Abnormal Psychology

Question 1

According to the catecholamine hypothesis:
Select one:

a.mania is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

b.depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

c.mania is due to excessive acetylcholine.

d.depression is due to excessive acetylcholine.

Answer 1

Answer B is correct: According to the catecholamine hypothesis, at least some types of depression are due to a lower-than-normal level of norepinephrine.
Answer A is incorrect: The catecholamine hypothesis predicts that mania is due to excessive norepinephrine.

The correct answer is: depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

Question 2

A diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder should not be assigned for the first time before the individual is _____ years of age or older than _____ years of age.
Select one:

a.three; fifteen

b.five; sixteen

c.six; eighteen

d.ten; eighteen

Answer 2

As described in the DSM-5, the diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder must not be assigned for the first time when the individual is less than six years of age or more than 18 years of age, and the onset of symptoms must be prior to age 10.

The correct answer is: six; eighteen

Question 3

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of approximately _____ months.
Select one:

a.two

b.six

c.ten

d.twelve

Answer 3

The DSM-5 requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of about six months for all of the Sexual Dysfunctions except Substance or Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction for which no minimum duration is specified.

The correct answer is: six

Question 4

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or cause significant disruption in daily life plus:
Select one:

a.evidence that symptoms are not associated with a known medical condition.

b.performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care.

c.evidence that symptoms are not being feigned or voluntarily produced.

d.excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Answer 4

Answer D is correct: Criterion B for the DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires the presence of “excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms or associated health concerns” (APA, 2013, p. 311).

Answer A is incorrect: For the diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder, symptoms may or may not be associated with a medical condition.

Answer B is inccorect: Performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care is a diagnostic criterion for Illness Anxiety Disorder.

Answer C is incorrect: Evidence that symptoms are not being intentionally produced or feigned is not required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder.
The correct answer is: excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Question 5

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder requires that the individual’s academic skills be substantially below those expected for his or her:
Select one:

a.chronological age.

b.mental age.

c.measured intelligence.

d.academic aptitude.

Answer 5

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder requires the individual’s academic skills to be “substantially and quantifiably below those expected for the individual’s chronological age” (APA, 2013, p. 67).

The correct answer is: chronological age.

Question 6

A DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires a history of symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to ___ years of age.
Select one:

a.7

b.10

c.13

d.15

Answer 6

Answer D is correct: As defined in the DSM, a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires that the person be at least 18 years of age, that there is evidence of Conduct Disorder prior to age 15, and that the person has exhibited at least three characteristic symptoms involving the violation of the rights of others since the age of 15.

The correct answer is: 15

Question 7

A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
Select one:

a.one or more manic episodes

b.one or more mixed episodes

c.manic and major depressive episodes

d.hypomanic and major depressive episodes

Answer 7

Answer D is correct:
A diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode.
The correct answer is: hypomanic and major depressive episodes

Question 8

As defined by the DSM, a diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) requires which of the following?
Select one:

a.an onset of symptoms prior to 4 years of age

b.a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months

c.markedly impaired academic performance

d.negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior

Answer 8

Answer B is correct: Of the diagnostic criteria listed in the answers, a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months is the only one required by the DSM-5 for a diagnosis of ADHD.

The correct answer is: a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months

Question 9

As described in the DSM-5, a manic episode involves a period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood plus:
Select one:

a.inflated self-esteem or grandiosity.

b.persistently increased activity or energy.

c.involvement in activities that have a high potential for negative consequences.

d.anxious distress.

Answer 9

Answer B is correct: Criterion A for both manic and hypomanic episodes in the DSM-5 includes “an emphasis on changes in activity and energy as well as mood” (2013, p. 4). Therefore, this is the best answer of those given.

Answers A and C are incorrect: Inflated self-esteem and grandiosity and persistent involvement in activities that have a high potential for painful consequences are possible symptoms of a manic episode but are not required.

Answer D is incorrect: Anxious distress is a possible accompanying symptom of Bipolar I Disorder and “with anxious distress” is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for this disorder.
The correct answer is: persistently increased activity or energy.

Question 10

Children with Tourette’s Disorder frequently exhibit significant problems in learning. This is most likely attributable to:
Select one:

a.language disabilities.

b.attention deficits and hyperactivity.

c.lower-than-average IQ.

d.peer and other social problems.

Answer 10

Answer B is correct: Hyperactivity, distractibility, and impulsivity are fairly common in individuals with Tourette’s Disorder and have been identified as a cause of school problems.

Answer A: Language disabilities are not associated with Tourette’s Disorder.

Answer C: A lower-than-average IQ is not characteristic of Tourette’s Disorder.

Answer D: Although impairments in social functioning are common, they have not been identified as a cause of academic failures.

The correct answer is: attention deficits and hyperactivity.

Question 11

Dalal D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Assuming that her symptoms started suddenly three months ago and that she has no previous history of similar symptoms, your tentative diagnosis would be which of the following?
Select one:

a.Schizophrenia

b.Brief Psychotic Disorder

c.Schizoaffective Disorder

d.Schizophreniform Disorder

Answer 11

Answer D is Correct: The disorders listed in the answers to this question share several characteristics but also differ in terms of duration and/or certain key symptoms. Dalal’s symptoms and their duration are most suggestive of Schizophreniform Disorder.
Answer A is incorrect: Although Dalal’s symptoms suggest Schizophrenia, they do not meet the DSM requirement of a duration of least 6 months for a diagnosis of this disorder.
Answer B is incorrect: The duration of Brief Psychotic Disorder is from one day to one month.
Answer C is incorrect: For a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder, mood symptoms must co-occur with psychotic symptoms except during a period of at least two weeks in which delusions or hallucinations are present without prominent mood symptoms.

The correct answer is: Schizophreniform Disorder

Question 12

Drugs that interfere with the breakdown of __________ are used to treat memory loss and other cognitive problems in individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease.
Select one:

a.norepinephrine

b.cortisol

c.acetylcholine

d.dopamine

Answer 12

Answer C is correct: Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, tacrine) are used to temporarily improve or slow the progression of memory loss and other cognitive impairments during the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. These drugs prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is important for learning, memory, and other cognitive functions.

The correct answer is: acetylcholine

Question 13

Ethel E., age 36, has just been offered a promotion at work. Although she wants the increase in salary and prestige of the new position, she is planning to turn down the job because it will require extensive speaking in front of large groups of employees. Ethel has avoided situations that require her to speak to groups for as long as she can remember because public speaking is a very embarrassing experience for her. Whenever she has to speak in front of others, she is extremely anxious, her heart races and her palms become sweaty, and she becomes preoccupied with the concern that she will forget what she has planned to say. Ethel’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following disorders?
Select one:

a.Panic Disorder

b.Social Anxiety Disorder

c.Avoidant Personality Disorder

d.Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

Answer 13

Answer B is correct: Of the disorders listed, Ethel’s symptoms come closest to those required for a DSM diagnosis of Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia). She has an intense fear of a specific social situation (public speaking) because it exposes her to scrutiny by others. Consequently, she avoids the situation.

Answer A is incorrect: The diagnosis of Panic Disorder requires recurrent unexpected panic attacks. Although Ethel’s symptoms are consistent with panic attacks, they are linked to a specific situation and are not unexpected.

Answers C and D are incorrect: Ethel’s symptoms are not characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder or Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.

The correct answer is: Social Anxiety Disorder

Question 14

Following cessation of alcohol use that has been prolonged and heavy, a 45-year old woman exhibits a number of symptoms including autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and nausea. A diagnosis of Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium would be a more appropriate diagnosis than Alcohol Withdrawal if the woman also exhibits:
Select one:

a.psychomotor agitation.

b.tonic-clonic seizures.

c.impaired attention and awareness.

d.tardive dyskinesia.

Answer 14

Answer C is correct: The key to identifying the correct answer to this question is to know that disturbances in attention and awareness are essential features of Delirium.

Answer A is incorrect: Psychomotor agitation is characteristic of Alcohol Withdrawal.

Answer B is incorrect: In extreme cases, Alcohol Withdrawal can involve tonic-clonic seizures.

Answer D is incorrect: Tardive dyskinesia is not a symptom of Delirium.

The correct answer is: impaired attention and awareness.

Question 15

For children and adolescents, a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least:
Select one:

a.six months.

b.twelve months.

c.twenty-four months.

d.thirty-six months.

Answer 15

Answer B is correct: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by a disturbance of mood involving hypomanic episodes and periods of depressed mood for an extended period of time. A DSM diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.
The correct answer is: twelve months.

Question 16

In prepubertal children, boys and girls are about equally affected by Major Depressive Disorder. In adolescents and adults:
Select one:

a.the rates for males and females remain about equal.

b.the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.

c.the rate for females is about 4 to 5 times the rate for males.

d.the rate for males is 2 to 3 times the rate for females.
Feedback

Answer 16

Answer B is correct: According to the DSM-5, beginning in early adolescence, the rate of Major Depressive Disorder for females is 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
The correct answer is: the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.

Question 17

Interoceptive conditioning is one of the components of the cognitive-behavioral treatment of Panic Disorder and may include which of the following strategies?
Select one:

a.yelling ‚”stop” whenever an undesirable thought occurs

b.maintaining a “panic diary”

c.focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy

d.breathing through a thin straw

Answer 17

Answer D is correct: Interoceptive conditioning has been identified as an effective component of cognitive-behavioral therapy for Panic Disorder and involves having the individual engage in activities that produce physical sensations associated with a panic attack such as breathing through a thin straw, spinning in a swivel chair, and running in place.

The correct answer is: breathing through a thin straw

Question 18

In the DSM-5, sleep terror is included:
Select one:

a.with the Sleep-Wake Disorders as a separate diagnosis.

b.as a type of Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder.

c.as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.

d.as a specifier for Nightmare Disorder.
Feedback

Answer 18

Answer C is correct: In the DSM-5, sleep terror is a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder. (The other type is sleepwalking.)
The correct answer is: as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.

Question 19

Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe which of the following as the result of an “overlearned habit pattern”?
Select one:

a.parasuicidal behavior

b.substance addiction

c.hypochondriasis

d.paraphilias

Answer 19

Answer B is correct: Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe addictions as the result of problematic learned habits or behaviors that have been acquired because they produce immediate gratification (reinforcement).

The correct answer is: substance addiction

Question 20

Research has linked Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder to overactivity in which of the following?
Select one:

a.caudate nucleus

b.hippocampus

c.suprachiasmatic nucleus

d.medulla oblongata

Answer 20

Answer A is correct: Research using brain imaging techniques has found that the caudate nucleus (which is involved in the initiation and control of movement) tends to be overactive in individuals with OCD. The studies have also found that the reduction of obsessions and compulsions following treatment with cognitive-behavioral therapy or an SSRI is accompanied by a decrease in activity in the caudate nucleus.

The correct answer is: caudate nucleus

Question 21

Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:
Select one:

a.Paranoid Schizophrenia.

b.Acute Stress Disorder.

c.Conversion Disorder.

d.Delusional Disorder.

Answer 21

Answer D is correct: Rosita’s delusions are consistent with Delusional Disorder because they are continuing despite a lack of evidence and because the effects of the delusions on her functioning are circumscribed (affect only those aspects of functioning that are directly related to the delusion).

Answer A is incorrect: Paranoid Schizophrenia is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

Answer B is incorrect: A diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation in at least one of four ways and the presence of at least nine symptoms from any of five categories (i.e., intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms).

Answer C is incorrect: A diagnosis of Conversion Disorder requires a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g., paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensation) with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.

The correct answer is: Delusional Disorder.

Question 22

ensate focus is based on the assumption that sexual dysfunction is often due to:
Select one:

a.mistaken beliefs about sexuality.

b.decreased libido.

c.intrapsychic conflicts related to sexuality.

d.performance anxiety.

Answer 22

Answer D is correct: Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) and consists of a series of exercises designed to help a couple overcome anxiety related to intimacy and sexual intercourse by focusing on pleasurable sensations. It has been found useful for treating premature ejaculation and other sexual dysfunctions that are due to performance anxiety.
Answer A is incorrect: Masters and Johnson recognized the impact of misinformation and mistaken beliefs on sexual functioning, but these are not the targets of sensate focus.
Answer B is incorrect: Decreased libido could, of course, be caused by performance anxiety; but sensate focus is not based on the assumption that sexual dysfunction is often due to decreased libido.
Answer C is incorrect: Masters and Johnson did not view sexual dysfunction as a result of intrapsychic conflicts.

The correct answer is: performance anxiety.

Question 23

Question ID:24719 The assumption underlying dialectical behavior therapy (Linehan, 1993) as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder is that this disorder is caused by:
Select one:

a.pervasive emotion dysregulation.

b.dysfunctional object relations.

c.coercive family interactions.

d.a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.

Answer 23

Answer A is correct: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) was originally developed by Linehan (1993) as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder but has since been applied to several other disorders including eating disorders, ADHD in adults, and depression in older adults. According to Linehan, Borderline Personality Disorder is the result of a combination of emotion dysregulation, emotional vulnerability, and an invalidating environment.

Answer B is incorrect: DBT relies primarily on cognitive-behavioral principles and does not consider Borderline Personality Disorder to be the result of dysfunctional object relations.
Answer C is incorrect: Coercive family interactions have been linked to aggressive behavior in children by Patterson (1992).
Answer D is incorrect: Some behavioral models of depression describe it as the result of a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.

The correct answer is: pervasive emotion dysregulation.

Question 24

The differential diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (pseudodementia) and mild Neurocognitive Disorder in older adults can be difficult because of the overlap in cognitive symptoms. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that Major Depressive Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis?
Select one:

a.The onset of the patient’s cognitive symptoms was insidious.

b.The severity of the patient’s cognitive symptoms increases in the evening.

c.The patient seems unaware of his or her cognitive deficits.

d.The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.

Answer 24

Answer D is correct: A lack of cooperation during testing is more characteristic of patients with depression than of those with a Neurocognitive Disorder who tend to be cooperative but inaccurate in their responses.

Answer A is incorrect: In Major Depressive Disorder, symptom onset is usually sudden; but, in mild Neurocognitive Disorder, it is typically insidious (gradual and subtle).

Answer B is incorrect: Increased severity of symptoms in the evening is characteristic of some forms of Neurocognitive Disorder but is uncommon in Major Depressive Disorder.

Answer C is incorrect: A patient with Major Depressive Disorder is likely to complain about and exaggerate his/her cognitive problems, while a patient with a Neurocognitive Disorder often denies problems in the early stage of the disorder and is unaware of them in the later stages.

The correct answer is: The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.

Question 25

The most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
Select one:

a.exposure therapy with response prevention.

b.stress management with relaxation training.

c.covert sensitization.

d.stress inoculation training.

Answer 25

Answer A is correct: Exposing the individual to anxiety-arousing stimuli while prohibiting him or her from engaging in usual anxiety-reducing responses (rituals) is considered to be treatment-of-choice for OCD.

The correct answer is: exposure therapy with response prevention.

Question 26

The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:
Select one:

a.does not have delays in motor development.

b.displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.

c.has one or more “savant” abilities.

d.does not have a family history of a mental disorder.

Answer 26

Answer B is correct: Most individuals with autism continue to have significant impairments throughout their lives. However, a better prognosis has been linked to the ability to communicate verbally by age five or six, an IQ of 70 or above, and a later onset of symptoms.

The correct answer is: displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.

Question 27

The prognosis for Schizophrenia has been linked to several factors. Which of the following is NOT associated with a better prognosis?
Select one:

a.an acute and late onset of the disorder

b.the presence of a precipitating event

c.a family history of a mood disorder

d.male gender

Answer 27

Answer D is correct: The course of Schizophrenia varies from individual to individual, but the disorder is usually chronic and complete remission is rare. However, research has identified several factors that are associated with a better prognosis including female gender, an acute and late onset of symptoms, the presence of a precipitating event, and a family history of a mood disorder.

The correct answer is: male gender

Question 28

The revised learned helplessness model proposed by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989) identifies ___________ as the key contributor to depression.
Select one:

a.a high rate of self-punishment

b.emotional oversensitivity

c.the ‚ “depressive cognitive triad”

d.hopelessness

Answer 28

Answer D is correct: According to Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) version of the learned helplessness model, a sense of hopelessness is a proximal cause of some types of depression. From this perspective, the attributions a person makes about negative events in his/her life contribute to depression only to the degree that they foster a sense of hopelessness.
Answer A is incorrect: A high rate of self-punishment has been identified by Rehm (1987) as a contributor to depression.
Answer B is incorrect: Emotional oversensitivity is not a component of the learned helplessness model of depression.
Answer C is incorrect: Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory views depression as involving a “depressive cognitive triad” that consists of negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future.
The correct answer is: hopelessness

Question 29

The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are categorized in three groups in the DSM-5. These groups are:
Select one:

a.destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.

b.negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.

c.deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.

d.angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

Answer 29

Answer D is correct: Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness are the three categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Oppositional Defiant Disorder.

Answer A is incorrect: These are three of the four categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Conduct Disorder (the fourth is aggression to people and animals).

The correct answer is: angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.