutral is paired with the conditioned stimulus and then produces the same conditioned response.

Question 94

Which of the following best describes “backward conditioning?”
Select one:

A.
It involves presentation of the unconditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the conditioned stimulus and is rarely effective.

B.
It involves presentation of the unconditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the conditioned stimulus and is very effective when the stimuli are similar in kind.

C.
It involves presentation of the conditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the unconditioned stimulus and is effective only when the two stimuli occur naturally in that order.

D.
It involves presentation of the reinforcer prior to the target behavior and is effective only when the reinforcer is highly desirable.

Answer 94

The correct answer is A.

The term backward conditioning is associated with classical conditioning and involves presenting the US (unconditioned stimulus) prior to the CS (conditioned stimulus). To effectively establish a CR (conditioned response), the CS must be presented before or at the same time as the US.

Answer B: Presenting the US prior to the CS is not an effective strategy for conditioning even when the stimuli are similar.

Answer C: Presenting the CS before the US is the order of presentation for classical conditioning.

Answer D: Backward conditioning is a classical conditioning term and unrelated to positive reinforcement.

Question 95

To maximize the effectiveness of overcorrection, its restitution and positive practice phases are often combined with:
Select one:

A.
differential reinforcement

B.
activity scheduling

C.
physical guidance

D.
stimulus control

Answer 95

The correct answer is C.

To ensure that the person actually performs the behaviors required during the restitution and positive practice phases of overcorrection, “extra help” is sometimes needed. It may be necessary to physically guide the person through the behaviors required during restitution and/or positive practice when the person is resistant to perform them on his/her own. Because physical guidance may be necessary, overcorrection is contraindicated for children who have experienced abuse or who are more physically powerful than the person administering the treatment.

Answer A: Differential reinforcement is an operant technique that combines positive reinforcement and extinction. Overcorrection is also an operant technique but is a form of positive punishment.

Answer B: Beck’s Cognitive Therapy (CT) may utilize activity scheduling as a behavioral intervention.

Answer D: Behavior is said to be under stimulus control when its performance is contingent on the presence of certain stimuli, and it is considered a self-management procedure. Overcorrection is not a self-management procedure.